Maried Perez PSYCHOLOGY FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2013

advertisement
Maried Perez
PSYCHOLOGY
FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE
2013
Chapter 1 Study Guide
1. What is psychology the study of? (p. 4)
The scientific study of behavior and mental processes
2. What are the four goals of psychology? (p. 4-5)
Description: What is happening?
Explanation: Why is it happening?
Prediction: When will it happen?
Control: How can it be changed?
3. ______________ established the first psychology laboratory in Leipzig, Germany, in 1879. (p. 6)
Wundt
4. Wundt utilized objective introspection to study the contents of the mind. What is objective introspection?
Give an example of what a person might be asked to do during objective introspection. (pp. 6-7)
It is the process of examining and measuring one’s own thoughts and mental activities. An example of this would
be holding a rock in your hand and tell the person conducting the experiment all the emotions and sensations
from the rock.
5. Compare and contrast structuralism and functionalism. Who is the major historical figure associated with
each of these perspectives? (pp. 7-8)
Structuralism: focus of the study is the structure of the mind (Titchener/Wundt)
Functionalism: focuses on how the mind allows people to adapt, live, work, and play (William James who was
influenced by Darwin).
6. What is the scientific method? Describe each of the five steps of the scientific method. (p. 20)
It is a system of gathering data so that bias and error in measurement are reduced.
a) Perceiving the question
b) Forming a hypothesis
c) Testing the hypothesis
d) Drawing conclusions
e) Report your results
7. Be able to distinguish each of the descriptive research methods used in psychology, including naturalistic
observation, laboratory observation, case studies, and surveys. (pp. 22-24)
Naturalistic Observation: Allows researchers to get a realistic picture of how behavior occurs. (Have to be
careful with observer effect)
Laboratory Observation: gives the researcher more control.
Case Studies: Study of one individual in great detail.
Surveys: asking a series of questions
8. What is a correlation? What is the difference between a positive correlation and a negative correlation?
(pp. 26-27)
It is a measure of the relationship between two or more variables.
Positive: the two variables increase in the same direction
Negative: the two variables have an inverse relationship
9. Explain why correlation does not prove causation. (p. 27)
Just because two variables are related to each other, researchers cannot assume that one of them causes the other
one to occur.
10. _______________ is the only research method that allows psychologists to determine the cause of a
behavior. (p. 28)
Experiment
11. What is an experiment? (p. 28)
It is a deliberate manipulation of a variable to see if corresponding changes in behavior result, allowing the
determination of cause-and-effect relationship.
12. What is an operational definition? Why is it important for researchers to decide on an operational
definition before conducting a research study?(p.28)
It is a definition of a variable of interest that allows to be directly measured.
Without it, experimenters wouldn’t be sure what to look for and would be unorganized.
13. Explain the difference between an independent and dependent variable in an experiment. (p. 29)
Independent Variable: the variable that is manipulated by the experimenter
Dependent Variable: variable that represents the measurable response or behavior of the subjects in the
experiment.
14. Explain the difference between the experimental and control group in an experiment. (p. 29)
Experimental Group: subjects who are subjected to the independent variable.
Control Group: subjects who are not subjected to the independent variable and receive a “placebo”.
15. Why is randomization important in experiments? (p. 29)
So that every participants has an equal chance of being assigned to each condition
16. What is an institutional review board? (p. 33)
It is groups of psychologist or other professionals who look over each proposed study and judge it according to
its safety and consideration for the research participation.
17. What is critical thinking? What are the four criteria for critical thinking?
It is making reasoned judgments about claims.
a) There are very few “truths” that do not need to be subjected to testing
b) All evidence is not equal in quality
c) Just because someone is considered to be an authority or to have a lot of expertise does not make everything
that person claims automatically true.
d) Critical thinking requires an open mind
Chapter 2 Study Guide
1.
The specialized cell within the nervous system that sends and receives messages within that system is
called a ________________________. (p. 47) Because these cells have such a specialized function, they
have a very unique structure that is unlike that of other cells in the body.
Neuron
2. Label the specialized structures of this neuron. Then answer the questions on the graph.
3
2
7
1
4
6
5
Neuronal Structure
1. Soma (p. 47)
2. Nucleus (p. 47)
3. Dendrite (p. 47)
4. Axon (p. 47)
5. Myelin sheath (p. 48)
6. Node (p. 48)
7. Axon terminal (pp. 5152)
Details
What is the role of the soma?
It is responsible for maintaining the life of the cell
In what part of the cell is the nucleus located?
The Soma
To what part of the cell are dendrites attached?
soma
What is the role of the dendrites?
Receives messages from other neurons
What is the role of the axon?
Carries the neural message to other cells
What are the two major functions of myelin? (see the third paragraph)
Insulates the neuron and offers protection from damage and speeds up the neural
message traveling down the axon.
What are nodes?
Small spaces on the axon where the myelin seems to bump
What role do nodes play in the transmission of messages between neurons?
They help the message go much faster down the axon.
Explain the role of the synaptic vesicles, which are housed in the axon
terminal.
Saclike structure that contains chemicals
3.
4. What is a synapse? What is the difference between an excitatory synapse and an inhibitory synapse? (p.
52)
It is a microscopic fluid-filled space between the synaptic knob of one cell and the dendrites or surface of the next
cell.
Excitatory Synapse: synapse at which a neurotransmitter causes the receiving cell to fire
Inhibitory Synapse: synapse at which a neurotransmitter causes the receiving cell to stop firing.
5. Generally speaking, what is the function of neurotransmitters? (p. 52)
They are messengers from cell to cell.
6. Name and describe the two mechanisms through which neurotransmitters are cleaned up from the
synapse. (p. 54)
Reuptake: process by which neurotransmitters are taken back into the synaptic vesicles.
Enzymatic degradation: process by which structure of neurotransmitter is altered so it can no longer act on a
receptor.
7. What are the two components of the central nervous system? (p. 56)
The brain and the spinal cord
8. What structures comprise the peripheral nervous system? (p. 59)
All nerves and neurons that run through the body
9. The somatic nervous system is part of the peripheral nervous system. It contains a sensory pathway and a
motor pathway. What is the difference between these two pathways? (p. 59)
Sensory Pathway: nerves coming from the sensory organs to the CNS consisting of afferent neurons.
Motor Pathway: nerves coming from the CNS to the voluntary muscles, consisting of efferent neurons.
10. The autonomic nervous system is also part of the peripheral nervous system. Broadly speaking, what is
the role of the autonomic nervous system? (p. 60)
It controls everything else in the body like the organs, glands and involuntary movement.
11. What are the four lobes of the cerebral cortex? Where are they located, and (broadly speaking) what are
their functions?
Occipital Lobes: located at the rear and bottom of each cerebral hemisphere containing the visual centers of the
brain.
Parietal Lobes: located at the top and back of each cerebral hemisphere containing the centers for touch, taste,
and temperature sensations.
Temporal Lobes: located just behind the temples containing the neurons responsible for the sense of hearing and
meaningful speech.
Frontal Lobes: located in the front and top of the brain, responsible for higher mental processes and decision
making as well as the production of fluent speech.
12. What are Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area? What happens when these areas are damaged?
Boca’s Area: It is located in the let frontal lobe and it allows a person to speak smoothly and fluently.
Boca’s Aphasia: condition resulting from damage to Boca’s area, causing the affected person to be unable
to speak fluently.
Wernicke’s Area: It is located in the left temporal lobes involved in understanding the meaning of words.
Wernicke’s Aphasia: Being able to speak fluently and pronounce words correctly, but the words would be
the wrong ones entirely.
Chapter 3 Study Guide
1. Explain the phenomenon of sensation. How is transduction related to sensation?
Sensation: the process that occurs when special receptors in the sense organs are activated, allowing various
forms of outside stimuli to become neural signals in the brain.
Transduction: is he process of converting outside stimuli (like light), into neural activity.
2. What is the difference between habituation and sensory adaptation? (p. 92)
Habituation: tendency of the brain to stop attending to constant, unchanging information.
Sensory Adaptation: tendency of sensory receptor cells to become less responsive to a stimulus that is
unchanging.
In habituation, the sensory receptors are still responding to stimulation but the brain is not sending the signals
from those receptors to the cortex. In sensory adaptation, the receptor cells become less responsive to an
unchanging stimulus (garbage smell) and stop sending signals to the brain.
3. Describe the structures through which light travels before it reaches the retina, including the cornea,
aqueous humor, iris, pupil, lens, and vitreous humor. Know the order in which light travels through these
structures. (p. 94)
a) Cornea: protects the eye and focuses most of the light coming into the eye.
b) Aqueous humor: clear liquid that nourishes the eye.
c) Pupil: iris opening that changes size
d) Iris: controls the size of the pupil and is the color of the eye
e) Lens: change shape to bring objects into focus.
f) Vitreous humor: jelly-like liquid that nourishes and gives shape to the eye.
4. The retina is a layer of cells on the very back of the eyeball and is populated by rods and cones. Explain
the different functions of rods and cones. (p. 95)
Rods: responsible for non-color sensitivity to low levels of light.
Cones: responsible for color vision and sharpness of vision.
5. What is dark adaptation? What causes it to occur? (pp. 96-97)
It is the recovery of the eye’s sensitivity to visual stimuli in darkness after exposure to bright lights. The rods
cause it to occur.
6. What is light adaptation? What causes it to occur? (p. 97)
It is the recovery of the eye’s sensitivity to visual stimuli in light after exposure to darkness. The cones cause it to
occur.
7. Describe the structures through which sound travels before it reaches the auditory nerve, including the
pinna, ear canal, eardrum, middle ear, inner ear, cochlea, basilar membrane, and organ of Corti. Know
the order in which sound traverses these structures. (p. 102)
a) Pinna: visible part of the ear
b) Ear Canal: short tunnel that runs from the pinna to the eardrum.
c) Eardrum: what is hit by the sound wave
d) Middle Ear: its three bones simplify the vibrations from the eardrum.
e) Cochlea: (inside the inner ear): snail-shaped structure that is filled with fluid
f) Basilar membrane: contains the organ of Corti/membrane running though the middle of the cochlea.
g) Organ of Corti: contains the receptor cells for the sense of hearing
8. What is a cochlear implant? Who uses them, and how do they work? (p. 104)
It is a technique for restoring some hearing to those with nerve hearing impairment. This device sends signals
from a microphone, worn behind the ear to a sound processor worn on the belt or in a pocket, which then
translates those signals into electrical stimuli that are sent to a series of electrodes implanted directly into the
cochlea, allowing transduction to take place and stimulating the auditory nerve. The brain then processes the
electrode information as sound.
9. What is the difference between papillae and taste buds? (p. 105)
Taste buds are the common name for the taste receptor cells located on the tongue, cheeks, and under the tongue.
Papillae are the actual bumps and the taste buds line the walls of these papillae.
10. How often are taste buds replaced? (p. 105)
Every 10-14 days
11. What are the five basic tastes? Who discovered the taste sensation of umami? (pp. 105-106)
Sweet, sour, salty, bitter and umami (which was discovered by Lindemann)
12. What experiences work together to produce “thousands of taste sensations”? (p. 106)
The five taste sensations, texture, temperature, and “heat” of foods
13. What organ is responsible for your sense of smell? Where is it located, and how does it do this? (pp. 107108)
Olfactory receptors
It is located at the top of the nasal passages.
14. Explain the phenomenon of perception. What role does sensation play in perception? (p. 112)
It is the method by which the sensations experienced at any given moment re interpreted and organized in some
meaningful fashion.
Chapter 4 Study Guide
1. What is the difference between waking consciousness and altered states of consciousness? (p. 131)
Waking Consciousness: state in which thoughts, feelings, and sensations are clear, organized, and the person
feeling alert
Altered state of consciousness: state in which there is a shift in the quality or pattern of mental activity as
compared to waking consciousness (could be positive or negative)
2. Explain what is meant by the idea that the sleep-wake cycle is a circadian rhythm. (p. 132)
It is a cycle of bodily rhythm that occurs over a 24-hour period
3. Explain the adaptive theory of sleep and the restorative theory of sleep.(pp. 133-134)
Adaptive theory of sleep: theory of sleep proposed that animals and humans evolved sleep patterns to avoid
predators by sleeping when predators are most active.
Restorative sleep: theory of sleep proposing that sleep is necessary to the physical health of the body and serves
to replenish chemicals and repair cellular damage.
4. What is the general difference between REM sleep and non-REM sleep? (p. 134)
REM sleep is when the eyes move rapidly under the eyelids and the person is typically experiencing a dream.
Non-REM is any other stage of sleep that doesn’t include REM.
5. Describe Freud’s views on dreams. According to Freud, what is the difference between manifest dream
content and latent dream content?
Freud believed that the Manifest Content of the dream is the actual dream itself. The Latent Content was what the
dream represented
6. Explain the activation-synthesis hypothesis. What is the difference between this hypothesis and the
activation-information-mode model? (pp. 144-145)
Activation-synthesis hypothesis: premise that states that dreams are created by the higher centers ff the cortex to
explain the activation by the brain stem of cortical cells during REM sleep periods.
Activation-information-mode model: revised version o the ASH explanation of dreams in which information that
is accessed during waking hours can have in influence on the synthesis of dreams.
7. In general, what does a test of hypnotic susceptibility tell us? Can everyone be hypnotized? (p. 147)
It tells us the degree to which a person is a good hypnotic subject. Not everyone can be.
8. There are two theories on hypnosis—hypnosis as dissociation and social-cognitive theory of hypnosis.
Explain these two theories. (p. 149)
Hypnosis as dissociation: hypnosis happens on the immediate conscious mind of a person while the other part of
the person’s brain remains aware of what is going on.
Social-Cognitive theory: theory that assumes that people who are hypnotized are not in an altered state but are
merely playing the role expected of them in the situation. (acting)
9. What are psychoactive drugs? (p. 150)
Drugs that alter thinking, perception, and memory
10. What is drug tolerance, and why does it happen? (p. 150)
As the person continues to use the drug, larger and larger doses of the drug are needed to achieve the same initial
effects of the drug.
11. What are the symptoms of drug withdrawal? (p. 150)
Headaches, nausea, and irritability to severe pain, cramping, shaking, and dangerously elevated blood pressure
12. Explain why drug dependence or addiction is an example of negative reinforcement. (p. 150)
Negative reinforcement is the tendency to continue a behavior that leads to the removal of or escape from
unpleasant circumstances or sensations.
13. Broadly speaking, what effect or effects do the following drug categories have: stimulants, depressants,
narcotics, and hallucinogenics. (p 141)
Stimulants: drugs that cause either the sympathetic division or the central nervous system to increase levels of
function.
Depressants: slow down the central nervous system
Narcotics: deaden pain sensations
Hallucinogenics: cause the brain to alter its interpretation of sensations
Chapter 5 Study Guide
1. How do psychologists define learning? (p 170)
Learning is any relatively permanent change in behavior brought about by experience or practice.
2. What is classical conditioning? Be able to identify the five elements of classical conditioning—the
unconditioned stimulus, the unconditioned response, the neutral stimulus, the conditioned stimulus, and
the conditioned response. (pp. 171-172)
Classical Conditioning is learning to make an involuntary response to a stimulus other than the original, natural
stimulus that normally produces the reflex
The Unconditioned Stimulus: a naturally occurring stimulus that leads to an involuntary reflex
The Unconditioned Response: An involuntary reflex response to a naturally occurring stimulus.
The Neutral Stimulus: has no effect on the desired response
The Conditioned Stimulus: stimulus that becomes able to produce a learned reflex response by being paired with
the original unconditioned stimulus.
The Conditioned Response: learned reflex response to a conditioned stimulus
3. Under what conditions are extinction and spontaneous recovery likely to occur? (p. 174)
It happens with the removal of the unconditioned stimulus
4. What is a conditioned emotional response (CER)? What is the difference between a CER and vicarious
conditioning? (p. 177)
CER: emotional response that has become classically conditioned to occur to learned stimuli.
Vicarious Conditioning: happens by watching the reaction of another person.
5. How does a person or animal develop a conditioned taste aversion? (p. 176)
They feel nauseous up to six hours after they swallow a food/drink.
6. What is operant conditioning? How is it different from classical conditioning? (p. 180)
It is learning of voluntary behavior through the effects of pleasant and unpleasant consequences to responses.
7. What is the role of reinforcement in operant conditioning? Be able to identify examples of the following:
primary reinforcers, secondary reinforcers, positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, and
punishment. (pp. 181-187)
Primary reinforcers: any reinfocer that is naturally reinforcing by meeting a basic biological need.
Secondary reinforcer: any reinforce that becomes reinforcing after being praised with a primary reinforcer.
Positive Reinforcement: the reinforcement of a response by the addition or experiencing of a pleasurable stimulus
Negative Reinforcement: the reinforcement of a response by the removal, escape from, or avoidance of an
unpleasant stimulus.
Punishment: an event or object that, when following a response, makes that response less likely to happen again
8. What are four main problems with punishment? (bullet points on p. 190)
a) Causes children/pets to avoid the punisher
b) May encourage lying
c) Creates fear and anxiety, emotional responses that do not promote learning
d) Hitting provides a successful model in aggression
9. What is shaping? How are successive approximations involved in shaping? (p. 192)
Shaping is the reinforcement of simple steps in behavior that lead to a desired, more complex behavior
Successive approximations are small steps in behavior, one step after another, that lead to a particular goal
behavior
10. What is applied behavior analysis, and how is it related to behavior modification? In what kinds of
situations is applied behavior analysis likely to be useful? (pp. 194-195)
Behavior Modification is the use of operant conditioning techniques to bring about desire changes in behavior.
Applied Behavior Analysis: modern term for a form of functional analysis and behavior modification that uses a
variety of behavioral techniques to mold a desired behavior or response (autism and candy)
11. What is observational learning? How does Bandura’s Bobo doll experiment illustrate the concept of
observational learning? (pp. 201-202)
It is learning new behavior by watching a model perform that behavior.
Chapter 6 Study Guide
1. Explain the levels of processing model. (p. 215)
Model of memory that assumes information that is more “deeply processed,” or processed according to its
meaning rather than just the sound or physical characteristics off the word or words, will be remembered more
efficiently and for a longer period of time.
2. What is sensory memory? Generally speaking, what is the difference between iconic and echoic sensory
memory? (pp. 217-218)
Sensory Memory is the very first stage of memory, the point at which information enters the nervous system
through the sensory systems
Iconic Sensory Memory: visual sensory memory, lasting only a fraction of a second
Echoic Sensory Memory: the brief memory of something a person has just heard
3. How is short-term memory different from working memory? (pp. 219-220)
Short-Term Memory: is the memory system in which information is held for brief periods o time while being
used
Working Memory: an active system that processes the information in short term memory. It allows short term
memory to happen.
4. Explain the concept of the “magical number seven.” (p. 221)
This is the capacity of STM is 7, plus or minus two.
5. What is chunking? (pp. 221-222)
When bits of pieces are combined into meaningful units, more info can be held in STM.
6. How long does short-term memory last? (p. 222)
12-30 seconds
7. What is long-term memory? What is the capacity of long-term memory? (pp. 222-223)
Long-Term Memory is they system of memory into which all the information is placed to be kept more or less
permanently. LTM seems to be unlimited for all practical purposes. There is always room for more information.
8. Elaborative rehearsal is one strategy for moving information from short-term into long-term memory.
Explain how this strategy works. (pp. 223-224)
Since information is processed according to its meaning rather than just the sound of physical characteristics of
the word or words, it will be remembered more efficiently and for a longer period of time
9. What are the serial position effect, the recency effect, and the primacy effect? (p. 231)
Serial Position Effect: tendency of information at the beginning and end of a body of information to be
remembered more accurately than information in the middle of the body of information.
Recency Effect: tendency to remember information at the end of a body of information better than the information
at the beginning of it.
10. According to Elizabeth Loftus, is memory a stable process, or one that is changing? (p. 233)
changing
Chapter 7 Study Guide
1. How do psychologists define cognition? (p. 254)
Mental activity that goes on in the brain when a person is organized and attempting to understand information
and communicating information to others
2. What are mental images? What does the Kosslyn’s Fictional Island study show about mental images? (p.
255)
Mental images: mental representations that stand for objects or events and have a picture like quality.
He found that it takes longer to view a mental image that is larger or covers more distance than a smaller, more
compact one.
3. Visual perception of an object and mental imagery tasks involving that same object involve activation of
similar areas of the brain. How do we know this? (p. 255)
Through PET scans (?)
4. Generally speaking, what is a concept? Be able to identify an example involving a superordinate concept,
a basic level type concept, and a subordinate concept. (p. 256)
Concepts are ideas that represent a class or category of objects, events, or activities.
Superordinate Concept: “fruit”
Basic Level Type Concept: “apple”
Subordinate Concept: “red apple”
5. What is a prototype? (p. 257)
It is an example of a concept that closely matches the defining characteristics of a concept
6. What is the difference between an algorithm and a heuristic? Which one is always right? Which one is
generally a more practical approach to problem-solving? (pp. 258-259)
Algorithm: very specific, step-by-step procedures for solving certain types of problems.
Heuristic: an educated guess based on prior experiences that helps narrow down the possible solutions for a
problem. Also known as “rule of thumb”
Algorithms are always right
Heuristic is more practical because it is faster
7. Be able to recognize an example of the representative heuristic and the availability heuristic. (p. 259)
Representative Heuristic: assumption that any object or person sharing characteristics with the members of a
particular category is also a member of that category.
Availability Heuristic: Estimating the frequency or likelihood of an event based on how easy it is to recall
relevant information from memory or how easy it is for us to think of related examples. (how many “ing”?)
8. What is insight in problem-solving? (p. 260)
When the solution to a problem seems to come suddenly
9. Be able to identify these problems with problem-solving: functional fixedness, mental sets, and
confirmation bias. (p. 262)
Functional Fixedness: a block to problem solving that comes from thinking about objects in terms of only their
typical functions
Mental Sets: the tendency for people to persist in using problem-solving patterns that have worked for them in the
past
Confirmation Bias: the tendency to search for evidence that fits one’s beliefs while ignoring any evidence that
does not fit those beliefs
10. What is creativity? Which type of thinking is associated with creativity: convergent thinking or divergent
thinking? (p. 263)
It is the process of solving problems by combining ideas or behavior in new ways. Divergent.
11. How do psychologists define intelligence? (p. 265)
The ability to learn from one’s experiences, acquire knowledge, and use resources efficiently in adapting to new
situations or solving problems.
12. What was the purpose of the first intelligence test? (pp. 267-268)
To help identify the students who were more in need than more capable students
13. What is the difference between reliability and validity? (p. 270)
Reliability: the tendency of a test to produce the same scores again and again each time it is given to the same
person
Validity: the degree to which a test actually measures what it’s supposed to measure.
14. What is standardization? How does it help researchers to determine norms for IQ tests? (p. 270)
It is the process of giving the test to a large group of people that represents the kind of people for whom the test is
designed.
15. Although your book discusses the old ratio method for determining IQ scores, the more contemporary
approach uses deviation IQ scores. What is a deviation IQ score? What is its mean (or average)? (p. 271)
A type of intelligence measure that assumes that IQ is normally distributed around a mean of 100 with a standard
deviation of about 15
16. We no longer use the terms mental retardation or mentally retarded in psychology. What terms do we use
instead? (p. 276)
Developmentally Delayed
17. Describe the three criteria used to diagnose intellectual disability (HINT: IQ, adaptive behaviors, and age
of onset).
Adaptive Behavior: skills that allow people to live independently, such as being able to work at a job,
communicate with others, ad grooming skills with little or no help.
Age of Onset: must be diagnosed before the age of 18 (?)
18. What is the difference between gifted and genius? (p. 277)
Gifted: The 2% of the population falling on the upper end of the normal curve and typically possessing an IQ of
130+
Genius: when their IQ is 140 to 145
Chapter 8 Study Guide
1. What is the difference between longitudinal and cross-sectional research designs? Which one enables
researchers to look at real age-related changes? (p. 298)
Longitudinal: research design in which one participant or group of participants is studied over a long period of
time
Cross-Sectional: research design in which several different participant age groups are studied at one particular
point in time.
Longitudinal enables researchers to look at real age-related changes.
2. What is nature, and what is nurture? Explain the nature versus nurture debate. (pp. 299-300)
Nature: the influence of our inherited characteristics on our personalities, physical and intellectual growth, and
social interactions.
Nurture: the influence of the environment on personality, physical and intellectual growth, and social interactions
This debate has been popular for many years, but most developmental psychologist now agree that both aspects
effect personality.
3. What is the difference between a gene and a chromosome? (p. 300)
Gene: is a section of DNA having the same arrangement of chemical elements
Chromosome: is a tightly wound strand of genetic material or DNA
4. Explain the terms dominant gene, recessive gene, and polygenetic inheritance. (p. 301)
Dominant: gene that controls the expression of a trait
Recessive: gene that only influences the expression of a trait when paired with an identical gene.
5. How does an individual inherit a recessive genetic disorder? What are some examples of recessive genetic
disorders? (p. 301)
Diseases carried by recessive genes are inherited when a child inherits two recessive genes.
Ex: Cystic fibrosis, sickle-cell anemia, PKU…
6. What is the difference between a recessive genetic disorder and a chromosomal disorder? How does the
chromosomal disorder Down syndrome occur? (pp. 301-302)
A chromosome can end up in the wrong cell, leaving one cell with only 22 and the other with 24.
7. Generally speaking, what events take place during the germinal period, embryonic period, and fetal period
of prenatal development? (pp. 305-307)
Germinal Period: first two weeks after fertilization, during which the zygote moves down to the uterus and
begins to implant in the lining.
Embryonic Period: 2-8 weeks after fertilization, during which the major organs and structures of the organism
develop
Fetal Period: 8 weeks until after birth.
8. Broadly speaking, what are teratogens? (p. 306)
Any factors that can cause a birth defect
9. The developing baby is most vulnerable to teratogens during the embryonic period. Explain why this is
the case, making sure to draw upon the concept of critical periods. (p. 306)
Critical Period: time during which certain environment influences can have an impact on the development of the
infant.
10. Infants are born with a set of reflexes. What are reflexes, and what is their purpose? (p. 308)
Grasping, startle, rooting, stepping, sucking
11. What is child-directed speech? How does it help infants learn language? (p. 316)
It is the way adults talk to infants. Babies attend more closely to this kind of speech.
12. What is temperament? Describe the three categories of infant temperament identified by Thomas and
Chess. (p. 319)
Temperament is the behavioral characteristics that are fairly well established at birth. Easy, difficult, slow to
warm up
13. What is attachment? How did Mary Ainsworth measure it? Describe the four categories of infant
attachment styles. (pp. 319-320)
It is the emotional bond between an infant and the primary caregiver.
Secure, Avoidant, Ambivalent, Disorganized/disoriented.
14. Adolescence is a time during which the ability to think abstractly leads to thought distortions, including
personal fable and imaginary audience. Describe each of these thought distortions. (p. 326)
Personal Fable: believing themselves to be unique and protected from harm.
Imaginary Audience: Believing that other people are just as concerned about the adolescent’s thoughts and
characteristics as they themselves are.
15. What happens during Erikson’s identity versus role confusion stage of personality development? (p. 327)
Identity vs. role confusion: stage of personality development in which the adolescent must find a consistent sense
of self.
Chapter 10 Study Guide
Note that these questions come from the Chapter 10 Study Guide that you completed prior to the third midterm.
Therefore, you should have already completed them. 
1. Explain the difference between sex and gender. (p. 380)
Sex: can be defined as the physical characteristics of being a male or a female
Gender: is defined as the psychological aspects of being masculine or feminine.
2. What are gender roles and where do they come from? (p. 380)
They are the culture’s expectations for masculine or feminine behavior, including attitudes, actions, and
personality traits associated with being male or female in that culture.
3. How is gender typing different from gender roles? ( p. 380)
Gender typing is the process of acquiring gender-role characteristics (of those cultures)
4. What is gender identity, and what factors influence its development? (p. 380)
It is the individual’s sense of being a male or a female. It is influenced by both biological and environmental
factors.
5. What evidence do we have from research to suggest that gender identity is at least partly determined by
biology? (p. 380-381)
In a study with 25 males who were raised as female, but later in life decided to become male and/or do masculine
things.
6. Explain the role of hormones in the development of gender. (p. 381)
Researchers believe that being exposed to certain hormones during fetal development not only cause the
formation of the sexual organs but also predisposes the infant to behavior that is typically associated with one
gender or the other.
7. In most Western cultures, is there more pressure for boys to conform to traditional roles, or is there more
pressure for girls to conform to traditional gender roles? Explain your answer. (p. 381)
It is harder for men because it is more culturally acceptable for women to be “tomboys” than for men to be
“sissies”.
8. According to social learning theory, how do children develop gender roles in their behavior? (p. 385)
Children imitate their same-sex parent and imitate their role (like a girl seeing her mom put on makeup).
Inappropriate gender behavior is usually ignored or discouraged.
9. According to social learning theory, what gender-role models are available to children? Are children’s
books and other forms of media filled with more traditional gender roles, or nontraditional gender roles?
Explain your answer. (p. 385)
Family members, teachers, television and the media
They are filled with more traditional roles.
10. According to gender schema theory, how do children develop gender roles in their behavior? (p. 385-386)
They develop gender roles the same way that they develop schemas for other concepts such as “dog”. They begin
to associate certain characteristics for what should be a “girl” or a “boy”
11. What is a stereotype? And, more specifically, what is a gender stereotype? (p. 386)
It is a concept held about a person or group of people that is based on superficial, irrelevant characteristics.
Gender stereotype is a concept held about a person or group of people that is based on being male or female.
12. What are some traditional stereotypes about males and females? (p. 386)
Females are emotional, sensitive, nurturing, and patient.
Males are aggressive, unemotional, and impatient.
13. What is androgyny? How might androgyny be beneficial in a person’s everyday behaviors and choices?
(p. 386)
It is characteristics of possessing the most positive personality characteristics of male and females regardless of
actual sex.
Chapter 15 Final Exam Study Guide
1. What is psychoanalysis? Who developed it? (p. 576)
An insight therapy based on the theory of Freud, emphasizing the revealing of unconscious conflicts
2. A primary of psychoanalysis is to help patients uncover repressed information in the unconscious mind.
Two techniques used to accomplish this are dream interpretation and free association. Describe these
techniques. (pp. 576-577)
Dream interpretation was used to uncover repressed material that resurfaced in dreams.
Free Association was where a patient was encouraged to talk about anything that came to mind without fear of
negative evaluations.
3. Explain how the modern-day practice of psychoanalysis differs from Freud’s original approach to treating
patients with mental disorders. (p. 577)
Today psychoanalysts are more directive and ask questions instead of waiting for the client to talk. They focus
less on the id and more on the ego.
4. What is systematic desensitization? Which category of disorders is systematic desensitization used to
treat? (p. 582)
It is a technique used to treat phobias, in which a client is asked to make a list of ordered fears and taught to relax
while concentrating on those fears.
5. What is cognitive-behavioral therapy? What is the main goal of this type of treatment? (p. 586)
It is action therapy in which the goal is to help clients overcome problems by learning to think more rationally
and logically.
6. What is psychopharmacology? (p. 596)
The use of drugs to control or relieve the symptoms of psychological disorders
7. What symptoms are antipsychotic drugs used to treat? What are the main negative side effects of
antipsychotic drugs? (pp. 596-597)
Hallucinations, delusions, and bizarre behavior
The main side effects are repetitive, involuntary jerks and movements of the face, lips, legs, and body, weight
gain, skin rashes, nausa…
8. How long do people with schizophrenia generally need to take antipsychotic medications? (p. 597)
Their whole life.
9. What symptoms and disorders are antianxiety drugs used to treat? How long does it take for these drugs
to work? What are some problems that can arise for people taking antianxiety medications? (p.597)
They treat anxiety disorders (mild anxiety to more serious anxiety of social phobias). The mild version works in
half an hour. The main side effect is its potential to be abused. Antidepressant disorders (more severe) take about
3-5 weeks to work. They have fewer side effects.
10. The most often prescribed antidepressants are SSRIs. What does SSRI stand for, and how do SSRI drugs
help to relieve depression? How long does it take for SSRI drugs to produce effects? (p. 598)
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors. It inhibits the reuptake process of only serotonin. They have fewer side
effects from older antidepressants. They take 2-6 weeks to produce effects.
Download