exam review #1 - Iowa State University

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Practice Exam 1
Digestive & Respiratory Systems
Supplemental Instruction
Iowa State University
Leader:
Course:
Instructor:
Date:
Blake
AnS 214
Dr. Selsby
9/16/15
1. Which of the following is not an accessory organ of the digestive system?
a. Salivary glands
b. Teeth
c. Tongue
d. Intestines
2. The major site for nutrient absorption is the _____.
a. Mouth
b. Small intestine
c. Large intestine
d. Stomach
3. Saliva contains enzymes that break down proteins.
a. True
b. False
4. Which of the following is not a function of the stomach?
a. The stomach mechanically digests food.
b. The stomach chemically digests carbohydrates.
c. The stomach serves as a temporary holding area for ingested food.
d. The stomach produces intrinsic factor.
5. The phases of gastric secretion from first to last are:
a. Gastric phase, cephalic phase, intestinal phase.
b. Intestinal phase, gastric phase cephalic phase.
c. Cephalic phase, gastric phase, intestinal phase.
d. Cephalic phase, intestinal phase, gastric phase.
6. The increased concentration of HCO3- in blood draining from the stomach is called ______.
a. Bicarbonate loading.
b. The alkaline tide.
c. The chloride shift.
d. The enterogastric reflex
7. The _______ is the first segment of the small intestine.
a. Ileum
b. Duodenum
c. Ilium
d. Jejunum
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8. Digestion of carbohydrates and proteins by brush border enzymes occurs within the ______ of the
small intestine.
a. Villi
b. Microvilli
c. Circular folds
d. Goblet cells
9. Bile is stored and concentrated in the ______.
a. Gallbladder
b. Stomach
c. Liver
d. Pancreas
10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the liver?
a. It has a role in detoxifying the blood.
b. It stores glucose.
c. It has 3 lobes.
d. It produces bile.
11. ______ is not found in pancreatic secretions.
a. Bicarbonate
b. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
c. Procarboxypeptidase
d. Chymotrypsinogen
12. Most water is absorbed in the ________.
a. Small intestine
b. Liver
c. Stomach
d. Large intestine
13. Pepsin enzymatically digests _____.
a. Fat
b. Protein
c. Carbohydrate
d. Nucleic acids
14. In order to prevent self-digestion of the pancreas, activation of pancreatic proteases occurs in the:
a. Duodenum
b. Pancreas
c. Stomach
d. Gallbladder
15. During the intestinal phase of gastric regulation:
a. Hormones reduce chief cell activity.
b. Secretin causes more HCl release.
c. The gastroeneteric reflex reduces stomach activity.
d. The stomach is initially stimulated and later inhibited.
16. What is the main organic molecule digested in the stomach?
a. Proteins
b. Lipids
c. Carbohydrates
d. Nucleic acids
17. The propulsive function that occurs in the esophagus is called:
a. Segmentation
b. Peristalsis
c. Ingestion
d. Swallowing
18. Which of the two following molecules form carbonic acid?
a. H2O, Clb. Cl-, H+
c. HCO3 , CO2
d. CO2 , H2O
19. Which regulatory chemical stimulates gastric gland activity and motility?
a. Gastrin
b. Secretin
c. Histamine
d. CCK
20. What would be the effect of stripping the small intestines of their villi?
a. Greater absorption of nutrients would occur.
b. Decreased surface area for absorption.
c. A duodenal ulcer
d. The large intestine would take over as the primary absorptive site.
21. Which of the following products does the stomach produce?
a. Bile and trypsin
b. HCl and intrinsic factor
c. Pepsinogen and secretin
d. Mucous and amylase
22. The final product of carbohydrate digestion is:
a. Glycogen
b. Polysaccharides
c. Monosaccharides
d. Disaccharides
23. Which of the following cells produce HCl?
a. Parietal cells
b. G cells
c. Chief cells
d. Enteroendocrine cells
24. Which of the following cells produce pepsinogen?
a. G cells
b. Enteroendocrine cells
c. Parietal cells
d. Chief cells
25. Sympathetic stimulation speeds up digestive function.
a. True
b. False
26. The _________ phase of gastric secretion is considered a conditioned reflex.
a. Intestinal
b. Cephalic
c. Esophageal
d. Gastric
27. The arrival of chyme containing a mixture of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins into the duodenum
over a period of time would cause:
a. an increase in secretin release from the duodenum.
b. diminished gallbladder contractions.
c. a decrease in bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas.
d. a parasympathetic reflex which would promote gastric contractions.
28. Trypsinogen is activated to trypsin by this brush border enzyme:
a. Maltase
b. Enterokinase
c. Aminopeptidase
d. Procarboxypeptidase
29. This nerve is said to drive digestive function:
a. Vagus
b. Enteric
c. Gastric
d. Duodenal
30. The functions of the liver include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. produce bile.
b. storing glucose as glycogen.
c. producing vitamins A, C and K.
d. degrading toxins and drugs from the blood.
31. Parasympathetic stimulation of the gastrointestinal tract will maintain normal peristalsis and
gastric secretions.
a. True
b. False
32. Monogastric salivary glands produce all of the following EXCEPT:
a. mucin
b. salivary pepsin
c. saliva
d. Bicarbonate
e. salivary amylase
33. All of the following are functions of cholecystokinin (CCK) EXCEPT:
a. stimulates gallbladder contraction
b. promotes secretion of pancreatic enzymes
c. increases gastric HCl production
d. induces the movement of bile into common bile duct
e. causes hepatopancreatic sphincter to relax
34. Which of the following utilizes mechanical digestion?
a. salivary glands
b. liver
c. pancreas
d. stomach
35. When the salivatory nuclei in the brainstem receive neural input from touch and taste receptors
in the mouth, salivation is increased.
a. True
b. False
36. Parietal cells use the enzyme carbonic anhydrase to cleave H+ ions from carbonic acid.
a. True
b. False
37. Air moves into the lungs because:
a. The volume of the lungs decreases with inspiration.
b. Contraction of the diaphragm decreases the volume of the pleural cavity.
c. The gas pressure in the lungs becomes lower than the outside pressure as the diaphragm
contracts.
d. The thorax is muscular.
38. Alveolar ventilation rate is:
a. The utilization rate of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism.
b. Movement of dissolved gases from the blood into the alveoli.
c. The movement of air into and out of the alveoli during a particular time.
d. The movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
39. In the alveoli, the partial pressure of oxygen is
a. Much higher than PO2 of arterial blood.
b. Lower than the PO2 of the venous blood.
c. About 104 mmHg.
d. Equal to that in the tissues.
40. Which respiratory measurement is normally the greatest?
a. Expiratory reserve volume
b. Vital capacity
c. Tidal volume
d. Inspiratory volume
41. Which of the following is NOT a function of the conducting zone?
a. Warming of air
b. Transport of air
c. Cleansing of air
d. Gas exchange
42. Anatomic dead space plus the nonfunctional alveolar space equals the physiologic dead space.
a. True
b. False
43. All of the following factors will cause the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to be lower
EXCEPT:
a. lower pH
b. rising body temperature
c. lower pO2 in tissues
d. elevated 2,3-diphosphoglyceric acid levels
e. lower carbon dioxide concentrations
44. Which of the following is not found in the lungs mammals?
a. Surfactant
b. Microvilli
c. Macrophages
d. Alveoli
45. Which of the following are not contained in the respiratory zone?
a. Alveoli
b. respiratory bronchioles
c. all of the above are parts of the respiratory zone
d. none of the above are correct
46. All of the following are functions of the upper respiratory system except
a. oxygenation of blood
b. trapping of pollutants
c. saturation of air with H2O
d. secretion of mucus
e. all of the above are correct
47. Which of the following terms is incorrectly matched to its descriptor?
a. tidal volume - volume of air moving in & out during breathing times respiration rate
b. vital capacity - maximum volume of air inspired after maximum expiration
c. dead space – inspired air that never contributes to gas exchange
d. all of the above are correct
48. Bob has a normal respiration rate of 10 breaths/min. His normal tidal volume is 750mL, and the
amount of anatomical dead space is 150mL. When the first AnS 214 exam rolls around, Bob sees
his exam and begins to hyperventilate. His respiration rate jumps up to 40 breaths/min, and tidal
volume increases to 2150mL. What was the increase in Bob's alveolar ventilation rate (in
mL/min)?
a. 74,000
b. 80,000
c. 980
d. 80
e. 74
49. Boyle's law
a. delineates the direct relationship between volume and pressure
b. states that the total pressure of a mixed gas is the sum of the partial pressures of its
constituents
c. explains why inspiration and expiration are possible
d. explains why it is difficult to make soup at high altitude
e. a and c are correct
50. Inspiration requires all of the following, except
a. contraction of the diaphragm
b. rise in thoracic volume
c. rise in intrapulmonary pressure
d. flow of air down is pressure gradient
e. all of the following are required for inspiration
51. Expired air consists mostly of
a. CO2
b. O2
c. Bicarbonate
d. N2
e. H2O
52. According to the hemoglobin saturation curve discussed in class
a. hemoglobin affinity for O2 drops at increasing PO2
b. hemoglobin saturation follows a hyperbolic relationship with respect to PO2
c. nearly all carried O2 is released at regular PO2 of the tissues
d. alveolar PO2 is 60 mmHg higher than that of the tissues
e. none of the above are correct
53. The diaphragm is composed of smooth muscle.
a. True
b. False
54. Dalton’s Law
a. That each gas in a mixture of gases exerts pressure in proportion to its percentage in the
total mixture
b. Explains why it is difficult to make soup at high altitude
c. That the amount of gas that will dissolve in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure
of the gas.
d. All of the above
55. Henry’s Law
a. That each gas in a mixture of gases exerts pressure in proportion to its percentage in the
total mixture
b. Explains why it is difficult to make soup at high altitude
c. That the amount of gas that will dissolve in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure
of the gas.
d. All of the above
56. Hemoglobin is composed of what element?
a. Copper
b. Zinc
c. Selenium
d. Iron
57. What is the maximum number of oxygen molecules hemoglobin can bind?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
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