University of Kurdistan Hewlêr
___________________________________________________________________________
Admission Test 2014
(SAMPLE)
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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
(i) Please read all the instructions carefully and do not start the test until told to do so.
(ii) Please count the number of pages before starting to write. You must have a total
number of --------- pages in the exam paper, including this page. In case of a
missing page contact the supervisory staff near you. Please note that the answer
sheet is provided separately.
(iii) Calculators and mathematical tables are not allowed.
(iv) Answers must be given only on the answer sheet attached as the last page.
(v) Fill in your particulars (name, application number) in BLOCK letters in the space
provided on the answer sheet using pen (not pencil). These should be written exactly
as they were on your application form.
(vi) Use only pencil to fill in the correct choice on the answer sheet.
(vii) Write down your application number on every page of the question paper and
answer sheet.
(viii) You are not allowed to change your seat during the test.
(ix) Hand over your question paper along with your answer sheet to the invigilator at
the end of the test and remain seated until you are allowed to leave the examination
room.
Note : Use of unfair means will lead to disqualification.
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SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS
(A) There are 75 multiple choice questions (MCQs) in this test. You have two hours
and 30 minutes to answer these questions. Do not spend too much time on any one
question.
(B) Use only the exam paper, not the answer sheet, for rough work.
(C) For each correct answer the score is ‘4/3 point’ and there is no negative marking.
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1. 15% of 200 is
A. 3
B. 30
C. 300
D. 3,000
E. None of the above
2. If 𝑥 3 = 64 then
A. 𝑥 = 4 only
B. 𝑥 = −4 only
C. 𝑥 = ±4
D. 𝑥 = ±8
E. None of the above
3. If 𝑦 is 7 less than 3 times 𝑥. Then 𝑥 =
𝑦−7
A. 3
𝑦+7
B. 3
C. 3𝑦 + 7
D. 3𝑦 − 7
E. 7/3 − 𝑦/3
4. If 10100 = 100𝑥 then 𝑥 =
A. 50
B. 100
C. 110
D. 1000
E. 10
5. The next term in the series 1, 1, 3, 5, 9,… is
A. 7
B. 11
C. 13
D. 15
E. 17
6. If Vania paid $14 for 4 tickets, how much do 6 tickets cost?
A. $7
B. $14
C. $21
D. $28
E. $56
7. After 20% discount, the price of flat screen TV is $500. How much was the price before
discount?
A. $700
B. $850
C. $625
D. $380
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E. $550
8. Given a 30°, 60°, 90° triangle. The largest side is 10. The side opposite the 60° angle is
A. 5
B. 5√2 ≈ 7.0
C. 5√3 ≈ 8.5
D. 10√2 ≈ 14
E. 10√3 ≈ 17
9. Which of the following is the midpoint of a line with endpoints at (–2,–8) and (8,0)?
A. (3,4)
B. (3,–4)
C. (–5,4)
D. (5,–4)
E. (6,–8)
10. The adjacent chart shows the sales by month for
two of the branches of a book store. From January
through May, how much more money did branch B
gross in sales than branch A?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
$ 5,000
$ 4,000
$ 10,000
$ 7,000
$ 2,000
11. If 𝑎 ∆ 𝑏 = 𝑎. 𝑏 − 𝑎 + 𝑏 then 3 ∆ 5 =
A. 2
B. 8
C. 17
D. 21
E. 35
𝑥+1
12. The domain of 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥(𝑥 2 +4) is all real numbers except for 𝑥 =
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
2
2 and −2
0
0, 2, and −2
𝑓(𝑥) defined for all values of 𝑥.
13. What is the average of the following numbers: 35.5, 32.5, 34.0, 35.0, and 34.5?
A. 33.0
B. 33.8
C. 4.0
D. 34.3
E. 34.5
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14. In the adjacent figure, the radius of the outer circle shown is 1.2 times greater than the
radius of the inner circle. What is the area of the shaded region?
A. ≈ 6 m2
B. ≈ 9 m2
C. ≈ 25 m2
D. ≈ 30 m2
E. ≈ 35 m2
15. A rhombus is made from 2 equilateral triangles. If the length of each side is 3 cm, the
area is
A. ≈ 5 m2
B. ≈ 7m2
C. ≈ 8 m2
D. ≈ 9 m2
E. ≈ 10 m2
16. The pie chart shows the distribution of video rentals from an online streaming service for
a single night. If 250 videos were rented that night, how many more action movies were
rented than horror movies?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 22
D. 25
E. 30
17. Which figure is the odd one out?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A
B
C
D
E
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2
18. The line of equation 𝑦 = 3 𝑥 + 1 is perpendicular to the line of equation
2
A. 𝑦 = − 3 𝑥 + 1
3
2
B. 𝑦 = 𝑥 + 1
3
C. 𝑦 = − 𝑥 + 1
2
D. 𝑦 = −3/2
3
E. 𝑦 = 2 𝑥 − 1
19. In the diagram, lines EF and GH are parallel, and line AB
is perpendicular to lines EF and GH. What is the length
of line AB?
A. 5
B. 5√2
C. 5√3
D. 10√2
E. 10√3
20. The point (2,1) is the midpoint of a line with endpoints at (–5,3) and
A. (–3,4)
B. (–7,2)
C. (7,1)
D. (9,–1)
E. (–10,3)
21. Which of the following is the vertex of the parabola which is the graph of the
equation 𝑦 = (𝑥 + 1)2 + 2?
A. (–1,–2)
B. (1,–2)
C. (–1,2)
D. (1,2)
E. (2,–1)
22. It takes eight people 12 hours to clean an office. How long would it take six people to clean
the office?
A. 9 hours
B. 15 hours
C. 16 hours
D. 18 hours
E. 24 hours
23. The expression
𝑥√32
√4𝑥
is equivalent to
A. 2√2
B. √2/2
C. 2√2/√𝑥
D. 𝑥√2/√𝑥
E. 2𝑥√2/√𝑥
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24. Which one will complete the series?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
None of the Above
25. The graph of ℎ(𝑥) is shown. How many solutions has the
equation ℎ(𝑥) = 3 in the interval −4 < 𝑥 < 4?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
E. Cannot be determined
26. lim
𝑥 3 −8
𝑥→2 𝑥 4 −16
A.
3
8
B. −
C.
=
11
6
7
15
D. 0
E. None of the above
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27. The graph of 𝑔(𝑥) is shown in the adjacent figure.
lim 𝑔(𝑥) =
𝑥→3
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Does not exist
−1
2
0
None of the above
𝑥
28. The derivative of 𝑞(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 +1 is 𝑞 ′ (𝑥) =
A.
B.
C.
D.
𝑥2
(1+𝑥 2 )2
1−𝑥 2
(1+𝑥 2 )2
1
(1+𝑥 2 )2
𝑥 2 −1
(1+𝑥 2 )2
E. None of the above
29. The derivative of 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑥 ln 𝑥 is 𝑔′ (𝑥) =
A. ln 𝑥
B.
1
𝑥
C. ln 𝑥 + 1
D.
1
𝑥−1
E. None of the above
30. The equation of the tangent to the curve 𝑦 = ln 𝑥 at the point (1,0) is
A. 𝑦 = 𝑥 − 1
B. 𝑦 = 𝑥 + 1
C. 𝑦 = 𝑥
D. 𝑦 = −𝑥 + 1
E. None of the above
31. The unit of Heat in S.I. system is
A. calorie
B. watt
C. watt hour
D. joule
E. none of the above
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32. S.I. unit of temperature is
A. Celsius
B. Fahrenheit
C. Absolute Zero
D. Kelvin
E. None of the above
33. A vector quantity requires and additional information as compared to a scalar quantity
A. unit
B. dimension
C. direction
D. magnitude
E. None of the above
34. A unit vector can be obtained by dividing a given vector by its
A. negative
B. unit
C. magnitude
D. dimensions
E. None of the above
35. The position vector of a point in the X-Z plane is
^ ^ ^
A. r = x i +y j +z k
^ ^
B. r = x i +z k
^ ^
C. r = x i +y j
^
^
D. r = y j +z k
E. None of the above
36. If a . b = 0
A. a and b are parallel
B. a and b are anti-parallel
C. a and b are perpendicular
D. b is null vector
E. None of the above
^
^
^
^
j both vector are in the
A
y j
B
y
A
B
i
i
A
B
37. If
=
+
and
=
+
A. X–Z plane
B. Z–Z plane
C. X–Y plane
D.  to X–Y plane
E. None of the above
X
X
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38. If velocity time graph is a straight line parallel to time axis, the velocity is
A. uniform
B. non-uniform
C. accelerated
D. retarded
E. None of the above
39. Mass of a body is measure of its
A. momentum
B. force
C. inertia
D. impulse
E. None of the above
40. A stone is rotated in a vertical circle. The tension in the string at the highest point is
A. minimum
B. maximum
C. zero
D. infinite
E. None of the above
41. A stone is rotated in a vertical circle. The tension in the string at the lowest pint is
A. minimum
B. maximum
C. zero
D. infinite
E. None of the above
42. The waves which do not require medium for their propagation.
A. mechanical waves
B. sound waves
C. electromagnetic waves
D. ripples
E. None of the above
43. In a compressional wave, the particles of the medium oscillate
A. perpendicular
B. parallel
C. oblique
D.
opposite direction, to the direction of motion of the wave
E. None of the above
44. Two musical instruments played at the same time with same loudness and pitch can be
recognized due to difference in
A. wavelength of sounds
B. amplitude of vibration of string
C. tensions of their strings
D. overtones
E. None of the above
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45. A neutral conductor is charged when placed near a charged conductor. This phenomenon is
called.
A. polarization
B. electrolysis
C. electrostatic induction
D. electrostatic conduction
E. None of the above
46. Unit of electric energy is
A. ampere
B. coulomb
C. watt
D. Joule
E. None of the above
47. Resistance of a thermistor is
A. voltage dependent
B. current dependent
C. light dependent
D. temperature dependent
E. None of the above
48. Which quantity is measured as Joule per coulomb
A. capacitance
B. electric energy
C. electromotive force
D. electric power
E. None of the above
49. A.C. voltage varies with time
A. exponentially
B. linearly
C. sinusoidally
D. inversely
E. None of the above
50. Solids have their specific uses depending upon their
A. hardness
B. conductivity
C. magnetic properties
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
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51. All compounds are inorganic except
A. CaCO3
B. CaC2
C. KCN
D. (NH2)2CO
E. None of the above
52. Hydrocarbons contain
A. carbon & oxygen
B. hydrogen & oxygen
C. carbon & nitrogen
D. carbon & hydrogen
E. None of the above
53. Which one is the source of an organic compound?
A. carbon monoxide gas
B. Sulphur dioxide gas
C. carbon dioxide gas
D. natural gas
E. None of the above
54. Benzene is a prime member of
A. acyclic compounds
B. alicyclic compounds
C. heterocyclic compounds
D. aromatic compounds
E. None of the above
55. The structure of methane is
A. linear
B. trigonal
C. tetrahedral
D. pentagonal
E. None of the above
56. Which one is a separation technique?
A. Deliquescence
B. Fluorescence
C. Phosphorescence
D. Solvent extraction
E. None of the above
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57. In primary alkyl halide, the halogen atom is attached to a carbon which is attached to:
A. Two carbon atoms
B. Three carbon atoms
C. Four carbon atoms
D. One carbon atom
E. None of the above
58. SN1 reaction completes in
A. A single step
B. Two steps
C. Three steps
D. Four steps
E. None of the above
59. Which one is used as the stationary phase in chromatography?
A. A piece of paper
B. Water
C. Alcohol
D. Acetone
E. None of the above
60. Grignard’s Reagent is prepared by treating
A. Alkyl-halide and Mg
B. Alkane and Mg
C. Alcohol and Mg
D. Alkene and Mg
E. None of the above
61. Which one is correct according to atomic size?
A. Mg > Ca
B. Cu > Co
C. C l > I
D. K > Na
E. None of the above
62. Mandeleev arranged elements in periodic table on the basis of:
A. Atomic number
B. Atomic mass
C. Atomic volume
D. Atomic mass & atomic number
E. None of the above
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63. In the periodic table ionization energy
A. Decreases down the group
B. Neither increases nor decreases down the group
C. Increases down the group
D. First increases and then decreases down the group
E. None of the above
64. Isotopes are sister atoms of the same element with similar chemical properties but different
A. atomic number
B. atomic volume
C. atomic mass
D. atomic structure
E. None of the above
65. How many moles of hydrogen occupy 22.4 dm3 of Volume at S.T.P ?
A. 0.1
B. 0.90
C. 1.0
D. 2.0
E. None of the above
66. Esters have the general formula
A. ROH
B. RCHO
C. RCOOR
D. RCOOH
E. None of the above
67. Laughing gas is chemically represented by
A. NO
B. N2O
C. NO2
D. N2O4
E. None of the above
68. Which halogen directly reacts with noble gas?
A. F
B. Cl
C. Br
D. I
E. None of the above
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69. What is the molarity of sodium ions prepared by diluting 250 ml of 0.55 M NaCl to 1.25 L?
A. 0.01 M
B. 0.12M
C. 0.22 M
D. 0.30 M
E. None of the above
70. Which compound contains the highest percentage of Ca by mass?
A. CaH2
B. CaO2
C. CaCaO3
D. CaCl2
E. None of the above
71. What is the pH of 0.4 Mole solution of HBr?
A. 0.4
B. 4
C. 7
D. 14
E. None of the above
72. Molecules of which one of these gases has the highest speed at room temperature?
A. Hydrogen
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Neon
E. None of the above
73. The law which states that the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure is
A. Raoult’s law
B. Dalton’s law
C. Henry’s law
D. Boyle’s law
E. None of the above
74. A flexible container contains hydrogen gas at a certain pressure. What will be the new
pressure if the absolute temperature and volume of the container is reduced to half?
A. It remains unchanged.
B. It doubles.
C. It reduces to half.
D. It becomes 4 times higher
E. None of the above
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75. The molecules of H2O exist in pure liquid form. Which intermolecular forces exist between
the molecules of water?
A. Dispersion forces.
B. Hydrogen bonds.
C. Dipole-dipole interactions.
D. Dispersion forces, dipole-dipole interaction and hydrogen bonds.
E. None of the above
END OF EXAMINATION
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