Pharmacology Board Review Questions 1-50
1) The heart is generally considered to have predominantly which type of adrenergic receptors?
a) Alpha 1 (a1) receptors
b) Beta 1 (B1) receptors *
c) Alpha 2 (a2) receptors
d) Beta 2 (B2) receptors
2) Which of the following drugs are used to prevent or to provide relief of angina pectoris?
a) Nitroglycerin
b) Nifedipine (Procardia)
c) Diltiazem (Cardizem)
d) Propranolol (Inderal)
e) All of the above *
3) Which schedule of drugs would include a drug that is considered to have a strong potential for
abuse or addiction, but which has legitimate medical use?
a) Schedule 1
b) Schedule II *
c) Schedule III
d) Schedule IV
e) Schedule V
4) Which of the following statements describe the extrapyramidal syndrome (EPS) caused by the
phenothiazine-type antipsychotics
a) Orthostatic hypotension
b) Sedation
c) Headache
d) Dry mouth
e) Muscle spasms of the oral-facial region *
5) Which of the following calcium channel blocking agents is a useful anti-arrhythmic and antianginal agent?
a) Verapamil (Calan)*
b) Nifedipine (Procardia)
c) Amlodipine (Norvasc)
d) All of the above
6) Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of action of local anesthetics
on the nerve axon?
a) Decreases sodium uptake through sodium channels of the axon *
b) Increases potassium outflow from inside to outside the nerve
c) Increases the membrane’s permeability to sodium
d) Increases the excitability of the nerve axon
7) All of the following drugs are considered to be what type of drugs?
a) Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
b) Diazepam (Valium)
c)
d)
e)
f)
g)
Flurazepam (Dalmane)
Midazolam (Versed)
Alprazolam (Xanax)
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Triazolam (Halcion)
Tranquilizers (Benzodiazepines) *
12) Which term describes the passage of drugs through cell membranes with the help of energy (in the
form of ATO) and carrier proteins?
a) Passive transport
b) Active transport *
c) Osmosis
d) Diffusion
13) The following effects result from what type of pharmacological agent: an alpha adrenergic receptor
blocker (alpha blocker) or a beta adrenergic receptor blocker (beta blocker)?
a) Bradycardia
b) Decrease in blood pressure
c) Decrease in force of contraction of myocardium
d) Beta adrenergic receptor blocker (beta blocker)*
14) Name the eight classes of drugs used in cancer chemotherapy.
1) Alkylating agents
2) Anthracyclines
3) Antibiotics
4) Antimetabolites
5) Antimicrotubular
6) Antiestrogen
7) Vinca Alkaloids
8) Gonadotropin hormone-releasing antigen
15) Which term is used to describe an abnormally low blood pressure occurring when an individual
changes from a reclining position to a standing position?
a) Benign hypotension
b) Controlled hypotension
c) Orthostatic hypotension *
d) Accelerated hypotension
16) Which of the following are prominent toxic effects of mercury?
a) Irritability
b) Excessive saliva
c) Loosened teeth
d) Gum disorders
e)Slurred speech
f) Tremors
g) All of the above *
17)Pharmaceutical agents that bring about tissue responses resembling those produces by stimulation
of the sympathetic nervous system are called what?
a) Cholinomimetic
b) Antiadrenergic
c) Anticholinergic
d) Sympathomimetic *
18) Which of the following drugs is the current drug of choice for the treatment of the manic phase of
bipolar disorder (or manic-depressive syndrome)?
a) Phenobarbital
b) Imipramine
c) Lithium *
d) Haloperidol
19) The barbiturates Phenobarbital (Luminal), Mephobarbital (Mebaral), and Primidone (Mysoline) are
classified as what type of barbiturate)
a) Ultrashort-acting
b) Short-acting
c) Intermediate-acting
d) Long-acting *
20) Which of the following is the most frequently utilized route of administration for sedation in
pediatric patients?
a) Oral
b) Inhalation *
c) IV
d) IM
21) When writing a prescription, q.i.d. is the abbreviation for what?
*Four times a day
22) In general, amide-type local anesthetics are metabolized by the liver
*True
23) Diuretics are used to treat congestive heart failure by relieving edema and symptoms of dyspnea
arising from pulmonary congestion.
*True
24) Which of the following drugs is the prototype opioid antagonist?
a) Morphine
b) Naloxone *
c) Propranolol
d) Ibuprofen
25) deleted
26) All of the following agents reduce the production of what substance associated with pain and
inflammation?
a) Flurbiprofen (Ansaid)
b) Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil)
c) Naproxen (Naprosyn)
d) Piroxicam (Feldene)
e) Naproxen sodium (Anaprox, Aleve
f) Nabumetone (Relafen)
g) Prostaglandins *
27) What substance produces all of the following physiologic actions?
a) Constrict arteriolar blood vessels (vasoconstriction)
b) Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
c) Decrease blood volume in nasal tissues
d) Causes a hypertensive response
e) Produces physiological actions opposite to that of histamine
f) Epinephrine *
28) Which antiarrythmic agent is effective only on the ventricle and is often administered IV to treat lifethreatening ventricular arrhythmias?
a) Quinidine
b) Lidocaine *
c) Disopyramide (Norpace)
d) Propafenone (Rythmol)
29) Local anesthetics theoretically should be less effective in acutely inflamed tissue than in normal
tissue because in inflamed tissue what happens?
a) The pH rises, thus inactivating the anesthetic
b) The pH rises, thus decreasing available free base
c) The pH decreases, thus decreasing available free base *
d) The pH remains the same, the extracellular fluid dilutes the anesthetic
30)The Controlled Substance Act of 1970 uses which of the following criteria for inclusion of a drug into
one of the five schedules?
a) Potential for abuse
b) Medical usefulness
c) Degree to which it produces physiological dependence
d) Degree to which it produces physical dependence
e) All of the above *
31) Which of the following is a high molecular weight heteropolyaccharide that is found especially in the
lungs and inactivates thrombin and other coagulation factors and thus prevents blood clotting?
a) Prothrombin
b) Firbin
c) Heparin *
d) Plasmin
32) All of the following are desirable effects of epinephrine that make it the agent of an anaphylactic
reaction.
a) It has vasopressor activity
b) It has bronchodilator properties
c) It has a rapid onset of action
d) * True
33) The receptors known as alpha receptors and beta receptors are located in which portion of the
autonomic nervous system?
a) Sympathetic portion *
b) Parasympathetic portion
34) Amphetamines are sympathomimetic amines that have a stimulating effect on both the central and
peripheral nervous system.
*True
35) A patient who has taken Combunox (oxycodone with ibuprofen) for the first time could likely
complain of all of the following adverse effects EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a) Nausea
b) Diarrhea *
c) Queazy stomach
d) Dizziness
e) Drowsiness
36)Which of the following two penicillins are referred to as aminopenicillins?
a) Penicillin VK
b) Ampicillin (Polycillin) *
c) Cloxacillin (Cloxapen)
d) Amoxicillin (Amoxil) *
37) Which of the following is a common adverse effect caused by the use of tetracyclines?
a) Photosensitivity
b) Nausea
c) Diarrhea
d) Discoloration of teeth and enamel hypoplasia in young children
e) All of the above *
38) Which of the following antibiotics is considered a broad-spectrum antibiotic?
a) Penicillin VK
b) Cefaclor (Ceclor) *
c) Penicillin G
d) Erythromycin
39) Your patient is taking erythromycin twice daily for 1 month for an upper respiratory tract infection.
She has history that requires antiobotic prophylaxis prior to probing/scaling. She is allergic to penicillin.
Which of the following antibiotics could be used if you had to premedicate while taking erythromycin?
a) Ampicillin
b) Cephalexin (Keflex)
c) Azithromycin (Zithromax) *
d) Pencillin VK
40) Which tetracycline is indicated for systemic administration in the adult periodontal patient to
prevent any further destruction or loss of periodontal attachment?
a) Doxycycline gel (Atridox)
b) Minocycline microspheres (Arestin)
c) Doxycycline (Periostat) *
41) Which antibiotic / antimicrobial when taken with alcohol can cause a disulfiram-like reaction of
flushing, headache, nausea, vomiting, sweating and tachycardia?
a) Metronidazole (Flagyl) *
b) Tetracycline
c) Erythromycin
d) Penicillin VK
42) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) has which of the following modes of action?
a) Affects bacterial cell wall
b) Affects bacterial DNA *
c) Interferes with bacterial protein synthesis
d) Interferes with bacterial metabolic pathways
43) Which of the following drugs can be used in a pregnant patient?
a) Tetracycline
b) Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
c) Minocycline (Minocin
d) Penicillin VK *
44) Which antimicrobial is associated with photosensitivity?
a) Tetracycline *
b) Penicillin VK
c) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
d) Clindamycin
45) Which of the following bacterial enzymes belong to the family of beta-lactamases?
a) Penicillinase *
b) Atpase
c) Protein kinase
46) Sulfonamides (also known as sulfa drugs) are structurally similar to:
a) Penicillins
b) Erythromycins
c) Acetysalicylic acid (Aspirin)
d) Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)*
47) All of the following drugs are useful for treating what disease?
a) Isoniazid
b) Streptomycin
c) Rifampin
d) Ethambutol
e) Pyrazinamide
f) Tuberculosis *
48) The antiviral agent penciclovir (Denavir) is active against which virus?
a) Herpes zoster
b) Genital herpes
c) Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) *
d) Papilloma virus
49) Erythromycin is a bacteriostatic antiobiotic which binds to the 50 S ribosomal subunit of susceptible
bacteria. The result is the inhibition of protein synthesis.
*True
50) Which antibiotic exerts its antibacterial activity through inhibition of protein synthesis in the
bacterial cell?
a) Cephalosporins
b) Ampicillin
c) Tetracycline *
d) Penicillin VK