PSY 202 FINAL
Quiz1
Which of the following most correctly states Descartes’ position on human and animal behavi
o?
a. A few human and animal behaviors are governed by free will; most are governed by reflexes.
b. All human and animal behaviors can be explained by reflex mechanisms.
c. Human behavior is governed by free will; animal behavior is governed by reflexes.
d. Voluntary human behaviors are governed by free will; involuntary human behaviors and all a
nimal behaviors are governed by reflexes.
John Locke believed that
a. the human mind was unpredictable and governed by free will.
b. the ideas humans had were acquired directly or indirectly after birth.
c. nativism best described human cognition.
d. rules of association did not explain human behavior.
The research of Ivan Pavlov and Hermann Ebbinghaus is similar because both researchers
a. were using empirical methods to investigate reflexes.
b. extended Descartes’ concept of dualism.
c. were using empirical methods to study laws of associations.
d. were concerned with the study of the mind, not with physiological mechanisms.
Which of the following are rationales for the use of animal models of human behavior?
a. Animal models are cheaper than studies with humans.
b. Animal models permit the investigations to be carried out more simply.
c. Animal models allow for circumstances that can be better controlled.
d. All of these
What is the correct pathway of the neural signal in a reflex arc?
a. motor neuron, sensory neuron, interneuron
b. sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron
c. interneuron, motor neuron, sensory neuron
d. sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron
Of the following, which is not a reflexive behavior?
a. maintaining attention when driving
b. a baby pulling away when its nose and mouth are covered
c. sneezing in response to dust
d. turning to the location of a loud noise
Which of the following is the incorrect statement about reflexive behaviors?
a. Reflexes are the simplest form of elicited behavior.
b. Simple reflexes are not influenced by learning.
c. Most reflexes promote the well-being of the organism.
d. The organization of the nervous system determines the specificity of the stimulus/responsere
lationship.
Which of the following is true regarding any given modal action pattern?
a. involves species-specific responses
b. involves movement towards or away from a stimulus
c. cannot be elicited by a stimulus found in the organism’s usual environment
d. usually found in many species
Which of the following most correctly describes a sign stimulus?
a. first causes habituation, then sensitization
b. sufficient for eliciting a modal action pattern
c. first causes sensitization, then habituation
d. similar to an instinct
Elicited behaviors are fruitful topics for researchers studying learning because of which
following result?
a. They do not occur the same way each time the eliciting stimulus is presented.
b. They are unchanging and make good controls.
c. they allow for voluntary behavior in non-human animals.
d. They are present in most animals except humans and provide clues to the evolution of
behavior.
Quiz 2
Which of the following is a true statement about habituation?
a. both increases and decreases responsiveness to a stimulus with repeated presentations
b. decreases responsiveness to a stimulus with repeated presentations
c. either increases or decreases responsiveness to a stimulus with repeated presentations, depe
nding on the background cues
d. increases responsiveness to a stimulus with repeated presentations
Your roommate no longer drinks his orange juice every morning like the doctor ordered. He
says he does not care for it any more. Based on learning principles, to increase his juice
consumption and benefit his health you suggest
Select one:
a. switching to drinking tangerine (mandalina) juice.
b. switching to drinking mild vinegar (sirke).
c. eating peanuts (fıstık) before breakfast.
d. requiring foraging in the refrigerator for the orange juice.
According to one study using lemon and lime juice to investigate the role of familiarity of foo
d and its rated pleasantness, which of the following is correct?
a.As we repeatedly encounter a taste, it initially increases then decreases in pleasantness.
b. As we repeatedly encounter a taste, it initially decreases then increases in pleasantness.
c. As we encounter a food over and over, we become familiar with it, and it increases in pleasan
tness.
d. Overeating may be discouraged by varying the foods that are available.
Repeated presentation of a stimulus will cause which of the following?
a. invariant behavior changes if it is a true eliciting stimulus
b. either habituation or sensitization effects, depending on the subject’s level of arousal
c. only habituation effects or only sensitization effects, regardless of background conditions
d. both habituation and sensitization effects
Habituation and sensitization effects perform which of the following functions?
a. Direct responses to all stimuli present.
b. Focus attention on all stimuli present.
c. Focus attention on relevant stimuli.
d. Focus attention on background stimuli.
Fatigue occurs in which of the following physiological areas?
a. the interneuron
b. the brain
c. the sense organ
d. the muscle tissue
To rule out response fatigue as the cause for the decreased responding that occurs over
repeated presentations of a stimulus, the researcher should
a. determine if the subject is responding to the stimulus in other ways.
b. present a new stimulus that elicits an unrelated response.
c. present a new stimulus that elicits a similar response.
d. determine if the subject can still sense the stimulus
The dual-process theory assumes which of the following?
a. One neural process is responsible for increases and decreases in responsiveness to
stimulation.
b. Habituation and sensitization effects are essentially the same.
c. Different types of neural mechanisms are responsible for increases and decreases in
responsiveness to stimulation.
d. Habituation is due to fatigue; sensitization is due to learning.
In Aplysia, the role of the facilitatory interneuron is to
a. decrease the release of neurotransmitter from the motor neuron.
b. decrease the sensitivity of the motor neuron.
c. increase sensitivity of the motor neuron.
d. increase the release of neurotransmitter from the sensory neuron.
The opponent-process theory suggests that alcoholics continue drinking to
a. enjoy the secondary pleasurable effects.
b. avoid opponent after-effects.
c. increase opponent after-effects.
d. enjoy the primary pleasurable effects.
Quiz 3
Pavlov’s study of classical conditioning began as an extension of his work on
a. digestion.
b. the knee-jerk reflex.
c. the auditory system.
d. pain.
A hungry rat is exposed to a red light, followed by brief access to food. After several such trial
s, the ratapproaches the light bulb when it is illuminated. In this example, the light is
a. a conditional response.
b. an unconditional response.
c. a conditional stimulus.
d. an unconditional stimulus.
Conditional Stimulus is to Unconditional Stimulus as
a. trained is to untrained.
b. eliciting stimulus is to orienting stimulus.
c. independent is to dependent.
d. unlearned is to learned.
A rat is trained to press a lever for a small amount of food. While pressing the lever at a stead
y rate, the ratis presented with a tonelight stimulus that had been previously paired with foot-shock. When the tonelightstimulus is on, the rat decreases its rate of lever pressing. This decrease is an example of
a. conditioned repression.
b. unconditioned fear responding.
c. conditioned suppression.
d. sign tracking.
There has been a renewed interest in human eyeblink conditioning because of which choice
below?
a. We understand so little about this type of learning.
b. Progress has been made in understanding the neurobiological substrate of this type of
learning.
c. Animals are expensive to maintain.
d. It is a very complex behavior that we can easily observe.
The interstimulus interval refers to which of the following time periods?
a. between the end of the CS and the start of the US
b. between the start of the CS and the start of the US
c. between the end of the US and start of the next CS
d. between the start of the CS and the end of the US
The most frequently used procedure for Pavlovian conditioning is
a. short-delayed conditioning.
b. simultaneous conditioning.
c. long-delayed conditioning.
d. trace conditioning.
Which of the following best describes the “trace interval” in trace conditioning?
a. the time between the start of the CS and the end of the US
b. the time between the end of the CS and the end of the US
c. the time between the end of the CS and the start of the US
d. the time between the start of the CS and the start of the US
A test trial in classical conditioning consists of presenting which of the following?
a. the CS alone
b. neither the CS nor the US
c. the US alone
d. the CS and US in reverse order
The temporal coding hypothesis suggests that a subject will do which of the following?
a. will learn temporal relations only in short-delay situations, accounting for the strong
conditioning that occurs in this procedure
b. will learn CS-US associations and learn when the US occurs in relation to the CS
c. will learn temporal relations only in long-delay situations, accounting for the one trial
learning seen in taste- aversion conditioning
d. will not learn CS-US associations
Quiz 4
From the selection below, select the true statement about stimuli.
a. Identification of CSs and USs does not rely on reference to other stimuli.
b. Identification of USs is relative, but CSs do not need reference to other stimuli.
c.Identification of CSs and USs is relative.
d.Identification of CSs is relative, but USs do not need reference to oth
A rat is given 20 exposures to a red light cue. Then, the red light is presented paired with food
delivery. Compared to a rat that did not receive the initial 20 exposures, this rat took a long
time to develop a CR to the red light. The slower learning is due to
a.the CS relevance effect.
b. the US-preexposure effect.
c. the latent-inhibition effect.
d. the latent-excitation effect.
Increasing CS or US intensity has which of the following effects?
a. makes the final level of conditioned responding greater, but has little effect on the speed of
associative learning
b. has little effect on the speed of associative learning or the final level of conditioned
responding
c. speeds associative learning, but has little effect on the final level of conditioned responding
d. speeds associative learning and makes the final level of conditioned responding greater
According to studies of belongingness, rats conditioned with
a. either shock or illness learn stronger aversions to audiovisual cues than to taste.
b. illness learn a stronger aversion to audiovisual cues than to taste.
c. shock learn a stronger aversion to taste than to audiovisual cues.
d. illness learn a stronger aversion to taste than to audiovisual cues
Your friend is afraid of dogs because he was bitten as a child. One day while he was playing
catch in a park, a large pack of dogs wandered into his view. Now he avoids parks. His change in
behavior is likely due to which of the following?
Select one:
a. higher-order conditioning
b. habituated associations
c. US intensity
d. CS intensity
Higher-order conditioning demonstrates which of the following?
a. USs cannot function as CSs.
b. CSs cannot function as USs.
c. After training, a US can function as a CS.
d. After training, a CS can function as a US.
According to the stimulus-substitution model, with training which of the following happens?
Select one:
a. The CS activates the UR via excitation of US centers.
b. The CR activates the US via excitation of the UR centers.
c. The CS comes to activate the UR directly.
d. The CR comes to activate the UR directly.
Short CS-US intervals elicit behavior. Longer CS-US intervals elicit
behavior.
a. general search; consummatory
b. focal search; general search
c. focal search; consummatory
d. general search; focal search
US-devaluation experiments suggest that for many first-order conditioning procedures, which
of the following is true?
a. The CS activates the CR directly.
b. The CS activates a US representation.
c. The CS activates the UR directly.
d. The CR activates the UR directly.
in the second phase of a blocking experiment, which of the following occurs?
a. The experimental group receives exposure to a compound stimulus; the control group does
not receive any further training.
b. The experimental group receives exposure to a compound stimulus; the control group
receives exposure to a single stimulus.
c. Both groups receive the same treatment.
d. The experimental group receives exposure to a single stimulus; the control group receives
exposure to a compound stimulus.
Quiz 5
The cats in Thorndike’s puzzle boxes were able to escape more quickly over successive trials.
Thorndike interpreted this performance change to reflect
a. stimulus-outcome learning.
b. stimulus-response learning.
c. response-outcome learning.
d. stimulus-stimulus learning.
Which of the following would most likely be used in a discrete trial procedure?
Select one:
a. pressing a lever to gain access to food
b. licking water from a tube to gain access to food
c. pushing a rod to gain access to food
d. running down a runway to gain access to food
In a discrete trial procedure, the researcher can measure all of the following
a. food preference.
b.
running speed.
c.
latency to leave the start box.
d.
response rate.
Shaping depends on which of the following?
Select one:
a. the variability of behavior
b. nonreinforcement of the target response
c. continued reinforcement of early response forms
d. delivering the reinforcer only for responses that exceed any previous response
Pigeons have a baseline gape response of 10-15 mm. In order to shape the gape response for a
wider opening, the first reinforcers should be delivered when the pigeon opens its
mouth
.
a.15 mm
b. 10 mm
c. every time
d. 16 mm
The major advantage of free-operant methods over discrete trial procedures is that
a. free operant methods can reveal an animal’s preferences.
b. free-operant methods involve S-S learning, but discrete trial procedures involve S-R learning.
c. the animals learn more quickly.
d. free operant methods provide the opportunity to observe changes in the likelihood of
behavior over time.
Which of the following is an example of (positive) punishment?
a. Dora is not given cake because of her poor manners.
b. His mother puts pepper in Steve's mouth for saying bad words.
c. Bobby is not allowed to buy cigarettes because he is too young.
d. All of the above
A positive contingency between a response and an aversive stimulus is also known as
a. punishment.
b. negative reinforcement.
c. positive reinforcement.
d. omission training.
Bill
leaves the theater because the music in the show he is watching is too loud. This is an example
of
a. positive reinforcement.
b. negative reinforcement.
c. omission training.
d. punishment.
The difference between (positive) punishment and negative reinforcement is that
Select one:
a. punishment increases the target response, while negative reinforcement decreases the targe
tresponse.
b. in punishment, the target response terminates the aversive stimulus.
c. in negative reinforcement, the response increases the likelihood of the aversive stimulus.
d. punishment decreases the target response, while negative reinforcement increases the targe
tresponse.
Quiz 6
For 30 ten-minute trials, a rat received a food pellet every other lever press. This rat was on a
__________ __________ reinforcement.
a.fixed ratio
b. variable ratio
c. fixed interval
d. variable interval
A pigeon in a Skinner box periodically receives access to food after pecking on
a key. Sometimes the pigeonhas to peck 3 or 4 times, sometimes 5, and sometimes more. On av
erage, the bird was reinforced every 5thpeck.
This pigeon was on a ________ _________ schedule of reinforcement.
a. fixed ratio
b. fixed interval
c. variable ratio
d. variable interval
Your hamster presses a lever that came with its cage. After 4 presses, a food pellet is delivered;
then after 6 presses another; then after 2 presses another. Based on this pattern of
reinforcement you suspect that the lever was programmed with a
a. FI 4 min schedule
b. FR 4 schedule
c. VR 4 schedule
d. VI 4 min schedule
You notice that the pigeon in the laboratory you just entered has a particular way of pecking at
the key in itscage. The pigeon seems to increase its rate of pecking towards the end of a two mi
nute period, food is madeavailable, and then pecking slows until the end of the next two minut
es. You guess that the pigeon is on a __________________ .
a. fixed ratio schedule.
b. variable interval schedule.
c. fixed interval schedule.
d. variable ratio schedule.
Your friend is taking a class with exams scheduled every three weeks. You expect that he will st
udy
a. very little following an exam but with increasing rates at the end of the three weeks.
b. at a high steady rate throughout the semester.
c. at a low steady rate throughout the semester.
d. at a rapid and steady rate once he gets started, followed by periods of no studying.
A hungry pigeon is in a Skinner box and is pecking a key for access to food. The first food
delivery occurs for the first peck after 1 minute has elapsed. The second occurs for the first
peck after 3 minutes has elapsed. The third food delivery occurs for the first peck after 2
minutes has elapsed. All other pecks went unrewarded, but the pigeon did not receive access to
food unless it pecked the key. The pigeon is most likely on a ___ reinforcement.
a. FI
b. FR
c. VR
d. VI
When a VI schedule was yoked to a VR schedule so that pigeons on the VI schedule had the
same opportunity to earn reinforcement as birds on the VR schedule,
a. subjects in both groups showed similar rates of responding.
b. subjects in the VI group pecked more vigorously (energetically) than those in the VR group.
c. subjects in the VR group pecked more vigorously (energetically) than those in the VI group.
d. subjects in the VR group showed initially high levels of responding but their response rate
quickly dropped to the rate of the VI subjects.
Which of the following schedules is likely to lead to the shortest inter-response times?
a. FR 5
b. FI 5 min
c. VI 10 min
d. VI 5 min
Concurrent schedules of reinforcement are used to measure
a. continuous choice behavior over time.
b. mechanisms of partial reinforcement extinction effects.
c. choice behavior with commitment.
d. partial reinforcement extinction effect
The difference between molar and molecular theories of matching is that
a. molar theories focus on the response alternative most likely to be reinforced at that time,
while molecular theories focus on individual choice responses.
b. molar theories focus on aggregates of behavior over a period of time, while molecular
theories focus on individual choice responses.
c. molecular theories focus on the response alternative most likely to be reinforced at that
time, while molar theories focus on individual choice responses.
d. molecular theories focus on aggregates of behavior over a period of time, while molar
theories focus on individual choice responses
Quiz 7
An instrumental conditioning procedure provides the opportunity for a subject to learn many
associations. Which of the following possible associations is thought to arise due to classical
conditioning?
a. S-R
b. R-O
c. All of these
d. S-O
According to Hull and Spence, what mediates expectancy of reward?
a. the S-O association
b. the O-R association
c. the S-R association
d. the R-O association
Which of the following is not true of the two-process theory?
a. It assumes that the primary outcome of the classical conditioning that occurs during
instrumental conditioning trials involves the learning of a particular response.
b. It assumes that the rate of an instrumental response will be modified by the presentation of
a classically conditioned stimulus.
c. It assumes that classically conditioned stimuli do not always suppress responding, as in the
CER procedure.
d. It assumes that central emotional states become conditioned to either situational cues or to
discriminativestimuli.
According to the two-process theory, the emotional state generated by an instrumental
conditioning procedure is determined by
a. the time of day.
b. the type of instrumental response.
c. the type of reinforcer presented.
d. the CS modality.
Two-process theory predicts that instrumental responding will decrease if
a. the central emotional state was conditioned with an aversive stimulus.
b. the central emotional state was conditioned with an appetitive stimulus.
c. the central emotional state reflects a negative mood.
d. the conditioned central emotional state is opposite to the emotions that motivate
instrumental behavior.
What is likely to occur in the testing phase of a Pavlovian instrumental transfer experiment?
a. A conditional stimulus that had previously been trained in a compound is presented alone.
b. A conditional stimulus is presented while an organism is engaged in an instrumental
behavior.
c. An unconditional stimulus is presented while an organism is making a conditional response.
d. A conditional response is recorded as an organism makes an instrumental response.
Thirsty rats will drink more than they run in a wheel. When they are not thirsty, the same rats
will run more than they drink. The evidence suggesting that running can be reinforced by
drinking in thirsty rats, and drinking reinforced by running in non-thirsty rats, supports
a. the drive reduction theory.
b. the incentive motivation theory.
c. the optimal foraging theory.
d. the differential probability theory.
According to Premack’s theory,
Select one:
a. high probability responses reinforce lower probability responses.
b. reinforcement is dependent on species typical responses.
c. protecting physiological homeostasis motivates behavior.
d. the likelihood of all instrumental responses is the same.
According to the response deprivation hypothesis, an organism will work to gain access to a
reinforcer response if
Select one:
a. making that response reduces a deprived physiological drive state.
b. access to that reinforcer response has been restricted.
c. the baseline probability of making that response is less than that of the making the
instrumental response.
d. the baseline probability of making that response is greater than that of making the
instrumental response.
he unrestricted baseline or behavioral bliss point is best defined as
Select one:
a. a time when all physiological drives are at a minimum.
b. a behavior that is the most likely to occur.
c. a distribution of sensations that generate behaviors indicative of a pleasure response.
d. a distribution of responses, among available alternatives, in the absence of restrictions.