1.
As biodiversity increases in an ecosystem… a.
Resources become more scarce b.
Ecosystem function decreases c.
Extinctions are more likely d.
The ecosystem becomes healthier and more productive
2.
The higher the biodiversity of an ecosystem… a.
The more species it can support b.
The more individuals it can support c.
The more services it can provide d.
All of the above are true
3.
Which of the following is NOT a part of the 3 levels of biodiversity a.
Molecular Diversity b.
Genetic Diversity c.
Species Diversity d.
Ecosystem Diversity
4.
Genetic diversity is best described as… a.
The diversity within a species b.
The diversity of different species c.
The diversity of ecosystems that exist d.
The diversity of atoms
5.
Examples of ecosystem diversity include… a.
The variety of traits within a species b.
The variety of species within an ecosystem c.
The variety of ecosystems on the planet d.
All of the above
6.
Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating biodiversity? a.
Biodiversity = Number of Species/Number of Individuals b.
Biodiversity = Number of Individuals/Number of Species c.
Biodiversity = Number of Individuals d.
Biodiversity = Number of Species
7.
A section of a meadow has 100 individuals; there are 10 total species. What is the biodiversity score? a.
10/100 = 0.1 b. 100/10 = 10 c. 100 d. 10
8.
An example of Nutrient Cycling in an ecosystem would include… a.
Utilization of sunlight at all trophic levels b.
Filtration of water as it passes through soil c.
Pollination d.
Conversion of N
2
in the atmosphere into organic nitrogen compounds like proteins
Page | 1 Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.

9.
An example of Energy Flow in an ecosystem would include… a.
Utilization of sunlight at all trophic levels b.
Filtration of water as it passes through soil c.
Pollination d.
Conversion of N
2
in the atmosphere into organic nitrogen compounds like proteins
Use the graph below for the next questions
10.
According to this graph, as Biodiversity decreases, Ecosystem Function a.
Increases b.
Decreases c.
Remains Unchanged
11.
A Type B Ecosystem could best be described as… a.
The type of ecosystem where losses to biodiversity are immediately detectable b.
The type of ecosystem where losses to biodiversity are not noticeable until it is probably too late c.
The type of ecosystem where losses to biodiversity do not affect Ecosystem Function d.
The type of ecosystem where losses to biodiversity may actually increase Ecosystem Function
12.
A Type A Ecosystem could best be described as… a.
The type of ecosystem where losses to biodiversity are immediately detectable b.
The type of ecosystem where losses to biodiversity are not noticeable until it is probably too late c.
The type of ecosystem where losses to biodiversity do not affect Ecosystem Function d.
The type of ecosystem where losses to biodiversity may actually increase Ecosystem Function
13.
Extinction will occur when… a.
The last of a species dies b.
There is no chance of recovery for a species even if some remain alive c.
The species numbers decline rapidly d.
A species is moved from its habitat
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14.
Functional extinction occurs when… a.
The last of a species dies b.
There is no chance of recovery for a species even if some remain alive c.
The species numbers decline rapidly d.
A species is moved from its habitat
15.
Extinction is always… a.
Natural b. Bad c. Preventable d. Final
16.
Prior to modern civilization, there have been major mass extinctions in geological history a.
No b. Two c. Five d. Ten
17.
The extinction shows signs of causing the most rapid loss of species in geological history. a.
Holocene b. Cretaceous c. Devonian d. Ordovician
18.
The current rate of extinction is the normal sustainable rate of extinction. a.
About the same b.
Less than c.
Slightly higher than d.
Over a 1000 times greater than
19.
According to an article published in The American Scientist, three species are going extinct every a.
Year b. Month c. Day d. Hour
20.
Of the estimated 6 to 10 million living species on the planet, we have identified roughly… a.
1000 b. 1 million c. Half d. Almost all
21.
Previous catastrophic extinctions, such as the one that wiped out the dinosaurs, took a.
Decades b. Centuries c. Thousands of years d. Billions of years
22.
Which of the following can best describe today’s rate of extinction? a.
Lower than normal since the passage of the Endangered Species Act b.
Roughly the same as the normal, sustainable rate of extinction c.
Roughly the same as when the dinosaurs went extinct to happen. d.
Faster than any known point in geological history, with half of all known species extinct in under 100 years (E. O. Wilson, 2002) as opposed to over many thousands of years with the dinosaurs.
23.
Natural species are important because… a.
One quarter of prescription medicines were developed from compounds found in living species. b.
Newfound wild species have the potential to help us produce stronger, more productive crops c.
Only 20 plants supply 90% of our food; each is highly susceptible to disease because of selective breeding d.
All of the above
24.
As biodiversity decreases due to extinction, what happens to ecosystem function and services? a.
They go down b.
They increase c.
They stay the same d.
Ecosystem function is not affected by extinction, only by biodiversity
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25.
What are the four main causes of extinction today? a.
Habitat loss, pollution, the hole in the ozone, and weakened solar radiation b.
Habitat loss, pollution, invasive species, and overharvesting c.
Litter, excess precipitation, invasive species, and overharvesting d.
Litter, excess precipitation, the hole in the ozone, and weakened solar radiation
26.
A place where a population of a species lives is its… a.
Habitat b. Population c. Community d. Niche
27.
A group of interacting species sharing resources of an area is known as a… a.
Habitat b. Population c. Community d. Niche
28.
The specific role an organism plays in a habitat is its a.
Habitat b. Population c. Community d. Niche
29.
A group of the same organisms sharing the same place at the same time is a…. a.
Habitat b. Population c. Community d. Niche
30.
An ecosystem is… a.
A habitat b.
A series of interactions between the living and non-living components of a specific area c.
The non-living portion of the environment d.
A specific kind of habitat only found in North America
31.
An example of a predation niche is… a.
Pollination of flowers by butterflies b.
Attacking and killing of a squirrel by a hawk c.
The farming-style relationship between ants and aphids d.
The co-dependence of cattle and the microbes in their stomach
32.
An example of symbiosis is… a.
Pollination of flowers by butterflies b.
Attacking and killing of a squirrel by a hawk c.
The farming-style relationship between ants and aphids d.
The co-dependence of cattle and the microbes in their stomach
33.
Structure of a habitat includes… a.
Air, water, sunlight, weather, and terrain b.
All living species of an area c.
The types, arrangement, and dispersal of plant life d.
=The rate of change of a habitat
34.
Succession in a habitat is… a.
Air, water, sunlight, weather, and terrain b.
All living species of an area c.
The types, arrangement, and dispersal of plant life d.
The rate of change of a habitat
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35.
Habitat succession is different from human-caused disturbances primarily because… a.
Habitats do not change under natural succession b.
Habitats only change once under natural succession c.
Habitat succession occurs at a much slower rate d.
None of the above; succession and disturbance are the same thing
36.
Patchiness is… a.
The amount of borders a habitat has b.
The measure of how “broken up” a habitat is c.
The amount of invasive species in a habitat d.
The measure of dispersal of living species
37.
Edge is harmful to a habitat because it… a.
Increases the spread of disease b.
Shows the most impact from pollution c.
Is most affected by invasive species d.
All of the above
38.
Fragmentation is the measure of… a.
Edge b.
Patchiness c.
Edge and Patchiness
39.
The higher the fragmentation the a.
Higher b.
Lower c.
More un-measurable
the biodiversity d.
More measureable
40.
In a nutshell, the Island Biogeography Model states that… a.
The more isolated the island, the greater the biodiversity b.
The larger and closer the island, the greater the biodiversity c.
The further away the island, the greater the biodiversity d.
The smaller the island, the greater the biodiversity
41.
An invasive species is… a.
A native species that has a large population b.
An introduced species in a new environment c.
An introduced species that reproduces quickly d.
A species, native or introduced, that harms native species
42.
Is an introduced species always invasive? a.
Yes – introduced species always disrupt natural ecosystems b.
Yes – introduced and invasive mean the same thing c.
No – many introduced species are not invasive and do not harm ecosystems d.
No – invasive species are always native
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43.
Do most introduced species become invasive? a.
Yes – all introduced species become invasive b.
Yes – nearly all introduced species become invasive c.
No – only 1 out of 10 actually survive, and only 1 in 100 become invasive d.
No – introduced species never become invasive because their adaptations are not suited for the new environment
44.
How much estimated damage do invasive species cause in the US each year? a.
$138,000 b. S138 million c. $138 billion d. $138 trillion
45.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an invasive species? a.
They grow rapidly and compete with other plants or animals b.
They produce large numbers of seeds/offspring at a young age c.
Their native region has a climate similar to the affected area of the US d.
They have specific needs or requirements to survive
46.
What does it mean that an invasive species is a habitat generalist? a.
They can adapt to many different kinds of environments and habitats b.
They are only found in specific kinds of habitats c.
They keep existing native species alive and coordinate their niches d.
They cannot leave a particular habitat once they become established
47.
Why is it that native species cannot compete with invasive species? a.
Nature is inherently weak and needs human intervention to function b.
North American species are far less evolved than European or Asian species c.
Invasive species have few if any predators to control their rapid growth and reproduction d.
Humans want and depend on most invasive species and purposely release them
48.
Which of the following is an example of an invasive species? a.
Cow b. Maple Tree c. Emerald Ash Borer d. All of these are invasive
49.
Could a whitetail deer be an invasive species? a.
No, it is native b. Yes, always c. Yes, if it displaces other native species. d. Only outside the US
50.
What are the two primary ways in which humans enable the spread of invasive species? a.
Pollution and Habitat Disturbance b.
Habitat Disturbance and Transportation c.
Transportation and Overhunting of native species d.
Overhunting of native species and Pollution
51.
A habitat disturbance is when… a.
A habitat slowly transitions from one type to another b.
A habitat is destroyed by a natural disaster, such as a flood or volcano c.
A habitat is rapidly changed by human activity d.
Both B and C are correct
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Use the curve above to answer the questions below
52.
Which of the following statements are supported by the Invasion Curve above? a.
The most effective method of eradicating invasive species is to prevent them from becoming established b.
When most people become aware of an invasive species, it is already too late to eradicate them c.
The cost of invasive species increases from their introduction to the point of public awareness d.
All of the above would be supported by the Invasion Curve
53.
Which of the following is most likely to become invasive to Wisconsin? a.
A slow-growing coniferous tree from northern Europe b.
A warm-weather insect from Costa Rica c.
A fast growing moth from central Asia d.
A large grazing mammal from the Mideast
54.
Which of the following would be most effective in preventing your answer from #13 from becoming invasive? a.
Informing the public about its potential as an invasive species b.
Removing it once it arrives c.
Banning transportation d.
Preventing its arrival through trade bans and shipping inspections
55.
When are invasive species good? a.
Invasive species are never good b.
When they aid human activity c.
When they help native species d.
When they eradicate other invasive species
56.
Which of the following is NOT considered an aquatic ecosystem? a.
Oceans b. Lakes c. Rivers d. Wetlands e. None of the above; all are aquatic ecosystems
57.
The area of land from which a body of water receives its water is called at… a.
Drainage basin b. Water drain c. Watershed d. Precipitation reservoir
58.
Which of the following is the base of the food chain in an aquatic ecosystem? a.
Phytoplankton b. Zooplankton c. Macroinvertebrates d. Small fish
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59.
Which of the following would be an example of Non-point Source pollution? a.
Photosynthesis due to sunlight b.
The presence of zooplankton in a body of water c.
Discharge from an overwhelmed sewage treatment plant d.
Topsoil erosion from farm fields into a river
60.
Which of the following would be an example of Point-source pollution? a.
Photosynthesis due to sunlight b.
The presence of zooplankton in a body of water c.
Discharge from an overwhelmed sewage treatment plant d.
Topsoil erosion from farm fields into a river
61.
Which of the following best describes biomagnification? a.
When PCBs collect in the sediment of a river b.
When lead concentrations in living tissue increase at each level of the food chain c.
When high nutrient levels cause algae blooms that lower dissolved oxygen d.
When photosynthetic organisms at the base of the food chain fail to produce food
62.
Which of the following best describes eutrophication? a.
When PCBs collect in the sediment of a river b.
When lead concentrations in living tissue increase at each level of the food chain c.
When high nutrient levels cause algae blooms that lower dissolved oxygen d.
When photosynthetic organisms at the base of the food chain fail to produce food
63.
Why would a predator fish be more likely to cause a problem related to biomagnification? a.
The higher the animal is on the food chain, the worse the problem of biomagnification becomes b.
Predator fish are more likely to eat the phytoplankton that have the highest concentrations of a pollutant c.
Predator fish like Brittney Spears albums, such as her latest album Toxic d.
None of the above – predator fish are less likely cause biomagnification-related problems than smaller fish
64.
In order for a pollutant to biomagnify, it must be… a.
Mutagenic b. Synthetic c. Easily degradable d. Fat-soluble
65.
If a toxin is mutagenic, it may affect an organism’s… a.
DNA b. Ability to reproduce c. Immune System d. All of the above
66.
PCB’s are a problem today because… a.
They are still legal and widely used b.
They are long-lived and continue to be introduced from leaky sites and equipment c.
They are produced naturally by ecological processes d.
PCB’s are not a problem today
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67.
Why should hunters and fishermen avoid lead-based ammunition and sinkers? a.
Lead can cause eutrophication b.
Lead can lower oxygen levels in the water c.
Lead can biomagnify in living tissue d.
Lead is just fine to use so long as you don’t use too much
68.
Nitrates and phosphates are a problem because… a.
They can biomagnify b.
They are mutagens c.
They increase oxygen levels in the water d.
They lead to eutrophication
69.
What is eutrophication? a.
The process in which water levels heat up, lowering dissolved oxygen b.
The process in which dissolved oxygen levels are lowered due to the overgrowth of algae c.
The process in which mutagenic compounds lower the levels of dissolved oxygen in the water d.
The process in which the population of fish increases too quickly, lowering dissolved oxygen
70.
Why would increased algae populations lower dissolved oxygen levels? a.
Algae prevents plants under the water from getting sunlight, stopping photosynthesis and oxygen production. b.
Algae consumes oxygen when it photosynthesizes c.
Algae consumes oxygen when it consumes dead organisms d.
None of the above
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71.
Which of the following would be an accurate description of thermal pollution? a.
The increase in water temperature due to human activity b.
The decrease in water temperature due to human activity c.
The reduction of dissolved oxygen in a body of water due to high nutrient levels d.
When fish start wearing bulky winter clothes that really aren’t flattering
72.
How are dissolved oxygen and water temperature related? a.
The colder the water, the lower the dissolved oxygen b.
The warmer the water, the lower the dissolved oxygen c.
Oxygen levels peak at room temperature but are lower at higher or lower temperatures d.
Dissolved oxygen and water temperature are unrelated
73.
How does warm water affect dissolved oxygen levels? a.
As the water warms, oxygen levels increase because of increased rates of photosynthesis b.
As the water warms, its ability to hold gases like oxygen is reduced. c.
As the water warms, rates of decomposition increase, lowering oxygen rates. d.
Both B and C are correct
74.
Nitrates are most commonly introduced into aquatic ecosystems from what sources? a.
Manure, sewage, and poorly constructed feedlots b.
Industrial waste, leaky landfills, and electronics c.
Water used for cooling factory machines d.
Parking lots and asphalt roadways
75.
High levels of nitrates in a waterway causes… a.
Eutrophication b.
Biomagnification c.
Thermal pollution d.
Acid rain
76.
Methemoglobinemia results from high nitrate levels; methemoglobinemia causes… a.
Birth defects and growth disorders b.
Pancreatic failure c.
The inability of red blood cells to carry oxygen d.
Weakened, brittle bones
77.
High levels of phosphates in a waterway causes… a.
Eutrophication b. Biomagnification c. Thermal pollution d. Acid rain
78.
Heavy metals are …. a.
Always toxic to living organisms b.
Needed by organisms in trace amounts c.
Needed in large amounts by organisms d.
Unlikely to cause environmental problems
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79.
High levels of lead in an organism are likely to result in what problems? a.
Bioaccumulation leading to liver and kidney failure b.
Replacement of calcium in the bones c.
Displacement of oxygen on red blood cells d.
High levels of this substance are unlikely to cause physical problems in an organism.
80.
High levels of mercury in an organism are likely to result in what problems? a.
Bioaccumulation leading to liver and kidney failure b.
Replacement of calcium in the bones c.
Displacement of oxygen on red blood cells d.
High levels of this substance are unlikely to cause physical problems in an organism.
81.
Macroinvertebrates are… a.
Small fish b. Single-celled aquatic organisms c. Aquatic bugs d. Predator fish
82.
Macroinvertebrates are advantageous for indicating water quality because… a.
They can help us determine the exact cause of water pollution problems b.
They change color when the water is polluted c.
They are always found at the same amounts in every aquatic habitat d.
They can provide information about the longterm health of an aquatic habitat
Stream X has Riffle Beetles, Damselflies, Fingernail
Clams, Craneflies, Leeches, and Sowbugs
Stream Y has Aquatic Earthworms, Flat-tailed Maggots,
Leeches, Sowbugs, and Snails
Stream Z has Freshwater Clams, Water Pennies,
Dragonflies, Gill Snails, and Mayflies
Which stream is healthiest?
83.
Stream X b. Stream Y c. Stream Z d. You cannot tell from this information
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84.
pH is the measure of… a.
Hydroxide ion concentrations b.
The acidity of a substances c.
How basic a substance is d.
All of the above are true
85.
Significant changes to the pH of a body of water indicates… a.
Thermal pollution b.
Eutrophication c.
That contaminants have been introduced
86.
Acid rain is caused by… a.
Nitrates and phosphates b.
Temperature change to a body of water c.
Heavy metals d.
Exhaust from automobiles and power plants
87.
How does acid rain affect an ecosystem? a.
It leaches nutrients from the soil, harms the tissue of living organisms, and can cause the toxic buildup of metals in a waterway b.
It lowers dissolved oxygen c.
It heats up a body of water. d.
It causes an overgrowth of algae.
88.
Population ecology is… a.
The study of the factors that affect the population levels, survival, and reproduction of individual species in a specific area. b.
The application of scientific knowledge and technical skills to protect, preserve, conserve, limit, enhance, or extend the value of wildlife and its habitat c.
The study of the interaction of living and nonliving components of a habitat d.
The study of the interactions of different kinds of species
89.
Wildlife Management is… a.
The study of the factors that affect the population levels, survival, and reproduction of individual species in a specific area. b.
The application of scientific knowledge and technical skills to protect, preserve, conserve, limit, enhance, or extend the value of wildlife and its habitat c.
The study of the interaction of living and nonliving components of a habitat d.
The study of the interactions of different kinds of species
90.
A population is… a.
The number of individuals of a species in one area at one time. b.
The amount of species per unit area c.
Any non-domesticated vertebrate animals, including birds, mammals, reptiles, and amphibians d.
Any living species that is not domesticated
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91.
Wildlife are… a.
The number of individuals of a species in one area at one time. b.
The amount of species per unit area c.
Any non-domesticated vertebrate animals, including birds, mammals, reptiles, and amphibians d.
Any living species that is not domesticated
92.
Mr. Kohn wants to estimate the number of squirrels in the campus Environmental Center. He sets traps and catches 7 squirrels the first time. He marks them, releases them, and sets the traps again. This time he catches
10 squirrels. He knows that he caught five squirrels twice because they are marked. How many squirrels exist in the Environmental Center? (number below are rounded if not whole) a.
(7 x 10) / 5 = 14 squirrels in the Env’t Center b.
(7 x 5) / 10 = 3 squirrels in the Env’t Center c.
(10 x 5) / 7 = 7 squirrels in the Env’t Center d.
None of the above
93.
20 fish are caught in a local pond and have their fins notched. A month later, another 30 fish are caught. 5 have their fins notched (meaning they were caught twice). How many fish are in this pond? a.
(20 x 5)/30 = 3 b. (20 x 30)/5 = 80 c. (30 x 5)/20 = 8 d. None of the above
94.
What is the difference between fecundity and fertility a.
Fecundity is how many young a female actually has; fertility is how many they could have b.
Fertility is how many young a female actually has; fecundity is how many they could have c.
Fecundity is how many young a habitat can support; fertility is how many it must support d.
Fertility is how many young a habitat can support; fecundity is how many it must support
95.
With unlimited access to resources, a species’ population will grow… a.
Slowly b.
Steadily and evenly c.
Exponentially and then level off d.
Exponentially without limit
96.
The maximum number of individuals that a habitat can sustain without degradation is known as the… a.
Carrying Capacity b. Saturation Point c. K-value d. All of the above
97.
Deer across the state of Wisconsin exhibit a ____________ pattern of dispersion a.
Clumped b. Uniform c. Random d. Zig Zag
98.
Define abundance: a.
The total number of deer estimated for an entire unit b.
The likelihood of having deer in a certain area c.
The number of deer per square mile d.
A type of habitat where a deer have reached their saturation point
Page | 13 Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.

99.
Define density: a.
The total number of deer estimated for an entire unit b.
The likelihood of having deer in a certain area c.
The number of deer per square mile d.
A type of habitat where a deer have reached their saturation point
100.
The Waterford Area has an estimated deer density of 60 deer per square mile. If you hunt on a property one square mile in size in this area, you will likely see… a.
About 60 deer, with little variation from property to property
101.
b.
A wide variety of deer depending on the habitat quality and hunting pressure c.
The same number of deer as any other property in the state d.
No deer because the DNR doesn’t know what it’s talking about
Why might it be a bad idea to increase the size of a deer herd beyond the carrying capacity of a habitat? a.
You will increase the likelihood of a disease outbreak (like CWD) b.
You will cause increased competition and lowered biodiversity of other species in the habitat c.
You will threaten the long-term health of the habitat and of the deer herd d.
All of the above are possible consequences of an excessively large deer herd
102.
Deer populations become __________ dense as available habitat is lost, reducing fertility and animal size while increasing the risk of disease and degradation to a habitat.
103.
a.
More b. Less
Vostok is… a.
A former Soviet military base in Antarctica b.
A researcher who first proposed the idea of climate change
104.
105.
106.
c.
A Russian term for “change” d.
All of the above
Why is a research station for climate change located in Antarctica? a.
It is the only continent unaffected by development and industrialization b.
Antarctica is located directly on the jet stream, meaning it is affected by all activity on the planet c.
The ice on this continent preserves air over hundreds of thousands of years old d.
Antarctica is the only continent that does not receive precipitation, reducing the variability of the data
As researchers drill deeper into the ice, the air trapped in the ice gets… a.
Dirtier b. Older c. Cleaner d. Newer
The air trapped in the ice under Vostok is over _______ years old a.
4500 b. 45,000 c. 450,000 d. 4,500,000
_________ is a byproduct of burning, decomposition, and cellular respiration, and is the most prevalent 107.
greenhouse gas a.
Carbon Dioxide b. Methane c. Deuterium d. Dust
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108.
________ is not well understood in regards to its impact on climate change and can both lower and raise global temperatures depending on the circumstances.
109.
a.
Carbon Dioxide b. Methane c. Deuterium d. Dust
________ is the most potent greenhouse gas and is released when organic matter is broken down
110.
without oxygen. a.
Carbon Dioxide b. Methane c. Deuterium d. Dust
___________ is measured to determine the average global temperature in a given year.
111.
a.
Carbon Dioxide b. Methane c. Deuterium d. Dust
Why are CO2 levels a concern? a.
CO2 is a deadly greenhouse gas and is not found naturally in the atmosphere b.
CO2 can absorb radiation in the atmosphere, slowing its release into space c.
CO2 is a pollutant from industrial activity and can cause acid rain d.
None of the above. CO2 is naturally found in the atmosphere and therefore it is not a concern
112.
Prior to the Industrial Revolution, CO2 naturally was found between ______________ ppm in the atmosphere. a.
100-200 b. 200-300 c. 300-700 d. 700-1000
113.
How does CO2 cause the atmosphere to warm? a.
CO2 causes increased cloud cover, which traps heat on the surface of the earth b.
CO2 decreases cloud cover, cause surface temperatures to warm up more than usual c.
CO2 breaks down in the atmosphere; this decomposition causes slight elevations in temperature d.
CO2 molecules absorb radiation, release it, and reabsorb it; this absorption-reabsorption slows the
114.
movement of heat from the surface of the earth out into space
Today, CO2 levels are just under ________ ppm, or 50% higher than the natural maximum a.
300 b. 400 c. 1800 d. 3000
115.
Prior to the Industrial Revolution, methane levels were between ______________ ppb in the atmosphere.
116.
a.
100-200 b. 200-300 c. 300-700 d. 700-1000
Today, methane levels are just under ________ ppb, or 390% higher than the natural maximum a.
300 b. 400 c. 1800 d. 3000
117.
We know the average temperature for every year for almost the past million years because we can analyze the amount of __________ trapped in air bubbles in ice. The warmer the air at the time, the more we should find. a.
CO2 b. Methane c. Dust d. Deuterium
118.
Prior to the Industrial Revolution, the maximum rate of increase of temperature was _____ a.
1 o per thousand years b.
3 o per thousand years c.
10 o per thousand years
Page | 15 Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.

119.
120.
121.
122.
d.
20 o per thousand years
Since 1900, the rate of temperature increase was… a.
0.1
o per hundred years b.
1 o per hundred years c.
1.4
o per hundred years d.
10 o per hundred years
The 10 warmest years on record have all occurred since… a.
1900 b. 1950 c. 1975 d. 1998
The sun’s energy output has ______________ since 2000 a.
Increased b. Decreased c. Remained the same d. Fluctuated widely
Which of the following is true? a.
The earth is warming at a rate over 10 times faster than normal and increasing at a faster rate each year, with human activity as the major, if not the sole cause. b.
Greenhouse gases cause an unmistakable increase in global temperatures c.
Greenhouse gases are higher now than at any point in nearly the past million years. d.
The earth is changing at a rate in which it is impossible for adaptations to arise; species will go extinct e.
All of the above are accepted as true
Page | 16 Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.