The potassium concentration of the
of different glucose concentrations
blood plasma is (S)
• b) computes an equilibrium potential for Na
which
• a) 4 mmol/l
• b) 0.4 mol/l
equals the resting potential
• c) 40 umol/l
• c) tells the potential difference where a
particular ion
• d) 143 mmol/l
is in electrochemical equilibrium
• e) 14 mmol/l
• d) can be applied only to monovalentions
Characteristicof primaryactive
• e) computes the potential difference
between two
transport, EXCEPT(S)
• a) requires metabolic energy
• b) is dependent on thermal energy alone
• c) is capable of mediating the movement of
compartments where the net movement of a
particular
ion is zero
•At a stable resting potential, the passive
solute from a region of low concentration to
one
sodium inflow is equal to (S)
of high concentration
• a) active potassium outflow
• d) is carrier mediated
• b) passive calcium inflow
• e) may be subject to competitive inhibition
• c) active sodium outflow
Which of the followings are second
• d) passive potassium inflow
messengers (M2)
• e) passive potassium in-and outflow
• a) phosphodiesterase
•At which point of the action potential is the
• b) inositoltriphosphate
membrane potential closest to the sodium
• c) curare
equilibrium potential(+60 mV)(S)
• d) cAMP
• a) at the resting potential
• e) monoamino-oxidase
• b) at the threshold potential
The Nernstequation (M2):
• c) at the peak
• a) tells the direction of movements of
glucose
• d) during upstroke
molecules through a membrane separating
two solutions
• e) during downstroke
•If the transport of a solute across the cell
membrane is downhill and requires a
transporter then this transport is: (S)
• b) K+ channels
• a) secondary active transport
• c) Na+ channels
• b) facilitated diffusion
• d) Na+-K+-ATP-ase
• c) filtration
• e) Ca2+ channels
• d) simple diffusion
Which are the components of the muscle's
• e) primary active transport
structure? (M3)
•The mechanisms of repolarizationduring
a) myocardium
an action potential are (M2)
b) myofibrillum
• a) an increased sodium permeability
c) terminal cistern
• b) a reduced sodium permeability
d) sarcolemma
• c) a reduced potassium permeability
In striated muscles, during contraction (S)
• d) an increased potassium permeability
a) ATP-ase activity of actin is stimulated by
Ca2+
• e) an increased calcium permeability
• f) an inhibition of the active Na-K pump
•In a membrane at rest (M3)
• a) the direction of the electrochemical
gradient for Na+ is inward
• b) the direction of the electrochemical
gradient for Cl-is outward
b) tropomyosin is attached to myosin
c) heads of actin filaments are attached to
myosin
d) heads of myosin filaments are attached to
actin
In the skeletal muscle, one of the proteins
involved in
• c) the direction of the electrochemical
the contraction has ATP-ase activity. This
protein is
gradient for Ca2+ is inward
(S)
• d) the direction of the electrochemical
a) troponin C
gradient for K+ is outward
b) actin
• e) the direction of the electrochemical
c) tropomyosin
gradient for Ca2+ is outward
d) myosin
•GABA-induced inhibition may be mediated
via: (M2)
e) troponin I
• a) Cl-channels
In striated muscles during contraction, Ca2+ is
released
from (S)
a) troponin
b) transverse tubules
c) terminal cisternae
d) sarcomere
Dihydropiridine (S)
a) blocks voltage-gated Na-channels
b) opens L-type Ca channels
c) stimulates GABA-A receptors
d) reaccumulation of Ca ions in the
endoplasmic
reticulum
e) binding between troponin I and actin
During muscle contraction (S)
a) A-band is shortened
b) Z-disc disappears
c) I-band is shortened
d) H-band gets wider
d) inhibits NMDA-receptors
How does the tetrodotoxin inhibit muscle
activity? (S)
What is the stimulus for the release of Ca2+
ions from
a) it blocks the action of the Ach-esterase
the terminal cisterns in the skeletal muscle?
(S)
a) depolarization
b) it binds to the Ach receptor on the
postsynaptic
membrane's surface
b) activation of troponin C
c) it blocks the spreading of the action
potencial
c) calmodulin
d) it inhibits the release of Ach
d) conformational change in tropomyosin
In the neuromuscular synapsis, Ach acts on (S)
e) activation of a Ca-ATP-ase
a)Ach-gated channels selective for K+
f) activation of IP3/DAG system
b)b) Ach-gated Ca2+ channels
During muscle contraction, ATP is used for
TWO
c) Ach-gated cation channels
processes which are as follows (M)
a) exposing the myosin-binding sites in the
actin (moving
the tropomyosin molecules)
b) release of Ca ions from the terminal
cisterns
c) interaction between actin and myosin
d) Na-K pump
How does curare inhibit the neuromuscular
junction? (S)
a) it blocks the action of the Ach-esterase
b) it binds to the Ach receptor in the
postsynaptic membrane
c) it blocks the spreading of the action
potencial in the axon
d) it inhibits the release of Ach
e) it inhibits the voltage-dependent calcium
channels of the
presynaptic membrane
During isotonic contraction: (S)
a) neither the length of the muscle nor the
strain changes
The definition of isometric contraction: (S)
a) neither the length of the muscle nor the
strain changes
b) the strain increases, the length does not
change
c) the strain increases, the length decreases
b) the strain increases, the length does not
change
d) the strain does not change, the length
decreases
c) the strain increases, the length decreases
e) the strain decreases, the length does not
change
d) the strain does not change, the length
decreases
e) the strain decreases, the length does not
change
Which protein is phosphorylated in the
smooth
muscle prior to contraction? (S)
The definition of isometric contraction: (S)
a) actin
a) neither the length of the muscle nor the
strain changes
b) myosin
c) calmodulin
b) the strain increases, the length does not
change
d) troponin
c) the strain increases, the length decreases
e) tropomyosin
d) the strain does not change, the length
decreases
Compare the skelatal muscle to visceral
smooth muscle (M)
e) the strain decreases, the length does not
change
a) Ca-binding protein: SKELETAL MUSCLE:
troponin C; SMOOTH MUSCLE: calmodulin
The definition of isometric contraction: (S)
b) effects of acetylcholine: SKELETAL MUSCLE:
always contraction; SMOOTH MUSCLE: always
a) neither the length of the muscle nor the
strain changes
relaxation
b) the strain increases, the length does not
change
c) effects of adrenaline: relaxation IN BOTH
muscles
c) the strain increases, the length decreases
d) mechanism of contraction: interaction
between actin and myosin IN BOTH muscles
d) the strain does not change, the length
decreases
e) the strain decreases, the length does not
change
e) removal of Ca: SKELETAL MUSCLE: into the
endoplasmic reticulum via ATP-dependent
pump;
SMOOTH MUSCLE: diffusion into the
extracellular space
pumps the Ca into the sarcoplasmatic
reticulum
f) ATPase activity of myosin: SKELETAL
MUSCLE: ATPase activity is required; SMOOTH
MUSCLE:
e) calmodulin is the Ca-binding protein
ATPase activity is not required for contraction
Compare the skeletal muscle to visceral
smooth muscle (M)
a) stimulation: SKELETAL MUSCLE: Ach
released from the motor neuron; SMOOTH
MUSCLE
various ligand may cause depolarization
b) ion channels in depolarization: SKELETAL
MUSCLE: voltage-gated Na-channels
exclusively;
SMOOTH MUSCLE: both voltage and ligandgated Ca-channels may cause depolarization
c) Ca-binding protein: calmodulin IN BOTH
muscles
Oubain enhances the force of contraction in
the heart muscle
because (S)
a) it decreases the activity of the Na-Ca
exchanger due to rises in
intracellular Na
b) it causes depolarization of the membrane
of the heart muscle
c) it inhibits Ca uptake into the sarcoplasmic
reticulum
d) it results enhanced Ca release from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum
e) it promotes the opening of L-type Ca
channels
•#1.
d) phosphorylation of myosin: SKELETAL
MUSCLE: not essential forcontraction;
SMOOTH
•Factor V is activated by (S)
MUSCLE: phosphorylation is essential for
contraction
• b) Factor X
e) mechanism of contraction: interaction
between actin and myosin IN BOTH muscles
In the visceral smooth muscle: (M)
a) the excitation of a single cell can spread to
the
• a) Factor IX
• c) calcium
• d) plasmin
• e) Factor VIII
• f) thrombin
•
neighbouring cells through gap-junctions
•#2.
b) calcium is released from the terminal
cisternae
•Select the one which is most closely
associated
c) stimulation of IP3 elicits contraction
with von Willebrand's factor production (S)
d) the Ca-ATP-ase is responsible for the
mechanism that
• a) B lymphocytes and plasma cells
• b) tissue macrophages
• d) its loss causes hemophilia-A
• c) hepatocytes
• e) dependent on vitamin K for activity
• d) vascular endothelium
•
•
•#6.
•#3.
•Which of the following compounds can be
used
•Which blood clotting factors have no enzyme
activity (M2)
• a) antihemophiliac globulin (VIII)
• b) Prothrombin
• c) Stuart-Prower factor
• d) Accelerin (V)
• e) Hageman factor
•#4.
for acute IN VIVO anticoagulation (in a
patient)? (S)
• a) Na-oxalate
• b) heparin
• c) platelets
• d) EDTA
• e) Na-citrate
•Factor XIII is activated by (S)
• a) thrombin
•#7.
• b) fibrin
•Coagulation factors involved in both the
extrinsic and
• c) vitamin K
intrinsic pathways (M3)
• d) fibrinogen
• a) Factor IX
• e) factor XI
• b) Factor IV
• f) factor VIII
• c) Factor V
•
• d) Factor XII
•#5.
• e) Factor VII
•Factor VIII-C of blood coagulation (M3)
• f) Factor XI
• a) is activated by factor VII
• g) Factor VIII
• b) takes part as a cofactor in the activation
of
• h) Factor X
factor X
• c) produced in the liver
•
•#8.
•A person with group A blood (M2)
• a) might have inherited type B genes from
one of the
• b) to a Rh-baby if the mother is Rh+
parents
• c) to a Rh-mother just after delivery if the
child is Rh+
• b) must have inherited type B genes from
both of the
• d) to a Rh-male or female if, by mistake,
large volume of Rh+
parents
blood has been infused
• c) contains anti-A antibodies in the plasma
• e) to a Rh-woman if the fetus was
aborted???
• d) contains anti-B antibodies in the plasma
• e) contains A antigens on their red blood
cells
• f) must pass type A genes to each of their
offsprings
• g) contains A antigens in the plasma
• f) to a Rh-mother during second pregnancy if
the first baby
was RH+
• g) to a Rh+ mother during pregnancy if the
baby is Rh-
•
• h) to a Rh+ mother after delivery if the baby
is Rh-
•#9.
•
•The blood type of the child is AB, that of the
mother is
•#11.
also AB. The blood type of the father is (S)
•Blood cells were agglutinated by anti A, anti
B and anti AB.
• a) any of the four types above
The blood type is (S)
• b) either type O, type B or type A
• a) type AB
• c) type A, type B or type AB
• b) type B
• d) type AB
• c) type O
• e) type A
• f) type B
• d) cannot be decided; the test has to be
repeated
• g) type O
• e) type A
• h) type A or B
•
•#10.
•#12.
•Administration of antiD antibodies are
recommended (M2)
•The antigen determinant groups of the OAB
blood group
• a) to a Rh-mother before the delivery of the
first baby
consist of (S)
• a) lipids
• b) proteins
• e) bear CD4 markers
• c) carbohydrates
• f) produce IL2
• d) amino acids
•#16.
•#13.
•Members of the specific immune system:
(M3)
•The leukocytes involved in the inactivation of
histamine and heparin are (S)
• a) monocytes
• b) plasma cells
• c) basophils
• d) neutrophils
• e) eosinophils
•
•#14.
•Select the cells that produce circulating
immunoglobulins: (S)
• a) Kupffer cells
• b) hepatocytes
• c) tissue macrophages
• d) B lymphocytes and plasma cells
• e) vascular endothelial cells
• f) thymocytes
•
•#15.
•T helper lymphocytes (M3)
• a) bear CD8 markers
• b) bear CD3 markers
• c) have cytotoxic effect
• d) produce IL1
• a) B-lymphocytes and plasma cells
• b) cytokines
• c) T-lymphocytes
• d) natural killer cells
• e) phagocytes
• f) complement system
• g) antibodies
•
•#17.
•Monocytes are normally produced in the (S)
• a) spleen
• b) lymph nodes
• c) liver
• d) tonsils
• e) thymus
• f) bone marrow
•
•#18.
•FALSE statement concerning the basophil
granulocytes and mast cells: (S)
• a) possess granules which show
metachromatic staining
• b) there are less basophils granulocytes in
the peripheral blood than mast cells
• c) their intracellular granules contain
heparin
• d) both express surface receptors for the Fc
portion of IgE
• c) 4 mmol/l
• d) 0.4 mol/l
• e) 40 umol/l
• e) their intracellular granules containi
histamine
•
•#19.
•Which blood plasma concentration of
cholesterol is in the normal range? (S)
•Which type of the leukocytes has the
shortest life span?
•#22.
• a) 40 micromol/l
(S)
• b) 40 millimol/l
• a) B lymphocytes
• c) 4 micromol/l
• b) T lymphocytes
• d) 4 nanomol/l
• c) neutrophil granulocytes
• e) 4 millimol/l
• d) monocytes
• f) 40 nanomol/l
• e) mastocytes
•
•
•#23.
•#20.
•Non-specific immune system comprises (M4)
•The calcium concentration of the blood
plasma is
• a) lysozim
(S)
• b) tissue macrophages
• a) 0.25 mol/l
• c) antibodies
• b) 2.5 mmol/l
• d) eosinophil granulocytes
• c) 2.5 mol/l
• e) cytotoxic T lymphocytes
• d) 25 mol/l
• f) natural killer (NK) cells
• e) 25 umol/l
•
•
•#21.
•#24.
•The potassium concentration of the blood
plasma is (S)
•Concentration of plasma proteins: (S)
• a) 14 mmol/l
• b) 20-40 g/l
• b) 143 mmol/l
• c) 20-40 g/dl
• a) 60-80 g/l
• d) 40-60 g/dl
•Belong to the transcellular space (M4)
•#25.
• a) liquor cerebrospinalis
•The osmotic concentration of blood plasma:
(S)
• b) aqeous humor
• a) 340 mosm /l
• b) 400 mosm /l
• c) 200-300 mosm /l
• d) 390 mosm /l
• e) 295 mosm /l
•
•#26.
•Haptoglobin is the plasma carrier of (S)
• c) pericardial fluid
• d) endolymph of vestibular organ
• e) blood plasma
•
•
•#30.
•Which of the following statements are
correct (M3) ?
• a) iron
• a) conjugated (direct) bilirubin is produced
by liver cells
• b) bilirubin
• b) urobilinogen is produced by liver cells
• c) copper
• c) normal plasma bilirubin concentration is
less than 20 umol/l
• d) hemoglobin
• e) vitamin B12
•
•#27.
•Select the answer that is most closely
• d) unconjugated bilirubin (indirect bilirubin)
is secreted by liver cells
• e) "jaundice" means a yellowish tint to the
body tissues, including yellowness of the skin
and the sclera
associated with ceruloplasmin (S)
• f) conjugated (direct) bilirubin is secreted by
Kupffer cells in the liver
• a) carrier molecule for iron
•#31.
• b) carrier molecule for hemoglobin
•Unconjugated bilirubin is released from (M2)
• c) carrier molecule for vitamin B12
• a) urobilinogen
• d) carrier molecule for copper
• b) erythrocytes
• e) carrier molecule for fatty acids, bilirubin
• c) Kupffer cells
•
• d) hepatocytes
•#28.
• e) macrophages in the red pulp of the spleen
• f) transferrin
b) synthesis of globin is impaired
•
c) nuclear division of erythroblasts is impaired
•#32.
d) it is a co-factor for erythropoietin
•The most important stimulus for RBC
production is (S)
The pressure-volume diagram of the cardiac
cycle (S)
• a) hypoxia
a) shows the blood flow in the aorta
• b) vitamin B12
b) represents the phases of the cardiac cycle
in the ventricles
• c) hypercapnia
• d) folic acid
• e) low concentration of RBC in the blood
• f) exercise
•
•#33.
•Which of the following statements is NOT
true? (S)
in graphical form
c) measures the conduction speed
d) shows the blood flow in the pulmonary
artery
During the isovolumetric contraction (M2):
a) the ventricles are not contracting, because
this phase
happens duringthe absolute refractory period
• a) cobalamine is combined with an R-protein
in the stomach
b) the shape of the ventricle changes, but its
volume is the same
• b) the R-protein -is digested by the pancreas
proteases
c) the ventricular pressure is higher than the
atrial pressure, but is less than the pressure in
the great arteries
• c) the cobalamnine released from the
complex is combined with the intrinsic factor
(IF)
• d) the IF -B12 complex is also digested by
the proteases
• e) cobalamine enters the enterocytes via
endocytosis
d) ventricular muscle fibers can’t contract due
to the blood filling the ventricles
The aortic valve opens when: (S)
a) the ventricles contract
b) the atrium contracts
c) the ventricles relax
•#34.
d) the papillary muscles contract
•Vitamin B12 deficiency causes anemia
because (S)
e) the ventricular pressure gets higher than
the aortic pressure
• a) iron incorporation in hemoglobin is
impaired
During the isovolumetric relaxation of the
ventricles
(M2):
e) Wilson’s V1
a) Volume of the ventricles increases.
2,3-BPG (bisphosphoglycerate): (M4)
b) Pressure in the atria decreases.
a) decreases the affinity of haemoglobin for
oxygen.
c) Pressure in the ventricles decreases.
d) All valves are closed.
b) increases in concentration in the
erythrocytes in chronic hypoxia.
e) Volume of the ventricles decreases.
c) is a product of glycolysis.
What causes the x descent on the jugular
venous pulse curve(between the c and the v
wave) ? (S)
d) increases in concentration in stored blood.
a) valve plane mechanism
An individual has 135 g Hb per liter of blood
and his Hb is 97% saturated at a PO2 of 100
mmHg. When he is breathing air, his cardiac
output is 6 liters per min, and his oxygen
usage is 300 ml per min. In this person: (M4)
b) atrial contraction
c) opening of the AV-valves
d) closing of the AV-valves
aVF lead of the ECG is measured between: (S)
a) right arm- indifferent point
b) left arm- left leg
c) right arm- left arm
d) right leg- indifferent point
e) binds to deoxygenated haemoglobin.
a) the arteriovenous difference for oxygen is
50 ml per liter.
b) the mixed venous oxygen content is 150 ml
per liter.
c) if he increases his oxygen usage four-fold, to
1.2 liter per min, and doubles his cardiac
output, the tissue must be extracting twice as
much oxygen from each liter of blood.
e) left leg- indifferent point
f) right arm- right leg
g) left arm- indifferent point
h) right arm- left leg
d) if he changes from breathing air to
breathing oxygen, so that alveolar PO2
becomes 600 mmHg, the arterial oxygen
content will be increased by 21ml per liter.
How is that lead called, in which the different
electrode is
e) when the alveolar PO2 becomes 600
mmHg, the arterial PO2 will rise above 120
mmHg.
in the 5th intercostal space, in the
medioclavicular line? (S)
Persistent, but tolerable hypoxia at a high
altitude is likely to result in: (M3)
a) Goldberger’s aVR
a.increase in pulmonary ventilation.
b) Wilson’s V4
b.low arterial PCO2.
c) Goldberger’s aVF
c.increase in cardiac output.
d) Einthoven’s I
d.increase in acidity of the urine.
e.decreased blood viscosity.
With reference to hyperbaric conditions:(M3)
a.during a breath-hold dive the volume of the
lungs decreases .
b.diving, breathing air from a cylinder, at a
depth of about 10 m, the inspired oxygen
partial pressure is about 300 mmHg.
c.oxygen can be safely breathed for several
hours at a depth 30 m.
d.there is a danger of CO2 narcosis when
breathing air at a pressure of 3 atmospheres.
e.after exposure to high ambient pressure, fat
people require more prolonged
decompression than thin people.