1. Which statement is false?
a) In science, we try to accumulate knowledge of the natural world.
b) In science, we try to propose testable hypotheses.
c) In science, we try to understand the purpose of life.
d) In science, we try to develop theories explain observations.
e) All statements are true
2. Why is science a dynamic process?
a) Scientists are confused
b) Science is opinion-based, and different scientists have different opinions
c) Hypotheses may change as new data becomes available
d) Science never changes
3. Place the following in the correct order for the scientific method
I. Reject or fail to reject the hypothesis
II. Develop a hypothesis
III. Conduct the experiment or make observations
IV. Refine the hypothesis
a) I, II, III, IV
b) III, II, I, IV
c) IV, III, II, I
d) II, III, I, IV
e) II, III, IV, I
4. What is a hypothesis?
a) A fact based on quantitative data that is falsifiable.
b) A verifiable observation.
c) A tentative explanation that can be tested and is falsifiable.
d) A fact based on qualitative data that is testable.
e) Same thing as an unproven theory.
5. What is a theory?
a) A well-structured hypothesis
b) A broad explanation for natural phenomena supported by lots of evidence
c) An objective observation in the natural world
d) A broad explanation for supernatural phenomena
e) An educated guess based on past experience and available data
6. Which statement is false?
a) A hypothesis is a broad explanation for natural phenomena supported by lots of
evidence.
b) A hypothesis is an educated guess based on past experience and available data.
c) A hypothesis is an attempt to understand and describe observations in the natural
world.
d) A hypothesis must make predictions.
e) A hypothesis must be testable.
7. Which statement is false?
a) A hypothesis is an attempt to understand and to describe observations in nature.
b) A hypothesis is an informed guess about the natural world.
c) A hypothesis must be testable.
d) A hypothesis must be supported by lots of evidence.
e) All statements are true
8. Which of the following sequences represents the hierarchy of biological organization
from the least to the most complex level?
a) organelle, tissue, biosphere, ecosystem, population, organism
b) cell, community, population, organ system, molecule, organelle
c) organism, community, biosphere, molecule, tissue, organ
d) ecosystem, cell, population, tissue, organism, organ system
e) molecule, cell, organ system, population, ecosystem, biosphere
9. Which of the following sequences represents the hierarchy of biological organization
from the most to the least complex level?
a) organelle, cell, organ system, population, community, ecosystem
b) ecosystem, community, organism, tissue, cell, organelle
c) biosphere, population, organism, cell, tissue, molecule
d) biosphere, community, tissue, organ system, molecule, organelle
e) organism, population, organ system, tissue, molecule, cell
10. Which of the following is the correct format for a scientific name?
a) Crassadoma gigantea
b) crassadoma gigantea
c) Crassadoma gigantea
d) Crassadoma gigantea
e) Both A and C are correct
11. In the name Canis lupus (the wolf) the Canis part refers to the __________ to which
the wolf belongs.
a) phylum
b) species
c) genus
d) family
e) order
12. Using the phylogeny, answer the following question.
What do A, B, C, and D represent?
a) nodes
b) hypothetical common ancestors
c) polytomy
d) Both A, B
e) A, B, and C are correct
13. Using the phylogeny, answer the following question.
The lamprey is most closely related to ____.
a) amphibians
b) mammals
c) reptiles
d) birds
e) none of the above
14. Using the phylogeny, answer the following question.
Mammals are most closely related to____.
a) amphibians
b) mammals
c) reptiles & birds
d) birds
e) none of the above
15. Using the cat phylogeny, answer the following question.
How many clades are represented in this phylogeny?
a) 11
b) 10
c) 9
d) 22
e) 21
16. Using the cat phylogeny, answer the following question.
Which node represents the common ancestor of domestic cat and lion?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
17. Using the cat phylogeny, answer the following question.
Which node represents the common ancestor of domestic cat and cheetah?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
18. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false?
a) A phylogenetic tree is a fact.
b) A phylogenetic tree represents a hypothesis.
c) A phylogenetic tree includes real (extant) species and hypothetical ancestors.
d) A phylogenetic tree shows patterns of relatedness through time (descent).
e) Both A and D
19. _______ is a hypothesis about evolutionary relationships among many species.
a) Taxonomy
b) A node
c) A phylogenetic tree
d) A scientific name
e) Emergent properties
20. From the list below, which are characteristics of taxonomy?
I. give all species scientific names
II. place organisms into a classification system that is hierarchical
III. represent how organisms are related to one another using a bifurcating tree
IV. illustrate the evolutionary history of organisms
V. identify similarities as a result of sharing a common ancestor
VI. place organisms into a classification system that is hierarchical and branching
a) I, IV, V, VI
b) II, IV, V
c) I, II, IV
d) I, II
e) All are characteristics of taxonomy
21. From the list below, which are characteristics of phylogenetics?
I. give all species scientific names
II. place organisms into a classification system that is hierarchical
III. represent how organisms are related to one another using a bifurcating tree
IV. illustrate the evolutionary history of organisms
V. identify similarities as a result of sharing a common ancestor
VI. place organisms into a classification system that is hierarchical and branching
a) III, IV, V, VI
b) I, III, IV, V, VI
c) I, II, IV
d) I, II
e) All are characteristics of phylogenetics
22. A goal common to both phylogenetics and taxonomy is to _____.
a) give all species scientific names
b) place organisms into a classification system that is hierarchical
c) represent how organisms are related to one another using a bifurcating tree
d) illustrate the evolutionary history of organisms
e) identify similarities as a result of sharing a common ancestor
23. Phylogenetics differs from taxonomy because the goal of phylogenetics is to _____.
a) name organisms and classify them hierarchically.
b) catalog all species on earth
c) classify species in a way that reflect history and relationship to one another
d) Both A and B are correct
e) Both A and C are correct
24. A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a single-celled organism that
lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification?
a) Domain Eukarya
b) Domain Archaea
c) Kingdom Animalia
d) Kingdom Protista
e) Domain Bacteria
25. Prokaryotic cells may have all of the following except _____.
a) ribosomes
b) a cell wall
c) a membrane-bounded nucleus
d) a flagellum
e) plasmids
26. The Domain _______ includes most of the known prokaryote species, and is most
closely related to the Domain ______.
a) Bacteria, Archaea
b) Bacteria, Eukarya
c) Prokaryota, Eukarya
d) Archaea, Bacteria
e) Bacteria, Archaea & Eukarya
27. The Domain _______ includes prokaryote species that are found in extreme
environments, and is most closely related to the ______.
a) Archaea, Eukarya
b) Bacteria, Eukarya
c) Prokaryota, Eukarya
d) Archaea, Bacteria
e) Bacteria, Archaea & Eukarya
28. Of the following, which is not an ecological role of prokaryotes?
a) decomposition and chemical recycling of organic matter
b) parasitizing eukaryotes, thus causing disease
c) metabolizing materials in extreme environments
d) fixing atmospheric nitrogen
e) serving as primary producers in terrestrial environments
29. Which of the following would most likely occur if all prokaryotes were suddenly to
disappear?
a) All life would eventually perish due to disease.
b) Many organisms would perish as nutrient recycling underwent dramatic reduction.
c) All life would eventually perish because of increased global warming due to the
greenhouse effect.
d) Only the organisms that feed directly on prokaryotes would perish.
e) Very little change would occur because prokaryotes are not of significant ecological
importance.
30. Prokaryotes were important in earth’s early history because:
a) they created land for organisms to colonize
b) they increased the amount of atmospheric oxygen
c) they lived in extreme environments
d) they removed poisonous materials from the atmosphere
e) prokayotes are not important
31. What is/are the function/s of the prokaryotic cell wall?
a) to protect the organism from the environment
b) to produce copies of plasmid DNA
c) to maintain the shape of the cell
d) Both A and D are correct
e) Both A and C are correct
32. ________ is the most common compound is the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria.
a) Cellulose
b) Lipopolysaccharide
c) Lignin
d) Peptidoglycan
e) Capsule
33. Which of the following statements is correct about gram-negative bacteria?
a) Antibiotics are very effective for killing them.
b) They possess an outer-membrane of the cell wall containing toxic lipoplysaccharides.
c) They possess more DNA per cell than do any eukaryotic organism.
d) Their cell walls are primarily made of peptidoglycan.
e) Both A and D are correct.
34. Penicillin is an antibiotic that inhibits enzymes from synthesis of peptidoglycan, so
which prokaryotes should be most vulnerable to penicillin?
a) Archaea
b) gram-positive bacteria
c) gram-negative bacteria
d) mycoplasmas
e) endospore bacteria
35. Some antibiotics inhibit the ability of gram-positive bacteria to ______ because they
_______.
a) form spores; stop DNA replication
b) form cell walls; stop cross-linking of peptidoglycan
c) perform cellular respiration; inhibit reproduction
d) replicate DNA; inhibit reproduction
e) synthesize DNA; cause mutations in DNA
36. Why are some antibiotics less effective in stopping a gram-negative bacterial
infection?
a) Antibiotics prevent formation of peptidoglycan layer of the cell wall, but this layer is
protected by an outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria.
b) Antibiotics inhibit reproduction of gram-positive bacteria, but do not work in gramnegative bacteria.
c) Antibiotics cannot prevent DNA replication in gram-negative bacteria because the
DNA is protected by a layer of peptidoglycan.
d) Antibiotics cannot kill the endospores of gram-negative bacteria.
e) Antibiotics cannot find the gram-negative bacteria because they hide in capsules.
TRAITS
37. Some prokaryotes can hide from a host’s immune system by _______.
a) possessing a capsule made of sticky polysaccaride
b) creating a thicker layer of peptidoglycan in its cell wall
c) moving faster than the immune response with its flagella
d) forming an endospore
e) reproducing quickly by binary fission
38. Some prokaryotes have a cell covering that enables it to hide from the immune
defenses of a host organism called a ______.
a) plasmid
b) capsule
c) endospore
d) F factor
e) cell wall
39. Some prokaryote species have _____ and can survive very adverse environmental
conditions, such as freezing, drying, or high temperatures.
a) plasmids
b) capsule
c) endospore
d) F factor
e) Both A and B are correct
40. Which structure allows bacteria to attach to surfaces, such as a host’s lung tissue.
a) plasmids
b) capsule
c) endospore
d) F factor
e) Both A and B are correct
41. Most genetic variation in prokaryote populations occurs through the process of
_____.
a) meiosis during the formation of gametes
b) mutation where mistakes are made during DNA replication
c) conjugation in which one individual chances genetically
d) sexual reproduction resulting in genetically different offspring
e) Both A and D are correct
42. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a) Most of the bacterium’s DNA is found in the nucleoid region.
b) A plasmid is second genome found in some, but not all, bacteria.
c) Some bacteria are antibiotic-resistant because they have a certain type of plasmid.
d) The F factor makes a bacterium antibiotic-resistant.
e) Plasmids are a small, circular piece of DNA that contains genes.
43. Which of the following explain why bacteria are becoming antibiotic-resistant?
I. Bacteria can become symbiotic with eukaryotic organisms.
II. Bacteria can reproduce very rapidly, allowing DNA changes to quickly spread in a
population.
III. The DNA of bacteria often mutates from mistakes during DNA replication.
IV. Bacteria can exchange antibiotic-resistant genes by conjugation.
a) I, IV
b) II, III
c) I, II, III
d) II, III, IV
e) I, II, III, IV
44. In the past, may doctors would give antibiotics to patients at the first sign of disease
symptoms. Why can this practice cause more problems for these patients and for other
not yet infected?
a) Overuse of antibiotics can select for antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
b) Antibiotics may cause side affects in the patient.
c) The antibiotic chosen may not be effective for that particular type of bacteria
d) Some patients may be allergic to the antibiotic.
e) Antibiotics interfere with the ability of the doctor to identify the type of bacteria.
45. Which of the following are correct?
a) Exotoxins are secreted by living bacteria; endotoxins are part of the living bacteria and
are only harmful once the bacterium dies.
b) Exotoxins are part of the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria and can be removed by
antibiotics.
c) Endotoxins are proteins secreted by living bacteria than attack cells in the host’s body.
d) Endotoxins are not dangerous to the host, while exotoxins are always fatal.
e) All statements are correct.
46. Which of the following statements is incorrect about conjugation?
a) Conjugation is when DNA is transferred between two bacterial cells.
b) A sex pilus connects two bacterial cells during conjugation.
c) The F factor is required to form a sex pilus.
d) Both bacterial cells change genetically after conjugation.
e) The donor bacterium transfers a plasmid to the recipient bacterium.
47. Which of the following statements is incorrect about conjugation?
a) Conjugation is when DNA is transferred between two bacterial cells.
b) A sex pilus connects two bacterial cells during conjugation.
c) Both bacterial cells must have the F factor to create a sex pilus.
d) Only one bacterium changes genetically after conjugation.
e) The donor bacterium transfers a plasmid to the recipient bacterium.
48. Which of the following statements is incorrect about conjugation?
a) Conjugation is when DNA is transferred between two bacterial cells.
b) A sex pilus connects two bacterial cells during conjugation.
c) Only one bacterial cell needs to have the F factor to create a sex pilus.
d) Only one bacterium changes genetically after conjugation.
e) After conjugation, both bacteria always become resistant to antibiotics.
49. What two things are necessary for conjugation in bacteria?
a) capsule and sex pilus
b) flagellum and F factor
c) sex pilus and F factor
d) endospore and R plasmid
e) plasmid and endospore
50. Protists are alike in that all are _______.
a) multicellular.
b) photosynthetic.
c) marine.
d) unicellular.
e) eukaryotic.
51. Prokaryotic cells are different from eukaryotic cells because ______.
a) prokaryotes do not have cell walls.
b) prokaryotes cannot reproduce.
c) prokaryotes are not able to move.
d) prokaryotes do not have organelles.
e) prokaryotes do not have DNA.
52. Protists are ecologically important because:
a) they create land for organisms to colonize.
b) they lived in extreme environments.
c) they are the base of many aquatic food webs.
d) they removed poisonous materials from the atmosphere.
e) Protists are not important to the ecology of earth.
53. Which of the following statements about protists is false?
a) all are multicellular
b) most are motile
c) most are associated with water
d) some are parasitic
e) some are mixorophs
54. According to the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, how did
mitochondria originate?
a) from infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for oxygenusing metabolism
b) from engulfed, originally free-living prokaryotes
c) by tertiary endosymbiosis
d) from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes
e) when a proto-eukaryote engaged in a symbiotic relationship with a protobiont
55. An “endosymbiont” is ___________________.
a) a chimera
b) a eukaryote cell
c) an organism that lives inside another organism
d) a plant and its pollinator
e) Lynn Margulis
56. Evidence for secondary endosymbiosis can be seen in some protists because their
plastids are surrounded by ________ membranes?
a) one.
b) two.
c) three.
d) four
e) no
57. The strongest evidence for the endosymbiotic origin of eukaryotic organelles is the
similarity between extant prokaryotes and _______.
a) nuclei and chloroplasts
b) mitochondria and chloroplasts
c) cilia and mitochondria
d) mitochondria and nuclei
58. Lines of evidence supporting the endosymbiotic origin of chloroplasts and
mitochondria include/s:
a) Both have circular DNA.
b) Both have prokaryote-like ribosomes.
c) Both have histone proteins attached to their strands of DNA.
d) A and B are correct.
e) A, B, and C are correct
59. Which of the following characteristics of chloroplasts and mitochondria are more
similar to prokaryotic cells than to eukaryotic cells?
a) size of the organelle
b) ribosomes
c) circular DNA molecules
d) A and B are correct.
e) A, B, and C are correct
60. Which of the following is not a shared characteristic of chloroplasts and mitochondria
with prokaryotic cells?
a) cell walls contain peptidoglycan
b) ribosomal RNA sequences are similar
c) circular DNA molecules
d) some antibiotics block protein synthesis
e) replicate in a similar way (binary fission)
61. A ______, such as the _____, is an organism that carries and disperses a pathogenic
organism to a host organism.
a) vector, mosquito
b) plasmid, kissing bug
c) cholorplast, tsetse fly
d) virus, mosquito
e) transporter, wind
62. Which of the following statements is incorrect about biological vectors?
a) A vector is an organism.
b) A vector moves pathogenic organisms between host organisms.
c) All bacterial diseases need a vector to disperse.
d) The mosquito is an example of a vector.
e) A vector is necessary for malaria to spread within a human population.
63. The disease ________ is caused by ________ and it transmitted by the ________
vector.
a) malaria, Plasmodium, kissing bug
b) sleeping sickness, Trypanosoma, tsetse fly
c) malaria, Plasmodium, tsetse fly
d) chagas, Trypanosoma, mosquito
e) chagas, Plasmodium, tsetse fly
64. The disease ________ is caused by ________ and it transmitted by the ________
vector.
a) malaria, Plasmodium, mosquito
b) sleeping sickness, Trypanosoma, mosquito
c) malaria, Plasmodium, tsetse fly
d) chagas, Trypanosoma, mosquito
e) chagas, Plasmodium, tsetse fly
65. The disease ________ is caused by ________ and it transmitted by the ________
vector.
a) malaria, Plasmodium, tsetse fly
b) sleeping sickness, Trypanosoma, mosquito
c) malaria, Plasmodium, tsetse fly
d) chagas, Trypanosoma, kissing bug
e) chagas, Plasmodium, kissing bug
66. ____________ is a group of protists that cause a 15% crop loss in the North America
each year.
a) Dinoflagellates
b) Plasmodium
c) Oomycetes
d) Diatoms
e) Euglenazoa
67. ____________ is a group of protists that caused the Irish potato famine in the late
19th century, resulting in a large migration of Irish people to the United States.
a) Dinoflagellates
b) Plasmodium
c) Oomycetes
d) Diatoms
e) Euglenazoa
68. Which of the following marine organisms are responsible for red tides when they
produce potent neurotoxins that cause extensive fish kills, contaminate shellfish, and
create severe respiratory irritation to humans along the shore?
a) red algae
b) dinoflagellates
c) diplomonads
d) euglenids
e) green algae
69. ______ is a group in the Alveolata that are important component in plankton, can
cause red tides that kill many fish, and help feed corals.
a) Rhodophyta
b)Ciliates
c) Apicomplexans
d) Dinoflagellates
e) Euglenoids
70. ____ is a unicellular eukaryote that has a siliceous (glass-like) shell, is an autotroph,
and is an important component of plankton.
a) Dinoflagellates
b) Plasmodium
c) Oomycetes
d) Diatoms
e) Euglenazoa
71. Which of the following organisms are autotrophic and important components of
plankton?
I. dinoflagellates
II. oomycetes
III. diatoms
IV. euglena
V. Rhodophyta
a) I, II, IV
b) I, III
c) I, III, IV, V
d) II, V
e) III, IV, V
72. Which of the following incorrectly pairs a protist with one of its characteristics?
a) Apicomplexa: internal parasites
b) Euglenozoa: unicellular flagellates
c) ciliates: cause red tide
d) Aveolata: membrane-bounded sacs (alveoli) under cell surfaces
e) Dinoflagellates: important endosymbionts in corals
73. Which of the following incorrectly pairs a protist with one of its characteristics?
a) Oomycetes: important decomposers in freshwater environments
b) Chlorophyta: can be unicellular, colonial or multicelluar
c) Euglena: mixotrophic
d) Trypanosoma: apex organ to penetrate red blood cell membranes
e) diatoms: cell walls made of silica
74. Which of the following incorrectly pairs a protist with one of its characteristics?
a) Oomycetes: important decomposers in freshwater environments
b) Alveolata: membrane-bounded sacs under the cell membrane
c) Euglena: mixotrophic
d) Trypanosoma: apex organ to penetrate red blood cell membranes
e) diatoms: cell walls made of silica
75. Which of the following protists do not belong to Clade Alveolata?
a) Oomycetes
b) Dinoflagellates
c) Ciliates
d) Apicomplexans
e) All belong to Alveolata
76. Which of the following groups have single-celled organisms that are all flagellated,
but some members of heterotrophic and others are autotrophic?
a) diatoms
b) Euglenozoa
c) Chlorophyta
d) Rhodophyta
e) Both C and D are correct