Anatomy Review – SUTO
Unit 1
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The word “structure” relates to the study of __________________ while the word
“function” relates to the science of ______________________.
a.
physiology, anatomy
b.
cytology, histology
c.
anatomy, physiology
d.
histology, cytology
The microscopic anatomy that analyzes the internal structure of individual cells is
a. physiology
b. cytology
c. microbiology
d. histology
The following is a list of several levels of organization that make up the human body:
1. tissue
2. cell
3. organ
4. molecule
5. organism
6. organ system
The correct order from the smallest to the largest level would be
a. 2, 4, 1, 3, 6, 5
b. 4, 2, 1, 3, 6, 5
c. 4, 2, 1, 6, 3, 5
d. 4, 2, 3, 1, 6, 5
e. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6
The maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment in an organism is termed
a. positive feedback
b. homeostasis
c. negative feedback
d. effector control
e. none of the above
The regulatory mechanism that occurs when a variation outside of normal limits triggers an
automatic response that corrects the situation is
a. negative feedback
b. positive feedback
c. effector regulation
d. receptor regulation
e. disease
When the initial stimulus produces a response that reinforces the stimulus, the mechanism is
called…
a. receptor activation
b. effector shutdown
c. negative feedback
d. positive feedback
e. thermoregulation
A person who is lying face up with the palms up is known specifically as…
a. supine position
b. prone position
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c. anatomical position
d. frontal position
e. sagittal position
Which indicates the front of the body?
a. anterior
b. posterior
c. dorsal
d. superior
Which of the following is lateral to the eyes?
a. nose
b. forehead
c. scalp
d. chin
e. ears
The knee is considered __________ to the hip.
a. proximal
b. distal
c. anterior
d. posterior
e. none of the above
The umbilicus (belly button) is __________ to the chest.
a. anterior
b. superior
c. posterior
d. inferior
e. lateral
The dorsal body cavity is subdivided into the
a. abdominal; pelvic
b. pleural; pericardial
c. cranial; spinal
d. pleural; mediastinum
e. thoracic; abdominopelvic
The ventral body cavity is divided into a superior ___________________ cavity and an inferior
_______________________ cavity
a. pleural; mediastinum
b. thoracic; abdominopelvic
c. pericardial; pleural
d. abdominal; pelvic
e. cranial;spinal
The thoracic cavity contains all of the following except…
a. pericardial cavity
b. mediastinum
c. spinal cavity
d. pleural cavities
The mediastinum separates __________ from the __________.
a. the pleural cavity; coelom
b. the thoracic cavity; peritoneal cavity
c. one pleural cavity; other pleural cavity
d. the abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity
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e. the pericardial sac; pericardial cavity
In making an anatomical display a cadavar is cut vertically into right and left parts which are
unequal, exposing the inner parts for inspection .This type of section (plane) is called
a. parasagittal
b. midsagittal
c. frontal
d. transverse
e. coronal
A magician is about to separate his assistant’s body into “upper and lower” portions.
The plane through which he will pass his magic wand is the
a. midsagittal
b. frontal
c. horizontal
d. parasagittal
e. oblique
In a human, the “upper and lower” from the previous question would be which of the
following?
a. Anterior/posterior
b. Superior/inferior
c. Proximal/distal
d. Medial/lateral
e. Dorsal/ventral
Which sectional plane could divide the body so that the face remains intact?
a. sagittal plane
b. coronal plane
c. equatorial plane
d. midsagittal plane
e. none of the above
Organs situated within the mediastinum include:
a. heart, lungs, and esophagus
b. heart, esophagus, and trachea
c. thyroid, lungs, and liver
d. pancreas, liver, and spleen
e. stomach, pancreas, and heart
Unit 2 - Biochemistry
1. The four chemical elements that make up 94 percent of the weight comprising the human
body are:
A. oxygen, nitrogen, sodium, and iron
B. carbon, calcium, nitrogen, and phosphorous
C. hydrogen, potassium, oxygen, and calcium
D. carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen
2. The nucleus of an atom is the location of which kinds of subatomic particles?
A. electrons
B. protons and electrons
C. neutrons and protons
D. neutrons and electrons
3. When an atom loses one or more electrons, it:
A. becomes a cation
B. becomes an anion
C. forms a covalent bond
D. becomes an isotope
4. The atomic weight of an element indicates…
A. the mass of the protons only
B. the mass of neutrons only
C. the mass of the electrons
D. A and B
E. A and C
5. Isotopes contain…
A.
the same number of protons but a different number of electrons.
B.
the same number of protons and neutrons.
C.
the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons.
D.
an equal number of neutrons and electrons
6. The weakest bond that occurs in living organisms is...
A. ionic
B. covalent
C. polar covalent
D. metallic
E. hydrogen
7. Ionic bonds are formed when…
A. atoms share electrons
B. cations and anions are held together by their opposite charges
C. a pair of electrons is shared unequally by two atoms
D. hydrogen forms bonds with negatively charged atoms in the same or different molecules
E. two or more atoms lose electrons at the same time
8. Which of the following is NOT true regarding a covalent bond?
A. it is less stable than an ionic bond
B. it is formed by the sharing of electrons
C. it is the most common bond found in the living things
D. make up organic compounds
9. The chemical reaction illustrated by the following – (A + B  AB) is a:
A. decomposition reaction
B. synthesis reaction
C. double replacement
D. single replacement
10. Identify the reaction type represented by the following – AB + C  AC + B
A. decomposition reaction
B. synthesis reaction
C. double replacement
D. single replacement
11. A solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is
A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. alkaline
D. none of the above
12. Which of the following substances would be least acidic?
A. lemon juice, pH = 5.5
B. urine, pH = 6
C. tomato juice, pH = 4
D. white wine, pH = 3
E. stomach secretions, pH = 2
13. Which of the following is true with reference to the pH scale?
A. the lower the pH the more acidic it is
B. the higher the pH the more acidic it is
C. the pH scale runs from 1-14
D. the lower the pH the more basic it is
14. Which of the following is NOT an example of an inorganic compound?
A. water
B. acid
C. base
D. salt
E. enzyme
15. Which of the following statements about water is not correct?
A. It is composed of polar molecules
B. It makes up 2/3 of the human body’s mass
C. It has a relatively low specific heat capacity
D. It dissolves many compounds
E. It contains hydrogen bonds
16. The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is
A. sucrose
B. starch
C. protein
D. vitamin B12
E. glucose
17. The group of organic compounds containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in near 1:2:1 ratio is defined
as a
A. carbohydrate
B. lipid
C. protein
D. nucleic acid
E. none of above
18. In the human body many smaller glucose molecules may combine to form the larger starch molecule
for
storage which is known as…
A. cellulose
B. triglyceride
C. glycogen
19. Which of the following is NOT disaccharide?
A. Lactose
C. Sucrose
D. ATP
B. Glucose
D. Maltose
20. A fatty acid that contains three double covalent bonds in its carbon chain is said to be
A. saturated
B. polyunsaturated
C. monounsaturated
D. monosaturated
21. In a phospholipid, which of the following replaces a fatty acid?
A. an amino group
B. a monosaccharide
C. a glycerol
D. a phosphate group
22. You would expect to find a peptide bond linking
A. two simple sugars
B. one amino acid to another
C. two nucleotides
D. a fatty acid and a glycerol molecule
E. a cholesterol molecule and a fatty acid molecule
23. A peptide bond will form between…
A. two R groups
B. an amino group and a carboxyl group
C. a fatty acid and a glycerol
D. two monosaccharides
24. The molecules that store and process information are known as…
A. carbohydrates
B. nucleic acids
C. proteins
D. enzymes
25. Proteins differ from carbohydrates chemically because they contain…
A. Nitrogen
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon
Unit 3 - Cyotology
Multiple Choice – Choose the best answer and put the correct letter in the space provided.(1pts. Each)
1.
The basic structural and functional unit of the human body is
A. protein
B. the cell
C. tissue
D. the organ
E. the organ system
2.
Ribosomes are made of:
A. mRNA and protein
B. rRNA and protein
C. cytosol and tRNA
D. tRNA and mRNA
3.
The mitochondria function to produce…
A. proteins
B. ATP
C. DNA
D. Glucose
4.
Centrioles are useful in which of the following processes?
A. Energy production
B. Cell division
C. Waste storage
D. A and C
E. All of the above
5.
Because white blood cells engulf and break down invaders, they contain a large number of which
of the following organelles?
A. Ribosomes
B. Chromosomes
C. Lysosomes
D. Centrosomes
6.
These are made of DNA and proteins known as histones:
A. Mitochondria
B. Ribosomes
C. Chromosomes
D. Lysosomes
7.
Because muscle cells require a great deal of energy, this organelle is more abundant than in other
cells:
A. Ribosomes
B. Mitochondria
C. RER
D. Golgi bodies
8.
The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is an
example of
A. osmosis
B. active transport
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C. diffusion
D. facilitated diffusion
E. filtration
The movement of water across a membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of
higher solute concentration is known as
A. osmosis
B. active transport
C. diffusion
D. facilitated diffusion
E. filtration
A solution that contains a lower solute concentration than the cytoplasm of a cell is called
A. holotonic
B. hypertonic
C. isotonic
D. hypotonic
E. semitonic
A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is
called
A. active transport
B. passive transport
C. facilitated transport
D. osmosis
E. diffusion
The process by which vesicles containing solid objects such as bacteria are formed on the surface
of a cell for transport into the cell is called
A. pinocytosis
B. phagocytosis
C. exocytosis
D. receptor-mediated endocytosis
E. none of the above
If red blood cells are placed in a(n):
A. isotonic solution, hemolysis occurs
B. hypotonic solution, no change will occur
C. distilled water, the cells will shrivel
D. hypertonic solution, crenation occurs
All three structures of the cytoskeleton provide:
A. pathways for transport
B. structural support
C. cell movement
D. all of the above
Ribosomes are:
A. the powerhouse of the cell
B. the garbage disposal of the cell
C. found on smooth E.R.
D. the protein factory
The organelles that are responsible for processing protein molecules, sorting them, and delivering
them are:
A. ribosomes
B. mitochondria
C. Golgi bodies
D. nucleoli
The “wrecking crew “ of a cell consists of certain organelles capable of removal of cell parts
and even destruction of a whole cell. These organelles are called:
A. ribosomes
B. leucosomes
C. lysosomes
D. killosomes
The proper sequence for mitosis is:
A. interphase, telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase
B. prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase, interphase
C. interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
D. anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase, interphase
The cell's DNA is located in the
A. ribosomes
B. nucleolus
C. lysosomes
D. nucleus
E. Golgi complex
The control center for cellular operations is the
A. nucleus
B. nucleolus
C. cell membrane
D. Golgi apparatus
E. none of the above
A DNA nucleotide consists of:
A. ribose, phosphate, and a nitrogen base B.deoxyribose, nitrogen base, and lipid
C. adenosine, phosphate, and ribose D. deoxyribose, phosphate, and a nitrogen base
If the sequence of nitrogenous bases along one section of DNA is TATGCA, the sequence
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formed in mRNa will be:
A. ATACGT
B. AUACGU
C. TATGCA
D. UTUCGT
As each codon binds at the active site of a ribosome, it interacts with another molecule. This
molecule is called
A. DNA
B. mRNA
C. ribosomal RNA
D. tRNA
E. rough ER
Which of the following sequences is correct?
A. DNA - tRNA - mRNA - protein
B. DNA - ribosome - mRNA - protein
C. DNA - mRNA - tRNA - protein
D. DNA - mRNA - rRNA - protein
E. none of the above
During which stage in the cell cycle does replication occur?
A. interphase
B. prophase
C. metaphase
D. anaphase
Unit 4 - Histology
Multiple Choice – Choose the best answer and mark the correct letter on the scantron.
1. The study of tissues is known as..
A. Cytology
B. Physiology
C. Epidemiology
D. Histology
2. The type of tissue that is the most abundant in the body, usually has a rich blood supply and is
characterized by a large amount of intercellular material is :
A. vascular tissue
B. muscle tissue
C. connective tissue
D. glandular tissue
3. The macrophage is an important cell found in the loose connective tissue and functions as:
A. a source of fiber in this tissue
B. a chemical that stimulates dialation
C. a pigment cell beneath the epidermis
D. a defense cell responsible for engulfing invaders
4. Fibrocartilage…
A. is located within the knee joint
B. make up the majority of the embryonic skeleton
C. makes up the clavicle at birth
D. is located between vertebrae
5. The three types of muscle tissue are:
A. dense, loose, and striated
B. skeletal, smooth, and cardiac
C. squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
D. skeletal, smooth, and connective
6. Which of the following would NOT be a characteristic of epithelial tissue?
A. conducts impulses
B. uninterrupted layer covers surfaces
C. cells are polarized
D. basement membrane separates from underlying tissue
7. A cell with a single layer of cells that appear to be multi-layered best describes:
A. stratified tissue
B. columnar tissue
C. pseudostratified tissue
D. all of the above
Answer the following seven questions from the following choices:
A.
Connective
B.
Epithelium
C.
8. Allows for organ movement within the body
9. Cells of this tissue may absorb and/or secrete substances
10. Is specialized for contraction
11. Forms hormones
12. Stores energy reserves as fat
13. Lines body cavities
14. Allows you to smile, grasp, swim, ski and shoot an arrow
15. Tissue type associated with support
16. Transmits an electrical potential via dendrites and axons
Muscle
D.
Nervous
17. Produces immunity
18. Forms the brain and spinal cord
The three types of muscle tissue exhibit certain similarities and differences. Select the best answer from
the choices provided for each of the following:
A. Skeletal
B. Cardiac
C. Smooth
D. A and B
E. B and C
19. Voluntarily controlled
20. Involuntarily controlled
21. Banded appearance due to striations
22. Single nucleus in each cell
23. Multinucleate
24. Allows you to grasp a pencil
25. Found in the walls of stomach, uterus and arteries
26. Contains long, non-branching cylindrical cells known as fibers
27. Displays intercalated disks
28. Tissue of the circulatory pump
Using the following choices, identify the following connective tissue types.
A.
Adipose B.
Osseous C.
Hyaline
29. Found in tendons, provides great strength through parallel bundles of collagen
30. Acts as a energy storage
31. Forms the bony skeleton
32. Located at the surfaces of bones at the joints; reinforces the trachea or windpipe
33. Provides insulation for the body
34. Contains cells arranged in concentric circles around a central canal
35. Forms the embryonic skeleton
Using the following choices, identify the memgrane involved:
A.
Cutaneous
B.
Mucous C. Serous
D.
Synovial
36. Lines cavities open to the outside
37. Found in joints, produces fluid to decrease friction
38. Cover surfaces of the body
39. Minimizes friction between organs
40 Lines sealed internal cavities
Unit 5 - Integument
1. Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except one. Identify the exception
a. protection of underlying tissue
b. excretion
c. maintenance of body temperature d. synthesis of vitamin C
e. nutrition and storage
2.
The two components of the cutaneous membrane are the
a. epidermis and dermis
b. epidermis and subcutaneous layer
c. dermis and subcutaneous layer
d. integument and dermis
e. epidermis and superficial fascia
3.
Accessory structures of the skin include
a. hair follicles
b. sebaceous and sweat glands
c. nails
d. a and b only
e. all of the above
Match the description with the correct layer from the list below:
A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum germinativum
D. Stratum granulosum
E. Stratum spinosum
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Found in the skin of the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet, not other general areas
3-5 layers
From deep to superficial ,the second layer
Moving from deep to superficial, the 1st layer that does not receive nourishment
Produces millions of new cells daily
Water repellent
From deep to superficial, it is the 3rd layer
The deepest layer
The only other layer besides #8 that may still divide mitotically
Contains Langerhans cells
20-30 layers of dead cells
The outermost layer of cells
The layer containing the youngest cells.
The layer containing the most keratinized cells
From the list of cells provided, match with the appropriate function:
A.
Keratinocytes
B.
Melanocytes
C.
Langerhans
D.
Merkel cellsl
E.
Meissner’s Corpuscles
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Sensitive to touch, found in dermis
Produce protein that is waterproofing
Sensory in epidermis
Produce photoprotective pigment
Macrophages in epidermis
23.
The pigment melanin
a. is produced by cells called melanocytes and is found in higher concentration in individuals
with darker skin
b. is usually some shade of red, yellow or brown
c. protects DNA from the damaging effects of U.V. radiation
d. a and c only
Exposure of the skin to ultraviolet light
a. can result in increased numbers of melanocytes forming in the skin
b. can result in decreased melanin production by melanocytes
c. can cause destruction of vitamin D
d. can result in damage to the DNA of cells in the stratum germinativum
e. has no effect on the skin cells
Glands that discharge a oily secretion into hair follicles are
a. ceruminous glands
b. apocrine sweat glands
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c. sebaceous glands
d. merocrine sweat glands
e. mammary glands
Nail production occurs at the
a. body
b. bed
c. root
d. cuticle
e. free edge
The dense mass of dead, keratinized cells of the nail is the
a. body
b. bed
c. root
d. cuticle
e. free edge
The condition that results from clogged sebaceous glands is
a. a boil
b. a carbuncle
c. acne
d. a blister
e. none of the above
Skin pigmentation is due to all of the following EXCEPT…
a. melanin
b. albinin
c.
carotene
The layer of the skin that provides protection against bacteria as well as chemical and mechanical
injuries is the
a. dermis
b. subcutaneous layer
c. epidermis
d. papillary layer
e. sebum layer
When the arrector pili muscles contract
a. "goose bumps" are formed
b. hairs are shed
c. sweat is released from sweat glands
d. shivering occurs
e. the skin changes color
Hair is composed of
a. discharge from sebaceous glands
b. dead keratinized cells
c. reticular tissue
d. epidermal ridges
e. the hypodermis
Dermal papillae form…
a. hair follicles
b. sweat glands
c. fingerprints
d. keratinocytes
e. lunula
Unit 6 - Skeletal
1.
Mature bone cells are termed
a. osteocytes
c. osteoclasts
e. osteons
b. osteoblasts
d. chondrocytes
d.
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Large, multinucleated cells that can dissolve the bony matrix are termed
a. osteocytes
b. stem cells
c. osteoblasts
d. osteoclasts
e. chondrocytes
The medullary cavity of bones contains
a. compact bone
b. osteons
c. cartilage
d. marrow
e. periosteum
The shaft of a long bone is called the
a. epiphysis
b. diaphysis
c. osteon
d. epiphyseal plate
e. lamella
The lining of the marrow cavity is called the
a. endosteum
b. periosteum
c. epimysium
d. perimysium
e. none of the above
Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of
a. a fibrous connective tissue model
b. a cartilaginous model
c. a membranous model
d. a calcified model
e. no model at all, just the presence of osteoblasts
When sexual hormone production increases, bone growth
a. slows down
b. accelerates rapidly
c. increases slowly d. increases, but only in thickness
e. is not affected
Vitamin D is necessary for
a. collagen formation
b. absorption and transport of calcium and phosphate ions
c. reducing osteoblast activity
d. increasing osteoclast activity
e. the formation of the organic framework of bone
A lack of exercise would
a. cause bones to become thicker b. cause bones to store more calcium
c. result in thin, brittle bones
d. increase the length of a bone
e. have no effect on a bone
When stress is applied to a bone
a. osteoblast activity increases
b. osteoclast activity increases
c. it becomes thin and brittle
d. it bends
e. trabeculae are formed perpendicular to the zone of stress to increase strength
The normal loss of bone that occurs with aging is called
a. osteopenia
b. osteoporosis
c. osteogenesis
d. osteoinflammation
e. bone cancer
Only one of the four curves of the adult spinal column are present at birth. Which of the
following is it?
a. cervical
b. sacral
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c. lumbar
d. thoracic
e. none of the above
As this curve develops a baby is able to hold its head up…
a. cervical
b. sacral
c. lumbar
d. thoracic
e. none of the above
Types of tissue found in bones include all of the following except:
a. blood
b. cartilage
c. fibrous connective tissue
d. nerve tissue
e. muscle tissue
Abnormal reduction of bone mass is termed:
a. osteogenesis
b. osteoporosis
c. osteopenia
d. rickets
e. osteomalacia
The term used to describe any bony projection or bump where muscle attaches is:
a. ramus
b. fossa
c. sulcus
d. process
e. meatus
The ends of a long bone are known as the...
a. Epiphyses
b. Diaphyses
c. Metaphyses
d. Trochanter
e. Neck
This contains the epiphyseal plate
a. Epiphysis
b. Diaphysis
c. Metaphysis
d. Trochanter
e. Neck
This bone is commonly fractured during strangulation
a. Occipital
b. Sella turcica
c. Hyoid
d. Xiphoid process
e. Patella
In the cranium, this is where two bones fuse.
a. Periosteum
b. Epiphyseal plate
c. Suture
d. Meatus
e. Sinus
This is the term for the formation of red blood cells
a. Ossification
b. Osteopenia
c. Leukogenesis
c. Hemopoiesis
e. Erythropenia
Which of the following has a lower percentage of spongy bone?
a. wrist
b. femur
c. cranium
d. clavicle
e. ankle
Primary ossification centers are located in …
a. the center of the epiphysis
b. the metaphysis
c. the diaphysis
d. periosteum
In which of the following would osteoprogenitor cells be found?
a. periosteum
b. Caniliculi
c. Lacuna
d. Endosteum
The growth plate is found in which of the following?
a. Endophysis
b. Epiphysis
c. Metaphysis
d. Diaphysis
27.
A cleft palate results when the following does not fuse properly during development:
a. Maxilla
b. Mandible
c. Temporal
d. Zygomatic
28.
This structure is used as a landmark for performing CPR
a. Manubrium
b. Greater trochanter
c. Clavicle
d. Xiphoid process
29.
Bone repair can occur when…
a. Osteoclast activity > Osteoblast activity
b. Osteoblast activity > Osteoclast activity
30.
Which of the following bone cells mitotically divides:
a. Osteoprogenitor b. Osteocytes
c. Osteoclasts
d. Osteoblasts
31.
Which of the following reflects the correct number of each type of vertebrae?
a.
32.
Which of the following curvatures would be concave?
a.
33.
These are present in the infant skull prior to complete ossification.
a.
Identify whether the characteristic corresponds to
a.
Compact bone
b.
Spongy bone
c.
Both
34.
Osteon
35.
Shaft of long bones
36.
Present where there would be forces from many directions
37.
Dense
38.
Latticework
39.
Trabeculae
40.
Force in one direction