Biology 122 Exam Review Package
Name:______________
Evolution
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What is the evidence for evolution?
Define vestigial organs, homologous structures.
Who was Jean Lamarck? His theory?
Who was Charles Darwin? His theory?
Explain natural selection. (summarizing the 5 key parts)
Explain the role of the Galapagos finches in Darwin’s theory of evolution.
Organic Chemistry
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Draw the functional groups for alcohols, carboxylic acids, and amines
What is a hydrocarbon?
What is a polymer? Monomer? Isomer?
Most carbohydrates eaten by humans are in which two forms?
What is the function of starch?
A starch molecule is a chain of what simple sugar units?
What is the function of glycogen?
What process splits polysaccharides into monosaccharides?
The formation of a disaccharide from two monosaccharides is a reaction called .
Which common polysaccharide cannot be used by humans as an energy source?
Explain.
The molecule formed when several sugar units are joined is called
a) polypeptide (b) disaccharide (c) dipeptide (d) polysaccharide
Which one of the following molecules is a disaccharide
a) cellulose (b) glycogen (c) maltose (d) amylase
The food that we consider roughage contains large amounts of _____, a
polysaccharide.
Why is fibre considered to be an important part of a healthy diet?
Name the building blocks of triglycerides.
How does the structure of an unsaturated fatty acid differ from the structure of a
saturated fatty acid? Give an example of a food that contains each.
Explain why some fatty acids are solid at room temperature while others are liquid.
Which type of organisms tend to make saturated fatty acids?
When you consume more food than you need for energy, the excess is stored in the
form of triglycerides. Why are triglycerides particularly useful for this purpose?
What property do all lipids share?
Saturated is to single bond as _____ is to double bond.
Why is a protein called a polypeptide?
Explain how this 3-dimensional shape is formed.
Explain the difference between a dipeptide, polypeptide, and a protein.
Draw the general formula for an amino acid.
26. A peptide bond is always formed between the ____ group of one _____ and the
_____ group of the next.
27. Using a structural formula diagram, show how a peptide bond is formed between two
amino acids.
28. Discuss one type of interaction that can occur between the R groups of an amino
acid sequence.
29. What makes one amino acid differ from another?
30. How does having different R groups make amino acids ideal building blocks for
proteins?
31. Why are some amino acids soluble in water while others are not?
32. Name three functions of proteins in a living organism.
33. Which of these things is not like the others?
a) fiber (b) sugar (c) starch (d) cellulose (e) fat
34. Which elements are found in proteins but not in either carbohydrates or lipids.
35. The basic building units for the organic compound
a) Protein _____ (b) Triglyceride _____ (c) Carbohydrate _____ (d) Nucleic
acids _____
33. Proteins are to amino acids as polysaccharides are to .
34. What are the three components of the building blocks of nucleic acids?
35. How many nitrogen bases are there?
DNA and Protein Synthesis Review
1. What are nucleotides? Describe their structure.
2. Who proposed the "double helix" model for the DNA molecule.
3. Describe how DNA and RNA differ in their composition, structure, function, and
location.
4. What is meant when we say that DNA replication is complementary?
5. Why is DNA replication important for every cell?
6. Whose work demonstrated that DNA replication is semi-conservative?
7. What is meant by saying that DNA replication is semi-conservative?
8. Briefly describe the steps in DNA replication.
9. Why is replication on one strand of DNA continuous, while on the other strand the
replication must be discontinuous?
10. The sequence complementary to the DNA strand T-A-G-C-A-T would be
a) A-C-T-G-C-T (b) A-T-C-G-T-A (c) G-C-A-G-T-A (d) U-C-T-G-T-A
11. Why is the making of exact copies of DNA called replication rather than
duplication?
12. If 27 percent of the bases in a certain segment of DNA were adenine, what would
be the percentages of thymine , cytosine , and guanine.
13. Ribose is
a) found in DNA (b) found in RNA (c) a sugar (d) a nitrogen base (e) both b and c
14. A segment of chromosomal DNA which contains instructions for one protein is a.
15. Name the two major steps in protein synthesis. Briefly, what is accomplished by
each?
16. Where in the cell does each one occur?
17. Compare and contrast DNA replication and transcription.
18. How much of a molecule of DNA is untwisted during replication? During
transcription?
19. Name three types of RNA we described and explain the function of each.
20. How many different DNA triplets are possible?
21. The DNA triplet "CGA" is transcribed into which RNA codon?
a) GUT (b) GUC (c) GCU (d) AUG
22. Which enzyme "reads" the mRNA?
23. Explain the role played by each of the following in protein synthesis.
a) template strand of DNA (b) RNA codon (c) enzymes (d) rRNA (e) tRNA
24. During the process of translation what language change occurs? How is it possible
to put together a polypeptide with the correct sequence of amino acids.
25. What is the first codon in the mRNA of any polypeptide?
26. How does a codon differ from a DNA triplet. How does an anticodon differ from a
DNA triplet.
27. Name the two important regions of a tRNA molecule.
28. For the DNA triplet CGT, write the complementary mRNA codon and the tRNA
anticodon. 39. What amino acid does this triplet represent?
29. Explain the functions of start and stop codons.
30. What would be the effect on translation if the termination codon were changed by
mutation?
31. If the start codon were mutated?
32. What effect does the nucleotide sequence of DNA have on the cell?
33. Suppose that during protein synthesis, a cell is starved of uracil and another base is
supplied in its place. How will the proteins produced be affected by this
substitution?
34. A molecular biologist discovers a drug that blocks the site of attachment of the
ribosome to mRNA. How will the drug affect the functioning of the cell?
35. What kinds of factors act as mutagens? What effects could they have? Where or
when might one be exposed to them?
Genetics Can Be Fun
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For Labrador retrievers, black fur is dominant to yellow. Explain how two black dogs
can have different genotypes. Could a black dog have the same genotype as a yellow
dog?
Cystic fibrosis is regulated by a recessive allele, c. Explain how two normal parents
can produce a child with this disorder.
A pea plant with round seeds is crossed with a pea plant that has wrinkled seeds.
For the cross, indicate each of the following:
a. the genotype of each of the parents if the round seed plant is heterozygous.
b. the gametes produced by the parents
c. the genotypes and phenotypes of the F1 generation
d. the F2 generation if two round plants from the F 1 generation were crossed
Long stems are dominant over short stems for pea plants. Determine the phenotypic
and genotypic ratios of the F1 offspring from the cross pollination of a heterozygous
long stem plant with a short stem plant.
A pea plant with a tall phenotype is pollinated by a short plant, and the seeds of the
first generation hybrid produce 327 tall plants and 321 short plants. Give the
genotypes of all the plants.
In a certain species of plant, one purebred variety has hairy leaves and another pure
variety has smooth leaves. A cross of the 2 varieties produces offspring that all
have smooth leaves. Predict the ratio of phenotypes in the F2 generation.
In summer squash, white fruit color is dominant. Yellow is recessive. A squash plant
that is homozygous for white is crossed with a homozygous yellow one. Predict the
appearance of:
a. the F1 generation
b. the F2
c. the offspring of a cross between an F1 individual and a homozygous white
individual.
For Dalmatian dogs, the spotted condition is dominant to non-spotted.
a. Using a Punnett square, show the cross between two heterozygous parents.
b. A spotted female Dalmatian dog is mated to an unknown male. From the
appearance of the pups, the owner concludes that the unknown male was a
Dalmatian. The owner notes that the female had six pups, three spotted and
three non-spotted. What are the genotype and phenotype of the unknown
male?
For Mexican hairless dogs, the hairless condition is dominant to hairy. A litter of
eight pups is found; six are hairless and two are hairy. What are the genotypes of
the parents?
In horses, the trotter characteristic is dominant to the pacer characteristic. A
male trotter mates with three different females, and each female produces a foal.
The first female, a pacer, gives birth to a foal that is a pacer. The second female,
also a pacer, gives birth to a foal that is a trotter. The third female, a trotter, gives
birth to a foal that is a pacer. Determine the genotypes of the male, all three
females, and the three foals sired.
11. Imagine for hair color that B gives brown hair and b gives blonde hair. Use a Punnett
square to determine the following in a cross of two heterozygous parents.
a. What are the chances of the offspring being homozygous brown haired?
b. What are the chances of the offspring having blonde hair?
c. What are the chances of the offspring being heterozygous brown haired?
d. What is the genotypic ratio?
e. What is the phenotypic ratio?
f. Is there a heterozygous blonde haired offspring? Why?
g. If curly hair is dominant to straight hair, what letters will we use to show
these genes?
h. A heterozygous curly haired male marries a straight haired female. What
are their genotypes?
i. What would be the gametes for the male parent?
j. What would be the gametes for the female parent?
k. What are the chances of the offspring being homozygous curly haired?
l. What are the chances of the offspring having straight hair?
m. What are the chances of the offspring being heterozygous curly haired?
n. What is the genotypic ratio?
o. What is the phenotypic ratio?
p. Is there a heterozygous straight haired offspring? Why?
12. Thalassemia is a serious human genetic disorder that causes severe anemia. The
homozygous condition (TmTm) leads to severe anemia. People with thalassemia die
before sexual maturity. The heterozygous condition (TmTn) causes a less serious
form of anemia. The genotype TnTn causes no symptoms of the disease. Indicate the
possible genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring if a male with the genotype
TmTn marries a female of the same genotype.
13. In pea plants, tall is dominant to short and yellow is dominant to green. Show the F 1
and F2 results of a cross between a homozygous tall pea plant that produces yellow
seeds, and a short plant that produces green seeds.
14. In guinea pigs, black coat color (B) is dominant to white (b), and short hair length (S)
is dominant to long (s). Indicate the genotypes and phenotypes from the following
crosses:
a. Homozygous for black, heterozygous for short hair guinea pig crossed with a
white, long hair guinea pig.
b. Heterozygous for black and short hair guinea pig crossed with a white, long
hair guinea pig.
c. Homozygous for black and long hair crossed with a heterozygous black and
short hair guinea pig.
d. For each of these crosses, give the probability that an offspring will
have:
1. black coat, long hair
2. black coat, short hair
3. white coat, long hair
15. For guinea pigs, black fur is dominant to white fur color. Short hair is dominant to
long hair. A guinea pig that is homozygous for white and homozygous for short hair
is mated with a guinea pig that is homozygous for black and homozygous for long
hair. Indicate the phenotype(s) of the F 1 generation. If two hybrids from the F1,
generation are mated, determine the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation.
16. Black coat color (B) in cocker spaniels is dominant to white coat color (b). Solid coat
pattern (S) is dominant to spotted pattern (s). The pattern arrangement is located
on a different chromosome than the one for color, and its gene segregates
independently of the color gene. A male that is black with a solid pattern mates with
three females. The mating with female A, which is white, solid, produces four pups:
two black, solid, and two white, solid. The mating with female B, which is black, solid,
produces a single pup, which is white, spotted. The mating with female C, which is
white, spotted, produces four pups: one white, solid; one white spotted; one black,
solid; one black, spotted. Indicate the genotypes of the parents.
17. T = Tall, t = short B = brown hair, b = blonde hair
Cross a homozygous tall, heterozygous brown haired male with a heterozygous tall,
blonde haired female. Use a Punnett square to show parents and gametes.
a. What is the phenotypic ratio?
b. How many offspring are homozygous for both characteristics?
c. How many offspring are heterozygous for both characteristics?
18. Assume that curly hair (C) is dominant to straight hair (c). Albinism is a condition in
which cells which normally produce pigment do not do so. The allele for skin albinism
(a) is recessive to the normal allele (A). A woman with curly hair and albinism and a
man with straight hair and normal pigmentation have a child that has straight hair
and is an albino. What are the genotypes of the parents?
19. PKU is a recessive disorder. Suppose two people who were heterozygous for PKU
married and had a child. What is the probability that the child will have PKU?
For chickens, the gene for rose comb (R) is dominant to that for single comb (r). The gene
for feather legged (F) is dominant to that for clean legged (f). Four feather legged, rose
combed birds mate. Rooster A and hen C produce offspring that are all feather legged and
mostly rose combed. Rooster A and hen D produce offspring that are feathered and clean,
but all have rose combs. Rooster B and hen C produce birds that are feathered and clean.
Most of the offspring have rose combs, but some have single combs. Determine the
genotypes of the parents
Genetics Review
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Explain why Mendel's choice of the garden pea was especially appropriate.
Distinguish between genotype and phenotype.
Distinguish between homozygous and heterozygous.
Distinguish between dominant and recessive.
Given the alleles A and a, which is dominant? Which is recessive?
Which phenotype, dominant or recessive, can have more than one genotype? Explain.
Is it possible to be heterozygous for a trait and show the recessive phenotype?
Explain.
What is a test cross? Why does one use it? Explain the two possible outcomes and
what it tells you.
A flower grower is looking for new varieties of petunias. He crosses a yellow flower
plant with a blue one and gets green flowered plants. Explain how this is possible.
What principle states that the inheritance of one characteristic does not affect
the inheritance of another?
A mother has two alleles for a given trait. How many does she give to an offspring?
What principle describes this?
Plants grown by vegetative propagation (i.e., cuttings) have exactly the same traits
as the parent plants. Plants grown from seeds may vary from the parent plants in
many ways. Explain.
Does the height of a pea plant affect the color of its flowers? Why or why not?
In a monohybrid cross between homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive
parents, there are 32 offspring in the F2 generation. How many of the offspring
would you expect to show the recessive trait?
How many genes control a "trait"?
Construct a Punnett square for the cross between two plants heterozygous for seed
color and seed shape. Determine how many of each phenotype will be expected
among 16 offspring.
One gene has alleles E and e; another gene has alleles F and f. For each of the
following genotypes, determine the gametes that will be produced.
a) EEFF (b) Eeff (c) eeff (d) EeFf
Of all the chromosomes in one of your cells, half came from each of your parents.
About what fraction came from each of your grandparents? Your greatgrandparents?
Would a skin cell mutation on your hand affect your offspring? Explain.
A couple has three sons and one daughter. What is the probability that a fifth child
will be female? Explain your answer.
A roan calf's parents were a white cow and a red bull. What is the roan's genotype?
Can two roans mate and produce all roans? Explain.
Explain what is meant by the term multiple alleles.
42. What are polygenic traits? Give an example of a trait controlled by polygenic
inheritance.
43. Explain the inheritance of human ABO blood groups.
44. Why is there no ABO blood type?
45. Mary has blood type A and she marries John , whose blood type is B. They have
three children: Joan. James and Pete. Joan has blood type O, James has blood type
A, and Pete has blood type B. Explain how this is possible.
46. A woman having blood type A marries a man with blood type B. They have five
children. Two sons have blood type O . One daughter has type AB; another daughter,
type A ; a third, type B . Give the genotypes of all individuals.
47. If a man who has type O blood marries a woman who is heterozygous for type B
blood, what is the probability of them having a child with B type blood? Type O
blood?
48. Mr. and Mrs. Doe had a child named Flo at the same time Mr. and Mrs. Roe had their
son Joe. The Roes took Joe home, and after looking at him they claimed that Joe
was not their child. They were going to sue the Hospital for the mix up. The Hospital
took the blood types of all six individuals to try and prove there was no mix up. The
results of the tests were as follows: Mr. Roe had A blood type; Mrs. Roe had A blood
type; Joe had O blood type; Mr. Doe had O blood type; Mrs. Doe had AB blood type
and Flo had A blood type. Was there a mix up? Explain.
49. . Is it possible for two parents with type B blood to produce offspring who are not
type B? Explain.
50. Why are there more males with sex-linked genetic disorders than females?
51. What does it mean if we say genes are linked? Which law of inheritance do linked
genes violate?
52. Explain linkage and how crossover frequencies are used to make chromosome maps.
53. Discuss sex-linked inheritance in terms of X and y chromosomes.
54. Explain why probability is a useful genetic tool.
55. Explain why a large sample is more statistically reliable than a small sample?
56. Expectant parents want to know if the fetus the woman is carrying has sickle cell
disease. Could a genetic counsellor determine this by looking at a karyotype? Explain.
57. In sheep, white coat is dominant. Black is recessive. Occasionally, a black sheep
appears in a flock. Black wool is worthless. How could a farmer eliminate the genes
for black coat from the flock?
58. In a certain animal, a breed is known that always has a hairy tail; another breed is
known that always has a naked tail. How would you determine which trait is
dominant?
59. In most cultures, it is unacceptable to marry your immediate relatives. Using the
principles of genetics, explain why inbreeding in humans is discouraged.
60. In humans, which parent determines the sex of the offspring? Explain.
61. While examining a population of fruit flies, you notice that a certain trait never
appears in males. How can you account for this?
62. Define the term carrier female.
Reproduction Review
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What are two functions of the testes?
What are the components of semen and what purpose does each serve?
Describe the structure of a human sperm.
What is the function of the sperm's flagellum?
Why do sperm require mitochondria? From where do these mitochondria obtain
fuel?
Through which opening do sperm leave the male body?
What hormone stimulates the testes to produce sperm?
Which female structure is analogous to the male testes?
Which female structure is analogous to the male vas deferens?
Explain spermatogenesis? Oogenesis?
Write the following structures in the order in which a sperm travels through them
a) epididymis (b) testes (c) urethra (d) vas deferens
Explain the function of each of the following
a) Sertoli cells (b) seminiferous tubules (c) Epididymis
Describe the effects of testosterone in males.
It is important that only one sperm fertilize an egg. What would be the result if
multiple sperm fertilized a single egg?
Sometimes physical trauma to the mother can affect the fetus. How would partial
detachment of the placenta from the endometrium affect the fetus?
What structure attaches the embryo to the placenta?
Where does fertilization occur?
a) An egg is released from what organ?
b) From what specific structure?
The other name for the female's Fallopian tubes are?
What is the fertile period during the menstrual cycle?
The time when adult females stop their menstrual cycle is called .
Which of the two reproductive hormones is highest at the time of ovulation?
About how often is an ovum produced?
Describe the events associated with the flow phase, follicular phase, and luteal
phase of the menstrual cycle.
Which hormone stimulates the development of follicles?
What causes the follicle to burst and ovulation to occur?
What happens to the corpus luteum if fertilization occurs?
What occurs when the production of estrogen and progesterone drop?
What if pregnancy does not occur?
How does an embryo get oxygen?
Before birth, the male testes descend from the abdominal cavity into the scrotum.
Explain why testes that fail to descend cannot produce sperm.
Why does menstruation not occur if the ovum is fertilized?
33. Identify the functions of estrogen in the menstrual cycle and in the birth process.
34. Suppose a woman's oviducts were blocked. Would she produce ova? Could she
become pregnant?
35. What would happen if the corpus luteum disintegrated after an ovulation that
resulted in a pregnancy?
36. Explain how negative feedback works to regulate the level of FSH during the
menstrual cycle.
37. What hormone level is increased during the last weeks of pregnancy, sparking the
first contractions?
38. How would oxytocin injections affect labor?
Miscellaneous
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Scientific Process
Meiosis’
Karyotyping
Fetal Pig Dissection
Nervous System