EARTH SCIENCE ASSESSMENTS
* Items not authenticated (not from a released test—made up or from a non “valid” source).
Unit 8(1): 11—Cosmology and Earth’s Place in the Universe
E5.1 A: Describe the position and motion of our solar system in our galaxy and the overall
scale, structure, and age of the universe.
1. Periodically, there are spectacular meteor showers on Earth. These showers usually occur
because the Earth’s orbit passes through the remains of____________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
a star
a comet _
solar flares
the rings of Saturn
Answer: B
2. As observed with special instruments from Earth, the Sun appears in the sky to be slightly
larger in January than in July. Which of the following accounts for this observation?
A. The Earth moves in an orbit that is not circular but is closer to the Sun in January than
in July.
B. The diameter of the Earth is not constant, but bulges slightly at the Equator and
contracts slightly during the winter.
C. The Earth’s orbit is not in the same plane as the orbits of the other planets.
D. The axis of rotation of the Earth is not perpendicular to the plane of its orbit but
instead is tilted at an angle.
Answer: A
3. A planetary model of a system is appropriate whenever the components of the system and the
nature of the forces between them have certain properties. Which of the following might be
some of these properties?
A. One of the components is much more massive than the others and exerts an attractive
force on each of the other components.
B. One of the components is much more massive than the others and exerts a force on
each of the other components that is perpendicular to the line connecting their centers.
C. All the components are equally massive, are far apart, and attract each other.
D. All the components are equally massive, are close together, and repel each other.
Answer: A
4. Which of the following diagrams best represents the relationship between galaxies, the
universe, and solar systems?
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A.
B.
universe
galaxies
galaxies
universe
solar system
solar system
C.
D.
solar
system
universe
solar
systems
universe
galaxies
galaxies
Answer: A
E5.1b: Describe how the Big Bang theory accounts for the formation of the universe
1. The Big Bang Theory, describing the creation of the universe, is most directly supported by
the
A.
B.
C.
D.
redshift of light from distant galaxies.
presence of volcanoes on Earth.
parent shape of star constellations.
presence of craters on Earth’s Moon.
Answer: A
2. During the first moments of the big bang, nuclear fusion reactions made few heavy elements
because
A.
B.
C.
D.
all heavy nuclei are unstable.
no stable nuclei exist with masses of 5 or 8 hydrogen masses.
the helium nucleus is unstable.
the temperature and density were too low.
Answer: B
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3. In 1998 it was announced that the expansion of the universe is accelerating. What does this
imply from the perspective of the big bang?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A force exists that we knew nothing about that causes the expansion.
The universe must be closed.
The universe is finite.
The amount of dark matter must be greatly less than the amount of normal matter.
Answer: A
4. How does light from stars data support the Big Bang Theory? It shows that
A.
B.
C.
D.
most objects in space are moving away from one another.
the universe is collapsing again.
the Big Bang happened slowly over millions of years.
the light from objects in space is “blue shifted.”
Answer: A
E5.1c: Explain how observations of the cosmic microwave background have helped
determine the age of the universe.
1. The cosmic background radiation comes from a time in the evolution of the universe
A.
B.
C.
D.
when protons and neutrons were first formed.
when the Big Bang first began to expand.
when gamma rays had enough energy to destroy nuclei.
when electrons began to recombine with nuclei to form atoms.
Answer: D
2. The Hubble time is
A.
B.
C.
D.
the time it takes the galaxy to double its size.
the time since recombination occurred.
the time remaining before the universe stops expanding and begins to contract.
an estimate of the age of the universe based on the Hubble constant.
Answer: D
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3. What does Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation have to do with the Big Bang theory?
A.
B.
C.
D
It is part of the theory that has never been explained.
It was radiation made as the Universe started to cool.
It was radiation in space that got moved out of the way.
It is the radiation released during the explosion.
Answer: D
E5.1d Differentiate between the cosmological and Doppler red shift.
1. Data from a Doppler analysis of the sun show a red shift on the west side of the sun and a
blue shift on the east side. What does that data suggest about the sun?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The sun is the center of the solar system.
The sun is near the end of its life cycle.
The sun is a smaller, less massive star.
The sun is spinning on its axis.
Answer: D
2. Redshift and blueshift measurements were recorded for a group of stars and a group of
galaxies. Using the collected data shown below, explain how they support the idea that the
universe is expanding.
Star % Red Shift
A
2%
B
0%
C
D
E
F
G
.5%
H
.125%
I
0%
A.
B.
C.
D.
Galaxy % Red Shift
1
25%
2
5%
3
3%
4
15%
5
18%
6
5%
7
7%
8
9%
9
11%
% Blue Shift
0%
2%
1%
.5%
.125%
0%
The stars showing a blue shift suggest the universe is expanding.
The redshift in all the galaxies suggests the universe is expanding.
The blueshifted stars suggest the universe is not expanding.
The 0% shift in stars B and I suggest the universe is not expanding.
Answer: B
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% Blue Shift
Use the following spectrographs of hydrogen to answer the next two questions.
Spectrum of hydrogen on Earth
Red
Blue
Spectrum of hydrogen from a distant star
Red
Blue
*3. How would the spectrum of hydrogen on the distant star be described?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reflected
Red-Shifted
Offset
Refracted
Answer: B
*4. How would an astronomer explain the difference between the two spectra?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hydrogen gives off light differently if the gravity of the star is large.
Light traveling through space is warped by the vacuum.
The star is traveling away from us, lengthening the light waves.
The star has a slightly different kind of hydrogen it is burning.
Answer: C
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Unit 9(2): 12—The Sun and Other Stars
E5.2A: Identify patterns in solar activities (sunspot cycle, solar flares, solar wind).
1. A ___________ is believed to occur when energy, stored in a twist in the solar magnetic field
above a sunspot, is suddenly released.
A.
B.
C.
D.
solar flare
supergranule
spicule
coronal hole
Answer: A
2. Why does a comet’s tail point away from the Sun?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The solar wind blows the tail away from the Sun.
It is being pulled by a nearby black hole.
The Moon’s light only shines on part of the comet.
The comet’s tail is following the path of Jupiter.
Answer: A
3. The _______ is (are) the hot gases that are the moving extension of the sun’s corona.
A.
B.
C.
D.
spicules
prominences
flares
solar wind
Answer: D
4. Sunspots are dark because
A.
B.
C.
D.
regions of the photosphere are obscured by material in the chromosphere.
shock waves move through the photosphere.
the strong magnetic field inhibits the currents of hot gas rising from below.
they radiate their energy into space faster than the rest of the photosphere.
Answer: C
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E5.2B: Relate events on the Sun to phenomena such as auroras, disruption of radio and
satellite communications, and power grid disturbances.
1. The aurora borealis and aurora australis are caused by an interaction between charged
particles and Earth’s magnetic field. What layer of Earth’s atmosphere contains these
particles?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Troposphere
Mesosphere
Ionosphere
Stratosphere
Answer: C
2. If there were a slight increase in the amount of solar energy that reached the Earth, there
would be an immediate increase in____________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
erosion
evaporation _
volcanic activity
groundwater flow
Answer: B
3. What effect do solar flares have on Earth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Auroras
Global warming
Magnetic pole reversal
Tides
Answer: A
4. Cycles of sunspot activity on the sun have been hypothesized to be responsible for changing
climate. When would this hypothesis become a theory?
A.
B.
C.
D.
When enough evidence was collected to convince most atmospheric scientists.
When no other evidence could be found that conflicted with the sunspot evidence.
When scientists were sure that the sunspot theory would never be changed.
When enough people on Earth understood and accepted the evidence.
Answer: A
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E5.2C: Describe how nuclear fusion produces energy in the Sun.
1. Fusion is a form of nuclear reaction resulting in an enormous release of heat energy. The
fusion of hydrogen to helium is a reaction that commonly occurs in
A.
B.
C.
D.
the Sun and other typical stars.
the ionosphere and thermosphere.
Earth’s outer core of molten iron.
a comet’s tail of ionized gases.
Answer: A
2. Only ten percent of a star’s mass undergoes fusion because temperatures outside of the core
A.
B.
C.
D.
never gets hot enough for reactions to occur.
are too hot for reactions to occur.
are too dependent on the amount of hydrogen.
are always changing and are never stable.
Answer: A
3. The product of nuclear fusion is
A.
B.
C.
D.
hydrogen
oxygen
helium
nitrogen
Answer: C
4. The source of the sun’s energy is
A.
B.
C.
D.
chemical burning.
nuclear fission.
nuclear fusion.
photosynthesis.
Answer: C
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E5.2D: Describe how nuclear fusion and other processes in stars have led to the formation
of all the other chemical elements.
1. As part of the modern theory of the origins of the elements, it is hypothesized that before the
formation of the stars, most of the matter in the universe consisted of what atoms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hydrogen and helium
Nitrogen and carbon
Silicon and lithium
Uranium and radium
Answer: A
2. Massive stars cannot generate energy through iron fusion because
A.
B.
C.
D.
iron fusion requires very high density.
stars contain very little iron.
massive stars supernova before they create an iron core.
iron is the most tightly bound of all nuclei.
Answer: D
3. Which of the following best describes the process of nuclear synthesis that created the known
elements from hydrogen and helium?
A. Immediately following the Big Bang, intense heat and pressure produced all the
existing elements through the fusion of lighter elements.
B. On the protoplanets, radioactive isotopes of primitive elements decayed into stable
isotopes that compose the range of elements.
C. The formation of galaxies, stars, and planets produced environments in which the
fission of primitive elements produced the elements.
D. Under the intense heat and pressure within stars, the heavier elements formed as the
nuclei of two or more lighter elements combined and fused.
Answer: D
*4. A star is discovered with a high percentage of heavier elements. What does that show about
the star?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It has had nuclear fusion taking place for a long time.
It was formed in the big bang and is a new star.
It is recently formed from a gas cloud.
It is a star that formed from a planet.
Answer: A
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E5.2e Explain how the Hertzsprung-Russell (H-R) diagram can be used to deduce other
parameters (distance).
Directions: Use the information below to answer the following four questions.
The high school astronomy club visited a local university’s observatory to learn more about how
the life cycle of stars and the formation of the universe are investigated. At the observatory a
team of scientists was collecting hydrogen spectrographic data on many distant stars and
galaxies. The scientists used data from several telescopes, including the Keck Telescopes in
Hawaii and the Hubble Space Telescope that orbits Earth. These telescopes are used to observe
very distant objects. The scientists also used data from the university’s more limited telescope,
which is used to observe closer objects.
At the observatory, the students also learned about the relative size of star types. Some of the
information is shown below.
The students also learned how the size, color, luminosity, and absolute magnitude of stars are
related. The Hertzsprung-Russell diagram compares characteristics of star types. Each dot on the
diagram represents a star whose characteristics have been determined. Notice that the data appear
to clump naturally into four star groups: white dwarfs, main sequence, giants, and supergiants.
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1. Which statement explains why the team of scientist at the observatory most likely used other
telescopes to gather light emission spectra data from stellar objects?
A. Hubble and Keck are in different locations so scientists can see galaxies from
different angles.
B. Hubble and Keck are closer to the objects being observed so these objects are easier
to find.
C. Hubble and Keck are less affected by Earth’s atmosphere so scientists can see distant
galaxies more clearly.
D. Hubble and Keck are less costly to use so scientists can use them for longer periods of
time.
Answer: C
2. Which statement correctly describes how a star uses fuel to generate heat and energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
In a protostar, hydrogen atoms combine to form oxygen.
In a main sequence star, helium atoms combine to form hydrogen.
In a white dwarf star, heavy atoms break apart to form smaller atoms.
In a supergiant star, smaller atoms fuse together to form heavier atoms.
Answer: D
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3. Which relationship between red giants and white dwarfs is a correct inference?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The smaller the star, the brighter it appears.
The larger the star, the dimmer it appears.
The higher the density, the higher the temperature.
The higher the density, the lower the temperature.
Answer: C
4. Which statement correctly describes the structure of the Sun under its visible surface?
A. The Sun is composed entirely of gases and has no discernable structure.
B. The Sun is composed entirely of gases and has a thin outer convection layer, a large
radiant middle layer, and a small dense core.
C. The Sun has a thin liquid outer layer, a gaseous layer, and a large solid core.
D. The Sun has a large convection layer of swirling gases and a small dense solid core.
Answer: B
E5.2f: Explain how you can infer the temperature, life span, and mass of a star from its
color. Use the H-R diagram to explain the life cycles of stars.
1. Astronomers have discovered vast differences in stars through their observations. One theory
used to explain these differences is that
A.
B.
C.
D.
the distances between stars are vast.
stars are at different points in their life cycles.
Earth’s atmosphere distorts our view of the stars.
there is too much light pollution on Earth to study stars.
Answer: B
2. An astronomer uses a telescope to observe a star. The color of the star indicates that it has a
size and surface temperature similar to that of the Sun. Using this information, the
astronomer can conclude that the star
A.
B.
C.
D.
is older than the Sun.
will survive for several billion years.
is moving very quickly away from Earth.
has a mass similar to the mass of Jupiter.
Answer: B
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3. What two characteristics of main sequence stars show an approximately linear relationship
on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mass and volume
Absolute brightness and the percentage of helium in the star
Diameter and surface temperature
Surface temperature and absolute brightness
Answer: D
4. Which of these elements does this star X contain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mercury
Calcium
Sodium
Neon
Answer: B
5. In an H-R Diagram, stars with the smallest radius are found in the _______ of the diagram.
A.
B.
C.
D.
center
upper left corner
upper right corner
lower left corner
Answer: D
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E5.2g: Explain how the balance between fusion and gravity controls the evolution of a star
(equilibrium).
1. Bright new stars have been observed in the remains of exploded star systems. What are the
new stars made of?
A.
B.
C.
D.
From empty space
The energy from the exploded stars has become matter
From the elements still remaining from the big bang explosion
The elements produced by the exploding stars
Answer: D
2. A star is discovered with a high percentage of heavier elements. What does that show about
the star?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It has had nuclear fusion taking place for a long time.
It was formed in the big bang and is a new star.
It is recently formed from a gas cloud.
It is a star that formed from a planet.
Answer: A
3. What happened for the dust cloud to begin nuclear fusion and turn into the sun?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It shrunk down to the right size.
It got hot enough.
The atomic nuclei got close enough together.
Vibrations of particles increased to a critical speed.
Answer: C
4. Stars begin their life cycle in
A.
B.
C.
D.
a black hole.
a nova.
a nebula.
a supernova.
Answer: C
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E5.2h: Compare the evolution paths of low, moderate and high mass stars using the H-R
diagram.
*1. The end of the star cycle for a large star predicts a very small dense collection of heavy
elements. Which of these discoveries provided this evidence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Looking at very distant stars with the Hubble telescope.
Discovering the largest star in the universe.
Finding the first neutron star or pulsar.
Observing the supernova explosions in other galaxies.
Answer: C
*2. A small star that cools rapidly will produce what types of elements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Elements with small atomic weights
Elements that are mostly gases
Elements that have large atomic weights
Elements that are found on small planets
Answer: A
3. What will happen next, at “B”? The Sun will
A.
B.
C.
D.
explode into a nova after it collapses.
cool down and become a white dwarf.
collapse and become a black hole.
disappear and return in another universe.
Answer: B
*4. Massive stars begin their life cycle as which type of object?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Black hole
Neutron star
Black dwarf
Nebula
Answer: D
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5. What happens to stars much larger than the Sun when they reach point “B”?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Collapse then explode into a nova
Cool down and become a white dwarf
Explode and then collapse into a black dwarf
Disappear and return in another universe
Answer: A
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Unit 1(3): 5—Discerning Earth’s History/2-Earthquakes and Earth’s Interior
E5.3A: Explain how the solar system formed from a nebula of dust and gas in a spiral arm
of the Milky Way Galaxy about 4.6 Ga (billion years ago).
1. Which of the following statements best describes how the planets of the solar system
formed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
They are condensed rings of matter thrown off by the young Sun.
They are the remains of an exploded star once paired with the Sun.
The Sun captured them from smaller, older nearby stars.
They formed from a nebular cloud of dust and gas.
Answer: D
2. What caused the dense cloud scientists hypothesize created our solar system to increase in
temperature as it condensed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increasing density
Increasing speed
Increasing friction
Increasing mass
Answer: C
3. What happened to the dust and gas that did not contribute to forming the sun?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It created other stars.
It was lost forever.
It was all burned up by the sun.
It created the planets.
Answer: D
4. Nearly 5 billion years ago, a rotating mass of dust and gas called the solar nebula gave rise to
A.
B.
C.
D.
the sun and several other stars.
our solar system.
the Milky Way galaxy.
all solar systems.
Answer: B
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E2.1A: Explain why the Earth is essentially a closed system in terms of matter.
1. What are natural resources?
A.
B.
C.
D.
All renewable
All nonrenewable
The resources that the oceans provide
The resources that Earth provides
Answer: D
2. Earth is considered a system because all of its parts ___________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
represent separate closed systems
interact
were formed at the same time
are powered by the same energy source
Answer: B
3. Any size group of interacting parts that form a complex whole is a(n)
A.
B.
C.
D.
sphere.
energy source.
tectonic plate.
system.
Answer: D
4. Earth is essentially a closed system for
A.
B.
C.
D.
matter.
energy.
matter and energy.
neither matter nor energy.
Answer: A
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E2.2A: Describe the Earth’s principal sources of internal and external energy (e.g.,
radioactive decay, gravity, solar energy).
1. Which energy resource utilizes hot, dry rocks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Geothermal
Solar
Wind
Petroleum
Answer: A
2. Geothermal energy, a possible energy resource, is based on which phenomenon?
A.
B.
C.
D.
There are concentrations of heat in some places of Earth’s crust.
Earth’s internal energy heats its surface more than the Sun does.
Heat energy from the Sun penetrates deep into Earth.
Human activity is the largest source of heat energy on Earth.
Answer: A
3. The Earth’s internal energy is almost entirely from what sources?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Radioactivity, the Sun, nuclear fusion
Nuclear fusion, meteoroid and asteroid impacts, gravitational collapse
Primordial meteoroid and asteroid impacts, radioactivity, gravitational collapse
Nuclear fusion, chemical reactions, plate tectonics
Answer: C
4. What is the original source of almost all the energy in most ecosystems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbohydrates
Sunlight
Water
Carbon
Answer: B
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E5.3B: Explain the process of radioactive decay and explain how radioactive elements are
used to date the rocks that contain them.
1. What isotope is used for finding the age of materials that are organic in origin?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Thorium-232
Potassium-40
Uranium-238
Carbon-14
Answer: D
2. What method is used to determine the exact age of a rock or fossil?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dendrochronology
Radiometric dating
The principle of superposition
Relative age dating
Answer: B
3. According to the table, what is the half-life of Thorium-234?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8 days
20 days
16 days
24 days
Answer: D
Days Elapsed
Grams Of Thorium –
234 Remaining
0
16
12
11
24
8
36
6
4. According to the figure, after four half-lives (22,820 years), how much C-14 would be left?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.25%
25%
0%
10%
Answer: A
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E5.3C: Relate major events in the history of the Earth to the geologic time scale, including
formation of the Earth, formation of an oxygen atmosphere, rise of life, CretaceousTertiary (K-T) and Permian extinctions, and Pleistocene ice age.
1. Evidence suggests that Earth is about 4.6 billion years old, even though no Earth rocks have
been found that can be dated at more than 4 billion years old. This discrepancy is most likely
caused by Earth’s original crust being
A.
B.
C.
D.
difficult to date so precisely.
subject to extensive erosion.
blasted away during Earth’s formation.
destroyed by solar radiation.
Answer: B
2. For what is the Mesozoic commonly known?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Age of Reptiles
The Age of Humans
The Age of the First Mammals
The Permo-Triassic Extinction age
Answer: A
3. What theory may explain the mass extinction event at the end of the Mesozoic Era?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Big Bang Theory
The Theory of Evolution
The Theory of Plate Tectonics
The Meteorite Impact Theory
Answer: D
4. When was the northern hemisphere ice age?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The late Pleistocene only
The Miocene and early Pleistocene
The late Pliocene through the Pleistocene
The Holocene only
Answer: C
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E3.2A: Describe the interior of the Earth (in terms of crust, mantle, and inner and outer
cores) and where the magnetic field of the Earth is generated.
1. Which of the following Earth layers has the greatest density?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Crust
Mantle
Inner core
Outer core
Answer: C
2. What is the lithosphere composed of?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The continental and oceanic crust
The crust and uppermost mantle
The lower mantle and outer core
The upper mantle
Answer: B
3. The Earth’s inner core is made up of
A.
B.
C.
D.
anorthosite.
nickel-iron alloy.
lithium-ion.
nitrogen.
Answer: B
4. In correct order from the center outward, Earth includes which layers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Core, inner mantle, outer mantle, crust
Inner core, outer core, mantle, crust
Inner core, crust, mantle, hydrosphere
Core, crust, mantle, hydrosphere
Answer: B
5. Which layer produces the Earth’s magnetic field?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Crust
Inner core
Mantle
Outer core
Answer: D
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E3.2B: Explain how scientists infer that the Earth has internal layers with discernable
properties using patterns of primary (P) and secondary (S) seismic wave arrivals
1. The map below shows the location of an earthquake
epicenter in New York State. Seismic stations A, B,
and C received the data used to locate the earthquake
epicenter.
The seismogram recorded at station A would show the
A. arrival of P-waves, only.
B. earliest arrival time of P-waves.
C. greatest difference in the arrival times of Pwaves and S-waves.
D. arrival of S-waves before the arrival of Pwaves.
Answer: B
2. An earthquake struck San Diego, California.
The map and table show that the
approximate difference in arrival times
between the P-wave and S-wave at Seattle is
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
4 minutes.
5 minutes.
Answer: B
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Base your answers to the next two questions on the diagram below, which shows a cutaway view
of Earth in which the interior layers are visible. The paths of earthquake waves generated at point
X are shown. A, B, C, and D are locations of seismic stations on Earth’s surface, and point E is
located in Earth’s interior.
3. Both P-waves and S-waves were received at seismic stations A and B, but only P-waves were
received at seismic stations C and D. Which statement best explains why this occurred?
A.
B.
C.
D.
S-waves are much weaker than P-waves.
S-waves travel faster than P-waves.
The liquid outer core prevents S-waves from traveling to seismic stations C and D.
The solid outer core prevents S-waves from traveling to seismic stations C and D.
Answer: C
4.
The actual rock temperature at point E is inferred to be approximately
A.
B.
C.
D.
1,500 °C
2,900 °C
5,000 °C
6,200 °C
Answer: C
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
24
E3.2d: Explain the uncertainties associated with models of the interior of the Earth and
how these models are validated.
1. _________ is the technique used to date and study the ocean floor, which was fundamental in
leading to the general acceptance of plate tectonics.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Paleomagnetism
Pangaeation
Plasticity
Paleoalignment
Answer: A
2. The physical evidence that the core is composed mostly of iron is
A.
B.
C.
D.
the known mass of Earth requires material of high density at the core.
scientists have sampled the core and determined its composition.
volcanoes regularly erupt material from the core to the surface.
all of these.
Answer: A
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
25
Unit 4: 4—Rock Forming Process
E3.1A: Discriminate between igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary rocks and describe
the processes that change one kind of rock into another.
1. Which of the following rock represents an
igneous intrusion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Granite
Limestone
Marble
Shale
Answer: A
2. While on vacation, a student visits the area around a volcano that has recently erupted. The
student can expect to find samples of ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
clastic sedimentary rock.
nonfoliated metamorphic rock.
chemically formed sedimentary rock.
extrusive igneous rock. _
Answer: D
3. Metamorphic rocks can form from
A.
B.
C.
D.
sedimentary rocks.
igneous rocks.
metamorphic rocks.
all of the above
Answer: D
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
26
E3.1B: Explain the relationship between the rock cycle and plate tectonics theory in regard
to the origins of igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic rocks.
1. The breakdown of rocks and minerals into smaller particles without a change in composition
is called ________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
igneous intrusion.
chemical precipitation.
mechanical weathering.
metamorphic foliation.
Answer: C
2. Which of these provides the best estimate of how long it took a thick layer of sedimentary
rock to form?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Use a microscope to closely examine the size of particles that make up the rock layer.
Make a model that creates a sedimentary rock layer at a constant rate.
Calculate the age of the top and bottom of the layer.
Measure the rate at which similar layers of sediments collect.
Answer: C
3. Why does the United States have large areas of limestone?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fields covered much of the country for millions of years.
Seas covered the country for millions of years.
Desert covered much of the country for millions of years.
Forests covered much of the country for millions of years.
Answer: B
4. Why do chemical sedimentary rocks have a non-clastic texture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
They are made from pieces of other rocks.
They are made from volcanic rock.
They are made from igneous rocks.
They are not made from pieces of other rocks.
Answer: D
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
27
5. All of the energy that drives Earth’s rock cycle comes from
A.
B.
C.
D.
the wind.
Earth’s interior and the sun.
the breakdown of organic matter.
the movement of water over Earth’s surface.
Answer: B
E3.1c: Explain how the size and shape of grains in a sedimentary rock indicate the
environment of formation (including climate) and deposition.
1. In an area where a river has cut deep into Earth, there are several layers of very different rock
exposed. The oldest rock layer is most likely to be the layer that is
A.
B.
C.
D.
below the other layers.
the thickest layer.
the most rich in fossils.
igneous intrusive rock.
Answer: A
2. For undisturbed, horizontal strata of sedimentary rocks, their age
A.
B.
C.
D.
increases from top to bottom.
decreases from top to bottom.
can be determined from their color.
is the same.
Answer: A
3. Which sedimentary rock would most likely be deposited in a very high-energy stream?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Shale
Coal
Siltstone
Conglomerate
Answer: D
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
28
4. Sedimentary rocks with ripple marks suggest that the rocks formed
A.
B.
C.
D.
along a beach or stream bed.
when ancient animals walked over them.
from the shell fragments of ancient sea-dwelling animals.
when wet mud dried and shrank.
Answer: A
E3.1d: Explain how the crystal sizes of igneous rocks indicate the rate of cooling and
whether the rock is extrusive or intrusive.
1. Intrusive igneous rocks form
A.
B.
C.
D.
fine-grained rocks.
when a molten mass of rocks cools quickly.
on Earth’s surface.
coarse grained rocks.
Answer: D
2. Extrusive rocks, which cool more rapidly than intrusive rocks, are generally more
A.
B.
C.
D.
coarsely grained.
finely grained.
radioactive.
magnetic.
Answer: B
3. What igneous rock texture is characterized by two distinctly different crystal sizes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coarse-grained texture
Fine-grained texture
Glassy texture
Porphyritic texture
Answer: D
4. As the rate of cooling of igneous rocks increases, the size of the crystals that form
A.
B.
C.
D.
decreases.
increases.
is not affected.
cannot be determined.
Answer: A
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
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E3.1e: Explain how the texture (foliated, nonfoliated) of metamorphic rock can indicate
whether it has experienced regional or contact metamorphism.
1. What results when rocks come in contact with molten rocks such as those in an igneous
intrusion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Precipitation
Regional metamorphism
Contact metamorphism
Hydrothermal metamorphism
Answer: C
2. A metamorphic rock can be classified according to its
A.
B.
C.
D.
density and texture.
texture and composition.
color and composition.
density and color.
Answer: B
3. A foliated metamorphic rock forms when crystals
A.
B.
C.
D.
combine and form visible bands.
combine but do not form visible bands.
become less compact.
align themselves parallel to the direction of the forces acting on them.
Answer: A
4. Which agent of metamorphism can cause the overall composition of the rock to change?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heat
A hydrothermal solution
Pressure
Running water
Answer: B
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
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Unit 10(5): 5—Discerning Earth’s History
E5.3e: Determine the approximate age of a sample, when given the half-life of a radioactive
substance (in graph or tabular form) along with the ratio of daughter-to-parent substances
present in the sample.
1. X  Y + Z + energy
The equation above represents a nuclear decay, in which nucleus X decays into particle Y
and nucleus Z and releases energy. Which of the following can explain why energy is
released in the decay?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The mass of X is less than the sum of the masses of Y and Z.
The mass of X is less than the difference between the masses of Y and Z.
The mass of X is greater than the sum of the masses of Y and Z.
The mass of X is greater than the difference between the masses of Y and Z.
Answer: C
2. Carbon-14 has a half-life of approximately 5,700 years. Analysis of the carbon in a piece of
charred wood found in an excavation revealed that the carbon has 25 percent of the amount
of carbon-14 that is found in the carbon of living trees. Which of the following is most
nearly the age of the excavated wood?
A.
B.
C.
D.
160 years
5,700 years
11,400 years
23,000 years
Answer: C
3. If the half-life of an unstable isotope is 10,000 years, and only 1/8 of the radioactive parent
remains in a sample, how old is the sample?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10,000 years old
20,000 years old
30,000 years old
40,000 years old
Answer: C
4. What fraction of the original parent isotope still exists after 4 half-lives have passed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1/2
1/4
1/8
1/16
Answer: D
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
31
E5.3f: Explain why C-14 can be used to date a 40,000 year old tree but U-Pb cannot.
1. According to the graph below, a piece of timber
containing one-eighth of the amount of carbon-14
that is found in a living tree died about how many
years ago?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5,700 years
11,400 years
17,100 years
22,800 years
Answer: C
2. Radiocarbon dating is used to date
A.
B.
C.
D.
recent geologic events up to 75,000 years ago.
recent geologic events up to 10,000 years ago.
distant geologic events more than one million years ago.
all geologic events of the past.
Answer: A
3. How would you date a sample of rock that you suspect as being one of the earliest on Earth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Use a radioactive isotope with a short half-life.
Use a radioactive isotope with a long half-life.
Use an index fossil.
Use a microfossil.
Answer: B
4. Which of the following is used to determine the absolute age of a rock?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Relative-age dating
Correlation
Permineralization
Radiometric dating
Answer: D
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
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E5.3g: Identify a sequence of geologic events using relative-age dating principles.
1. The dating process that places geologic events in proper sequence is referred to as a
A.
B.
C.
D.
radiometric dating.
relative dating.
numerical dating.
temporary dating.
Answer: B
2. In general, the law of superposition states that in an undeformed sequence of sedimentary
rocks, each layer is
A.
B.
C.
D.
basically the same age.
older than the one above it.
older than the one below it.
thicker than the one above it.
Answer: B
3. Which type of geologic event has to occur to create an angular conformity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Uninterrupted deposition of sediment
Igneous intrusion into layered rock
Sediment deposited on older, eroded igneous rock
Folding or tilting of rock layers, followed by renewed deposition
Answer: D
4. In the following geologic cross section, units A, B, C, D, E, and F are sedimentary rocks.
Unit G is a granite.
Using the diagram as a reference, which of the
following happened most recently?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Deposition of unit C
Deposition of unit B
Deposition of unit F
Tilting of C, D, E, and F
Answer: B
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33
E5.3D: Describe how index fossils can be used to determine time sequence.
1. Index fossils help scientists estimate the age of a rock because index fossil species only
existed for a relatively short time. What happened to the species that are now used as index
fossils?
A.
B.
C.
D.
They became extinct.
They changed their diets.
They hid in marine sediments.
They migrated to new environments.
Answer: A
2. Which of the following most likely results in the formation of a fossil?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A Mesozoic clam lies exposed on the surface of the sea floor.
A Mesozoic clam is washed up onto the beach.
A Mesozoic clam is eaten by a large predatory fish.
A Mesozoic clam is buried by a mudslide.
Answer: D
3. The task of using fossils to match up rocks of similar ages in different areas is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
succession.
correlation.
geology.
fossilization.
Answer: B
4. Index fossils allow geologists to
A.
B.
C.
D.
match rocks of the same age in different regions.
determine the exact age of rocks.
identify organisms that did not leave fossil evidence behind.
determine why some organisms became extinct.
Answer: A
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
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Unit 2(6): 3—Plate Tectonics and Volcanoes/1-Organizing Principles of Earth Science
E3.3A: Explain how plate tectonics accounts for the features and processes (sea floor
spreading, mid-ocean ridges, subduction zones, earthquakes and volcanoes, mountain
ranges) that occur on or near the Earth’s surface.
1. The following map shows the position of Earth’s continents today. Which piece of evidence
would provide the strongest support for the hypothesis that Earth’s continents were once
joined?
A. Modern crops grown in region E
can also be grown in region F.
B. Fossilized sediments found in
region A resemble those found in
region B.
C. Modern marine mammals found
in location C are also found in
location D.
D. Fossilized land invertebrates
found in location E are also found
in location F.
Answer: D
2. About 300 million years ago, the land of Earth was a single mass known as Pangaea, as
shown in Figure A. About 150 million years ago, Pangaea broke up into the land masses
shown in Figure B.
Based on the diagrams, which of the following were more likely to survive on continent X
after the breakup of Pangaea than before it broke apart?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Organisms that lived in fresh water
Organisms that required warm conditions
Organisms that hibernated for long periods
Organisms that traveled great distances during migrations
Answer: B
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
35
3. Which of the following is most responsible for the formation of new crust at the edge of a
tectonic plate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mountain building at a continent-continent convergent boundary.
Magma rising up from the mantle at a divergent boundary.
Two tectonic plates sliding past one another at a transform boundary.
Subduction of one oceanic plate under another at a convergent boundary .
Answer: B
4. A rift valley is evidence of which kind of plate boundary?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Convergent
Divergent
Transform
Uniform
Answer: B
E3.2C Describe the differences between oceanic and continental crust (including density,
age, composition).
1. The youngest part of the ocean floor is found
A.
B.
C.
D.
along deep sea trenches.
where ocean sediments are thickest.
near ocean ridges.
where Earth’s magnetic field changes polarity.
Answer: C
2. The continental crust has the average composition of
A.
B.
C.
D.
gneiss.
granite.
basalt.
limestone.
Answer: B
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
36
3. A major difference between continental crust and oceanic crust is
A.
B.
C.
D.
density.
gravity.
pressure.
temperature.
Answer: A
4. The oceanic crust is primarily composed of
A.
B.
C.
D.
basalt and gabbro.
granite and gneiss.
limestone and dolostone.
sandstone and shale.
Answer: A
E2.2C Describe natural processes in which heat transfer in the Earth occurs by conduction,
convection, and radiation.
1. Convection currents transfer thermal energy
A.
B.
C.
D.
between continents.
from cooler regions to warmer regions.
from warmer regions to cooler regions.
as a result of buoyancy.
Answer: C
2. The downward part of a convection current causes a sinking force that
A.
B.
C.
D.
pulls tectonic plates toward one another.
moves plates apart from one another.
lifts and splits the lithosphere.
creates a divergent boundary.
Answer: A
3. The driving forces of tectonic plates are related to convection currents in Earth’s
A.
B.
C.
D.
crust.
mantle.
inner core.
outer core.
Answer: B
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37
4. The main source of downward convection flow in the mantle is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
ridge-pull.
slab-pull.
slab-push.
ridge-push.
Answer: B
E3.3B Explain why tectonic plates move using the concept of heat flowing through mantle
convection, coupled with the cooling and sinking of aging ocean plates that results from
their increased density.
1. Scientists believe that forces in Earth’s mantle move Earth’s
crustal plates. What do the arrows in the diagram represent?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ocean currents
Gravity
Convection currents
Wind patterns
Answer: C
2. Heat from deep in Earth’s interior is transferred to its crust by which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Conduction in the ocean
Convection in the mantle
Radiation from the solid core
Evaporation at mid-ocean ridges
Answer: B
3. Which area of the diagram shows the subduction zone?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
3
4
Answer: C
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
38
4. What is the process shown in the diagram by which molten material moves through Earth’s
mantle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Radiation
Convection
Plate faulting
Continental drift
Answer: B
5. One theory for the driving force for Plate Tectonics is what?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heat convection in the Mantle
Heat convection in the Atmosphere
Lunar tidal forces
Continental glaciers
Answer: A
E3.3C Describe the motion history of geologic features (e.g., plates, Hawaii) using equations
relating rate, time, and distance.
1. According to the theory of plate tectonics, the movement of plates can form mountain ranges
and valleys. Within the next 100 million years, the Great Rift Valley in Africa will most
likely become a
A.
B.
C.
D.
folded mountain range.
flat eroded plain.
desert covered with lava.
wider and deeper valley.
Answer: D
2. The lithospheric plates move an average of
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 inches per year.
50 inches per year.
5 centimeters per year.
50 centimeters per year.
Answer: C
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
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3. If the Atlantic Ocean is widening at a rate of 3 cm per year how far (in kilometers) will it
spread in a million years?
A.
B.
C.
D.
300 kilometers
30 kilometers
30 miles
3 kilometers
Answer: B
4. The Hawaiian Islands were formed when the Pacific Plate moved over
A.
B.
C.
D.
a subduction zone.
an ocean ridge.
the Aleutian Plate.
a hot spot.
Answer: D
E3.3d Distinguish plate boundaries by the pattern of depth and magnitude of earthquakes.
Base your answer to questions 1 and 2 on the map below. Dots on the map show the distribution
of major earthquake epicenters. The shaded circle labeled A represents a location on Earth’s
surface.
1. Which conclusion can best be inferred from the data shown on this map?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Earthquakes generally are evenly distributed over the surface of Earth.
Most earthquakes occur west of the Prime Meridian and north of the Equator.
Most earthquakes are concentrated in zones along plate boundaries.
Most earthquakes occur on continents.
Answer: C
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
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2. Location A is best described as an area that is
A.
B.
C.
D.
within a rift valley at a mid-ocean ridge.
at the boundary between two diverging plates.
within a deep-sea trench between two converging plates.
above a mantle hot spot near the center of a crustal plate.
Answer: D
3. The location of seismic belts are determined by plotting
A.
B.
C.
D.
earthquake epicenters.
seismic gaps.
earthquake foci.
epicentral distances.
Answer: A
4. The North American Plate is bounded by ________ plate boundaries.
A.
B.
C.
D.
convergent
divergent
transform
convergent, divergent, and transform
Answer: D
E3.r3e Predict the temperature distribution of the lithosphere as a function of distance
from the mid-ocean ridge and how it relates to ocean depth.
1. New oceanic lithosphere forms at
A.
B.
C.
D.
divergent plate boundaries.
convergent plate boundaries.
transform plate boundaries.
all of the above.
Answer: A
2. Which of the following increases with distance from a mid-ocean ridge?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The age of oceanic lithosphere
The depth to the sea floor
The thickness of the lithosphere
All of the above
Answer: D
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
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E3.r3f Describe how the direction and rate of movement for the North American plate has
affected the local climate over the last 600 million years.
1. Evidence about ancient climates indicates that
A.
B.
C.
D.
glacial ice once covered much of what is now India and Australia.
continents in the Northern Hemisphere today were once centered over the South Pole.
continents in the Southern Hemisphere today were once centered over the North Pole.
no continents occupied the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer: A
2. How does the Mesosaurus fossil evidence support the continental drift theory?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It’s unlikely that the Mesosaurus existed on both continents.
It’s unlikely that the Mesosaurus could swim between continents.
The Mesosaurus fossil evidence does not support the continental drift theory.
The Mesosaurus lived millions of years ago, when scientists believe the continents
began to drift.
Answer: B
3. Which of the following was not used by Wegener as evidence of continental drift?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fossils that were common to many continents
Evidence of glaciation on widely separated continents
The geometric fit of the continents
Magnetic anomalies on the seafloor
Answer: D
4. The existence of coal beds in Antarctica indicates that the continent once had
A.
B.
C.
D.
been part of Africa.
a temperate, rainy climate.
a cold, dry climate.
been farther from the equator.
Answer: B
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
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Unit 3(7): 2—Earthquakes and Earth’s Interior
E3.4A Use the distribution of earthquakes and volcanoes to locate and determine the types
of plate boundaries.
Base your answer to the following question on the map below. Dots on the map show the
distribution of major earthquake epicenters. The shaded circle labeled A represents a location on
Earth’s surface.
1. Which conclusion can best be inferred from the data shown on this map?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Earthquakes generally are evenly distributed over the surface of Earth.
Most earthquakes occur west of the Prime Meridian and north of the Equator.
Most earthquakes are concentrated in zones along plate boundaries.
Most earthquakes occur on continents.
Answer: C
2. The locations of seismic belts are determined by plotting
A.
B.
C.
D.
earthquake epicenters.
seismic gaps.
earthquake foci.
epicentral distances.
Answer: A
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
43
3. Most volcanoes occur
A.
B.
C.
D.
along convergent boundaries.
far from tectonic plate boundaries.
along divergent boundaries.
randomly.
Answer: A
4. On the map, dark circles indicate the positions
of volcanoes in the “Ring of Fire” in and
around the Pacific Ocean. Dark lines indicate
tectonic plate boundaries of Earth’s crust.
According to this map, which of the following
describes where volcanoes are most likely to
form in the Ring of Fire?
A. Volcanoes form in the middle of a
tectonic plate.
B. Volcanoes form below the surface of
tectonic plates.
C. Volcanoes form where tectonic plates
meet other plates.
D. Volcanoes form where earthquakes are
least likely to occur.
Answer: C
5. Each dot on the diagram marks the origin of an earthquake. The area with the highest
concentration of earthquake origins marks_________________.
A. a seam of soft rock, such as limestone
B. a line of Earth’s magnetic field
C. the location of a developing igneous
intrusion
D. the path of the subducting tectonic plate
Answer: D
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
44
E3.4B Describe how the sizes of earthquakes and volcanoes are measured or characterized.
1. Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting how violently or quietly a volcano erupts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Magma’s composition
Magma’s temperature
Composition of dissolved gases in the magma
Size of the volcano’s cone
Answer: D
2. Highly explosive volcanoes tend to have what type of magma?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Magma with high silica, high viscosity, and higher gas content.
Magma with low silica, low viscosity, and lower gas content.
Magma with low silica, high viscosity, and lower gas content.
Magma with no silica, high viscosity, and no gas content.
Answer: A
3. Seismic waves generated by an earthquake at point R are recorded at locations W and X.
Which pair of seismographs is more accurate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
45
4. The scale most widely used by scientists for measuring earthquakes is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
seismic scale.
Richter scale.
moment magnitude scale.
epicenter magnitude scale.
Answer: C
E3.4C Describe the effects of earthquakes and volcanic eruptions on humans.
1. The table lists the gases coming from a modern Hawaiian
volcano. If ancient volcanoes gave off the same gases, which
gas would have been most helpful in the development of
early life-forms that could carry out photosynthesis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
N2
SO2
CO2
Cl2
Analysis of Gases from a
Hawaiian Volcano
Gas
Amount
79%
H2O (steam)
12%
CO2
6.5%
SO2
1.5%
N2
trace
H2, CO, Cl2, and Ar
Answer: C
2. Why do earthquakes often cause damaging fires?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lightning strikes are common during earthquakes.
Earthquake vibrations can break gas lines, water lines, and electrical lines.
Tsunamis from earthquakes generate enough heat to start fires.
Magma from deep underground escapes through faults.
Answer: B
3. In which of the following areas would the damage from an earthquake measuring 6.8 likely
be the greatest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lightly populated rural area
Area with older brick structures
Area with modern steel-framed structures
Area with wood-framed structures
Answer: B
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
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4. Which of the following areas would most likely be the safest during a major earthquake?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Area with granite bedrock
Area with loosely consolidated soil
Area with structures built on a landfill
Area with steep slopes of unconsolidated sediments
Answer: A
E3.4d Explain how the chemical composition of magmas relates to plate tectonics and
affects the geometry, structure, and explosivity of volcanoes.
1. Which type of volcano would be the least explosive?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cinder cone
Stratovolcano
Shield volcano
Composite cone
Answer: C
2. Which list places the magma types in order of decreasing viscosity (most viscous listed
first)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Basaltic, andesitic, rhyolitic
Rhyolitic, andesitic, basaltic
Andesitic, basaltic, rhyolitic
Basaltic, rhyolitic, andesitic
Answer: B
3. Highly explosive volcanoes tend to have what type of magma?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Magma with high silica, high viscosity, and higher gas content
Magma with low silica, low viscosity, and lower gas content
Magma with low silica, high viscosity, and lower gas content
Magma with no silica, high viscosity, and no gas content
Answer: A
Earth Science Assessments – May 2009
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4. Explosive volcanic eruptions commonly produce what type of texture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Porphyritic
Pyroclastic
Phaneritic
Aphanitic
Answer: B
E2.2C Describe natural processes in which heat transfer in the Earth occurs by conduction,
convection, and radiation.
1. Convection currents transfer thermal energy
A.
B.
C.
D.
between continents.
from cooler regions to warmer regions.
from warmer regions to cooler regions.
as a result of buoyancy.
Answer: C
2. The downward part of a convection current causes a sinking force that
A.
B.
C.
D.
pulls tectonic plates toward one another.
moves plates apart from one another.
lifts and splits the lithosphere.
creates a divergent boundary.
Answer: A
3. The driving forces of tectonic plates are related to convection currents in Earth’s
A.
B.
C.
D.
crust.
mantle.
inner core.
outer core.
Answer: B
4. The main source of downward convection flow in the mantle is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
ridge-pull.
slab-pull.
slab-push.
ridge-push.
Answer: B
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E3.4e Explain how volcanoes change the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and other Earth
systems.
1. The following is NOT expected to occur soon after a volcano erupts shooting large amounts
of ash and gases into the atmosphere:
A.
B.
C.
D.
contaminated groundwater.
typhoons.
changes in the weather.
health problems in nearby humans.
Answer: B
2. A volcanic eruption can affect the atmosphere by _________________________
A.
B.
C.
D
reducing the amount of water vapor in the atmosphere.
adding large quantities of several gases, such as sulfur dioxide, to the atmosphere.
clearing away nearby clouds, increasing the amount of sunshine.
increasing the amount of oxygen due to escaping gases.
Answer: B
3. Choose the best example of an interaction between the hydrosphere and the biosphere.
A. Ash from a volcanic eruption dissolves in clouds and contaminates a river rain.
B. Ash from a volcanic eruption contaminates a river from which humans drink.
C. Ash from a volcanic eruption dissolves in clouds and when it rains increases soil
fertility.
D. Ash from a volcanic eruption contaminates the stratosphere and changes global
weather patterns.
Answer: B
4. Oxygen ____________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
has not always been a part of Earth’s atmosphere.
has been in Earth’s atmosphere for the past 4.6 billion years.
is released by volcanic eruptions in large quantities.
was used up by early life-forms during photosynthesis.
Answer: A
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E2.1C Explain, using specific examples, how a change in one system affects other Earth
systems.
1. Which of the following can be impacted by El Nino?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fishing industry
Climate
Farming industry
All of the above
Answer: D
2. Shifts in Earth’s continents most likely caused a change in Earth’s
A.
B.
C.
D.
climatic regions.
mass.
orbital velocity.
atmospheric temperature.
Answer: A
3. A volcanic eruption can affect the atmosphere by
A.
B.
C.
D.
adding large quantities of several gases, such as sulfur dioxide, to the atmosphere.
increasing the amount of oxygen due to escaping gases.
clearing away nearby clouds, increasing the amount of sunshine.
reducing the amount of water vapor in the atmosphere.
Answer: A
4. Which of the following is NOT true of the relationship between vegetation and climate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vegetation influences ocean currents.
Vegetation influences cloud formation.
Vegetation influences rates of solar absorption.
Vegetation influences regional precipitation patterns.
Answer: A
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E3.4f Explain why fences are offset after an earthquake, using the elastic rebound theory.
1. Which of the following causes earthquakes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Elastic rebound
Richter scale
Release of heat
Frictional heating
Answer: A
2. The hypothesis that explains the release of energy during an earthquake is called the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Richter hypothesis.
moment magnitude hypothesis.
vibration hypothesis.
elastic rebound hypothesis.
Answer: D
3. During an earthquake, the ground surface ______
A.
B
C.
D.
moves only in a horizontal direction.
moves only in a vertical direction.
can move in any direction.
does not move.
Answer: C
4. According to the elastic rebound theory
A. rocks will bend before they break.
B. rocks will snap back into their original shape after faulting.
C. rocks will break when their capacity to store energy of deformation has been
exceeded.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
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Unit 7(8): 6-Severe Weather
E4.3A Describe the various conditions of formation associated with severe weather
(thunderstorms, tornadoes, hurricanes, floods, waves, and drought).
1. According to the map, most hurricanes occur where ___________________.
A. the oceans are
warmest
B. the landmasses are
largest
C. the atmosphere is
driest
D. areas of greatest
population exist
Answer: A
2. ________________ are often associated with very severe thunderstorms called supercells.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tornadoes
Sea breezes
Hurricanes
Heat waves
Answer: A
3. What causes a hurricane to lose energy when it moves onto land?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Friction
Lack of warm, moist air
Heating from below by land
Both a and b
Answer: D
4. Violent storms can occur along ______ fronts.
A.
B.
C.
D.
occluded
warm
stationary
cold
Answer: D
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E4.3B Describe the damage resulting from, and the social impact of thunderstorms,
tornadoes, hurricanes, and floods.
1. Which of the following conditions does NOT contribute to the formation of hail?
A. The ability of water droplets to exist in a liquid state in parts of a cloud where the
temperature is below freezing.
B. The encounter between supercooled water droplets and ice pellets.
C. The dissipation of warm, moist air at the Earth’s surface by downdrafts.
D. The existence of strong updrafts and downdrafts side by side within a cloud.
Answer: C
2. During a rainstorm, when is surface runoff least likely to occur?
A.
B.
C.
D.
When the permeability rate of the soil equals the rainfall rate.
When the pore spaces of the ground are saturated with water.
When rainfall rate exceeds the permeability rate of the soil.
When the slope of the surface is too great for infiltration to occur.
Answer: A
3. What creates a wind shear?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A difference in wind direction and speed
Similar wind speeds and directions
Increasing rainfall
Thunder
Answer: A
*4. Around a home, during a hurricane, what is one of the most frequent points of structural
failure from high winds?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Windows
Garage doors
Roof decking
Siding
Answer: B (because they are segmented)
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*5. Which of the following are dangers of severe thunderstorms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lightning causes fires, deaths, and injuries.
High winds cause property damage.
Hail damages crops.
All of the above.
Answer: D
E4.3C Describe severe weather and flood safety and mitigation.
1. The greatest number of thunderstorms occur in the
A.
B
C.
D.
middle latitudes.
tropics.
mountains.
high latitudes.
Answer: B
2. For people living along the coast, what is a hurricane’s greatest threat?
A.
B.
C.
D.
High winds
Storm surge
Tornadoes
Rain
Answer: B
3. If you are caught by a hurricane, unable to evacuate, where is the safest place to be?
A.
B.
C.
D.
In a shelter
An interior room of your house
In your car
Near a window in your house
Answer: B
*4. Tornadoes can travel in any direction. Which direction is most common in the United
States?
A.
B.
C.
D.
South to north
Southwest to northeast
Northeast to southwest
East to west
Answer: B
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E4.3D Describe the seasonal variations in severe weather.
1. Lake-effect snow is associated with which air mass?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Maritime tropical
Continental polar
Maritime polar
Continental tropical
Answer: B
2. Tornadoes are most frequent from
A.
B.
C.
D.
January to March
April to June
October to December
July to August
Answer: B
*3. The phenomenon in which the effects of cold air are worsened by wind is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
a cold front.
a warm front.
the wind chill factor.
a blizzard.
Answer: C
*4. When are hurricanes most likely to form in the Atlantic Ocean?
A.
B.
C.
D.
January – April
March – June
July – September
November – December
Answer: C
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E4.3E Describe conditions associated with frontal boundaries that result in severe weather
(thunderstorms, tornadoes, and hurricanes).
1. What is the cause of the strong winds associated with thunderstorms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Weak updrafts of warm, moist air
Strong updrafts of dry air
Rain-cooled air
Strong updrafts of warm, moist air and sinking, rain-cooled air
Answer: D
2. The graph shows the outdoor temperature at a
certain location during a 24-hour period. What
possible occurrence happened at 2 p.m.?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Daylight-savings time
Eclipse of the moon
Solar storm
Thunderstorm passes
Answer: D
3. Which of these effects generally occur as the result of a warm air mass and a cooler air mass
converging at Earth’s surface?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The sky becomes clear.
Winds die down.
Cloud formation decreases.
Stormy weather patterns develop.
Answer: D
4. Which of these has the LEAST influence on an area’s climate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Latitude
Elevation
Soil conditions
Adjacent large bodies of water
Answer: C
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5. On weather maps, there are lines with tiny triangles on one side. This represents__________
A. warm air moving opposite the
direction the triangles point.
B. cold air moving in the direction
the triangles point.
C. cold air moving opposite the
direction the triangles point.
D. warm air moving in the direction
the triangles point.
Answer: B
E4.3F Describe how mountains, frontal wedging (including dry lines), convection, and
convergence form clouds and precipitation.
1. In orographic lifting, clouds form when moist winds __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
flow over the sea
become drier
encounter mountains
warm up the ground
Answer: C
2. Which of the following is NOT a process that lifts air?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Convergence
Orographic lifting
Divergence
Frontal wedging
Answer: C
3. What is the first sign of an approaching warm front?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stratus clouds
Cirrus clouds
Nimbostratus clouds
Cumulus clouds
Answer: B
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4. When the temperature reaches its ____________, snow, rain, or hail is likely to form.
A.
B.
C.
D.
relative humidity
dew point
saturation point
evaporation point
Answer: B
E4.3g Explain the process of adiabatic cooling and adiabatic temperature changes to the
formation of clouds.
1. Which of the following refers to the energy that is stored or released during a change of state
of water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Caloric heat
Ultraviolet heat
Latent heat
Evaporation heat
Answer: C
2. What is the dry adiabatic rate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.0oC/100 meters
1oC/100 meters
10oC/1000 meters
0.5oC/1000 meters
Answer: C
3. The wet adiabatic rate of cooling is less than the dry rate because __________
A.
B.
C.
D.
wet air is unsaturated.
dry air is less dense.
of the release of latent heat.
of the dew point.
Answer: C
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4. If an air parcel has cooled adiabatically so that its air temperature equals its dew point
temperature, what always happens?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Precipitation
Condensation
Saturation
All of the above
Answer: C
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Unit 11(9): 8—Climate Change
E2.2D Identify the main sources of energy to the climate system.
1. What form of energy transfer heats Earth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Radiation
Conduction
Convention
Recycling
Answer: A
2. The driving force behind the weather on Earth is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
sun.
wind.
difference in air temperatures.
dew point.
Answer: A
3. How is the troposphere warmed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The troposphere absorbs sunlight directly.
The gases in the troposphere absorb heat from the Sun.
The stratosphere warms it.
The Sun warms Earth’s surface, which warms the air above it.
Answer: D
4. Heat flows from
A.
B.
C.
D.
low to high temperature.
same temperature to same temperature.
medium to high temperature.
high to low temperature.
Answer: D
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E5.4A Explain the natural mechanism of the greenhouse effect including comparisons of
the major greenhouse gases (water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and
ozone).
1. What is the name of the gas in car exhaust that helps heat up our atmosphere?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbon dioxide
Oxygen
Water vapor
Hydrogen
Answer: A
2. Greenhouse gases are
A.
B.
C.
D.
always bad for the environment.
in perfect amount on Earth.
necessary to keep Earth warm.
beneficial in large amounts.
Answer: C
3. A direct result of global warming, as opposed to an indirect result, is
A.
B.
C.
D.
melting glaciers.
increased global temperatures.
coral bleaching.
increased flooding.
Answer: B
4. What two chemicals combine with moisture in the air to make acids?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sulfur oxides and carbon dioxide
Nitrogen oxides and ozone
Sulfur oxides and nitrogen oxides
Carbon dioxide and ozone
Answer: A
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E5.4B Describe natural mechanisms that could result in significant changes in climate
(e.g., major volcanic eruptions, changes in sunlight received by the Earth, and meteorite
impacts).
1. During periods of increased global temperatures, which of the following is likely to occur?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A decrease in atmospheric CO2
An increase in atmospheric CO2
A decrease in earthquakes
An increase in earthquakes
Answer: B
*2. Studies indicate that periods of low sunspot activity, like the _____, correspond to unusually
cold climate conditions.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Maunder Minimum
Maunder Ice Age
Maunder Divide
Maunder Maximum
Answer: A
3. Life on land did not develop on Earth in abundance until the sun’s radiation was reduced.
When did this happen?
A.
B.
C.
D.
When human beings built machines that burn fossil fuels.
When ozone had been absorbed out of the upper atmosphere.
When plants had an opportunity to live with animals.
When enough ozone had built up in the upper atmosphere.
Answer: D
4. Which one of the following is NOT a significant natural cause of climate change?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solar variability
Plate tectonics
Volcanic activity
Erosion of the land
Answer: D
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E5.4C Analyze the empirical relationship between the emission of carbon dioxide,
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels, and the average global temperature over the past 150
years.
1. Which of these could increase average global temperatures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increased use of fossil fuel
Increased ocean algal blooms
Decreased carbon dioxide emissions
Increased number of animal species
Answer: A
2. Which statement best explains why from about 1800 until today, carbon dioxide levels have
changed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
More CO2 has been produced than removed from the air.
Less CO2 has been produced than removed from the air.
Earth has added atmosphere and it is now thicker than it was.
CO2 has been produced by humans and animals.
Answer: A
3. The most likely cause of the overall change in the level of carbon dioxide from 1960 to 1990
is an increase in the
A.
B.
C.
D.
number of violent storms.
number of volcanic eruptions.
use of nuclear power.
use of fossil fuels.
Answer: D
4. How have humans altered the composition of Earth’s atmosphere?
A.
B.
C.
D.
They have polluted it with carbon dioxide gas.
They have polluted it with excess ozone.
They have made the atmospheric temperature drop.
They have made the atmospheric pressure drop.
Answer: A
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E5.4D Based on evidence of observable changes in recent history and climate change
models, explain the consequences of warmer oceans (including the results of increased
evaporation, shoreline and estuarine impacts, oceanic algae growth, and coral bleaching)
and changing climatic zones (including the adaptive capacity of the biosphere).
1. Scientists are concerned that as oceans warm, the carbon dioxide dissolved in the water will
be released. Why are they concerned?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plant life in the ocean will grow in an out-of-control way without CO2.
Ocean water without carbon dioxide will harm fish populations.
Global warming is linked to high carbon dioxide concentrations.
Scientists are always concerned about things they cannot measure.
Answer: C
2. Some ocean species like otters and whales may actually benefit from climate change because
A.
B.
C.
D.
they like to bask in the sunlight.
there will be more open water so they can have access to more food.
rising ocean levels will give them significantly more habitat.
it will be easier for them to find a mate.
Answer: B
3. Climate change may cause the water levels of the ocean to rise because
A. climate change causes tides to occur.
B. more people enjoy swimming in a warmer ocean, which will cause the water level to
rise.
C. glaciers and polar ice caps are melting, which adds more water to the oceans.
D. all of the above.
Answer: C
4. A direct result of global warming, as opposed to an indirect result, is
A.
B.
C.
D.
melting glaciers.
increased global temperatures.
coral bleaching.
increased flooding.
Answer: B
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E5.4e Based on evidence from historical climate research (e.g., fossils, varves, ice core
data) and climate change models, explain how the current melting of polar ice caps can
impact the climate system.
1. The photographs below show how a change in climate is affecting the size of Grinnell
Glacier in Glacier National Park. Which of the following best explains the change in the
glacier between 1910 and 1997?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Higher average temperatures
Higher frequency of earthquakes
Higher total precipitation
Higher rates of wind erosion
Answer: A
2. Dramatic variations in the polar ice caps most likely suggest changes in_______________.
A.
B.
C.
D
the Moon’s orbit
Earth’s climate
ebb and flow of tides
global water consumption
Answer: B
3. During the most recent ice age, what percentage of Earth’s surface was covered by glaciers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90%
30%
75%
10%
Answer: B
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4. Glaciers have been found to be shrinking in most parts of the world. What do most scientists
link the melting glaciers to?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A decrease in the biodiversity of the microscopic organisms living in glacial ice.
An increase of ocean height that washes the glaciers out to sea.
An increase in human oil production on the shelves of the Arctic ocean.
An increase of global temperatures associated with rising carbon dioxide levels.
Answer: D
E5.4f Describe geological evidence that implies climates were significantly colder at times
in the geologic record (e.g., geomorphology, striations, and fossils).
1. Scientists have found fossils of tropical plants in Antarctica. How could tropical plants have
grown in Antarctica?
A.
B.
C.
D.
At one time, Earth’s entire surface was a tropical rain forest.
At one time, Antarctica was located closer to the equator.
The rotation of Earth has increased, causing cooling of the atmosphere.
Catastrophic volcanic eruptions melted the ice and exposed the soil to sunlight.
Answer: B
2. The graph shows the number of species
becoming extinct over time. What
statement best summarizes the graph?
A. Mass extinctions are very rare
and are only happening now.
B. Mass extinctions happen on a
regular basis in geologic time.
C. Most extinctions happen over a
thousand year time span.
D. Little is known about extinctions
in the past.
Answer: B
3. What evidence shows extinctions have happened millions of years ago?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Human documents
The fossil record
Graphs of extinction
Evidence from space
Answer: B
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4. Evidence about ancient climates indicates that
A.
B.
C.
D.
glacial ice once covered much of what is now India and Australia.
continents in the Northern Hemisphere today were once centered over the South Pole.
continents in the Southern Hemisphere today were once centered over the North Pole.
no continents occupied the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer: A
E5.4g Compare and contrast the heat-trapping mechanisms of the major greenhouse gases
resulting from emissions (carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, fluorocarbons) as well as
their abundance and heat-trapping capacity.
1. Which of these could increase average global temperatures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increased use of fossil fuels
Increased ocean algal blooms
Decreased carbon dioxide emissions
Increased numbers of animal species
Answer: A
2. Global warming is partly the result of an increased concentration of greenhouse gases,
especially
A.
B.
C.
D.
hydrogen.
ozone.
carbon dioxide.
oxygen.
Answer: C
3. Chlorofluorocarbons rise to the stratosphere and
A.
B.
C.
D.
react directly with stratospheric ozone to destroy it.
after interacting with UV energy, become free radicals, which destroy ozone.
become free radicals that react with oxygen to create ozone.
react with free radicals to remove carbon dioxide.
Answer: B
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4. Greenhouse gases in the Earth’s atmosphere are transparent to
A.
B.
C.
D.
heat (infrared) but they absorb light.
light but they absorb heat (infrared).
heat (infrared) and light.
neither light nor heat (infrared).
Answer: B
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Unit 6(10): 7-Oceans and Climates
E4.2A Describe the major causes for the ocean’s surface and deep water currents,
including the prevailing winds, the Coriolis effect, unequal heating of the Earth, changes in
water temperature and salinity in high latitudes, and basin shape.
1. The ocean water near the equator absorbs more heat throughout the year than ocean water
near the North Pole. Which of the following best explains this difference?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The equator is closer to the Sun.
The equator has higher sea levels.
The equator receives more direct sunlight.
The equator rotates more quickly on Earth’s axis.
Answer: C
*2. The energy that drives surface ocean currents such as the Gulf Stream comes from
A.
B.
C.
D.
salinity variations.
density differences.
Coriolis force.
prevailing winds.
Answer: D
3. Ocean currents that move toward the poles are
A.
B.
C.
D.
warm.
cold.
warm in the Northern Hemisphere and cold in the Southern Hemisphere.
cold in the Northern Hemisphere and warm in the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer: A
E4.2B Explain how interactions between the oceans and the atmosphere influence global
and regional climate. Include the major concepts of heat transfer by ocean currents,
thermohaline circulation, boundary currents, evaporation, precipitation, climatic zones,
and the ocean as a major CO2 reservoir.
1. The highest salinity would be found in which of the following areas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
An area with high rates of precipitation
An area with high rates of evaporation
An area with plenty of runoff
All of the above
Answer: B
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2. The Gulf Stream affects the climate of
A.
B.
C.
D.
California.
Great Britain.
Alaska.
Africa.
Answer: B
3. Warm surface currents affect the water temperature along the ____ coast of continents.
A.
B.
C.
D.
north
south
west
east
Answer: D
4. Why are towns near an ocean often warmer in winter and cooler in summer than towns at the
same latitude but located far from an ocean?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The ocean maintains a more stable temperature all year than air.
The air over an ocean moves rapidly and the wind creates a feeling of warmth.
The ocean changes temperatures very rapidly and the air above them changes.
The air over the town that is inland does not move and gets stuck in one place.
Answer: A
E4.2c Explain the dynamics (including ocean-atmosphere interactions) of the El NiñoSouthern Oscillation (ENSO) and its effect on continental climates.
1. What is the El Niño-Southern Oscillation’s (ENSO) affect on continental climates?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The average temperature increases.
The average temperature decreases.
The average temperature remains the same.
The temperature is not affected.
Answer: A
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2. What important functions do currents, waves, and El Niño provide for living things in the
sea? El Niño
A.
B.
C.
D.
provides a way for living things to move around.
brings nutrients up from deeper water.
mixes land and sea organisms.
allows Earth to have weather.
Answer: B
3. Which of the following was not a result of El Nino?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Less rain in Indonesia.
More rain in South America.
Stronger equatorial winds blowing currents Westward.
Less upwelling of nutrient-rich water of the coast of South America.
Answer: C
4. What creates an El Nino condition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The prevailing winds do not blow normally.
The ocean currents flow in opposite directions.
The shape of the coast changes and fish populations decline.
Storms and other weather events create it.
Answer: A
E4.2d Identify factors affecting seawater density and salinity and describe how density
affects oceanic layering and currents.
1. Seawater is typically denser than freshwater due to seawater’s _______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
higher salinity
lower freezing point
smaller mass
greater depth
Answer: A
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2. Which of the following water masses would be the most dense?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Warm water with a high salinity
Cold water with a high salinity
Cold water with a low salinity
Warm water with a low salinity
Answer: B
3. Which of the following can cause in increase in the density of ocean water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A decrease in temperature
An increase in salinity
A decrease in ocean circulation
Both a and b
Answer: D
4. How does the formation of sea ice raise the density of nearby water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The water is chilled under the forming ice.
Salt ions are concentrated in the water under the ice.
Salty water migrates toward the forming ice.
The growing ice sheet puts downward pressure on the water.
Answer: B
E4.2e Explain the differences between maritime and continental climates with regard to
oceanic currents.
1. The influence of cold currents is mostly felt in the______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
middle latitudes during winter
higher latitudes during spring
higher latitudes during winter
tropics
Answer: D
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2. Which of the following is NOT an area where maritime tropical air masses that affect North
America originate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gulf of Mexico
Caribbean Sea
Hudson Bay
Atlantic Ocean
Answer: C
3. Large bodies of water can cause areas to be _______ in the winter and _____ in the summer.
A.
B.
C.
D.
warmer, cooler
cooler, warmer
cooler, humid
warmer, cloudier
Answer: A
4. Why do warm currents begin near the equator?
A.
B.
C.
D.
All currents, warm and cool, begin near the equator.
Scientists are still unsure.
The equator receives the most direct sunlight.
Cool air rises and warm air falls.
Answer: C
E4.2f Explain how the Coriolis effect controls oceanic circulation.
1. Because of the Coriolis effect, ocean currents in the Northern Hemisphere are deflected to
the
A.
B.
C.
D.
right.
left.
north.
south.
Answer: A
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2. The Coriolis effect is due to the __________ of the Earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.
revolution
rotation
shape
density
Answer: B
3. Which of the following correctly describes the cause and effect of the Coriolis effect?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cause: rotation of the earth
Cause: tilt of the Earth’s axis
Cause: change in distance to sun
Cause: presence of mountains
effect: deflection of wind into gyres
effect: change of seasons
effect: change of seasons
effect: location of deserts on leeward side
Answer: A
4. What causes surface ocean currents to be deflected?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Deep currents
The Coriolis effect
Earth’s revolution
Global winds
Answer: B
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Unit 5(11): 9—Hydrogeology
E4.1A Compare and contrast surface water systems (lakes, rivers, streams, wetlands) and
groundwater in regard to their relative sizes as Earth’s freshwater reservoirs and the
dynamics of water movement (inputs and outputs, residence times, sustainability).
1. What is the largest drainage basin in the United States?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Mississippi River
The Colorado River
The Snake River
the Missouri River
Answer: A
2. What is a requirement for an area to be a wetland?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It must be covered with water throughout the year.
It must contain lakes.
It must keep water stored underground.
It must be covered in water sometime during the year.
Answer: D
3. Along straight stretches of a stream channel, the highest velocities of water are found in what
part of the stream?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Near the water surface in the center of the stream.
Near the water surface along the stream banks.
Along the stream bottom in the center of the stream.
Along the stream bottom near the stream banks.
Answer: A
*4. In order for rejuvenation to take place in a stream, what must occur first?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Deposition must stop.
The stream must dry up.
The land over which the stream flows uplifts.
The discharge must increase.
Answer: C
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E4.1B Explain the features and processes of groundwater systems and how the
sustainability of North American aquifers has changed in recent history (e.g., the past 100
years) qualitatively using the concepts of recharge, residence time, inputs, and outputs.
1. Groundwater moves _________ water flowing in a stream.
A.
B.
C.
D.
faster than
at the same speed as
slower than
in the opposite direction of
Answer: C
2. Is there more water on Earth in groundwater systems or river systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
River systems
Groundwater systems
They are the same
Sometimes groundwater systems, other times river systems
Answer: B
3. Permeable rock layers or sediments that transmit groundwater freely are called
A.
B.
C.
D.
aquifers.
aquitards.
caverns.
springs.
Answer: A
4. The depression often produced in the water table, when water is pumped from a well, is
called
A.
B.
C.
D.
a perched water table.
an aquitard.
the aquifer cone.
the cone of depression.
Answer: D
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E4.1C Explain how water quality in both groundwater and surface systems is impacted by
land use decisions.
*1. A mine is built near your home. What might be a concern for you?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sewage can seep into the groundwater.
Road salt will runoff into groundwater.
The mine probably will practice illegal dumping.
Mining chemicals can flow into the groundwater.
Answer: D
2. How can a poorly designed septic system be dangerous?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sewage and bacteria can run off into groundwater.
Raw sewage is dumped directly into streams.
The system can dry up the groundwater supply.
Sewage and bacteria can leak into the groundwater.
Answer: D
3. How does bioremediation clean groundwater?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bacteria and fungi consume the pollutants.
Pollution is burned away.
Animals dig up the polluted sources.
Chemicals are introduced to kill all bacteria.
Answer: A
4. An example of point source pollution is
A.
B.
C.
D.
automobile fluids washing off the roads and into a stream.
fertilizer runoff from farms.
landfills seeping into groundwater.
dumping used motor oil into a stream.
Answer: D
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5. According to the diagram, the water supply
will be most consistent in well_______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
4
2
3
1
Answer: C
E2.4B Explain how the impact of human activities on the environment (e.g., deforestation,
air pollution, coral reef destruction) can be understood through the analysis of interactions
between the four Earth systems.
1. An environmental-science company measured the ozone pollutant levels at two different
locations in a metropolitan area. Which statement is best supported by these data?
Ozone Levels for a Metropolitan Area
Date
Location
High Temperature
Ozone Level
Prevailing Wind
(°C)
(ppm)
Downtown
13
NE 5 mph
0.01
NW Station
11
NE 10 mph
Trace
Downtown
22
Calm
0.03
NW Station
21
Calm
0.03
Downtown
30
SE 10 mph
0.05
NW Station
31
SE 5 mph
0.06
Downtown
38
S 5 mph
0.12*
NW Station
38
S 5 mph
0.14*
1/15/99
3/15/99
5/15/99
7/15/99
*Unsafe levels of ozone above 0.10 PPM
A. Lower fuel efficiency and northerly winds in the winter increase ozone pollution the
most.
B. Northwest winds in the spring transport ozone pollution into the metropolitan area.
C. High summer temperatures and southerly winds contribute to high levels of ozone.
D. Heavy use of automobiles changes ozone levels the most.
Answer: C
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2. Landscaping with native plants improves the environment. Native plants are hardy because
they have adapted to the local conditions. Once established, native plants do not need
pesticides, fertilizers, or watering. Not only is this good for the environment, it saves time
and money. A native landscape does not need to be mowed like a conventional lawn. This
reduces the demand for non-renewable resources and improves the water and air quality. The
periodic burning (or mowing when burning is not practical) required for maintenance of a
prairie landscape mimics the natural prairie cycle and is much better for the environment.
Landscaping with native wildflowers and grasses helps return the area to a healthy
ecosystem. Diverse varieties of birds, butterflies and animals, are attracted to the native
plants, thus enhancing the biodiversity of the area.
The Environmental Protective Agency would be interested in sharing this information
A. to reduce the number of nonnative plants sold.
B. to help conserve nonrenewable resources and protect the environment from harsh
chemicals.
C. to provide avid gardeners with new approaches to creating their gardens.
D. to identify inexpensive ways of gardening for novice gardeners.
Answer: B
3. How could the building of a dam affect the Earth system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A dam could cause the flooding of a nearby forest.
A dam could destroy a fish species that needs swiftly moving water.
A dam could block the migration of spawning fish.
All of the above
Answer: D
4. Which of the following is NOT an effect of acid rain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Disintegration of buildings, statues, tombstones
Death and stunting of trees
Increase in temperature
Loss of aquatic life in rivers and streams
Answer: C
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Unit 12: 10—Resources and Environmental Challenges
E2.2B Identify differences in the origin and use of renewable (e.g., solar, wind, water,
biomass) and nonrenewable (e.g., fossil fuels, nuclear [U-235]) sources of energy.
1. The chart shows different sources of energy.
Which conclusion can be made based on this
chart?
A. Fossil fuels make up over threequarters of our energy consumption.
B. Coal is the main source of energy.
C. Use of nuclear power is increasing.
D. Renewable energy sources are
predominantly used.
Answer: A
2. What energy source is made possible by the volcanic activity in California?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hydroelectricity
Nuclear power
Geothermal energy
Solar energy
Answer: C
3. Which of the following nonrenewable energy resources is NOT a fossil fuel?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Oil
Natural gas
Coal
Nuclear
Answer: D
4. Hydroelectric energy is all of the following EXCEPT
A.
B.
C.
D.
an inexpensive way to produce electricity.
produced by turbines that turn generators.
an example of a nonrenewable energy resource.
responsible for habitat disruption and destruction.
Answer: C
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E2.2f Explain how elements exist in different compounds and states as they move from one
reservoir to another.
1. In the carbon cycle, how does carbon enter living organisms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Decomposers release carbon dioxide
Photosynthesis by plants
Humans burn coal
Respiration by animals
Answer: B
2. How is oxygen released into Earth’s atmosphere?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Burning fossil fuels
Photosynthetic plants
Volcanic eruptions
Burning forests
Answer: B
3. What is the process by which bacteria convert nitrogen gas in the air to ammonia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Nitrogen fixation
Excretion
Decomposition
Denitrification
Answer: A
4. How is carbon released from calcium carbonate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
By a process of erosion
Burned as fossil fuels
By a process of diffusion
By decomposition
Answer: A
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E2.3A Explain how carbon exists in different forms such as limestone (rock), carbon
dioxide (gas), carbonic acid (water), and animals (life) within Earth systems and how those
forms can be beneficial or harmful to humans.
1. Carbon in the atmosphere is most often found as which of the following compounds?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stratospheric ozone
Fossil fuel
Carbon monoxide
Carbon dioxide
Answer: D
2. The release of carbon from limestone reservoirs into the atmosphere is most often
accomplished by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
abrasion of the limestone by wind-blown sands.
destruction of limestone by lichens.
formation of stalagmites and stalactites in limestone caves.
chemical reaction between limestone and rainwater.
Answer: D
3. How is carbon stored in the biosphere?
A.
B.
C.
D.
In the atmosphere as carbon dioxide
Underground as fossil fuels and calcium carbonate rock
In the oceans as dissolved carbon dioxide
All of the above
Answer: D
4. This picture above shows how carbon cycles
through the environment. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. The cycle ends when dead material
is deposited.
B. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is released by
respiration.
C. Only plants are involved in the
carbon cycle.
D. The cycle prevents diffusion.
Answer: B
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E2.3b Explain why small amounts of some chemical forms may be beneficial for life but are
poisonous in large quantities (e.g., dead zone in the Gulf of Mexico, Lake Nyos in Africa,
fluoride in drinking water).
1. Biogeochemical cycling ensures that
A. human activity will have no effect on elements, chemical compounds, and other
forms of matter.
B. living organisms will not become limited in any one nutrient.
C. nutrients will be circulated throughout the biosphere.
D. many nutrients will not reach toxic concentrations in the biosphere.
Answer: C
2. What effect does a red tide have on humans?
A.
B.
C.
D.
All the fish in the area die, causing local fishermen to lose money.
It is unhealthy to swim in the ocean during a red tide.
The protists help clean up wastes discharged by local sewage pipes.
Eating poisoned shellfish from affected waters can cause sickness and death to
humans.
Answer: D
3. After metals are released into water bodies, they
A.
B.
C.
D.
disappear immediately.
remain in the environment for a long time.
are washed out naturally.
evaporate within a year.
Answer: B
4. What was the gas that caused widespread death of people and animals near Lake Nyos in
1986?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbon monoxide
Carbon dioxide
Carbon tetrachloride
Carbonic acid
Answer: B
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E2.3c Explain how the nitrogen cycle is part of the Earth system.
1. Nitrogen fixation is carried out primarily by ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
bacteria
legumes
decomposers
all of the above
Answer: D
2. Nitrogen is fixed in the atmosphere by ____________________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
CFC’s
water
ozone
lightening
Answer: D
3. Why is it difficult to integrate nitrogen gas from the atmosphere into the nitrogen cycle of the
biosphere?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Nitrogen is not very abundant in the atmosphere.
Few organisms can directly utilize atmospheric nitrogen gas.
Most plants do not require organic nitrogen compounds for survival.
Oceans quickly absorb nitrogen gas.
Answer: B
4. Bacteria drive the ___________ cycle.
A.
B.
C.
D.
carbon
oxygen
energy
nitrogen
Answer: D
5. Which of these is part of the nitrogen cycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Nitrogen is absorbed by plants when they die.
Nitrogen goes from the atmosphere to the soil.
Nitrogen is produced by living organisms.
Nitrogen is removed from soil by animal wastes.
Answer: B
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E2.3d Explain how carbon moves through the Earth system (including the geosphere) and
how it may benefit (e.g., improve soils for agriculture) or harm (e.g., act as a pollutant)
society.
1. Which of these statements is best illustrated by
this diagram?
A. Animals under water eat plants.
B. Land animals exhale oxygen into water.
C. Water-dwelling animals breathe carbon
dioxide.
D. Plants can take in carbon dioxide from
air or water.
Answer: D
2. Research shows that limiting the clear-cutting of large tracts of forest can help reduce the
greenhouse effect. Which of the following process is most responsible for this?
A. Healthy forests have slow rates of organic breakdown, decreasing the production of
methane (CH4).
B. Logging stimulates the activity of microorganisms in the forest litter, raising carbon
dioxide production.
C. Forest ecosystems have high levels of photosynthesis, increasing the sequestration of
carbon dioxide.
D. Clear-cutting increases the erosion of soils and underlying lithosphere, releasing
stored carbon.
Answer: C
3. Which of the following removes CO2 from the atmosphere?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rainforest trees
Cars
Burning coal
Spraying aerosol cans
Answer: A
4. The greenhouse gas carbon dioxide helps to
A.
B.
C.
D.
deflect harmful radiation from space.
increase precipitation in arid areas.
form clouds in the atmosphere.
maintain warmth near Earth’s surface.
Answer: D
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E2.4A Describe renewable and nonrenewable sources of energy for human consumption
(electricity, fuels), compare their effects on the environment, and include overall costs and
benefits.
1. Some fuels are classified as nonrenewable because they_____________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
produce toxic waste.
can be easily recycled.
come from deep within Earth.
require a long period of time to form.
Answer: D
2. What is the greatest environmental cost of hydroelectric power?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increased flooding downstream
Fish kills due to the turbines
Decreased species diversity in the new lake
Destruction of free-running rivers and their ecosystems _
Answer: D
3. Renewable resources
A.
B.
C.
D.
can be replenished over months, years, or decades.
are all living resources.
have finite supplies that will one day be used up.
include iron, natural gas, and copper.
Answer: A
4. Which of the following alternative energy sources is NOT inexhaustible?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tidal energy
Solar energy
Geothermal energy
Wind energy
Answer: C
5. One problem with wind energy as a major source of electricity is
A.
B.
C.
D.
it is nonrenewable.
it causes major air pollution.
it does not work during the night.
the expense of large tracts of land in populated areas.
Answer D
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E2.4c Explain ozone depletion in the stratosphere and methods to slow human activities to
reduce ozone depletion.
1. Which of the following human activities reduces the level of ozone in the atmosphere?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Using artificial lighting in scientific polar stations.
Using large banks of solar cells for energy production.
Releasing chlorofluorocarbons from aerosol cans.
Destroying large areas of the equatorial rain forests.
Answer: B
2. Release of CFCs and similar compounds are a possible cause of ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
destruction of ozone in the upper atmosphere.
acid rain in the northeast U.S.
greenhouse gas build-up in the lower atmosphere.
increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration.
Answer: A
3. Is ozone that is near Earth’s surface beneficial or harmful?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Beneficial; it cleans the air.
Harmful; it doesn’t let enough sunlight through.
Beneficial; it protects Earth from the Sun’s harmful rays.
Harmful; it is a major component of smog, and can damage sensitive tissues.
Answer: D
4. According to the graph, which air pollutant
decreased the most from 1970 to 1991?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbon monoxide
Lead
Particulates
Sulfur oxides
Answers: B
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E2.4d Describe the life cycle of a product, including the resources, production, packaging,
transportation, disposal, and pollution.
1. What process produces pollutants?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Refining oil
Harnessing hydropower
Collecting wind
Carpooling
Answer: A
2. What is one thing a company could do to help lessen the impact today’s throwaway culture
has on the environment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reduce packaging
Build more plants
Increase production
Lower costs
Answer: A
3. Which of the following explains the high value of recycling aluminum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It will quickly turn to copper if not recycled.
It has an unstable nucleus, so it decomposes very easily.
It is very reactive, so it is rarely found in a pure form in nature.
It is not very reactive, so it is often found in a pure form in nature.
Answer: C
4. Not only does it save resources to recycle metals and glass, it also takes far less _________
to make containers and other products from recycled minerals.
A.
B.
C.
D.
energy
aluminum
paper
water
Answer: A
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GLCE’s not included in Document
E1.1A Generate new questions that can be investigated in the laboratory or field.
E1.1B Evaluate the uncertainties or validity of scientific conclusions using an
understanding of sources of measurement error, the challenges of controlling variables,
accuracy of data analysis, logic of argument, logic of experimental design, and/or the
dependence on underlying assumptions.
E1.1C Conduct scientific investigations using appropriate tools and techniques (e.g.,
selecting an instrument that measures the desired quantity—length, volume, weight, time
interval, temperature—with the appropriate level of precision).
E1.1D Identify patterns in data and relate them to theoretical models.
E1.1E Describe a reason for a given conclusion using evidence from an investigation.
E1.1f Predict what would happen if the variables, methods, or timing of an investigation
were changed.
E1.1g Based on empirical evidence, explain and critique the reasoning used to draw a
scientific conclusion or explanation.
E1.1h Design and conduct a systematic scientific investigation that tests a hypothesis. Draw
conclusions from data presented in charts or tables.
E1.1i Distinguish between scientific explanations that are regarded as current scientific
consensus and the emerging questions that active researchers investigate.
E1.2A Critique whether or not specific questions can be answered through scientific
investigations.
E1.2B Identify and critique arguments about personal or societal issues based on scientific
evidence.
E1.2C Develop an understanding of a scientific concept by accessing information from
multiple sources. Evaluate the scientific accuracy and significance of the information.
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E1.2D Evaluate scientific explanations in a peer review process or discussion format.
E1.2E Evaluate the future career and occupational prospects of science fields.
E1.2f Critique solutions to problems, given criteria and scientific constraints.
E1.2g Identify scientific tradeoffs in design decisions and choose among alternative
solutions.
E1.2h Describe the distinctions between scientific theories, laws, hypotheses, and
observations.
E1.2i Explain the progression of ideas and explanations that lead to science theories that
are part of the current scientific consensus or core knowledge.
E1.2j Apply science principles or scientific data to anticipate effects of technological design
decisions.
E1.2k Analyze how science and society interact from a historical, political, economic, or
social perspective.
E2.1B Analyze the interactions between the major systems (geosphere, atmosphere,
hydrosphere, biosphere) that make up the Earth.
E2.2e Explain how energy changes form through Earth systems.
E3.p1A Explain the origin of Michigan landforms. Describe and identify surface features
using maps and satellite images. (prerequisite)
E3.p1B Explain how physical and chemical weathering leads to erosion and the formation
of soils and sediments. (prerequisite)
E3.p1C Describe how coastal features are formed by wave erosion and deposition.
(prerequisite)
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E3.p2A Identify common rock-forming minerals (quartz, feldspar, biotite, calcite,
hornblende). (prerequisite)
E3.p2B Identify common igneous (granite, basalt, andesite, obsidian, pumice),
metamorphic (schist, gneiss, marble, slate, quartzite), and sedimentary (sandstone,
limestone, shale, conglomerate) rocks and describe the processes that change one kind of
rock to another. (prerequisite)
E3.p3A Describe geologic, paleontologic, and paleoclimatalogic evidence that indicates
Africa and South America were once part of a single continent.
E3.p3B Describe the three types of plate boundaries (divergent, convergent, and transform)
and geographic features associated with them (e.g., continental rifts and mid-ocean ridges,
volcanic and island arcs, deep-sea trenches, transform faults).
E3.p3C Describe the three major types of volcanoes (shield volcano, stratovolcano, and
cinder cones) and their relationship to the Ring of Fire.
E4.p1A Describe that the water cycle includes evaporation, transpiration, condensation,
precipitation, infiltration, surface runoff, groundwater, and absorption. (prerequisite)
E4.p1B Analyze the flow of water between the elements of a watershed, including surface
features (lakes, streams, rivers, wetlands) and groundwater. (prerequisite)
E4.p1C Describe the river and stream types, features, and process including cycles of
flooding, erosion, and deposition as they occur naturally and as they are impacted by land
use decisions. (prerequisite)
E4.p1D Explain the types, process, and beneficial functions of wetlands.
E4.p2A Describe the composition and layers of the atmosphere. (prerequisite)
E4.p2B Describe the difference between weather and climate. (prerequisite)
E4.p2C Explain the differences between fog and dew formation and cloud formation.
(prerequisite)
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91
E4.p2D Describe relative humidity in terms of the moisture content of the air and the
moisture capacity of the air and how these depend on the temperature. (prerequisite)
E4.p2E Describe conditions associated with frontal boundaries (cold, warm, stationary,
and occluded). (prerequisite)
E4.p2F Describe the characteristics and movement across North America of the major air
masses and the jet stream. (prerequisite)
E4.p2G Interpret a weather map and describe present weather conditions and predict
changes in weather over 24 hours. (prerequisite)
E4.p2H Explain the primary causes of seasons. (prerequisite)
E4.p2I Identify major global wind belts (trade winds, prevailing westerlies, and polar
easterlies) and that their vertical components control the global distribution of rainforests
and deserts. (prerequisite)
E4.p3A Describe how glaciers have affected the Michigan landscape and how the resulting
landforms impact our state economy. (prerequisite)
E4.p3B Explain what happens to the lithosphere when an ice sheet is removed.
(prerequisite)
E4.p3C Explain the formation of the Great Lakes. (prerequisite)
E4.r2g Explain how El Niño affects economies (e.g., in South America). (recommended)
E5.p1A Describe the motions of various celestial bodies and some effects of those motions.
(prerequisite)
E5.p1B Explain the primary cause of seasons. (prerequisite)
E5.p1C Explain how a light year can be used as a distance unit. (prerequisite)
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E5.p1D Describe the position and motion of our solar system in our galaxy. (prerequisite)
E5.r4h Use oxygen isotope data to estimate paleotemperature. (recommended)
E5.r4i Explain the causes of short-term climate changes such as catastrophic volcanic
eruptions and impact of solar system objects. (recommended)
E5.r4j Predict the global temperature increase by 2100, given data on the annual trends of
CO2 concentration increase. (recommended)
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