Cell Division Review

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AP Biology
Cell Division Review
Name ___________________________
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
1. The phase of cell division during which the chromatids are pulled apart and move to the opposite ends of the cell
is:
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
2. The correct order of phases of the cell cycle is:
a. prophase, interphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
b. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
c. metaphase, anaphase, prophase, telophase
d. telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase
e. interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
3. DNA replication takes place during:
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
4. The events of prophase seem to be opposite of those that occur during:
a. metaphase
b. interphase
c. telophase
d. anaphase
e. cytokinesis
5. A cancer drug interferes with the development of mitotic spindle fibers during cell division. Which phase is
directly affected:
a. prophase
b. telophase
c. anaphase
d. metaphase
e. interphase
6. Which of the following cells is produced by a type of division different from the other cells listed?
a. egg cells
b. muscle cells
c. nerve cells
d. skin cells
7. Prokaryotic fission occurs in
a. fungi.
b. red and brown algae.
c. bacteria.
d. insects.
8. The longest phase of the cell cycle is usually
a. interphase.
b. metaphase.
c. telophase.
d. anaphase.
1
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
9. The nuclear envelope first begins to break up during
a. prophase.
b. metaphase.
c. telophase.
d. anaphase.
10. G1, G2, and S are the three stages of
a. telophase.
b. interphase.
c. metaphase.
d. anaphase.
11. The chromosomes are aligned at the spindle equator during
a. metaphase.
b. interphase.
c. anaphase.
d. telophase.
12. The constricted area of a chromosome where spindle microtubules dock is the
a. spindle pole.
b. centriole.
c. centromere.
d. nucleosome.
13. Which of the follow is correct?
a. DNA is synthesized throughout the cell cycle.
b. Once a cell begins the cell cycle it always completes the cycle without stopping.
c. The cell cycle stops only when a cell dies.
d. The cell cycle proceeds at different speeds in different cell types.
14. The attachment between the two sister chromatids breaks during
a. telophase.
b. metaphase.
c. interphase.
d. anaphase.
15. The chromosomes are replicated during
a. prophase.
b. metaphase.
c. interphase.
d. anaphase.
16. At metaphase, the chromosomes are
a. at their most tightly condensed.
b. aligned at the spindle equator.
c. attached to spindle microtubules.
d. all of the choices.
17. In plants, cytoplasmic division occurs by
a. cell plate formation.
b. prokaryotic fission.
c. cleavage.
d. none of the choices.
____ 18. After mitosis in a diploid organism, each daughter nucleus has
a. the haploid number of chromosomes.
b. half the number of chromosomes in the parent nucleus.
c. twice the number of chromosomes in the parent nucleus.
d. the same number of chromosomes as the parent nucleus.
2
____ 19. Chromosomes begin to condense during
a. prophase.
b. anaphase.
c. G1 of interphase.
d. metaphase.
____ 20. Asexual reproduction
a. requires only one parent.
b. creates unique combinations of traits.
c. occurs only in single-celled organisms.
d. none of the choices.
____ 21. In an organism with a diploid chromosome number of 36, the chromosome number in gametes will be
a. 18.
b. 36.
c. 72.
d. none of the choices.
____ 22. Crossing over occurs during
a. anaphase II.
b. metaphase II.
c. telophase I.
d. prophase I.
____ 23. In humans, each diploid oocyte gives rise to
a. four ova.
b. four sperm.
c. four polar bodies.
d. one ovum and three polar bodies.
____ 24. In plants, a zygote develops into a
a. sporophyte.
b. gamete.
c. spore.
d. gametophyte.
____ 25. Copies of chromosomes are created during
a. prophase I.
b. anaphase II.
c. telophase I.
d. none of the choices.
____ 26. At the completion of telophase I, each cell has
a. a diploid number of duplicated chromosomes.
b. a diploid number of unduplicated chromosomes.
c. a haploid number of duplicated chromosomes.
d. a haploid number of unduplicated chromosomes.
____ 27. At the completion of prophase II, each cell has
a. a diploid number of duplicated chromosomes.
b. a diploid number of unduplicated chromosomes.
c. a haploid number of duplicated chromosomes.
d. a haploid number of unduplicated chromosomes.
____ 28. Sister chromatids are separated during
a. anaphase I.
b. prophase I.
c. anaphase II.
d. interphase.
3
____ 29. A kidney cell in a human male will contain _______ pairs of homologous chromosomes.
a. 18
b. 23
c. 36
d. 48
____ 30. During crossing over, _______ undergo breakage and exchange segments.
a. sister chromatids
b. nonhomologous chromosomes
c. nonsister chromatids of a homologous pair
d. all of the choices.
____ 31. If a diploid organism has three different chromosomes (n = 3), it can produce ________ different combinations of
maternal and paternal chromosomes as a result of random alignment.
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
____ 32. Paired homologous chromosomes are found at the spindle equator during
a. anaphase II.
b. prophase I.
c. metaphase I.
d. interphase.
____ 33. What is the role of polar bodies?
a. They produce spores.
b. They nourish the developing sperm.
c. They nourish the developing egg.
d. None of the choices.
____ 34. The chromosome number of a human sperm cell is
a. half that of an ovum.
b. twice that of a kidney cell.
c. twice that of an ovum.
d. half that of a kidney cell.
____ 35. In plants, spores undergo
a. meiosis to form gamete-producing structures.
b. mitosis to form gametes.
c. mitosis to form gamete-producing structures.
d. meiosis to form gametes.
____ 36. Meiosis is similar to mitosis in that
a. the daughter cells are identical.
b. homologous pairs of chromosomes exchange segments.
c. haploid cells are produced.
d. spindle fibers control movement of chromosomes.
____ 37. Chiasmata are evidence that _______ has occurred.
a. mitosis
b. oogenesis
c. fertilization
d. crossing over
____ 38. Each time a human germ cell gives rise to an egg or sperm, a total of _______ combinations of maternal and
paternal chromosomes are possible.
a. 8,388,608
b. 23
c. 46
d. 2,277
4
____ 39. Unequal cytoplamic divisions are characteristic of
a. mitosis.
b. oogenesis.
c. spermatogenesis.
d. all of the choices.
____ 40. Plant life cycles differ from animal life cycles in that
a. plant gametes are diploid.
b. plants have no germ cells.
c. spore formation occurs in between meiosis and gamete formation.
d. plants do not undergo meiosis.
____ 41. What causes the decrease in the amount of cyclin at a specific point in the cell cycle?
a. an increase in production once the restriction point is passed
b. the cascade of increased production once its protein is phosphorylated by Cdk
c. the changing ratio of cytoplasm to genome
d. its destruction by a process initiated by the activity of its complex with a cyclin
e. the binding of PDGF to receptors on the cell surface
____ 42. Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury?
a. PDGF
b. MPF
c. protein kinase
d. cyclin
e. Cdk
____
43. Which is a general term for enzymes that activate or inactivate other proteins by phosphorylating them?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
PDGF
MPF
protein kinase
cyclin
Cdk
____ 44. Fibroblasts have receptors for this substance on their plasma membranes:
a. PDGF
b. MPF
c. protein kinase
d. cyclin
e. Cdk
____ 45. Which of the following is a protein synthesized at specific times during the cell cycle that associates
with a kinase to form a catalytically active complex?
a. PDGF
b. MPF
c. protein kinase
d. cyclin
e. Cdk
____ 46. Which of the following is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle that requires
cyclin to become catalytically active?
a. PDGF
b. MPF
c. protein kinase
d. cyclin
e. Cdk
5
____ 47. Which of the following triggers the cell's passage past the G2 checkpoint into mitosis?
a. PDGF
b. MPF
c. protein kinase
d. cyclin
e. Cdk
____ 48. Nerve and muscle cells are in this phase:
a.
b.
c. S
d.
e. M
____ 49. The cyclin component of MPF is destroyed toward the end of this phase:
a.
b.
c. S
d.
e. M
Matching
Match the following:
a. metaphase
b. prophase
c. anaphase
d. telophase
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
Chromosomes move slowly apart toward opposite ends of the cell
Centrioles separate and move toward opposite sides of the cell
Cytokinesis produces two separate daughter cells
Chromosomes cluster and align at the center of the spindle
Nucleoli appear in each daughter cell
Centromeres split
Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate
Spindle breaks down and disappears
Nuclear envelope and nucleoid break down and disappear
Cleavage furrow squeezes the cell into two parts
6
Short Answer
Diagram 9-1
60. Refer to Diagram 9-1. Identify the appropriate component to each number from the figure.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
61. Refer to Diagram 9-1. Link the time span with the most appropriate number from the figure.
_____ (1)
_____ (2)
_____ (3)
_____ (4)
_____ (5)
_____ (6)
_____ (7)
_____ (8)
Period after duplication of DNA during which the cell prepares for division
The complete period of nuclear division, which is followed by cytoplasmic division
(a separate event)
DNA duplication occurs now; a time for "synthesis" of DNA and proteins
Period of cell growth before DNA duplication; a "gap" of interphase
Usually the longest part of a cell cycle
Period of cytoplasmic division
Period that includes G-1, S, G-2
Period of nuclear division
7
Diagram 9-2
62. Refer to Diagram 9-2. Identify each of the mitotic stages shown from the sketch.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
63. Refer to Diagram 9-2. Match the correct phase description to its number from the sketch.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
Attachments between two sister chromatids of each chromosome break; the two are now
separate chromosomes that move to opposite spindle poles.
Microtubules penetrate the nuclear region and collectively form the spindle apparatus;
microtubules become attached to the two sister chromatids of each chromosome.
The DNA and its associated proteins have started to condense.
All the chromosomes are now fully condensed and lined up at the equator of the spindle.
DNA is duplicated and the cell prepares for nuclear division.
Two daughter cells have formed, each diploid with two of each type of chromosome, just
like the parent cell's nucleus.
Chromosomes continue to condense. New microtubules are assembled, and they move one
of two centriole pairs toward the opposite end of the cell. The nuclear envelope begins to
break up.
Patches of new membrane fuse to form a new nuclear envelope around the decondensing
chromosomes.
8
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
64. Refer to Diagram 9-2. Match the name of the stage to its correct chronological place in the phases of mitosis
shown in the illustration.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
metaphase
interphase
transition to metaphase
interphase daughter cells
early prophase
anaphase
telophase
late prophase
first
second
third
forth
fifth
sixth
seventh
eighth
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
__________
65. Starting with a single germ cell, place the following items in chronological order by matching the first step in the
sequence to the number 1 and so on.
_____ (a)
_____ (b)
_____ (c)
_____ (d)
_____ (e)
Two haploid daughter cells are formed, each having one of each type of
chromosome.
The cytoplasm divides, producing four haploid cells.
Following interphase, each duplicated chromosome is aligned with its partner.
The two sister chromatids of each chromosome separate from each other.
The DNA is duplicated during the S stage of interphase.
9
Diagram 10-1
66. Refer to Diagram 10-1. Identify each of the meiotic stages shown in the sketches by matching the name of each to
the number of its sketch.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
prophase I
metaphase I
anaphase I
telophase I
prophase II
metaphase II
anaphase II
telophase II
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
10
67. Refer to Diagram 10-1. Match the correct stage description to its number from the sketches.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
The spindle is now fully formed; all chromosomes are positioned midway between the poles
of one cell.
In each of two daughter cells, microtubules attach to the kinetochores of chromosomes, and
motor proteins drive the movement of chromosomes toward the spindle's equator.
Four daughter nuclei form; when the cytoplasm divides, each new cell has a haploid
chromosome number, all in the unduplicated state; the cells may develop into gametes in
animals or spores in plants.
In one cell, each duplicated chromosome is pulled away from its homologous partner; the
partners are moved to opposite spindle poles.
Duplicated chromosomes condense; each chromosome pairs with its homologous partner;
crossing over and genetic recombination (swapping of gene segments) occur; each
chromosome becomes attached to some microtubules of a newly forming spindle.
Motor proteins and spindle microtubule interactions have moved all the duplicated
chromosomes so that they are positioned at the spindle equator, midway between the poles.
Two haploid cells form, each having one of each type of chromosome that was present in
the parent cell; the chromosomes are still in the duplicated state.
Attachment between the two chromatids of each chromosome breaks; former "sister
chromatids" are now chromosomes in their own right and are moved to opposite poles by
motor proteins.
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
68. Match the most appropriate answer to each term.
a. Random positioning of maternal and paternal chromosomes at the spindle equator
b. Chromosomes continue to condense and become thicker, rodlike forms
c. Reduction of the chromosome number by half for forthcoming gametes
d. Break at the same places along their length and then exchange corresponding segments
e. Twenty-three chromosomes inherited from your father
f.
Combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes possible in gametes from one germ
cell
g. Each duplicated chromosome is in thin, threadlike form
h. An intimate parallel array of homologues that favors crossing over
i.
Twenty-three chromosomes inherited from your mother
j.
Breaks up old combinations of alleles and puts new ones together in pairs of homologous
chromosomes
_____ (1)
_____ (2)
_____ (3)
_____ (4)
_____ (5)
_____ (6)
_____ (7)
_____ (8)
_____ (9)
_____ (10)
223
paternal chromosomes
early prophase I
nonsister chromatids
late prophase I
crossing over
metaphase I
each chromosome zippers to its homologue
function of meiosis
maternal chromosomes
11
Diagram 10-2
69. Refer to Diagram 10-2. The cell model used in this exercise has two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long
pair and one short pair. Match the description of the cell to the correct letter from the following sketches.
_____ (1)
_____ (2)
_____ (3)
_____ (4)
_____ (5)
_____ (6)
one cell at the beginning of meiosis II
a daughter cell at the end of meiosis II
metaphase I of meiosis
metaphase of mitosis
G-1 in a daughter cell after mitosis
prophase of mitosis
70. Refer to Diagram 10-2.
_____ (1)
_____ (2)
_____ (3)
_____ (4)
_____ (5)
How many chromosomes are present in cell E?
How many chromatids are present in cell E?
How many chromatids are present in cell C?
How many chromatids are present in cell D?
How many chromosomes are present in cell F?
12
Cell Division Review
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
ANS:
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ANS:
D
E
A
C
A
A
C
A
A
B
A
C
D
D
C
D
A
D
A
A
A
D
D
A
D
C
C
C
B
C
B
C
D
D
C
D
D
A
B
C
D
PTS:
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PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
1
2
2
2
3
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
TOP: Concept 12.3
13
84
83-84
83
84
84
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
A
C
A
D
E
B
A
E
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
Concept 12.3
Concept 12.3
Concept 12.3
Concept 12.3
Concept 12.3
Concept 12.3
Concept 12.3
Concept 12.3
C
B
D
A
D
C
A
D
B
D
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
MATCHING
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
SHORT ANSWER
60. ANS:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
G-1 phase
S phase
G-2 phase
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
cytokinesis
interphase
mitosis
daughter cells
PTS: 1
61. ANS:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
3
10
2
1
9
8
9
14
84
83-84
84
84
84
84
84
84
84
84
(8)
10
PTS: 1
62. ANS:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
interphase daughter cells
anaphase
late prophase
metaphase
cell at interphase
early prophase
transition to metaphase
telophase
PTS: 1
63. ANS:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
f
a
g
d
e
c
b
h
PTS: 1
64. ANS:
first
second
third
forth
fifth
sixth
seventh
eighth
b
e
h
c
a
f
g
d
PTS: 1
65. ANS:
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 4
(e) 1
PTS: 1
66. ANS:
(1)
g
15
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
f
b
e
h
d
a
c
PTS: 1
67. ANS:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
h
f
a
b
c
g
e
d
PTS: 1
68. ANS:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
f
e
g
d
b
j
a
h
c
i
PTS: 1
69. ANS:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
C
F
D
A
B
E
PTS: 1
70. ANS:
(1)
(2)
(3)
4
8
4
16
(4)
(5)
8
2
PTS: 1
17
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