Cloud Computing Questions
1. What is a key benefit of virtualization technology?
a. Capacity planning
b. Flexible metering
c. Policy compliance
d. Rapid elasticity
2. Which tool helps to create Cloud services?
a. Service management tool
b. Service creation tool
c. Service monitoring tool
d. Service planning tool
3. Which technique enables making physical resources appear as logical
resources?
a. Grid Computing
b. Utility computing
c. Virtualization
d. Self provisioning
4. Which is an essential characteristic of the Cloud?
a. Resource utilization
b. Resource pooling
c. Resource planning
d. Resource reservation
5. Which is a key step in building a Cloud Infrastructure?
a. Centralize services and resources
b. Automate resource classification
c. Automate service provisioning
d. Customize services and resources
6. Which is a benefit of RAID?
a. Ensures data integrity in a RAID set
b. Prevents disk failure in a RAID set
c. Improves storage system performance
d. Simplifies distribution of parity across mirrored disks
7. Which statement is true about FC SAN?
a. Provides higher scalability as compared to DAS
b. Has limited ability to share resources
c. Enables object level access to data
d. Supports a maximum of 256 nodes
8. Which key requirement of a data center refers to the ability of IT to support
new business initiatives dynamically?
a. Manageability
b. Availability
c. Capacity
d. Flexibility
9. Which are the key parameters that determine the performance and
availability of a RAID set?
a. Number of drives in a RAID set and RAID level
b. Number of drives in a RAID set and the capacity of each drive
c. Number of RAID controllers and type of RAID implementation
d. Number of drives in a RAID set and Type of RAID implementation
10. Which key requirement of a data center is violated when an authorized
storage administrator is not able to remotely login to a server in the data
center?
a. Scalability
b. Flexibility
c. Security
d. Availability
11. What is stored in virtual machine log file?
a. Information of virtual machine’s activities
b. Virtual machine’s RAM contents
c. Virtual machine BIOS information
d. Information of virtual machine’s configuration
12. Which parameter determines the maximum amount of resource that a virtual
machine can consume?
a. Share
b. Limit
c. Reservation
d. Priority
13. Which technology enables a physical CPU to appear as two or more logical
CPUs?
a. Hyper-threading
b. Multi-core
c. Load balancing
d. Ballooning
14. Which optimization technique is used to detect identical pages in the
memory?
a. Transparent page sharing
b. Memory ballooning
c. Memory swapping
d. Cache flushing
15. Which is the primary function of hypervisor?
a. Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a physical
machine
b. Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a virtual
machine
c. Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently on a virtual machine
d. Allows authorization to virtual machine resources to users
16. Which method enables a virtual machine to directly access a LUN on a
storage array?
a. File system locking
b. Virtual machine clustering
c. Raw device mapping
d. Virtual storage mapping
17. What are the three major building blocks for automated storage tiering?
a. RAID type, storage type, policies
b. Storage type, storage group, policies
c. Storage group, RAID group, storage type
d. Storage group, RAID group, group policy
18. What is used to create secondary cache in cache tiering mechanism?
a. DRAM
b. FC drive
c. Solid state drive
d. SATA drive
19. When is thin LUN preferred over traditional LUN?
a. Performance is predominant
b. Security is more important
c. Storage space efficiency is paramount
d. High availability is predominant
20.
What defines the minimum amount of physical storage allocated at a
time to a thin LUN from a thin Pool?
a. Thin LUN extent
b. Thin LUN capacity
c. Thin LUN factor
d. Thin LUN set size
21. Which is a benefit of network virtualization?
a. Enhanced storm control
b. Increased resource acquisition
c. Improved manageability
d. Better policy control
22. Which network parameter sets maximum data transfer rate across a virtual
machine port group without queuing or dropping frames?
a. Burst size
b. Peak bandwidth
c. Share
d. Limit
23. As an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers,
which expense of the organization would be expected to grow larger?
a. Power and energy
b. Management
c. Infrastructure
d. Operational
24. Which technique allows traffic from multiple VLANs to traverse over a single
network connection?
a. NIC Teaming
b. Multipathing
c. Port group
d. Trunking
25. What is enabled by using NIC teaming?
a. Balance traffic across physical servers
b. Allocate bandwidth to traffic based on priority
c. Failover to another available physical NIC in the event of a physical
NIC failure
d. Transfer data to a LUN on a FC storage system using multiple network
links
26. What best describes the "metered service" characteristic of Cloud
computing?
a. Consumers are billed based on resource usage.
b. Services are provisioned based on their deman
c. Metering services are created when required from the resource
pools.
d. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource usage.
27. Which correctly describes N_Port ID Virtualization technology?
a. Single physical FC HBA port functions as multiple virtual N_ports
b. Single physical FC HBA port functions as multiple virtual E_ports
c. Single virtual FC HBA port functions as multiple physical N_ports
d. Single virtual FC HBA port functions as multiple physical E_ports
28. What correctly describes application virtualization?
a. Encapsulates operating system resources and the application
b. Increases application and CPU utilization
c. Provides interoperability between different application versions
d. Breaks dependencies between application interface and processing
logic
29. What is true about application encapsulation?
a. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine
b. Requires a built-in agent at the remote server
c. Does not rely on software installation or underlying OS
d. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine and a built–in
agent
30. What is true about application streaming?
a. Requires no agent at client machine
b. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine and a built–in
agent on the application
c. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine
d. All the data is delivered to the client after application starts
31. When is a connection broker a mandatory component of Virtual Desktop
Infrastructure architecture?
a. Desktop VMs are assigned from VM pool
b. High-end graphic applications are used
c. Additional security is required
d. Dedicated desktop VM is assigned to each user
32. In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational
expenditures grow in proportion to capital expenditures?
a.
b.
c.
d.
On-premise Private Cloud
External Private Cloud
Public Cloud
Hybrid Cloud
33. What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Mozy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Software-as-a-Service
Platform-as-a-Service
Infrastructure-as-a-Service
Virtualization-as-a-Service
34. What is true about virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)?
a. Involves hosting desktop which runs as hypervisor on the server
b. Requires hypervisor based VDI agent support
c. Each desktop has its own OS and applications in a VM on server
d. Each desktop has its own OS and applications installed on client
machine
35. What is an advantage of image based backup approach?
a. Single pass information collection
b. Reduced RPO
c. Eliminate site failures
d. Reduced VM failures
36. Which is true about virtual machine (VM) fault tolerance mechanism?
a. Both primary and secondary VMs share same virtual disks
b. Both primary and secondary VMs have separate virtual disks
c. Only primary VM can access the shared virtual disk
d. Only secondary VM can access the shared virtual disk
37. What occurs to the guest OS configuration when a virtual machine is
reverted from its snapshot?
a. Guest OS configurations are reverted to the point-in-time of snapshot
creation
b. Current guest OS configurations are preserved
c. Reference VM Settings are used to configure guest OS
d. Settings are lost and need manual configuration
38. What is the Cloud service model offered by Cloud Foundry?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Software-as-a-Service
Platform-as-a-Service
Infrastructure-as-a-Service
Virtualization-as-a-Service
39. What correctly describes the state of virtual disks of a virtual machine after
an array-to-array migration is performed?
a. Virtual disks are maintained at both source and target arrays
b. Virtual disks are only maintained at the source array
c. Virtual disks are deleted from the source array after they are copied
to the target array
d. Virtual disks are deleted from both source and target arrays
40. Which is used as a master copy to create and provision a new virtual
machine (VM)?
a. VM template
b. VM snapshot
c. VM clone
d. VM backup
41. Which resource may be hired in infrastructure-as-a-service model?
a. Operating system
b. Storage space
c. Middleware
d. Database
42. What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Syncplicity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Software-as-a-Service
Platform-as-a-Service
Infrastructure-as-a-Service
Virtualization-as-a-Service
43. Which is an example of platform-as-a-service?
a. EMC Atmos online
b. Salesforce.com
c. Google App Engine
d. EMC Mozy
44. Which is an example of infrastructure-as-a-service offering?
a. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
b. Google App Engine
c. Salesforce.com
d. EMC Mozy
45. Which is an example of software-as-a-service offering?
a. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
b. Google App Engine
c. Microsoft Azure
d. EMC Mozy
46. Which is the Cloud deployment model that will be a suitable choice for a
group of organizations with shared concerns?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Private Cloud
Hybrid Cloud
Public Cloud
Community Cloud
47. Which is a component of virtual infrastructure in Cloud?
a. Management software
b. Storage array
c. Network identity pool
d. Service catalog
48. Which option best describes ‘resource bundling’ in Cloud service creation
procedure?
a. Bundling application, platform software, and migration tools
b. Integrating virtual machine, virtual network, and virtual volume
c. Bundling graded compute, network, and application services
d. Integrating graded compute, network, and storage pools
49. Which is a key activity in ‘problem management’?
a. Rectifying error to return Cloud services as quickly as possible
b. Analyzing incident history to identify impending service failures
c. Checking veracity of problem records in CMDB
d. Transferring problem history to incident management
50. Which Cloud service management process is responsible for optimizing
utilization of IT resources?
a. Service asset and configuration management
b. Financial management
c. Compliance management
d. Capacity management
51. Which functionality is offered by unified management software in the Cloud?
a. Provides consolidated view of existing physical and virtual
infrastructure across data centers
b. Create VMs and allocate them CPU, memory, and storage capacity
c. Create zone sets and include nodes into zones
d. Create virtual machines and allocate them specified resources
52. Which security mechanism provides an effective control for data
confidentiality and integrity?
a. Copy and move restrictions
b. Authorization
c. Trusted computing base
d. Encryption
53. What is the primary goal of a security audit?
a. Evaluate effectiveness of security enforcement
b. Evaluate effectiveness of data confidentiality
c. Evaluate effectiveness of data integrity
d. Evaluate effectiveness of data availability
54. Which security goal is achieved by data shredding technique?
a. Preventing data loss
b. Preventing data manipulation
c. Ensuring data confidentiality
d. Enabling data encryption
55. Which GRC process determines scope of adoption of Cloud services?
a. Anti-virus protection measures in Cloud
b. Business Continuity
c. Risk Assessment
d. Disaster management
56. How is intrusion detection implemented under software-as-a-service model?
a. Implemented by the Cloud Consumer
b. Implemented by the Cloud Service Provider
c. Implemented by the Cloud Service Provider and Consumer together
d. Implemented by a 3rd party provider
57. Which Cloud model is best suited for small and medium businesses?
a. Public
b. Private
c. Hybrid
d. Community
58. Which Cloud adoption phase enables consumer to explore the geographic
location to store their data?
a. Assessment
b. Proof of concept
c. Migration
d. Optimization
59. Which Cloud migration strategy is recommended for tightly coupled
applications?
a. Hybrid
b. Forklift
c. Private
d. Public
60. Which application is perceived as a good candidate for migrating to the
public Cloud?
a. Proprietary and mission-critical application
b. Non-proprietary and non-mission critical application
c. Mission critical and I/O intensive application
d. Mission critical and security sensitive application
61. What factor could lead to Cloud vendor lock-in for consumers?
a. Lack of open standards in Cloud operations
b. Lack of security compliance
c. Mission critical nature of the applications
d. Performance sensitivity of the business operations
62. What is the process of grouping several smaller physical drives and presenting
them to the host as one logical drive?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Partitioning
LUN creation
LUN masking
Concatenation
63. A company plans to hosts a video streaming application and you are asked
to recommend a RAID level that can be used for this application.
Which RAID level should you recommend?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
3
5
6
64. Which data access pattern has the most significant impact on performance
due to slow seek times?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Random, large reads
Random, small writes
Sequential, large writes
Sequential, small reads
65. What is the stripe width for a six disk RAID 6 LUN?
a.
b.
c.
d.
3
4
5
6
66. Which storage array mechanism prevents two hosts from accessing the same
LUN?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Virtual provisioning
Partitioning
Zoning
LUN masking
67. Which statement applies to NAS?
a.
b.
c.
d.
General purpose server for block and content addressed data
General purpose server for block and file level access
Specialized server for block and content addressed data
Specialized server for the file level data access
68. What is a benefit of VLAN?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Eliminates collisions within the collision domain
Provides higher network bandwidth
Enhances security by restricting user access
Enables transmission of broadcast traffic from one VLAN to another
69. Which best describes “business continuity?”
a. Operating the infrastructure in a degraded mode after a failure
occurs
b. Securing the storage infrastructure from internal and external attacks
c. Recovering the systems, data, and infrastructure after a disaster that
adversely affects business operations
d. Preparing for, responding to, and recovering from an application
outage that adversely affects business operations
70. Which Cloud service model includes the complete stack provided as a
service, including all the layers of the service model?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Software-as-a-Service
Infrastructure-as-a-Service
IT-as-a-Service
Platform-as-a-Service
71. In which compute virtualization technique is the guest operating system
kernel modified to eliminate the need for binary translation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Paravirtualization
Software assisted virtualization
Hardware assisted virtualization
Full virtualization
72. A storage administrator wants to know about the current and historic
utilization of storage in their data center. Which report will provide this
information?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Routine report
Performance report
Chargeback report
Capacity planning report
73. A Cloud service provider is considering offering both a SaaS and a PaaS
service to their customers. Would their security concerns about virtualization
differ if they were to choose only one of these services, and why?
a. Yes; PaaS implementations require an API for authenticating users
with external identity systems; SaaS implementations do not
b. Yes; SaaS implementations require an API to encrypt data at rest;
PaaS implementations do not
c. No; SaaS and PaaS implementations both require that the customer is
responsible for data security
d. No; SaaS and PaaS implementations both require the same attention
to virtualization security
74. What is a primary goal of incident management?
a. Identifying the root cause of recurring incidents that exhibit common
symptoms
b. Restoring Cloud services to consumers as quickly as possible
c. Analyzing incident history and identifying impending service failures
d. Reporting incidents to the Cloud service provider
75. What are the two key expenses involved in running a business from the
Cloud?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Migration and operational costs
Infrastructure and management costs
Backup and service deployment costs
Management and compliance costs
76. Which mechanism enables a virtual machine to directly access LUNs in a
storage system?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Virtual Machine File System
Thin provisioning
Raw Device Mapping
Block-level virtualization
77. Which is used to statically identify a hardware port device in an FC SAN?
a.
b.
c.
d.
MAC
Channel
WWN
IP
78. Which is a benefit of automatic site failover capability in a data center
environment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Elimination of site failures
Reduced Recovery Point Objective
Elimination of Virtual Machine File System failures
Reduced Recovery Time Objective
79. What is a key performance consideration for migrating operations to the
Cloud?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Resource utilization matrix
Availability of different storage performance tiers
Latency of the network between consumer and service provider
Availability of target based de-duplication capability
80. Which statement is true about a Trunk link in a VLAN environment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
It transfers untagged Ethernet frames from different VLANs
It is a single network connection that carries multiple VLAN traffic
It is a dedicated link for transferring traffic belonging to a single VLAN
It is a link between two virtual switches that carries tagged Ethernet
frames
81. Which is a characteristic of channel technology?
a. Loose coupling
b. Long distance transmission
c. Dynamic connection establishment
d. Low protocol overhead
82. Which is a best practice for selecting drives for a thin pool?
a. Drive speed should be 15000 rpm or higher
b. Drives should run at the same RPM
c. The pool should be created from mix of FC, SATA, and Flash drives
d. Drives should be supplied by the same vendor
83. Which statement about Cache tiering is true?
a. It increases the performance of the primary cache
b. It enables the use of solid state drives as secondary cache
c. It enables the movement of data at the sub-LUN level
d. It increases the size of the primary cache
84. What is a limitation when using a backup agent on a hypervisor for backing
up virtual machine data?
a. Backing up a LUN that is directly attached to a virtual machine using
Raw Device Mapping is very slow
b. Backing up data residing on a Virtual Machine File System is very slow
c. It is not possible to back up a LUN that is directly attached to a virtual
machine using Raw Device Mapping
d. It is not possible to back up data residing on a Virtual Machine File
System
85. What enables a LUN that has more capacity than is physically allocated to
be presented to a compute system?
a. Global namespace mapping
b. Raw Device Mapping
c. Virtual provisioning
d. Automated storage tiering
86. What are the three building blocks of automated storage tiering?
a. Storage type, storage group, storage pool
b. Storage type, storage group, policy
c. Storage pool, policy, storage group
d. Storage pool, policy, storage type
87. Which attack could enable an attacker to install a rogue hypervisor that can
take control of the underlying server resources?
a. Side channel attack
b. Hyperjacking
c. VM theft
d. VM escape
88. Which statement is true about User State virtualization?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Operating system refreshes and migrations become easier to deploy
Templates are used to create User States
Common User States are used for all the desktops
User States are preserved as temporary files
89. Which Cloud service management process maintains information about
used and available capacity of configuration items in the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB)?
a. Capacity Management
b. Service Asset and Configuration Management
c. Service Catalog Management
d. Availability Management
90. Which parameters need to be configured to control the resources consumed
by virtual machines?
a. Share, Limit, and Reservation
b. Threshold, Priority, and Share
c. Reservation, Threshold, and Priority
d. Limit, Reservation, and Threshold
91. An organization needs to migrate all of their applications at the same time.
Which migration strategy should the organization use?
a. Forklift
b. Hybrid
c. Proprietary strategy
d. Vendor-specified
92. Which backup solution provides support only for source-based
deduplication?
a. EMC Avamar
b. EMC Data Domain
c. EMC Networker
d. EMC SourceOne
93. Which RAID type uses a dedicated parity disk?
 RAID 1
 RAID 3
 RAID 5
 RAID 6
94. Which issues are addressed by RAID technologies?
 Performance and data backup
 Loss of data due to disk drive hardware failure and performance


Data corruption and backup
Loss of data due to disk drive hardware failures and data corruption
95. Which is a feature of EMC PowerPath/VE?
 Traffic Shaping
 Dynamic Load Balancing
 Storm Control
 Integrated Traffic Steering
96. Which is responsible for creating Cloud services?
 User access management
 Virtual infrastructure management
 Unified management
 Cloud deployment
97. Which FC port type would only be used to connect an FC switch to another
switch?
 F_port
 E_port
 G_port
 N_port
98. What is a reason for monitoring data center elements?
 To ensure that the IT support staff performs efficiently
 To ensure that no data is lost if there is a disaster or service disruption
 To eliminate threats to storage infrastructure security
 To determine that the components are available and functioning properly
99. Which product provides a desktop virtualization solution?
a. VMware View
b. VMware ThinApp
c. VMware Workstation
d. VMware Server
100. How does a domain name server balance client traffic across a cluster of
servers?
a. By translating the domain name to the IP address of higher throughput
servers
b. By mapping the domain name to the IP address of a load balancing
device
c. By sending client traffic to each server that uses a driver to filter client
traffic
d. By mapping the domain name to the IP address of servers in roundrobin fashion
101. An administrator has configured the following Share values for different
types of traffic at the distributed virtual switch:
Virtual machine traffic: 3000
IP storage traffic: 1000
Virtual machine migration traffic: 2000
Management traffic: 1000
The available network bandwidth is 10 Gb/s, and the listed traffic types
contend for the bandwidth. How much bandwidth will be allocated to the
virtual machine traffic?
a. 2.8 Gb/s
b. 10.0 Gb/s
c. 4.2 Gb/s
d. 1.4 Gb/s
102. What is the correct sequence of steps for performing a hot conversion
from a physical machine to a virtual machine (VM)?
a.
The converter server creates a VM on the destination machine
b.
The agent clones the physical disk of the source machine to the
virtual disk of the destination VM
c.
The agent synchronizes the data and installs the required drivers to
allow the OS to boot from the VM and personalize the VM
d.
The converter server installs the agent on the source physical
machine
103. Which block storage over IP protocol requires a pair of bridges that uses IP
as the transport protocol?
a. iSCSI
b. FCoE
c. FCIP
d. iFCP
104. What is a key advantage of pointer-based virtual replication compared to
pointer-based full volume replication?
a. The replica can be used even when the source device has failed
b. The source device is not required for the restore operation
c. The replica device requires less space
d. The replica is immediately accessible
105.
Which is a benefit of data striping in RAID?
a. Efficient allocation of sequential reads and writes
b. Independent disks allow multiple reads and writes to take place
simultaneously
c. Improved security by creating multiple identical copies of data
d. Efficient allocation of random reads and writes
106.
Which statement is true about user access management software?
a. It informs the user about incident and problem status
b. It enables creating and publishing a service catalog
c. It enables the user to configure pools and virtual resources
d. It provides a consolidated view of existing virtual resources
107.
Which functionality is enabled by N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)?
a. A virtual N_port can access the FC Raw Device Mapping LUN assigned
to a physical HBA
b. A virtual N_port can act as multiple physical HBA ports
c. A physical NIC port can operate as multiple virtual N_ports
d. A physical FC HBA port can operate as multiple virtual N_ports
108. What needs to be assessed by an organization before migrating business
operations to the Cloud?
a. Financial strength of the service provider
b. Value added services provided by the service provider
c. Required Quality of Service (QoS) level
d. Capacity of the service provider’s physical infrastructure
109. An administrator is concerned about Denial of Service attacks on their
virtual machines (VMs). What should be your recommendation to reduce the
impact of this type of attack?
a. Harden all VMs
b. Limit the resource consumption of a VM
c. Perform regular hypervisor updates
d. Deploy role-based access control on the VMs
110. Which Cloud deployment model provides the highest level of security and
control?
a. External Private Cloud
b. Hybrid Cloud
c. Public Cloud
d. On-premise Private Cloud
111. Which product provides a dashboard showing Vblock infrastructure
configuration and resource utilization?
a. VMware vCloud Director
b. Cisco Nexus 1000V
c. VMware vCenter Chargeback
d. EMC Ionix Unified Infrastructure Manager
112. An organization performs full backup of its data every week. They are
experiencing long backup windows and huge network bandwidth
consumption during the backup process. What should the organization do?
a. Use source-based deduplication
b. Use target-based deduplication
c. Change the backup software
d. Use backup to tape
113.
Which is a benefit of the Public Cloud?
a. Reduced OPEX (Operational Expenditure)
b. Simplification of regulatory compliance
c. Self-service resource requests
d. Transparent Provider-to-Provider migrations
114. Which data center management activity helps ensure business continuity
by eliminating single points of failure?
a. Availability management
b. Security management
c. Capacity management
d. Performance management
115. An organization is deploying desktop virtualization using the Virtual
Desktop Infrastructure technique. Which cost component increases for the
organization?
a. Compute infrastructure
b. Desktop hardware
c. Application deployment
d. IT management
116. If an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers,
which expense would be expected to grow larger?
a. Management costs
b. Operational expenditures
c. Infrastructure costs
d. Capital expenditures
117.


Consider the following steps:
Harden the VM image to create a known security baseline
Remove unneeded devices and functions
 Utilize up-to-date VM patches and security updates
 Configure access permissions for a select group of administrators
Which of the steps are specific to making VM templates more resistant to
attack?
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
118.
119.
What is the basis for determining the size of the virtual machine swap file?
a. The sum of the virtual machine memory limit and the reserved memory
b. The physical machine memory size only
c. The difference between the physical machine memory size and the
virtual machine memory limit
d. The difference between the virtual machine memory limit and the
reserved memory
What does the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) define?
a. Period of time needed to detect a fault and determine its cause
b. Period of time by which systems and applications must be recovered
after an outage
c. Amount of data loss that a business can endure after an outage
d. Number of applications that are mission critical for a business to restore
after an outage
120. Which is a consideration for a Cloud user who is drafting a Cloud Service
Termination Agreement?
a. Cost of transferring the ownership of infrastructure back to the client
b. Service performance levels
c. Data migration plan
d. Time required for the server provider to restart operations
121. During which phase of the Cloud migration process should it be verified
that an application behaves as expected in the Cloud?
a. Proof of Concept
b. Assessment
c. Automation
d. Optimization
122.
Which statement about virtual machine (VM) fault tolerance is true?
a. It does not use the VM file system for protection
b. It provides faster backup of VM disk files
c. VM cloning occurs between dissimilar hardware
d. The secondary VM is in constant synchronization with the primary VM
123.
Which mechanism provides protection against NIC failure?
a. NIC trunking
b. VLAN tagging
c. NIC teaming
d. Port grouping
124.
What enables the storage of virtual machine files on a NAS device?
a. Virtual machine monitor
b. Virtual Machine File System
c. Network File System
d. Guest operating system
125. You are asked to create three VLANs on a newly installed physical
Ethernet switch. Which operations should you perform to configure the
VLANs?
a. Add three VLAN IDs to the hypervisor’s VLAN ID pool, then assign each
VLAN ID to one or more switch ports
b. Configure a trunk port on the switch, then assign three VLAN IDs to the
trunk port
c. Activate VLAN trunking and tagging on the switch, then define three
VLAN IDs on the switch
d. Define three VLAN IDs on the switch, then assign each VLAN ID to one
or more switch ports
126.
What is a limitation of a server-based Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
a. It monitors network traffic for multiple hosts
b. It runs on the same system with malicious software
c. It cannot access logs written by privileged processes
d. It cannot observe encrypted traffic
127. Which Governance, Risk and Compliance process needs to be performed
by a client to determine the scope of adoption of Cloud services?
a. Compliance penalty assessment
b. Regulatory compensation assessment
c. Enlisting anti-virus protection measures
d. Risk assessment
128. Which process categorizes resource pools based on their performance
and capacity?
a. Resource Cataloging
b. Resource Distribution
c. Resource Grading
d. Resource Bundling
129. In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational
expenditures grow in proportion to capital expenditures?
a. On-premise Private Cloud
b. External Private Cloud
c. Public Cloud
d. Hybrid Cloud
130. As an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service
providers, which expense of the organization would be expected to grow
larger?
a. Power and energy
b. Management
c. Infrastructure
d. Operational
131. What best describes the "metered service" characteristic of Cloud
computing?
a. Consumers are billed based on resource usage.
b. Services are provisioned based on their deman
c. Metering services are created when required from the resource pools.
d. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource usage.
132. Which Cloud service model allows the user to run any operating system
and application?
a. Platform-as-a-Service
b. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
c. Software-as-a-Service
d. IT-as-a-Service
133. Which Cloud service model is most appropriate for application
development?
a. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
b. Platform-as-a-Service
c. Software-as-a-Service
d. IT-as-a-Service
134. An organization runs a proprietary operating system for its custom
applications. System performance has been declining at an increasing rate.
They would like to leverage a Cloud solution to address their problem.
Which Cloud service model would be appropriate for them?
a. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
b. Platform-as-a-Service
c. Software-as-a-Service
d. IT-as-a-Service
135.
Which problem is addressed by RAID technologies?
a. Data corruption
b. Data backup
c. Data loss
d. Data security
136.
Which is a benefit of server clustering?
a. High CPU utilization
b. High availability
c. High memory utilization
d. High security
137.
Which RAID type uses parity to protect against data loss?
a. RAID 3
b. RAID 0
c. RAID 1
d. Nested
138.
Which RAID types use no parity in protecting against data loss?
a. RAID 1 and Nested
b. RAID 0 and RAID 6
c. RAID 3 and RAID 5
d. RAID 5 and Nested
139. Which component retrieves data from disk in an Intelligent Storage
System?
a. Front-end
b. Cache
c. LUN
d. Back-end
140. Which component of a compute system performs the creation and
control of logical storage?
a. Volume Manager
b. Operating System
c. DBMS
d. Application
141.
Which is used to logically group FC ports?
a. Zone
b. VLAN
c. Mask
d. ISL
142.
Which parameter uniquely identifies a switch in a SAN environment?
a. Area ID
b. Port ID
c. Domain ID
d. WWN
143. Which protocol is most commonly used for compute-to-compute
communication?
a. TCP/IP
b. FC
c. FCIP
d. iSCSI
144. Which term is used to describe the virtual space in which all nodes
communicate with each other in a SAN environment?
a. Fabric
b. Fibre Channel
c. Loop
d. Trunking
145.
What is a benefit of an Object based storage system?
a. It uses multiple object IDs for high security
b. It provides fast replication
c. It ensures data integrity
d. It enables fast backup
146.
Which are components of FCoE?
a. Converged Network Adapter and Fibre Channel Forwarder
b. Bridging and E_port
c. E_port and Zoning
d. TCP/IP and Fibre Channel
147. A compute resource is accessing data from storage over a network at the
block level. Which statement is true about the associated file system?
a. It is managed by the compute resource.
b. It is managed by the storage.
c. It is part of the network.
d. It is managed by the application.
148.
Which enables distributed FC SAN islands to interconnect over a WAN?
a. FCoE
b. CEE
c. ISCSI
d. FCIP
149.
Which FC port type is located on the compute system's HBA?
a. N_port
b. E_port
c. F_port
d. G_port
150. Which port type should be designated to allow an FC switch port to
automatically determine its functionality during initialization?
a. G_port
b. N_port
c. F_port
d. E_port
151.
What does the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) define?
a. Amount of data loss that a business can endure between an outage
and recovery
b. Period of time by which systems and applications must be recovered
after an outage
c. Number of applications that are mission critical for a business to
recover after an outage
d. Period of time needed to detect a fault and determine its cause prior
to recovery
152. An administrator wants to perform replication between heterogeneous
storage arrays over a WAN. Which technology should you recommend to the
administrator?
a. SAN-based replication
b. Three site replication
c. Array-based replication
d. Silvering
153. What is a key advantage of pointer-based, full volume replication in Copy
on First Access (COFA)mode compared to Full Volume mirroring?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The replica device size is smaller than the original.
The source device is not required for restore.
The replica is immediately accessible.
The replica only holds pointers to the source data.
154. Which data center management activity ensures business continuity by
eliminating single points of failure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Availability management
Capacity management
Performance management
Security management
155.
Which is a key benefit of implementing an ILM strategy?
a. Lower total cost of ownership
b. Lower recovery time
c. High performance
d. High security
156.
Which metric can be used for monitoring performance bottlenecks?
a. Number of replication task failures
b. Number of I/Os to the disk
c. Number of login failures
d. Number of used and free ports on a switch
157. A storage administrator receives an alert message that a new LUN has
been create Based on severity, how should this alert be classified?
a. Warning
b. Fatal
c. Information
d. Normal
158. A storage administrator receives an alert message that a disk has faile
Based on severity, how should this alert be classified?
a. Fatal
b. Warning
c. Information
d. Normal
159. Which is a benefit provided by Hyper-threading in a virtualized server
environment?
a. Improved CPU utilization
b. Logical CPU load balancing
c. Improved memory utilization
d. Improved virtual machine security
160. Transparent page sharing is employed in a compute system. What occurs
if a write to a shared page is attempted?
a. Data is overwritten on the page.
b. A shared copy of the page is create
c. The shared page size is extende
d. A private copy of the page is create
161. What is the key function of the balloon driver in the memory ballooning
technique?
a. To demand memory from guest OS and later relinquish it under the
control of the hypervisor
b. To demand memory from the hypervisor and later relinquish it under
the control of the virtual machine
c. To extend memory using a swap file under the control of the hypervisor
d. To extend memory using a swap file under the control of the virtual
machine
162. What happens to a swap file if the associated virtual machine is powered
off?
a. The swap file is delete
b. The content of the swap file is preserve
c. The swap file is emptie
d. The swap file remains open for use by the hypervisor.
163. What is required to convert a physical machine to a virtual machine when
using cold mode?
a. Converter switch
b. Converter Boot CD
c. Converter server
d. Converter agent
164. What is the correct sequence of steps for performing cold conversion from
a physical machine to a virtual machine (VM)?
a. The converter application creates a new VM on the destination
physical machine.
b. The converter application copies volumes from the source machine to
the destination machine.
c. Boot the source machine from the converter boot CD and use
converter software to defineconversion parameters.
d. The converter application installs the required drivers to allow the OS to
boot from the VM and personalizes the VM.
165.
How does a virtual machine appear to a hypervisor?
a. As a discrete set of files
b. As a physical machine
c. As a remote server
d. As a file system
166. Which type of hypervisor is recommended if the organization’s primary
concern is performance of virtual machines?
a. Bare-metal
b. Hosted
c. Built-in
d. Encapsulated
167.
Which statement is true about a virtual machine (VM) swap file?
a. It stores the state of the VM BIOS.
b. It exists only when the VM is running.
c. It stores configuration information of VMs.
d. It is used for troubleshooting VMs.
168.
Which component provides the ability to power off the virtual machine?
a. Virtual Machine Console
b. Virtual Machine Monitor
c. Virtual Machine Controller
d. Virtual Machine BIOS
169.
What is a function of Virtual Machine Monitor?
a. Binary translation
b. File system management
c. Virtual machine troubleshooting
d. Process scheduling
170. Which component optimally assigns physical CPU resources to virtual
machines?
a. Guest OS kernel
b. CPU load balancer
c. Hypervisor scheduler
d. Virtual machine controller
171. An administrator decides to power on a virtual machine (VM) that has less
memory available in a resource pool than the configured reservation
parameter.
What would be the expected outcome?
a. The VM will fail to power on.
b. The VM will crash after boot up.
c. The VM will power on in safe mode.
d. The VM will power on normally but perform poorly.
172.
Which statement about automated storage tiering is true?
a. Data movement is performed non-disruptively.
b. Total size of the required storage is reduce
c. It provides automated storage provisioning.
d. It is performed only within a storage array.
173.
Which network component performs physical-to-virtual volume mapping?
a. Logical Volume Manager
b. Virtualization appliance
c. Virtual Machine File System
d. Virtual machine
174.
What are the three deployment models offered by EMC VPLEX?
a. Local, metro, and geo
b. Local, remote, and multi-site
c. Local, remote, and geo
d. Local, metro, and wide
175.
Which statement about virtual machines is true?
a. They are not aware of the underlying storage technology use
b. They are not aware of the size of the virtual disk.
c. They are aware of the underlying storage technology use
d. They are aware of the type of storage media use
176. In file-level storage virtualization, what maps the logical path of a file to
the physical path name?
a. Virtual Machine File System
b. Raw Device Mapping
c. Global namespace
d. File system extent
177. Which technique ensures that the used capacity of the disk drives in a thin
pool is uniform after a new drive is added?
a. Rebalancing
b. Reordering
c. Leveling
d. Resizing
178. Which network component is used to connect a virtual machine to a
virtual switch?
a. Virtual NIC
b. Virtual HBA
c. Physical NIC
d. Uplink port
179. Which event occurs when network broadcast traffic reaches the Storm
Control threshold, assuming Storm Control is enabled at the switch?
a. Switch port bandwidth is extended, based on the pre-configured peak
bandwidth.
b. The switch port forwards broadcast traffic partially, maintaining the
traffic rate below the threshold level.
c. The switch port blocks broadcast traffic and drops subsequent
broadcast frames over the next time interval.
d. Switch port bandwidth is extended, based on the pre-configured
share value.
180.
What is enabled by using NIC teaming?
a. Failover to another available physical NIC in the event of a physical
NIC failure
b. Balancing of traffic across both active and standby NIC team
members
c. Allocation of bandwidth to broadcast, multicast, and unicast traffic,
based on priority
d. Transfer of data to a LUN on a FC storage system using multiple
network links
181. An administrator has configured the following traffic shaping parameters
for a distributed virtual switch:
Average bandwidth: 1 Kb/s Peak bandwidth: 4 Kb/s Burst size: 3 Kb
What happens if a 6 Kb/s burst of data arrives at the switch port?
a. Some of the frames of the burst will be queued or dropped by the
switch.
b. The burst will remain for 0.5 seconds without queuing or dropping
frames.
c. The burst will remain for 1.5 seconds without queuing or dropping
frames.
d. All the frames of the burst will be dropped
182.
Which is a component of Cisco Nexus 1000V?
a. Virtual Switch Node
b. Virtual Supervisor Module
c. Virtual Internet Module
d. Virtual Service Node
183. Under which condition of communicating nodes does routing occur
across virtual networks?
a. When they are on different virtual networks, but belong to the same
physical network
b. When they are on the same virtual network, but belong to different
physical networks
c. When they are on the same virtual network and physical network
d. When they are located on different geographic locations, but belong
to the same virtual network
184.
Which is a function of a virtual switch?
a. Directs network traffic to and from virtual machines
b. Maintains MAC address table to perform OSI layer 3 operations
c. Shares bandwidth of a physical NIC with other virtual switches
d. Enables configuring load balancing policies across virtual HBA ports
185.
What is a purpose of uplink ports on a virtual switch?
a. To provide connectivity between a virtual switch and virtual NICs
b. To enable inter-switch links (ISLs) between virtual switches in a physical
server
c. To enable the hypervisor kernel to access FC storage
d. To provide connectivity between a virtual switch and physical NICs
186.
Which statement best defines the term "virtual machine port group"?
a. It is a mechanism for applying uniform network policy settings to a
group of virtual machine ports.
b. It is a method for transferring virtual machine traffic through a single
network connection.
c. It is a method for enabling communication between virtual machines,
regardless of their location.
d. It is a mechanism for assigning a VSAN ID to a group of virtual machine
ports.
187.
What is a principal benefit of deploying a distributed virtual switch?
a. It maintains consistent network policies when virtual machines migrate
across physical servers.
b. It aggregates both physical and virtual switches distributed across
virtualized data centers.
c. It enables physical NICs to use MAC addresses for transmission of
frames.
d. It eliminates the requirement of individually configuring policies to
hypervisor kernel ports.
188. Which statement is true about physical NICs on a physical server running
hypervisor?
a. They offload iSCSI processing from the hypervisor.
b. They are not assigned IP addresses.
c. They are used as links between virtual machines.
d. They encapsulate SCSI data into Ethernet frames.
189. What are the three key components of Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
(VDI)?
a. Endpoint device, VM hosting server, and Connection broker
b. VM hosting server, VM management server, and Endpoint device
c. VDI console, VM management server, and Connection broker
d. VM management server, VDI console, and VM execution server
190.
What is a role of Connection Broker in desktop virtualization?
a. Connects end point device to the assigned virtual machine
b. Establishes connection between end point devices
c. Connects virtual machines to virtual machine hosting server
d. Establishes connection between two virtual machine hosting servers
191.
Which technology enables desktop virtualization?
a. Operating system virtualization
b. User state virtualization
c. File system virtualization
d. Memory virtualization
192.
What is a benefit of Application Virtualization?
a. It simplifies application deployment/retirement.
b. It increases application and CPU utilization.
c. It enables communication among different applications.
d. It breaks dependencies between the application interface and
processing logi
193. An application’s data has been corrupte Associated files must be restored
from the last virtual machine backup.Which restoration approach would be
most efficient?
a. Using an agent running on the storage array
b. Using an agent running on the hypervisor
c. Using an agent running on the virtual machine
d. Using storage array-based restoration
194.
Which method is used to create a linked clone of a virtual machine (VM)?
a. Using a snapshot of the source VM
b. Using a template of the source VM
c. Sharing the network identity with the source VM
d. Making a separate copy of the source VM virtual disk
195. Which tool can be used for live migration of virtual machine disk files
between two EMC CLARiiONarrays?
a.
b.
c.
d.
VMware Storage vMotion
VMware HA
VMware vMotion
VMware FT
196. Which functionality is provided by a Virtual Machine File System when
virtual machines are running on clustered servers?
a. Pool of running virtual machines to be shared among hypervisors
b. Pool of virtual disks to be shared among running virtual machines
c. Automated locking of virtual machine files
d. Virtual machine namespace resolution
197. Which virtual machine technique provides zero downtime in case of a
virtual machine failure?
a. Fault tolerance
b. Clone
c. Snapshot
d. Backup
198.
Which statement about virtual machine (VM) fault tolerance is true?
a. The secondary VM is in constant synchronization with the primary VM.
b. VM cloning occurs between dissimilar hardware.
c. It provides faster backup of VM disk files.
d. It does not use the VM file system for protection.
199. A multipathing option is enabled on a hypervisor. What is required for
successful failover to occur?
a. Virtual machine configuration files must include multipathing settings.
b. The Virtual Machine File System must support multipathing.
c. All the HBA ports must share the same network path to the storage.
d. HBA ports must be set up with multiple storage controllers.
200. An organization requires backup of virtual CPU configurations for each of
its virtual machines. In a compute based backup approach, where should
the backup agent be installed?
a. On the hypervisor
b. On each virtual machine
c. No backup agent is required
d. On the Virtual Machine File System
201. Which provides a consolidated view of existing physical and virtual
infrastructure resources across virtualized data centers?
a. Unified management software
b. Cloud integration management software
c. User access management software
d. Cloud resource management software
202. Which service management process maintains information about the
attributes of Cloud infrastructure resources?
a. Service Catalog Management
b. Capacity Management
c. Service Asset and Configuration Management
d. Infrastructure Management
203. Which Cloud service management process ensures that configuration
best practices are followed when creating Cloud services?
a. Service Asset and Configuration Management
b. Compliance Management
c. Capacity Management
d. Performance Management
204. Which tool enables consumers to deploy their applications and platform
software to the Cloud?
a. Migration tool
b. Shredding tool
c. Configuration tool
d. Service Creation tool
205. Which Cloud service management process is used to perform trend
analysis of resource consumption and to plan future resource requirements?
a. Capacity Management
b. Service Asset and Configuration Management
c. Resource Planning Management
d. Availability Management
206. Which statement describes the resource distribution process performed by
unified management software?
a. Create attributes of all Cloud services from different bundles
b. Create service instances and allocate resources from bundles to
service instances
c. Integrate a graded compute pool with graded storage and network
pool
d. Categorize pools based on performance and capacity
207.
Which statement describes the Resource Grading process?
a. Integrating a graded compute pool with a graded network pool and a
graded storage pool
b. Grading attributes of all Cloud services to be created from different
bundles
c. Categorizing resource pools based on their capabilities
d. Allocating graded resources from bundles to service instances
208.
Which operation is performed by user access management software?
a. Monitor allocation and usage of resources associated with Cloud
service instances
b. Manage bundling of application and platform software
c. Manage multiple grade levels for each type of user resource pool
d. Enable users to create virtual infrastructure from physical infrastructure
209.
Which product provides a solution for Cloud user access management?
a. VMware vCloud Director
b. VMware Service Manager
c. EMC Ionix Unified Infrastructure Manager
d. EMC Ionix Cloud Manager
210. Which security mechanism(s) defines the boundary between security
critical and non-critical parts of an information system?
a. Trusted Computing Base
b. Encryption
c. Authentication, Authorization, and Auditing
d. Defense-in-Depth
211. How does the VMware vShield Endpoint product streamline and
accelerate anti-virus and anti- malware deployment?
a. All anti-virus and anti-malware mitigation is performed in a single
place.
b. Engines and signature files can be deployed to a common share
available to all clients.
c. Running detection software against client disk partitions finds
infections earlier.
d. The engines and signature files are only updated within the special
security virtual machine.
212. Which security measures should be adopted to prevent virtual machine
(VM) theft?
a. VM copy and move restrictions
b. VM reservation
c. Mutual client isolation
d. Sandboxing of the guest OS
213. Which product provides a solution for one-time password based
authentication?
a. RSA SecurID
b. RSA Archer eGRC
c. RSA Envision
d. RSA BSAFE
214.
Which product provides a solution for multi-factor authentication?
a. RSA Archer eGRC
b. RSA envision
c. RSA SecurID
d. RSA BSAFE
215. Which security aspect ensures that unauthorized changes to data are
prevented?
a. Integrity
b. Confidentiality
c. Authenticity
d. Availability
216. Which measure should an administrator adopt to mitigate multitenancybased security concerns in a Cloud environment?
a. Mutual client isolation
b. Virtual machine reservation
c. Sandboxing
d. Virtual firewall
217. Which measure should be adopted to mitigate the challenge of "velocity
of attack" in the Cloud?
a. Sandboxing
b. Virtual firewall
c. Client based security protection
d. Defense-in-depth
218.
What is a major reason for auditing?
a. To ensure that only authorized individuals can access the system
b. To evaluate the effectiveness of security enforcement controls and
processes
c. To measure and charge for computer usage
d. To ensure that individuals are provided with privileges appropriate for
their role
219.
Which is a recommended method for virtual machine (VM) hardening?
a. Use a directory service for authentication
b. Use VM only for proprietary applications
c. Use a VM snapshot to provision a new VM
d. Disable VM access to the management console
220. A Cloud service provider decides to close its business due to legal
litigation. Which Governance, Risk and Compliance (GRC) document would
safeguard the interests of its clients?
a. Termination Agreement
b. Service Implementation Guide
c. Business Continuity Agreement
d. Service Level Agreement
221. Which Governance, Risk and Compliance (GRC) aspect may limit
adoption of public Clouds for applications handling sensitive data?
a. SAN Security Regulations
b. Information Flow Regulations
c. Inadequate anti-virus protection
d. Lack of robust data encryption standards
222. Which security process defines the scope of the access rights for a
resource?
a. Authorization
b. Authentication
c. Encryption
d. Auditing
223. From which level should a Distributed Denial of Service attack be
prevented?
a. Network
b. Access control
c. Perimeter
d. Compute
224. Consider the following actions:
 Exhausting resources such as CPU cycles or network bandwidth
 Exploiting weaknesses in communication protocols
 Hijacking of user identities
 Intercepting communications traffic
Which of these actions are involved in a Denial of Service (DoS) attack?
a. 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 2
225.
What statement related to a Virtual Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is true?
a. A virtual DMZ can support multiple trust zones.
b. DMZ virtual machines should be in separate sub-networks.
c. Virtual DMZ subnets do not use a firewall to protect traffi
d. Trusted nodes in the DMZ are not accessible from outside networks.
226. Which security mechanism removes the need for services to provide their
own identity system and allows users to consolidate their digital identities?
a. OpenID
b. Federated Identity Management
c. One-time passwords
d. Shared LDAP directory
227.


Review the following considerations:
A contingency plan for handling data in the Cloud
A process for migrating the data back into the organization or to another
Cloud
 Whether or not data can be moved over the network in a reasonable
amount of time
 Cost of transferring ownership of the infrastructure back to the client
Which considerations should apply before terminating a Cloud service
agreement?
a. 2 and 4 only
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 2, 3, and 4
d. 1 and 4
228.
What is an advantage of adopting Cloud Open Standards?
a. It enables mission critical applications to be run on the Cloud
b. It prevents vendor lock-in issues
c. It increases security compliance
d. It improves performance
229. What action should be part of a security and compliance assessment
prior to migrating business operations to the Cloud?
a. Selecting the geographic location of data storage
b. Reviewing disaster recovery options
c. Understanding the vendor lock-in period
d. Negotiating the service charge rate
230. During which phase of the Cloud migration process should business
application compatibility withCloud infrastructure be evaluated?
a. Technical Assessment
b. Security and Compliance Assessment
c. Proof of Concept
d. Optimization
231. During which phase of the Cloud migration process should the usage
pattern of an application be determined?
a. Proof of Concept
b. Assessment
c. Optimization
d. Migration
232. What are the three key Quality of Service (QoS) parameters that need to
be assessed by an organization before moving operations to the Cloud?
a. Performance, Availability, and Security
b. RPO, RTO, and Security
c. Service Charge Rate, RTO, and Performance
d. Performance, Availability, and Service Duration
233. Which trade-off needs to be evaluated to determine how Cloud
computing fits into an organization’s overall business strategy?
a. Risk versus convenience
b. Security versus penalty
c. Risk versus compliance
d. Security versus compliance
234. Which Cloud deployment model(s) is considered suitable for most start-up
organizations?
a. Private Cloud only
b. Hybrid Cloud only
c. Public Cloud
d. Both Private and Hybrid Cloud
235. Which Cloud deployment model(s) is considered most suitable for Tier 1
applications for the small to medium sized business (SMB) segment?
a. Private Cloud
b. Public Cloud only
c. Hybrid Cloud only
d. Both Public and Hybrid Cloud
236. Which type(s) of application involves higher risk when moving to the
Cloud?
a. Proprietary and mission critical
b. Backup and testing
c. Proprietary but not mission critical
d. Non-proprietary and non-mission critical
237.
Which document defines the quality and reliability of Cloud services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Regulatory Compliance
Document Service Charge Rate Specification
Service Level Agreement
Service Contract Agreement
238. An organization is planning to migrate its operations to the ClouThere are
several Cloud vendors that can provide the required services.Which is the
primary factor that the organization should consider when selecting the
vendor?
a. Ease of adding or removing services from the vendor
b. Identity of the vendor's existing clients
c. Range of value added services the vendor provides
d. The current market share of the vendor
239.
Which step of the "Journey to the Cloud" allows pooling of resources?
a. Virtualizing the IT environment
b. Automating resource management processes
c. Delivering IT-as-a-Service
d. Policy-based provisioning
240.
Which is a benefit of a virtualized environment?
a. Transparent Provider-to-Provider migrations
b. Optimized utilization of IT resources
c. Simplification of regulatory compliance
d. Reduced OPEX (Operational Expenditure)
241. An organization must meet government requirements prohibiting export of
data outside its territory. Which Cloud deployment model would be most
appropriate for this organization?
a. On-premise Private Cloud
b. External Private Cloud
c. Public Cloud
d. Hybrid Cloud
242. Which technology provides user-level authentication and file locking
functionality?
a. NAS
b. FCIP
c. iSCSI
d. FCoE
243.
Which storage platform supports file, block, and object level access?
a. Unified
b. Converged
c. Virtual
d. SOAP
244.
Which provide file-level access to storage on a NAS device?
a. CIFS and NFS
b. CIFS and FCIP
c. iSCSI and FCoE
d. SATA and SCSI