GEOLOGY QUIZ 1 (Chapters 1-4) - GEO

advertisement
GEOLOGY QUIZ 1 (Chapters 1-3)
(1-34 are directly from text)
1) The Earth system containing the strong, rocky, external layer of the Earth is called:
A) the atmosphere.
B) the lithosphere
C) the biosphere.
D) the hydrosphere
2) The primary basis on which an hypothesis may be elevated to the status of a theory is:
A) the acceptance by most people that the hypothesis is a fact.
B) the length of time since the hypothesis was first suggested.
C) the lack of a reasonable alternate hypothesis.
D) the repeated confirmation of the hypothesis by observation and experimentation.
3) This hypothesis uses current geological processes to explain long-past geological events:
A) naturalism.
B) catastrophism.
C) uniformitarianism.
D) disasterism.
4) Which was NOT a factor in the proto-Earth's loss of nearly all of its lighter gases?
A) High temperatures from solar radiation vaporized these gases.
B) The gases were carried away by solar winds.
C) The Moon's gravitational force pulled these gases away from the planet.
D) The remaining matter consisted primarily of iron, nickel, and silicate minerals.
5) Due to its internal layers, the best model of the Earth's interior would be a cross section of a(n):
A) hard-boiled egg.
B) plain (not peanut) M&M.
C) watermelon.
D) onion.
6) Heat transfer by actual motion of material carrying thermal energy with it, is called:
A) conduction.
B) convection.
C) evaporation.
D) radioactivity.
7) Cooling and solidification of magma produces:
A) sediment particles.
B) magma.
C) igneous rocks.
D) metamorphic rocks.
8) Absolute dating of rocks is based fundamentally on:
A) the principle of superposition.
B) the constant rate of decay of radioactive elements.
C) the position of fossils within rock layers.
D) the spatial relationships of rock bodies to one another.
1
9) The denser plate sinks beneath the less-dense plate at all convergent plate boundaries EXCEPT:
A) subducting boundaries.
B) ocean-to-ocean plate boundaries.
C) ocean-to-continent plate boundaries.
D) continent-to-continent plate boundaries.
10) Despite scientific evidence, Wegener's continental drift hypothesis was unaccepted because:
A) of the religious dogma of society at that time.
B) he was a meteorologist, not a geologist.
C) he could not provide a plausible mechanism by which continents could move.
D) American scientists preferred to develop their own hypothesis.
11) A rock is best defined as:
A) aggregates of several crystals.
B) aggregates of one or more naturally occurring solids of definite chemical composition.
C) aggregates of one or more minerals.
D) aggregates of naturally occurring solids of definite crystalline structure.
12) The property that distinguishes an atom to be that of a particular element is:
A) the number of electrons it has.
B) the number of protons it has.
C) the number of neutrons it has.
D) the number of neutrons and protons together.
13) In metallic bonding, which of the following is NOT true?
A) Atoms are packed tightly together.
B) A cloud of electrons roams independently, unattached to any specific nucleus.
C) The electron cloud is negatively charged and is attracted to the positively charged nuclei.
D) Metallic bonding is the most common type of bonding among minerals.
14) The kinds of mineral formed in a particular time and place depend on all of the following EXCEPT:
A) the relative abundances of available elements.
B) the relative sizes and fit of the atoms and ions of the available elements.
C) the shape of the space in which the mineral forms.
D) the temperature and pressure at the time of formation.
15) The best single property by which most minerals can be identified is:
A) color, which depends on how much light a mineral's specific chemical makeup and crystal structure
cause it to absorb or reflect.
B) streak, the color of the powdered mineral without trace impurities.
C) hardness, its resistance to scratching or abrasion.
D) none of the above, because minerals can seldom be identified on the basis of only one property.
16) Mineral hardness refers to:
A) strength of the bonds in the crystal structure.
B) equal bond strength in the crystal structure.
C) inequal bond strength in the crystal structure.
D) durability of the mineral.
2
17) Mineral cleavage indicates:
A) strength of the bonds in the crystal structure.
B) equal bond strength in the crystal structure.
C) unequal bond strength in the crystal.
D) brittle nature of the mineral.
18) The most important (i.e., most abundant) mineral group is the:
A) silicates.
B) oxides.
C) sulfates.
D) carbonates.
19) All of the following statements concerning synthetic gems are true EXCEPT:
A) many of the diamonds used in both industry and in jewelry are synthetic.
B) many synthetic gems are indistinguishable from natural ones except by laboratory analysis.
C) synthetic gems are generally cheaper than natural gems.
D) synthetic gems are generally inferior to natural gems.
20) What features on Earth are indirectly the result of the melting of rocks?
A) Eroded mountains.
B) Landslides.
C) The oceans and atmosphere.
D) Earthquakes.
21) Which of the following statements concerning cooling magma is NOT true?
A) As magma cools, new bonds form between ions.
B) Different minerals crystallize at different temperatures.
C) Composition of the magma remains the same as it crystallizes.
D) Crystals grow until they touch the edges of other crystals.
22) The geothermal gradient describes how:
A) pressure increases with depth within the Earth.
B) temperature increases with depth within the Earth.
C) magma becomes more mafic with depth within the Earth.
D) water content increases with depth within the Earth.
23) At the Earth's surface, the mineral albite melts at 1118° C. At a depth of 100 km, it would melt at:
A) 750° C.
B) 900° C.
C) 1100° C.
D) 1440° C.
24) Viscosity of a magma:
A) decreases with increasing temperature.
B) decreases with increasing silica content.
C) increases with increasing temperature and low silica content.
D) increases with decreasing temperature and high silica content.
25) Which of the following is NOT true about Bowen's reaction series?
A) It shows how silicate minerals form as temperature decreases.
B) It shows how a complete range of igneous rock compositions may be formed from the same basaltic
magma.
C) It shows that minerals form in a definite sequence.
D) It shows that minerals never form in the same order.
3
26) What is the process by which a single parent magma can produce a variety of rocks of different
composition?
A) Magma mixing.
B) Fractional crystallization.
C) Assimilation.
D) Subduction.
27) The two properties used most to classify igneous rocks are:
A) color and mineral composition.
B) color and texture.
C) the grain size and the number of different minerals present.
D) texture and mineral composition.
28) As the rate of cooling decreases, particle size in an igneous rock:
A) decreases.
B) increases.
C) stays the same.
D) can not predict.
29) In an igneous rock with two distinct classes of crystal size, which of the following is true?
A) The rock cooled slowly at first, but then the cooling process speeded up.
B) The rock cooled quickly at first, but then the cooling process slowed down.
C) The minerals were all large, but then some melted.
D) There was an explosion producing different sized crystals.
30) Most igneous rocks are composed primarily of:
A) iron and magnesium.
B) oxygen and silicon.
C) oxygen and hydrogen.
D) iron and aluminum.
31) An ultramafic igneous rock is one that contains about how much silica?
A) Greater than 65%.
B) 55% to 65%.
C) 45% to 55%.
D) Less than 40%.
32) An aphanitic mafic rock is a:
A) rhyolite.
B) granite.
C) basalt.
D) gabbro.
33) Which of the following is an example of an intermediate igneous rock?
A) Granite.
B) Basalt.
C) Peridotite.
D) Andesite.
34) A phaneritic rock containing a relatively high percentage of silica is a:
A) rhyolite.
B) granite.
C) basalt.
D) gabbro.
4
(35 – 50 may or may not be found in the text)
35) Minerals are made of ….
a. organic particles
b. chemical elements
c. only large rocks
d. can not be seen without a microscope
36) The hardest mineral on earth is a ….
a. biotite
b. feldspar
c. titanium
d. diamond
37) Which is not one of the three “Rock Families”….
a. igneous
b. petroleum
c. metamorphic
d. sedimentary
38) In the rock system (rock cycle), Igneous rocks could become any of these except….
a. re-melted
b. ablated
c. metamorphozed at a medium temperature
d. weathered into small fragments
39) How many “seconds” are around the world if you use the global grid system….
a. 360x60x60
b. 360x60
c. 360
d. 60
40) Another name for latitude is….
a. meridian
c. parallel
b. longitude
d. elevation
41) Which is an example of a Representative Fraction….
a. 1” = 1 mile
b. 1:24,000
c. N43E
d. T30N R7W
42) Contour lines are….
a. usually black on topographic maps
b. not a consistent elevation distance
c. usually bent downstream when they cross the valley
d. a type of isoline
5
43) Contour interval….
a. indicates vertical change
b. indicates a horizontal change
c. vary in scale between each line
d. can not be measured
44) Which is not one of the “Rules for Using Contours”….
a. can not cross each other
b. can not represent depressions
c. do not split or join
d. do not end, but may close in a loop or go off the map
45) Which is not a compass bearing or azimuth….
a. N10E
b. 045
c. E090
d. W080
Essay Questions:
Select 2 of the following essays. You may draw and use a diagram to help explain your answer
1) How can iceberg dispersal from Antarctic ice shelves cause a worldwide rise in sea level?
2) What methods do geologists use to apply the scientific method to geological hypotheses?
3) What is the Big Bang theory.
4) List and briefly discuss five lines of evidence in favor of plate tectonics.
5) Explain why the crystals of any given mineral always form in the same geometric shape if allowed to
grow in an unrestricted space.
6) Describe how the factors of heat, pressure, and water content influence the melting point temperature
of crustal rocks.
6
Download