Sample Test Questions for MSSC
Test Preparation
Instructor: E. Carlson
Manufacturing Processes
1. Which resource in NOT required for
production?
A. Energy
B. Information
C. Materials
D. Wholesalers
Manufacturing Processes
2. Which is an example of light assembly?
A. Automobiles
B. Computers
C. Printing presses
D. Aircraft
Manufacturing Processes
3. Which is the best technique for producing
automobiles?
A. Intermittent production
B. Continuous production
C. Single production
D. Custom production
Manufacturing Processes
4. Which is an example of process
manufacturing product?
A. Bicycle
B. Clothes dryer
C. Pencil
D. Cereal
Manufacturing Processes
5. Which property describes how easily a
material will return to its original shape
after bending?
A. Strength
B. Ductility
C. Brittleness
D. Elasticity
Manufacturing Processes
6. 1040 steel is ________ carbon steel?
A. Low
B. Medium
C. High
D. Ultra high
Manufacturing Processes
7. Which of the following is a ferrous metal?
A. Cast iron
B. Titanium
C. Gold
D. Brass
Manufacturing Processes
8. The main element of bronze is…
A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Lead
D. Aluminum
Manufacturing Processes
9. Which is NOT a characteristic of wood
products?
A. Flammability
B. A grain pattern
C. Unaffected by moisture
D. Strength
Manufacturing Processes
10. Which is NOT natural polymer?
A. Wood
B. Cotton
C. Rubber
D. Plastic
Manufacturing Processes
11. Which is an example of an organic
chemical?
A. Ammonia
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Chlorine
D. Ethylene
Manufacturing Processes
12. Which is NOT a type of casting?
A. Investment
B. Die
C. Sand
D. Forging
Manufacturing Processes
13. Which type of equipment is used to
create cylindrical parts?
A. Saw
B. Milling machine
C. Drilling machine
D. Lathe
Manufacturing Processes
14. The acronym “CNC” represents?
A. Computer Numerical Control
B. Constant Noise Control
C. Computational Nuisance Control
D. Constant Number Computing
Manufacturing Processes
15. Nanomaterials are…
A. Materials which are flammable
B. Extremely heavy metals
C. Only used in the production of food
D. Materials created at an atom by atom level
Manufacturing Processes
16. The following is an example of a smart
material…
A. Shape memory alloy
B. Titanium
C. Ultra hard steel
D. Graphite composite
Manufacturing Processes
17. The following is NOT an example of a
forming process…
A. Stamping
B. Extruding
C. Closed-die forging
D. Die casting
Manufacturing Processes
18. All of the following are examples of
machining except…
A. Drilling
B. Compression molding
C. Milling
D. Broaching
Manufacturing Processes
19. Which of the following is considered an
advanced machining process?
A. Injection molding
B. Hydroforming
C. Turning
D. Electrochemical machining
Manufacturing Processes
20. Centrifuging is defined by…
A. A distillation process that separates liquid by
heating
B. A process of spinning materials to separate
particles
C. A process which uses weights to squeeze
out liquid
D. A process which uses filters to separate
particles
Manufacturing Processes
21. Which describes metal milling process?
A. The workpiece is rotated into the cutter
B. A long thin multi-tooth blade is passed over
the work
C. Abrasive is shot at the work at high speeds
D. A rotating cutter is applied to the workpiece
Manufacturing Processes
22. Which process is used to bring metal is
a soft state?
A. Tempering
B. Hardening
C. Heat treating
D. Annealing
Manufacturing Processes
23. Which is NOT an example of a coating
surface?
A. Dipping
B. Electropolishing
C. Painting
D. Anodizing
Manufacturing Processes
24. A part needs to measured on its
diameter to resolution of 0.0001. Your
measuring tool of choice is…
A. Vernier protractor
B. Steel rule
C. Vernier caliper
D. Vernier micrometer
Manufacturing Processes
25. A Gantt chart is used to…
A. Predict when equipment will fail
B. Determine the best manufacturing process
C. Determine root cause analysis
D. Schedule resources for production
Safety Practices
Which type of fire extinguisher should be
used on a grease, oil or chemical fire?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Safety Practices
2. Electrical shock is NOT dependent on the
following factor?
A. Wetness of the skin
B. Length of contact
C. Grounding of the individual
D. Amount of voltage
Safety Practices
3. When using a fire extinguisher, the PASS
technique stands for?
A. Pull pin, Assess, Squeeze lever, Seal the area.
B. Pull pin, Aim low, Squeeze lever, Sweep the hose.
C. Pull pin, Align, Sweep the area, Shake the
extinguisher.
D. Pull pin, Aim up, Sweep the area, Sweep the fire.
Safety Practices
4. Employers are required to report
workplace injuries to?
A. FCC
B. EPA
C. NIOSH
D. OSHA
Safety Practices
5. Which of the following is not an example
of Personal Protective Equipment?
A. Hard hat
B. Respirator
C. Safety checklist
D. Steel-toed boots
Safety Practices
6. Approximately how many eye injuries
occur in the workplace every day?
A. 50
B. 300
C. 600
D. 1000
Safety Practices
7. Which of the following should NOT be
worn when operating rotating equipment
such as drill presses and lathes?
A. Steel-toed boots
B. Gloves
C. Eye protection
D. Ear plugs
Safety Practices
8. ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) is
dangerous because…
A. It can damage electronics
B. It can cause an explosion
C. It can cause nerve damage
D. It can cause a bright arc
Safety Practices
9. Which safety color is used to identify
information and caution?
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Blue
Safety Practices
10. Fall protection must be used on
scaffolding above which height?
A. 6 feet
B. 10 feet
C. 15 feet
D. 20 feet
Safety Practices
11. Pits deeper than _____ are considered
confined spaces.
A. 4
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Safety Practices
12. How far away must flammable and
combustible material be kept away from
hot
work?
A. 10 feet
B. 20 feet
C. 35 feet
D. 50 feet
Safety Practices
13. Which is NOT considered “hot work”?
A. Grinding
B. Welding
C. Flame Cutting
D. Filing
Safety Practices
14. Which of the following hazardous
substances has no odor?
A. Gasoline
B. Propane
C. Ammonia
D. Carbon monoxide
Safety Practices
15. Which of the following is not a biological
hazard?
A. Viruses
B. Fungi
C. Bacteria
D. Sodium hydroxide
Safety Practices
16. What distance must be kept between
stored oxygen and acetylene cylinders?
A. 5 feet
B. 10 feet
C. 15 feet
D. 20 feet
Safety Practices
17. The acronym “MSDS” represents…
A. Maximum Safety Disposal Standard
B. Material Standard Disposal Steps
C. Minimum Safe Distance Standards
D. Material Safety Data Sheet
Safety Practices
18. If a worker is found unconscious the
following should NOT be done…
A. Check the area for hazards
B. Keep the person lying down
C. Give the person water
D. Call 911 or the nearest medical facility
Safety Practices
19. Fire extinguisher and first-aid kit
locations should be shown…
A. After a worker is trained for safety in that
area
B. Only for the worker’s area
C. After the probationary period
D. During new employee tours
Safety Practices
20. Which is NOT an example of an
engineered safety control?
A. Circuit breakers
B. Machine guards
C. Ventilation systems
D. Safety glasses
Safety Practices
21. “EPA” is the acronym for?
A. Extra Protection Area
B. Electrical Pulse Area
C. Environmental Protection Analysis
D. Environmental Protection Agency
Safety Practices
22. Safety practices can accomplish all
except…
A. Reduce clerical costs
B. Reduce lost work days
C. Reduce damaged product
D. Reduce raw material prices
Safety Practices
23. The three components needed to create
a fire are…
A. Heat, fuel, confined space
B. Oxygen, heat, fuel
C. Fuel, friction, oxygen
D. Sparks, heat, oxygen
Safety Practices
24. Which indicate that a HAZMAT container
should not be moved?
A. A label identifying the HAZMAT type
B. A damaged or leaking container
C. Location in a confined space
D. Proximity to other HAZMATs
Safety Practices
25. “OSHA” is the acronym for?
A. Occupational Safety & Health Analysis
B. Occupational Shipbuilding Health Association
C. Occupational Safety & Health Administration
D. Occupational Slip Hazard Analysis
Quality
1. Which is not part of the PDCA cycle?
A. Plan
B. Do
C. Check
D. Analyze
Quality
2.The acronym “SPC” stands for…
A. Special Process Control
B. Statistical Process Control
C. Stylized Part Continuity
D. System Process Chart
Quality
3. The following chart is used to determine
upper and lower control limits…
A. Histograms
B. Control charts
C. Run charts
D. Benchmarks
Quality
4. Which is the most useful tool for root
cause failure analysis?
A. Run charts
B. Control charts
C. Pareto diagrams
D. Fishbone Ishikawa diagrams
Quality
5. Which factor is the most critical for quality
production?
A. Proper equipment maintenance
B. Proper documentation
C. Proper training
D. Proper auditing
Quality
6. The precision of the inspection process
must be…
A. Less than that of the manufacturing process
B. Greater than that of the manufacturing
process
C. Equal to that of the manufacturing process
D. It is not important, as long as inspection is
done
Quality
7. An operator notices an unexplained flaw
in production. He should…
A. correct the flaw by adjusting his machine
B. Wait for the flaw to disappear
C. Inform a supervisor
D. Assume there is a bad batch of raw material
Quality
8. Which is NOT part of a good quality
system?
A. Preventive action
B. Auditing
C. Inspection
D. Undocumented improvements
Quality
9. Which is NOT a basis of the ISO 9000
quality standards?
A. Leadership
B. Customer focus
C. Factual approach to decision making
D. Competitive advantage
Quality
10. A quality system is effective if…
A. All employees take responsibility for it
B. If senior management accept it
C. If production floor workers accept it
D. The customer sees it as necessary
Quality
11. A company is interested in improving its
quality. The best approach would be…
A. Increase training for safety
B. Incorporate quality into the production
process
C. Increase inspection of the finished product
D. Hire more inspectors and auditors
Quality
12. A Quality product is defined by…
A. The product is not scrapped
B. The product is within tolerance
C. The product meets or exceeds the
expectations of the customer
D. The product is made within cost and
schedule
Quality
13. Which of the following is NOT true for a
nonconforming critical single point failure
product?
A. The product should be tagged as nonconforming
B. The product should be isolated from other product
C. The product should be placed into service as soon
as possible
D. The product should be evaluated by trained
personnel only
Quality
14. A company has 12 defects in 1000
products produced. What is the
percentage of defects?
A. 0.012%
B. 1.2%
C. 12%
D. 998%
Quality
15. Which of the following is NOT an
objective of a quality audit?
A. To determine whether the quality system
meets its objectives
B. Verify that the quality system continues to
meet customer requirements
C. To assure that products are safe
D. To determine quality standards
Quality
16. According to continuous improvement
techniques, what number of defects is an
acceptable goal?
A. 150 per million
B. 5.6 per million
C. 3.4 per million
D. None
Quality
17. The Japanese term poka yoke refers
to…
A. Continuous improvement
B. Zero defects
C. Nonconforming product
D. Mistake proofing
Quality
18. The following are all factors to be
considered for an inspection sampling plan
except…
A. Cost of inspection
B. Governmental quality system regulations
C. Previous quality history
D. Process capability
Quality
19. Non-conforming product must be…
A. Reworked so that it can be sold
B. Scrapped because it does not meet
specifications
C. Analyzed to determine why it does not meet
specifications
D. Sold at a discount
Quality
20. Which document determines how a
product is processed?
A. SOP
B. Audit report
C. MRB report
D. Control chart
Quality
21. Corrective actions to a manufacturing
process…
A. Should be communicated to the operator on the next
shift
B. Should be implemented by the operator as soon as
possible
C. Should be only implemented after an audit
D. Should be documented and incorporated into SOPs
Quality
22. The quality of a product is defined…
A. After the product is produced
B. During the design phase
C. After any problems are found
D. While working with customers to develop the
product
Quality
23. Which is NOT an approach of total
quality management?
A. Involvement from all employees, not just
management
B. Designing quality into the product
C. Tracking quality and results
D. Informing the customer about quality
products
Quality
24. Six Sigma quality is achieved when
under ________ per million defects are
produced.
A. 3.4
B. 15
C. 300
D. 1600
Quality
25. Which of the following is the lowest
overall cost?
A. Waiting for customer complaints
B. Reworking nonconforming products
C. Fixing production process defects as they
are found
D. Implementing a quality control program
Maintenance
1. “VFD” stands for…
A. Variable Function Discharge
B. Velocity Field Dump
C. Variable Frequency Drive
D. Variable Field Diode
Maintenance
2. Which method of shaft attachment is
capable transmitting the highest torque?
A. Pin
B. Square key
C. Taper lock bushing
D. Setscrew
Maintenance
3. Multiple E-stop controls for a single
machine are typically…
A. Wired independently
B. Wired in series
C. Wired in parallel
D. Double insulated
Maintenance
4. What is the minimum oxygen
concentration requirement by volume for a
confined space?
A. 5.6%
B. 12.4%
C. 19.5%
D. 78.8%
Maintenance
5. Care must be taken in working with
soluble oil mixtures due to…
A. Its high reactivity
B. Its capability to burn
C. Its sensitivity to contamination
D. Its ability to harbor bacteria
Maintenance
6. Which is NOT a component of a lockout/tagout
procedure?
A. Apply the lockout/tagout devices to the energyisolating devices
B. Notify affected workers lockout/tagout is about to
occur
C. Request an operator to monitor that the controls are
not used
D. Shut down the machine or equipment
Maintenance
7. Spalling of bearing surfaces refers to…
A. The melting failure of the bearing
B. The discoloration of the bearing
C. The cracking failure of the bearing
D. The flaking off of metal of the bearing
Maintenance
8. An out of balance shaft condition
increases in severity with…
A. Increasing RPM
B. Increasing the number of starts and stops
C. The greater the overall size of the assembly
D. The greater the size of the shaft
Maintenance
9. The primary purpose of an interlock is…
A. To automate different parts of the process
together
B. To prevent operators from engaging the
wrong equipment
C. To lock operators out of sensitive
components
D. To lock equipment systems from movement
Maintenance
10. Dust-air separators use _______ to
remove dust.
A. Magnetic force
B. Electrical force
C. Centrifugal force
D. Gravitational force
Maintenance
11. Hydraulics and pneumatic systems are
different in that…
A. Hydraulics tend to use lower pressures
B. Hydraulics will leak
C. Pneumatics must be vented
D. Air is compressible
Maintenance
12. The safety color orange is used to
identify…
A. Fire equipment, exit signs, panic buttons
B. Hazardous equipment or parts of a machine
C. Tripping or falling hazards
D. Safety signs
Maintenance
13. Which maintenance program has the
highest cost?
A. Predictive maintenance
B. Preventive maintenance
C. Reactive maintenance
D. Total productive maintenance
Maintenance
14. Which maintenance program is based
on sensing changes in equipment
performance?
A. Predictive maintenance
B. Preventive maintenance
C. Reactive maintenance
D. Total productive maintenance
Maintenance
15. The primary purpose ball bearings are
used over plain bearings is…
A. Higher loadings
B. Higher speeds
C. Less maintenance
D. Lower friction
Maintenance
16. The primary purpose of lubricant in
bearings is…
A. To prevent/minimize metal to metal contact
B. To keep the bearing cool
C. To allow the bearings to slide
D. To eliminate corrosion
Maintenance
17. The HAZ or Heat Affected Zone from
welding refers to…
A. The area of material that is distorted
B. The portion of parent material that was
melted
C. The portion of material that was added
D. The parent material whose properties may
be altered
Maintenance
18. Dwelling a cutting tool in stainless steel
should be avoided because…
A. It creates excessive heat
B. It dulls the cutter
C. It work hardens the material
D. The tool will cut oversize
Maintenance
19. Step drilling is a technique used to…
A. Accurately drill holes
B. Create counterbored holes
C. Prevent drilling too deep
D. Transfer hole locations
Maintenance
20. Spiral point taps differ from hand taps
because…
A. They direct the chip before them
B. They can’t thread to the bottom of the hole
C. They require more force
D. They require a different tap drill hole size
Maintenance
21. The dimension of an external thread
taken from root to root is the _______
diameter.
A. Major
B. Pitch
C. Minor
D. Nominal
Maintenance
22. Solenoids are often used to control
_______ flow.
A. Electrical
B. Data
C. Light
D. Fluid
Maintenance
23. Capacitors must be treated with care
because…
A. They are easily damaged
B. They can store charges for long periods of
time
C. They can leak fluid if tipped
D. They are often not marked well
Maintenance
24. A electrical resistor is analogous to
which of the following hydraulic examples?
A. A reservoir
B. A diaphragm blocking flow
C. A driven propeller
D. A reduction in pipe section
Maintenance
25. Torch cutting stainless steel is not
possible because…
A. It has too high melt temperature
B. It will damage the material
C. The cutting torch will get clogged
D. The material does not readily oxidize