Symptoms and syndromes

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Modul 2
Symptoms and syndromes in diseases of internal organs
Text test
In chronic hepatitis with the expressed activity ALT exceeds the norm in:
2-3 times
3-5 times
5-10 times
* more than 10 times
is standard
In chronic hepatitis with the moderate activity ALT exceeds the norm in:
up to 3 times
3-5 times
* 4-10 times
10-20 times
over 20 times
In first stage of chronic hepatitis:
fibrosis is absent
* poorly expressed peryportal fibrosis
moderate fibrosis with porto-portal septa
expressed fibrosis with porto-central septa
liver cirrhosis
In the fourth stage of chronic hepatitis develops:
moderate fibrosis poorly expressed fibrosis
expressed fibrosis
* liver cirrhosis
hepatonecrosis
In the second stage of chronic hepatitis fibrosis is:
expressed
* moderate
poorly expressed
absent
liver cirrhosis develops
In the third stage of chronic hepatitis fibrosis is:
absent
* expressed
moderate
poorly expressed
liver cirrhosis develops
Select the ultrasound data of cholecystocholangitis:
enlarged liver;
deformation of a gallbladder;
presence of sediment in a gallbladder;
* thickening of gallbladder walls;
Liver is diminished
Select the ultrasound data of hepatitis:
deformation of bile ducts;
thickness of bile ducts walls
* diffuse thickness of the liver;
single large conturated inclusion;
deformation of a liver
Diet at the pathology of hepatobiliary system includes:
thermally, mechanically sparing meal;
* chemically, mechanically sparing meal;
thermally, chemically sparing meal;
D. thermally, mechanically and chemically sparing meal;
E. thermally sparing meal
10.
Select data of hypersplenism:
A. anemia, thrombocytopenia;
B. leukocytosis, anemia;
C. leukocytosis, hyperbilirubinemia, thrombocytopenia;
D. leukocytosis, anemia, thrombocytopenia;
E. * leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia
11.
What is typical for liver cirrhosis?
A. splenomegaly, anemia, hypercoagulation
B. splenomegaly, erythrocitosis, jaundice;
C. * hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, jaundice;
D. hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, hemorrhages;
E. splenomegaly, anemia
12.
What is typical for mesenchimal-inflammatory syndrome is hepatitis?
A. increase of АSТ, АLT
B. decrease of prothrombin level
C. increase of alkaline phosphatase level
D. increase of indirect bilirubin
E. dysproteinemia
13.
In treatment of billary colicks it is necessary to prescribe:
A. analgetics
B. * spasmolitics and sedatives
C. antibiotics
D. hepatoprotectors
E. vitamins
14.
In treatment of chronic cholecystitis in remission phase it is necessary to prescribe
A. analgetics
B. * spasmolitics and sedatives
C. antibiotics
D. * choleretics and cholekinetics
E. hepatoprotectors , vitamins
15.
Leading symptoms in case of chronic cholecystitis are:
A. Pain, disuria
B. * Pain, dyspepsia
C. Renal failure
D. Dyspepsia, disuria
E. Pain, intoxication
16.
Medicine of choice at cholestasis is:
A. essentiale;
B. carsil;
C. no-spa;
D. * cholenzym;
E. papaverin
17.
Medicine of choice at the cytolitic syndrome is:
A. * essentiale;
B. cholenzym;
C. interferon;
D. no-spa;
E. papaverin
18.
Medicine of choice at the low synthetic function of liver is:
A. essentiale;
B. * carsyl;
C. cholenzym;
D. interferon
E. papaverin
19.
Medicine of choice in case of chronic viral hepatitis is:
A. prednisolon;
B. essentiale;
C. * interferon;
D. cholenzym;
E. papaverin
20.
Medicine of choice in case of lambliosis (giardiasis) is:
A. gentamycin;
B. penicillin;
C. aspirin;
D. * furasolidon;
E. papaverin
21.
Mineral water in patients with cholelithiasis is appointed:
A. * before meals
B. after meals
C. during meal
D. everythinfg is right
E. everythinfg is wrong
22.
Minimum activity of chronic hepatitis in case of:
A. normal ALT
B. * ALT up to 3 times exceed a norm
C. ALT up to 5 times exceeds a norm
D. ALT 5-10 times exceeds a norm
E. ALT exceeds a norm more than 10 times
23.
Preparations of bile acids are prescribed for:
A. bilirubin stones
B. * cholesterol stones
C. calcium stones
D. phosphoric stones
E. mixed stones
24.
Preparations of which bile acids have litholytic effect?
A. oleic
B. palmitic
C. * ursodeoxycholic
D. corn
E. everythinfg is wrong
25.
Products that have cholekinetic effect:
A. milk products - yogurt
B. buckwheat, oatmeal
C. * eggs, honey
D. spinach
E. Apples, pears
26.
Products with choleretic effect:
A. eggs
B. honey
C. * oat porridge, beef
D. carrots
E. melon
27.
Reduction of gall bladder is decreased by:
A. cholekynetics
B. gastrin
C. secretin
D. * glucagon
E. tyreoidin
28.
Reduction of gall bladder is strengthened by:
A. * cholekynetics
B. glucagon
C. calcitonin
D. tyreoidin
E. vitamins
29.
The main ethiologic factor of chronic cholecystitis is:
A. Character of nutrition
B. Anomaly of the liver development
C. Genetic predisposition
D. * Bile ducts dyskinesia
E. Virus
30.
To immune suppressive therapy of chronic hepatitis belongs:
A. indomethacin
B. * azatioprin
C. Penicillin
D. Cholenzym
E. vitamins
31.
Urgent therapy for biliary colic attack:
A. neostigmine methylsulfate
B. * baralgin
C. prednisolone
D. cefasolin
E. ursophalc
32.
Ursophalc belongs to:
A. choleretics
B. cholekinetics
C. * litholytics
D. enzymes
E. antacids
33.
Viferon is the medicine of group:
A. glucocorticoids
B. Antibiotics
C. antihystamine
D. * interferon
E. vitamins
34.
What symptom appears simultaneously with the pain in biliary colic?
A. hemorrhagic
B. splenomegaly
C. * nausea, vomiting
D. belching, bloating, constipation
E. diarrhea, flatulence
35.
What choleretic drug includes bile acids?
A. flamen
B. cholagol
C. * cholenzym
D. olimetin
E. galstena
36.
What drugs are prescribed in case of Ursophalc long-term treatment?
A. antibiotics
B. * hepatoprotectors
C. hormones
D. anticoagulants
E. choleretic
37.
What drugs of bile acids has litholytic effect?
A. Flamen
B. holagol
C. * chenophalc
D. allochol
E. cholenzym
38.
What is an inhibitor of lithogenesis?
A. somatotropin
B. insulin
C. * deoxycholic acid
D. hydrochloric acid
E. pepsinogen
39.
What is appointed to stimulate the synthesis of bile acids:
A. flamin
B. * phenobarbital
C. allohol
D. sorbitol
E. chenophalc
40.
What is the mode in patients with cholelithiasis?
A. decreasing sedentary
B. hygienic gymnastics
C. mobile games outdoors
D. swimming, athletics
E. * all of the above
41.
What kind of diet is prescribed to patients with cholelithiasis?
A. № 1
B. № 4
C. * № 5
D. № 10
E. № 15
42.
What medicine belongs to interferons?
A. Essentiale
B. Cholenzym
C. * Intron A
D. Carsyl
E. Prednisolon
43.
What must be added to food in patients with cholelithiasis?
A. salt
B. * cellulose
C. sugar
D. dairy products
E. liquid
44.
What must be taken for electrophoresis in case of duodenogastral reflux?
A. novocaine;
B. * proserin;
C. magnesium sulfate;
D. papaverin;
E. aspirin
45.
What should be restricted in the diet of patients with cholelithiasis?
A. protein
B. carbohydrates
C. * high-melting fats
D. vegetable fats
E. aminoacids
46.
What sorbents are used in patients with cholelithiasis?
A. cholestyramine
B. polyphepan
C. smectic
D. karbolong
E. * all of the above
47.
When the cholestasis, concentration of bile acids
A. increases
B. * decreases
C. unchanged
D. everything is true
E. everything is wrong
48.
When the cholestasis, concentration of bile cholesterol and bilirubin in bile
A. * increases
B. decreases
C. unchanged
D. everything is true
E. everything is wrong
49.
Which drug belongs to chloretics?
A. smectic
B. sorbitol
C. * allochol
D. festal
E. almagel
50.
Which drug belongs to cholekinetics?
A. allohol
B. * epsom salt (MgSO4)
C. cholosas
D. cholagon
E. galstena
51.
Which drugs are used in cholelithiasis?
A. * choleretics and cholekinetics
B. cholesympatolytics and cholestatics
C. cholelitics, cholemimetics
D. all of the above
E. everything is wrong
52.
Which radiopaque preparation is not used for cholecystography?
A. Bilignost
B. Bilitrast
C. Cholevid
D. Iopagnost
E. * All mentioned
53.
According to location of pathological process chronic pyelonephritis may be:
A. Unilateral
B. Bilateral
C. Pyelonephritis of a single kidney
D. No correct answer
E. * All enumerated
54.
Anticoagulants are prescribed in the following caurse of glomerulonephritis:
A. With uric syndrome
B. With uric syndrome and hematuria
C. In resistant hypertension
D. * With nephrotic syndrome
E. With acute nephritic syndrome
55.
For treatment of primary acute pyelonephritis all the following drugs are used except of:
A. Ampicillin
B. Palin
C. Biseptol
D. Nevigramon
E. * prednisolon
56.
For treatment of primary acute pyelonephritis are used:
A. * Antibiotics, sulfa drugs, uroseptics, phitodiuretics
B. sulfa drugs, spasmolythics
C. Antibiotics, uroseptics, hemostatics
D. Antibiotics, spasmolythics, phitodiuretics
E. sulfa drugs, spasmolythics, vitamina
57.
For treatment of pyelonephritis all the following drugs are used except of:
A. Antibiotics
B. uroseptics
C. Preparations which improve urine outflow
D. Nonsteroid anti-inflammatory agents
E. * prednisolon
58.
For treatment of pyelonephritis it is necessary to prescribe:
A. uroseptics
B. Preparations which improve urine outflow
C. Nonsteroid anti-inflammatory agents
D. antibiotics
E. * all mentioned
59.
For which period of time is it necessary to prescribe a bed mode for a patient with acute
glomerulonephritis?
A. Till disappearance of uric syndrome
B. On 1-3 days
C. * Till disappearance of edema and normalization of blood pressure
D. On 3-5 days
E. On 10-14 days
60.
Hypertonic type of chronic glomerulonephritis is manifested with:
A. Normal blood pressure (BP) and uric syndrome
B. High BP
C. Edema and uric syndrome
D. * High BP and edema
E. Total edema
61.
In acute pyelonephritis in urine sediments may be found:
A. * Protein and erythrocytes
B. Protein and uric acid salts crystals
C. Leukocytes
D. Leukocytes and hyaline casts
E. Erythrocytes and calcium oxalatis crystals
62.
In pathogenesis of chronic glomerulonephritis the most important role belongs to:
A. Inflammation
B. * Authoimmune process
C. Immune disorders
D. Disorders of hemostasis
E. Liver disease
63.
In which age pyelonephritis usually develop in women?
A. In childhood
B. In young age
C. * In moderate age
D. In declining years
E. In elderly people
64.
Main principle of treatment chromic pyelonephritis:
A. To avoid overcooling
B. * To remove disorders of urine outflow
C. Sanation of focci of infection
D. To avoid sulfa drugs
E. Usage of adequate volume of liquid
65.
Most often the causative agent of acute glomerulonephritis is:
A. * Hemolythic streptococcus group A
B. Viruses
C. Staphylococci and pneumococci
D. Coli
E. Fungi
66.
Most often the causative agent of acute pyelonephritis is:
A. * E. Coli
B. Proteus
C. Streptococcus
D. Viruses
E. Chlamidia
67.
Progression of chronic glomerulonephritis is usually caused by:
A. Infection
B. * Hemodynamic changes in glomeruli
C. Immune disorders
D. disorders of urine outflow
E. hyperuricemia
68.
Select complication of acute glomerulonephritis:
A. * Acute renal failure
B. Chronic renal failure
C. Toxic shock
D. Bleeding
E. All mentioned
69.
Select complication of chronic glomerulonephritis:
A. Acute renal failure
B. * Chronic renal failure
C. Toxic shock
D. Bleeding
E. All mentioned
70.
Select complication of chronic glomerulonephritis:
A. Acute renal failure
B. Chronic renal failure
C. Toxic shock
D. Bleeding
E. * Hypertonic crisis
71.
The main difference between primary and secondary chronic pyelonephritis:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. tonsillitis, caries
C. chronic prostatitis
D. decreased immune reactivity
E. * disorders of urine outflow
72.
The most often complication of acute pyelonephritis is:
A. Hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. Acute renal failure
D. * Paranephritis
E. Cardiopulmonary insufficiency
73.
The most typical causes of acute secondary pyelonephritis:
A. Stricture of a urether
B. * Stones of kidneys and urethers
C. Prostatic gland cancer
D. Pregnancy
E. Iatrogenic affection of urethers
74.
The most typical provoking factor of primary pyelonephritis:
A. Violation of diet
B. Disorders in urine outflow
C. * Decreased immune defense
D. Hemodynamic disorders in kidney
E. Diabetes mellitus
75.
The most typical provoking factor of secondary pyelonephritis:
A. Violation of diet
B. * Disorders in urine outflow
C. Decreased immune defense
D. Hemodynamic disorders in kidney
E. Diabetes mellitus
76.
The most typical symptoms of acute pyelonephritis:
A. Bacteriuria
B. Chills and hectic fever
C. Leukocyturia, pain
D. Hematuria and leukocyturia
E. * Lumbar pain, chills and hectic fever
77.
The most typical triad of symptoms in acute pyelonephritis:
A. Thirst, anorexia, nausea
B. Vomiting, diarrhoea, abdominal pain
C. Disuria, nicturia, pollakiuria
D. * Chills, lumbar pain, dysuria
E. Pain in bones, joints and muscles
78.
The obvious condition for development of pyelonephritis:
A. Arterial hypertension
B. Heart failure
C. * Disordered urine outflow
D. Increased body weight
E. Renal failure
79.
What is not typical for acute pyelonephritis:
A. Leukocyturia
B. proteinuria
C. * edema
D. Leukocytosis
E. Increased ESR
80.
What is the main principle of diet in acute pyelonephritis?
A. Restriction of proteins (beans) and water
B. * Restriction of proteins (beans), spicy food
C. Restriction of fats
D. Restriction of products containing uric acid
E. Increased caloric supplement
81.
What is the main principle of diet in chronic renal failure?
A. * Restriction of proteins (beans) and water
B. Restriction of proteins (beans), spicy food
C. Restriction of fats
D. Restriction of products containing uric acid
E. Increased caloric supplement
82.
When in pyelonephritis th mass of affected kidney decreases?
A. In acute serous inflammation
B. In kidney carbuncul
C. In fat dystrophy
D. * In sclerosis of the kidney
E. In pyonephrosis
83.
Which antibiotics used for treatment of glomerulonephritis are nephrotoxic?
A. * Hentamycin
B. Penicillin
C. Phthorchynolones
D. Macrolides
E. Cephalosporines
84.
Which clinical sign is not typical for the beginning of pyelonephritis?
A. Febril fever
B. Lumbar pain
C. Dysuria
D. * Arterial hypertension
E. chills
85.
Which is main drug for treatment of acute glomerulonephritis?
A. Antibiotics
B. * Glucocortecoids
C. Immunodepressants
D. Diuretics
E. Calcium channel antagonists
86.
Which is main drug for treatment of acute pyelonephritis?
A. * Antibiotics
B. Glucocortecoids
C. Immunodepressants
D. Diuretics
E. Calcium channel antagonists
87.
Which microorganism is the causative agent acute glomerulonephritis?
A. * Beta-hemolythic streptococcus, type A
B. Pneumococcus
C. Mycoplasma
D. Influenza virus
E. Multiple bacterial microflora
88.
Which process in pyelonephritis is manifested with chills?
A. Infection contamination of urinary ducts
B. Fever
C. * Appearance of bacteria in perypheric blood
D. disorders of urine outflow
E. disorders of kidney filtration function
89.
Which results of excretory urography are typical for secondary chronic pyelonephritis?
A. Uneven shadows of kidneys
B. Decreased sizes of kidneys, asymmetrically decreased secretion and excretion of raduipaque
preparation
C. * Deformation of calicies and caliculi system, asymmetrically decreased secretion and
excretion of raduipaque preparation
D. Dilataion of calicies and caliculi system
E. Increased secretion of raduipaque preparation, decreased sizes of kidneys
90.
Which results of ultrasound examination should be expected in chronic glomerulonephritis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
91.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
92.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
93.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
94.
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B.
C.
D.
E.
95.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
96.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
97.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
98.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
99.
* Thin kidney parenchyma because of sclerosis on both sides symmetrically
Thin kidney parenchyma because of sclerosis on one side
Stones in calicies
Ellarged calicies
Swelling of kidney parenchyma
Which sign is a criterium of pathological process activity in glomerulonephritis?
Hyerptension
Hyaline casts
Hematuria
Creatitinemia
* Nephrotic syndrome
Which syndrome is not typical for chronic pyelonephritis?
Asthenic
Pain
Hypertension
Dyspeptic
* cachexia
Which types of acute pyelonephritis do you know?
Focal
Asymptomatic
Fast progressing
Latent
* Focal and latent
Which way of infection contamination is typical for primary pyelonephritis?
Through the urether (in bladder-urether reflux)
Along the urether walls
* Hematogenic
Lymphogenic
No correct answer
Which way of infection contamination is typical for secondaty pyelonephritis?
* Through the urether (in bladder-urether reflux)
Along the urether walls
Hematogenic
Lymphogenic
No correct answer
Polyarticular form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:
* symmetric chronic pain and swelling of many joints;
polyserositis,
chronic asymmetric arthritis of large joints,
polyarthritis or polyarthralgia,
hemarthroses
Affection of the eyes is specific for:
* rheumathoid arthritis;
infectious arthritis;
acute rheumatic lever;
overuse syndrome;
osteomyelitis
Duration of the joints affection in patients with rheumatoid arthritis is:
* 3 months and more;
2-3 weeks;
1-2 months;
2-3 months;
3-4 days.
Etiology of the rheumatoid arthritis is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
100.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
101.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
102.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
103.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
104.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
105.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
106.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
107.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
108.
* nonspecific sensibilization
streptococcus
pneumococcus
the virus of influenza
fungi
The main clinical criteria of rheumatoid arthritis are:
* arthritis more than 3 months
carditis
hepatitis
nephritis
pneumonia
The main clinical criterion of rheumatoid arthritis is:
* symmetrical affection of small joints
chorea
encephalitis
nephritis
pneumonia
The main clinical criterion of rheumatoid arthritis is:
* effusion in joint cavity
polyartralgia
hepatitis
dermatitis
pneumonia
The main clinical criterion of rheumatoid arthritis is:
* joint contracture
rheumatic nodules
dermatitis
nephritis
pneumonia
The main clinical criteria of rheumatoid arthritis are:
* arthritis more than 3 months
carditis
hepatitis
nephritis
pneumonia
The main clinical criterion of rheumatoid arthritis is:
* symmetrical affection of small joints
chorea
encephalitis
nephritis
pneumonia
The main clinical criterion of rheumatoid arthritis is:
* effusion in joint cavity
polyartralgia
hepatitis
dermatitis
pneumonia
The main clinical criterion of rheumatoid arthritis is:
* joint contracture
rheumatic nodules
dermatitis
nephritis
pneumonia
The main clinical criteria of rheumatoid arthritis are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
109.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
110.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
111.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
112.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
113.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
114.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
115.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
116.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
117.
* arthritis more than 3 months
carditis
hepatitis
nephritis
pneumonia
The main clinical criterion of rheumatoid arthritis is:
* symmetrical affection of small joints
chorea
encephalitis
nephritis
pneumonia
The main clinical criterion of rheumatoid arthritis is:
* effusion in joint cavity
polyartralgia
hepatitis
dermatitis
pneumonia
The main clinical criterion of rheumatoid arthritis is:
* joint contracture
rheumatic nodules
dermatitis
nephritis
pneumonia
The main clinical criterion of rheumatoid arthritis is:
* muscular atrophy
anular erythema
papulas
hemorrhages
pneumonia
The main clinical criterion of rheumatoid arthritis is:
* morning stiffness
anular erythema
papulas
hemorrhages
pneumonia
The main reason of rheumathoid arthritis is:
* nonspecific sensibilization of organism.
bacterial infection;
supercooling;
viral infection;
angina (acute tonsillitis)
The main role in the rheumatoid arthritis pathogenesis belongs to:
* autoimmune reactions
sensibilization
bacterial inflammation
aseptic inflammation
allergic reactions
The main X-ray criteria of rheumatoid arthritis are:
* Osteoporosis
Symmetrical affection of small joints
Tendosynovitis or bursitis.
Muscular atrophy.
Morning stiffness of joints
The main X-ray criteria of rheumatoid arthritis are:
A. * Articular cavities narrowing
B. Symmetrical affection of small joints
C. Effusion in joint cavity
D. Tendosynovitis or bursitis.
E. Morning stiffness of joints
118. The main X-ray criteria of rheumatoid arthritis are:
A. * Bone growth disturbances
B. Effusion in joint cavity
C. Joint contracture
D. Tendosynovitis or bursitis.
E. Muscular atrophy
119. The pathogenetic chain of rheumatoid arthritis is:
A. * sinovial precipitation
B. primary streptococcus sensibilization
C. intracellular sensibilization
D. constant persistancy of the streptococcus in a blood
E. persistancy of the streptococcus in connecting tissues
120. The pathogenetic chain of rheumatoid arthritis is:
A. * antigen-antibody-complement complex formation
B. primary streptococcus sensibilization
C. intracellular sensibilization
D. constant persistancy of the streptococcus in a blood
E. persistancy of the streptococcus in connecting tissues
121. The pathogenetic chain of rheumatoid arthritis is:
A. * chondrial lesion
B. primary streptococcus sensibilization
C. intracellular sensibilization
D. constant persistancy of the streptococcus in a blood
E. persistancy of the streptococcus in connecting tissues
122. What level of serum iron is typical for chronic iron-deficiency anaemia?
A. 20-30 gr/l
B. 12-20 gr/l
C. * 6-12 gr/l
D. 2-6 gr/l
E. 1-2 gr/l
123. What maintenance of whey iron is it already possible to suspect chronic iron-deficiency
anaemia at?
A. 20-30 mmol/l
B. 12-20 mmol/l
C. 6-12 mmol/l
D. 2-6 mmol/l
E. 1-2 mmol/l
124. What level of serum iron is typical for chronic iron-deficiency anaemia?
A. 20-30 gr/l
B. 12-20 gr/l
C. * 6-12 gr/l
D. 2-6 gr/l
E. 1-2 gr/l
125. What maintenance of whey iron is it already possible to suspect chronic iron-deficiency
anaemia at?
A. 20-30 mmol/l
B. 12-20 mmol/l
C. 6-12 mmol/l
D. 2-6 mmol/l
E.
126.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
127.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
128.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
129.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
130.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
131.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
132.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
133.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
134.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1-2 mmol/l
What is the mechasnism of lung ventilation disorders of obstructive type?
* Narrowing of fine bronchi
Decreased diaphragm mobility
Adhesions in pleural cavity
Weak mobility of respiratory muscles
Disorders of perfusion
What is the mechasnism of lung ventilation disorders of restrictive type?
Decreased diaphragm mobility
Adhesions in pleural cavity
Poor chest excursion
Disorders of alveolar perfusion
* All mentioned
What is possible to find in pneumonia located in the lower lung lobe?
Increase of active movility of the lower lung border
* Decrease of active movility of the lower lung border
Decrease of the heighth of lungs apexes
Tympanic percussion sound
Bandbox percussion sound
Which among the following signs are the most typical for bronchial asthma?
Cough with expectoration of rusty sputum
Pulmonary emphysema
Barking cough
Permanent expiratory dyspnea
* Attacks of dyspnea (asthma)
Which shape of a chest is typical for terminal stage of tuberculosis?
Foveated
Truncated
Pigeon
Barrel-shaped
* Paralytic
Which shape of a chest is typical for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
Foveated
Truncated
Pigeon
* Barrel-shaped
Paralytic
Which disease may be complicated with hemopthysis?
Pleurisy with effusion
Focal pneumonia
* Bronchiectatic disease
Diffuse bronchitis
No any of them
Select dyspnea with periodical breathing:
Kussmaul’s breath
Asthma
* Cheyn-Stocks breath
Grocco-Frugony’s breath
All mentioned
Which sputum is typical for bronchial asthma?
Mucoserous
Mucoseroso-purulent with prevalence of pus
Purulent
* Glass-like mucous
E. Rusty
135. Which sputum is typical for bronchiectatic disease?
A. Mucoserous
B. Mucoseroso-purulent with prevalence of pus
C. * Purulent
D. Glass-like
E. Rusty
136. Which sputum is typical for focal pneumonia?
A. Mucoserous
B. * Mucopurulent
C. Purulent
D. Glass-like
E. Rusty
137. Which sputum is typical for lung gangroene?
A. * Serous-purulent-hemorrhagic
B. Mucopurulent
C. Purulent
D. Glass-like
E. Rusty
138. Which sputum is typical for croupous pneumonia?
A. Serous
B. Mucopurulent
C. Purulent
D. Glass-like
E. * Rusty
139. Which sputum is typical for chronic bronchitis?
A. Serous-mucous-hemorrhagic
B. * Mucopurulent
C. Purulent
D. Glass-like
E. Rusty
140. Which sound will be obtained by percussion of the chest in bronchial asthma attack?
A. Dull
B. Flat
C. Dull-to-thympany
D. * Bandbox
E. Clear pulmonary (resonant)
141. Which temperature curve is typical for cropous pneumonia (if the patient doesn’t receive
specific treatment)?
A. * Stable febril fever
B. Litic decrease of temperature
C. Critical drop of temperature
D. Periodical high elevation of temperature
E. Prolonged subfebril
142. Which data of palpation is it possible to obtain in pleurisy with effusion?
A. Pleural friction
B. Pain in palpation
C. Intensified vocal fremitus
D. * Vocal fremitus is absent at the affecter area
E. Normal vocal fremitus
143. Which data of palpation of a chest will be in intercostal muscles inflammation (myositis)?
A. Pleural friction
B. * Pain in affected zone in palpation
C. Pain along intercostal space
D. Weakened vesicular breathing
E. Cracking sounds
144. Intensive morning cough is the most typical for:
A. Dry pleurisy
B. Pneumonia
C. Lung cancer
D. * Bronchiectatic disease
E. Acute bronchitis
145. Which data of palpation of a chest will be in dry pleurisy if lung parenchyma is not
changed?
A. * Pleural friction
B. Pain in affected zone
C. Pain along intercostal space
D. Weakened vesicular breathing
E. Cracking sounds
146. Which data of palpation of a chest will be in intercostal neuralgia?
A. Pleural friction
B. Pain in affected zone
C. * Pain along intercostal space
D. Weakened vesicular breathing
E. Cracking sounds
147. Which data may be obtained by percussion in pleurisy with effusion in the projection of
liquid?
A. Bandbox sound
B. * Dull sound
C. Dull-to-thympany sound
D. Clear pulmonary (resonanrt) sound
E. Slight dullness
148. Which data of percussion will be in acute catarrhal bronchitis?
A. Dull percussion sound
B. Dull-to-thympany sound
C. Tympanic sound
D. Bandbox sound
E. * Clear pulmonary (resonant) sound
149. Which data of percussion will be in croupous pneumonia in the stage of inflow?
A. Dull percussion sound
B. * Dull-to-thympany sound
C. Tympanic sound
D. Bandbox sound
E. Clear pulmonary (resonant) sound
150. Which data of palpation will be in rib fracture?
A. Intensified vocal fremitus on affected side
B. Intensified vocal fremitus on the opposite to the affected side
C. * Crunch sound, pain in palpation of affected rib
D. Weakened or absent vesicular breathing on the side opposite to affected
E. Normal vocal fremitus
151. Which data will be in inspection of a patient with bronchial asthma?
A. Increased affected side of a chest
B. Decreased affected side of a chest
C. Paralytic chest
D. * Emphysematous chest
E. All mentioned
152. Which data will be in inspection of a patient with croupous pneumonia?
A. * Increased affected side of a chest
B.
C.
D.
E.
153.
stage?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
154.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
155.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
156.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
157.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
158.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
159.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
160.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
161.
Decreased affected side of a chest
Paralytic chest
Emphysematous chest
Elevation of supraclavicular focca
. Which data will be in percussion of a patient’s chest in croupous pneumonia, consolidation
* Dull sound
Bandbox sound
Tympanic sound
Clear pulmonary (resonant) one
Dull-to-thympany sound
Which signs are typical for spontaneous pneumothorax?
Acute onset with chest pain
Sharp dyspnea
Cyanosis
Tympanic sound in percussion on affected side
* All mentioned
Select a disease which may be the cause of pulmonary thrombembolism:
Thrombosis of lower limbs veins
Thrombosis of pelvis veins
Surgical intervention
Malignant tumours
* All mentioned
Which peculiaritier of pulmonary cyanosis do you know?
* Diffuse, warm, located at a tongue and oral mucosa
Diffuse, cold
Is located on small area of a body, cold
Located in one limb
No any answer is correct
Select typical early symptom of lung cancer:
* Cough
Chest pain
Dyspnea
Voice hoarsness
Lung bleeding
What is character of sputum in acute catarrhal bronchitis?
Serous
* Mucous
Mucopurulent
Lurulent
Glass-like
How is attack of dyspnea called if it is caused with blood congestion in lungs?
Bronchial asthma attack
* Cardiac asthma
Asphyxia
Tachypnoe
Dyspnoe
What is normal lower lung border mobility on scapular line?
1-2 сm.
2-3 сm
3-4 сm
* 4-6 сm
6-8 сm
What is normal lower lung border mobility on midaxillary line?
A. 1-2 сm.
B. 2-3 сm
C. 3-4 сm
D. 4-6 сm
E. * 6-8 сm
162. A patient complains of cough with expectoration of green sputum. How is this sputum
called?
A. Serous
B. Mucous
C. Hemorrhagic
D. * Purulent
E. Mucopurulent
163. Select a possible cause of hemopthysis in the form of single blood streaks in the sputum:
A. Acute catarrhal bronchitis
B. Bronchial asthma attack
C. * Grippe
D. Pleurisy
E. All mentioned
164. A patient developed right-sided hydropneumothorax. Which percutorial sound will be above
the lower parts of the right lung?
A. Resonant
B. Bandbox
C. Tympanic
D. * Dull
E. Dull-to-thympany
165. A patient developed right-sided hydropneumothorax. Which percutorial sound will be above
the right apex?
A. Resonant
B. Bandbox
C. * Tympanic
D. Dull
E. Dull-to-thympany
166. Absence of vocal fremitus above the right medial lobe of the lung may be the sign of …
A. Croupous pneumonia
B. Compressive atelectasis of this lobe
C. * Complete obturation of the main bronchus providing ventilation of the lobe
D. Emphysema of the lobe
E. Lobular pneumonia
167. Barking cough is typical for…
A. Dry pleurisy
B. Pleurisy with effusion
C. * Laringitis
D. Pneumothorax
E. Tuberculosis
168. Comparative percussion is used for definition of:
A. Mobility of lungs borders;
B. Width of `Kroenig’s area;
C. The lower lungs borders position;
D. Height of lungs apexes.
E. * No any answer is correct
169. Complete dull percutorial sound (flat sound) may be obtained in the case of …
A. * Hydrothorax
B. Empty cavern
C. Empty bronchiectasis
D.
E.
170.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
171.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
172.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
173.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
174.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
175.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
176.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
177.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
178.
color:
A.
B.
Pneumothorax
Lung emphysema
Cough with expectoration of more than 1 liter of sputum is typical for:
Pneumonia
Pulmonary artery thromboembolism
Bronchial asthma
* Lung abscess
Pleurisy with effusion
Cough with expectoration of viscous glass-like sputum is observed in…
At the top of lung edema
* In resolution of bronchial asthma attack
In resolution of croupous pneumonia
In penetration of lung abscess into the bronchus
In tuberculosis with exudative pleurisy
Crimson gelly-like consistence of sputum is the symptom of:
croupous pneumonia,
bronchiectatic disease,
lung tuberculosis,
lung abscess,
* lung cancer.
Damuazo’s line – this is…
The line which separate medial and lower lung lobes
* The line which separate the upper level of liquid in pleurisy with effusion
The line which separate air and lung parenchyma in pneumothorax
The line which indicates the high of lungs apexes
It indicates the lower lung border
Discharge of large volume of sputum in special position of the patient testifies about:
Croupous pneumonia
Diffuse bronchitis
Lung tuberculosis
Lung cancer
* Cavity in the lungs
Discharge of a large volume of sputum in special position of the patient testify about:
Croupous pneumonia
Diffuse bronchitis
Lung tuberculosis
Lung cancer
* Bronchiectatic disease
Dull percussion sound above the lungs may be heard in the following case:
Bronchial asthma
* Hydrothorax
Cavern
Pneumothorax
Pulmonary emphysema
Duration of percussion sound increases when:
Pulmonaty tissue is more solid,
* Pulmonaty tissue contains more air,
Pulmonaty tissue consistence and its mass are increased,
It does not depend on consistence of pulmonary tissue,
It does not depend on mass of pulmonary tissue.
During inspection of a patient with respiratory failure you may observe the following skin
Acrocyanosis
Hyperemia
C. * Diffuse cyanosis
D. Yellow color
E. Spider angiomata
179. During percussion above a cavern it is possible to obtain the following sound…
A. Bandbox
B. Dull
C. Dull-to-thympany
D. * Tympanic
E. Resonant
180. During percussion of a patient it was revealed tympanic sound over the lower lobe of the left
lung. In which case is it possible in physiological conditions?
A. If respiration is absent
B. In labored respiration
C. In fasting
D. * In overfilled stomach
E. In physical examination
181. Except of bronchial mucosa pain receptors are present …
A. On the surface of pericardium
B. On the surface of peritoneum
C. * On the surface of pleura
D. On the surface of skin and the chest
E. On the surface of a tongue
182. herpes eruption on the nose and lips are typical for…
A. Bronchial cancer
B. Bronchial asthma
C. * Croupous pneumonia
D. Bronchopneumonia
E. Pleurisy with effusion
183. Select a possible cause of hemopthysis:
A. Acute catarrhal bronchitis
B. Bronchial asthma attack
C. * Lung infarction
D. Pleurisy
E. All mentioned
184. Select a possible cause of hemopthysis:
A. Acute catarrhal bronchitis
B. Bronchial asthma attack
C. * Tuberculosis
D. Pleurisy
E. All mentioned
185. Select a possible cause of hemopthysis
A. Acute catarrhal bronchitis
B. Bronchial asthma attack
C. * Lung cancer
D. Pleurisy
E. All mentioned
186. Select a possible cause of hemopthysis:
A. Primary or metasthatic lung tumour
B. Orthopnea
C. Bronchiectatic disease
D. Tuberculosis
E. * All mentioned
187. Select the earliest sign of bronchial obstruction:
A. Participation of respiratory muscles in breathing
B.
C.
D.
E.
188.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
189.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
190.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
191.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
192.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
193.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
194.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
195.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
196.
A.
* Orthopnea and expiratory dyspnea
Inspiratory dyspnea in physical load
Cough with small amount of glass-like transparent viscous sputum
Whistling rales in forced expiration
Select the typical peculiarity of pain in pleurisy:
Short pain
Prolonged pain
* Pain occures in deep inspiration and cough
Pain decreases after usage of nitroglycerine
Pain is combined with hemopthysis
Secelt typical complain of a patient with pleurisy with effusion:
Pain in the chest in breathing
Dry cough
Difficult swallowing
* Inspiratory dyspnea
Hemopthysis
Name symptom of pleurisy:
Intensification of vocal fremitus
Pressing pain in heart region
* Retardation of affected side of the chest in respiration
Whistling breathing
All mentioned
Name factors which provoke lung cancer:
Chronic bronchitis
* Smoking
Dust in the air
Irradiation
All mentioned
Most frequent mechanism of night cough is:
Pleural irritation
Accumulation of sputum in bronchi
*Compression of bronchi with tracheobronchial lymph nodes
No any of them
All of them
Evening cough is typical for:
Chronic bronchitis in remission phase
* Pneumonia
Lung cancer
Bronchiectatic disease in remission phase
Heart failure
Most often cause of hemopthysis is:
Pleurisy with effusion
Chronic bronchitis
Bronchial asthma
* Pulmonary infarction
Acute bronchitis
Expectoration of sputum at once with “full mouth” is typical for:
Tuberculosis
* Lung abscess after rupture in a bronchus
Focal pneumonia
Pleural empyema
Bronchial asthma
Main symptom of dry pleurisy is:
Pain in the chest, cough with expectoration of sputum
B. * Dry cough, pain in the chest, which intensifies in breath
C. Cough with expectoration of sputum, fever
D. Pain in the chest with irradiation to the left arm
E. Dull boring pain in the chest
197. Periodical Biot’s breathing indicates on:
A. Bronchospasm
B. Bronchial mucosa inflammation
C. * Disordered activity of respiratory center
D. Accumulation of effusion in the pleural cavity
E. All mentioned
198. Which line should a student start from to determine position of lower border of the left
lung?
A. Parasternal
B. Scapular
C. * Anterior axillary
D. Medial axillary
E. Posterior axillary
199. Which line should a student start to determine position of lower border of the right lung?
A. * Parasternal
B. Scapular
C. Anterior axillary
D. Medial axillary
E. Posterior axillary
200. Comparative percussion of lungs starts on anterior side of a chest should be started from the
following region:
A. Suprascapular region
B. Intrascapular space
C. Infrascapular region
D. Lung apexes posteriorly
E. * Supraclavicular
201. During inspection of the chest of a patient with pleurisy with effusion we can find:
A. Affected part of the chest is decreased
B. Barrel-shaped chest
C. Protrusion of supraclavicualr regions
D. * Retardation of affected part of the chest in breathing
E. Participation of adventitious muscles in respiration
202. During inspection of a chest during attacks of bronchial asthma we can find:
A. Affected part of the chest is decreased
B. Paralytic chest
C. * Protrusion of supraclavicualr regions
D. Retardation of affected part of the chest in breathing
E. Decreased sizes of all the chest
203. By inspection of a chest during attacks of bronchial asthma we can find:
A. Affected part of the chest is decreased
B. Paralytic chest
C. Elevattion of supraclavicualr regions
D. Retardation of affected part of the chest in breathing
E. * Participation of adventitious muscles in respiration
204. From which level is it necessary to determine lower lung border on scapular line?
A. II intercostal space
B. III intercostal space
C. IV intercostal space
D. V intercostal space
E. * Lower scapular angle
205. What disease can you suspect in a patient if he periodically diacharges large anount of
sputum in one certain position of his body?
A. Croupous pneumonia
B. Diffuse bronchitis
C. * Bronchiectatic disease
D. Lung cancer
E. Bronchial asthma
206. How will patient’s body temperature change after rupture of lung abscess into a bronchus?
A. Will be increase
B. * Will be decreased
C. Will be hectic
D. Will be remitting
E. Will be subnormal
207. Which shape of a chest is typical for syringomyelia?
A. Barrel-shaped
B. Paralytic
C. Pigeon chest
D. * Foveated chest
E. Kyphoscoliosis
208. In which disease the zone of transition of resonant (clear pulmonary) sound to dull one is
displaced upwards (data of topographic percussion)?
A. * Pleurisy with effusion
B. Focal pneumonia
C. Bronchiectatic disease
D. Diffuse bronchitis
E. No any of them
209. . In which disease hemopthysis will be the most often symptom?
A. Acute bronchitis
B. Focal pneumonia
C. Pneumothorax
D. * Bronchiectatic disease
E. Bronchial asthma
210. In which disease of lungs there will be fingers in the form of "Hippocrete’s fingers"?
A. * Chronic lung abscess
B. Acute lung abscess
C. Pleurisy with effusion
D. No any of them
E. Croupous pneumonia
211. In which disease of lungs there will be fingers in the form of "Hippocrete’s fingers"?
A. * Bronchiectatic disease
B. Acute lung abscess
C. Pleurisy with effusion
D. No any of them
E. Croupous pneumonia
212. In which disease a patient first expectorates fresh blood in sputum, and then in several
days– dark one?
A. Acute catarrhal bronchitis
B. Bronchial asthma attack
C. * Pulmonary artery thrombembolism
D. Pleurisy
E. All mentioned
213. The cause of displacement of the lower lung border upwards is:
A. * Hepatomegaly
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Basal pneumosclerosis
D. Dry pleurisy
E. Bronchial asthma
214. Which bronchitis is dyspnea typical for?
A. * With affection of small bronchi
B. With affection of medial bronchi
C. Diffuse with affection of large bronchi
D. All mentioned
E. No correct answer
215. The cause of displacement of the lower lung border downwards is:
A. Hepatomegaly
B. * Pneumothorax
C. Basal pneumosclerosis
D. Dry pleurisy
E. Acute bronchitis
216. The cause of displacement of the lower lung border upwards is:
A. Hepatomegaly
B. * Lobectomia
C. Basal pneumosclerosis
D. Pleurisy with effusion
E. Acute bronchitis
217. In which disease will vocal fremitus be absent on the side of affection?
A. Croupous pneumonia
B. Tumour of the large bronchus with oncomplete obturation of the bronchus
C. * Pleurisy with effusion
D. Pneumosclerosis
E. Bronchial asthma
218. In which disease will vocal fremitus be absent on the side of affection?
A. Croupous pneumonia
B. Tumour of the large bronchus with uncomplete obturation of the bronchus
C. * Tumour of the large bronchus with complete obturation of the bronchus
D. Pneumosclerosis
E. Bronchial asthma
219. In which disease will vocal fremitus be intensified on the side of affection?
A. Pleurisy with effusion
B. * Croupous pneumonia
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Pulmonary emphysema
E. Pneumothorax
220. In which disease will vocal fremitus be weakened on the side of affection?
A. Croupous pneumonia
B. * Tumour of the large bronchus with uncomplete obturation of the bronchus
C. Tumour of the large bronchus with complete obturation of the bronchus
D. Pneumosclerosis
E. All mentioned
221. In which disease will vocal fremitus be weakened on the side of affection?
A. Croupous pneumonia II st.
B. * Pleural sickness
C. Dry pleurisy
D. Pneumosclerosis
E. All mentioned
222. Development of pleurisy with effusion is possible due to all pathological mechanisms
except of:
A. Increased permeability of vascular and lymph vessels of pleura
B. Disorder of lymph circulation because of block of lymph ducts
C. General immune processes and change of reactivity of the organism
D. * Prevalence of effusion resorption behind its accumulation
E. Local allergic processes
223. Topographic percussion of lungs fo determination of lower lung border’s position should be
started from:
A. * II-III intercostal spaces on anterior surface of the chest
B. Lateral surface of the chest on anterior axillary line
C. Lateral surface from the costal arch upward
D. Posterior surface from scapular angles downward
E. Posterior surface on paravertebral lines
224. Prolonged bleeding is typical for:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Lung cancer
C. * Bronchiectatic disease
D. No any ANSWER is correct
E. All named causes
225. Which location of bronchial affection in bronchitis is followed with dyspnea?
A. Large bronchi
B. Medial bronchi
C. * Small bronchi
D. Large and medial bronchi
E. All types of bronchi
226. Periodical appearance of hemopthysis is typical for:
A. Pleurisy with effusion
B. Bronchial asthma
C. * Lung cancer
D. Pneumosclerosis
E. Focal pneumonia
F.
227. How Kroenig’s area and height of lung apexes will change in right-sided pneumothorax?
A. The height of lungs apexes and Kroenig’s area will not change
B. The height of lungs apexes will rise while Kroenig’s area will diminish
C. The height of lungs apexes will diminish while Kroenig’s area will be enlarged
D. * The height of lungs apexes and Kroenig’s area will increase
E. The height of lungs apexes will not change while Kroenig’s area will increase
228. If a patient developed pneumothorax his chest appearance will be the following…
A. depressed chest
B. Normal shape
C. * Protruded especially in its upper part
D. Protruded especially in its lower part
E. Emphysematous
229. In which cases among the following vocal fremitus become intensified?
A. Pulmonary emphysema
B. The I stage of lobar pneumonia
C. Bronchiectatic disease
D. * The II stage of lobar pneumonia
E. Above the cavern, filled with liquid
230. In which case among the following vocal fremitus disappears or becomes weakened at
affected area?
A. The II stage of lobar pneumonia
B. * Pleurisy with effusion
C. In dry pleurisy
D. Above Damuazo’s line
E. In lung infarction
231. In which cases among the following vocal fremitus disappears at affected area?
A. The II stage of lobar pneumonia,
B. Pleurisy with efusion (at the zone of the lung located above exudate)
C. Dry pleurisy
D. Pulmonary emphysema
E. * Pneumothorax
232. In which sequence should be percussion carried out to determine mobility of the lower
border of the right lung?
A. Scapular line; midclavicular line; paravertebral line; anterior axillary line; posterior axillary
line; midaxillary line; parasternal line
B. Parasternal line, midclavicular line; anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary
line; scapular line; paravertebral line
C. *Midclavicular line; midaxillary line; scapular line
D. Midaxillary line; scapular line
E. Anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary line; scapular line; paravertebral
line
233. In which sequence should be percussion carried out to determine mobility of the lower
border of the left lung?
A. Scapular line; midclavicular line; paravertebral line; anterior axillary line; posterior axillary
line; midaxillary line; parasternal line
B. Parasternal line, midclavicular line; anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary
line; scapular line; paravertebral line
C. Midclavicular line; midaxillary line; scapular line
D. *Midaxillary line; scapular line
E. Anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary line; scapular line; paravertebral
line
234. In which sequence should be percussion carried out to determine the lower border of the left
lung?
A. Scapular line; midclavicular line; paravertebral line; бnterior axillary line; posterior axillary
line; midaxillary line; parasternal line
B. Scapular line; midclavicular line; midaxillary line; parasternal line.paravertebral line;
anterior axillary line; posterior axillary line
C. Parasternal line, midclavicular line; anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary
line; scapular line; paravertebral line
D. * Anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary line; scapular line; paravertebral
line
E. Paravertebral line, scapular line; posterior axillary line; midaxillary line; anterior axillary
line
235. In which sequence should be percussion carried out to determine the lower border of the
right lung?
A. Scapular line; midclavicular line; paravertebral line; бnterior axillary line; posterior axillary
line; midaxillary line; parasternal line
B. Scapular line; midclavicular line; midaxillary line; parasternal line.paravertebral line;
бnterior axillary line; posterior axillary line
C. * Parasternal line, midclavicular line; anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior
axillary line; scapular line; paravertebral line
D. Anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary line; Scapular line; paravertebral
line
E. Paravertebral line, scapular line; posterior axillary line; midaxillary line; anterior axillary
line
236. Loudless cough is typical for patients with:
A. * Destruction of vocal cords due to tuberculosis, syphilis or cancer
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Croupous pneumonia
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Acute tonsillitis
237. Morning cough is typical for:
A. * Smockers
B. Laryngitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Dry pleurisy
E. Lung cancer
238. Night cough is typical for:
A. Bronchiectatic disease
B. Laryngitis
C. * Enlargement of intrathoracic lymph nodes
D. Dry pleurisy
E. Lung cancer
239. Normal respiratory rate is equal to:
A. 10-14 per min
B. 12-16 per min
C. 14-18 per min
D. * 16-20 per min
E. 18-22 per min
240. Rusty sputum is the symptom of:
A. * Congestive heart failure
B. Bronchiectatic disease
C. Lung tuberculosis
D. Lung abscess
E. Lung cancer
241. Sharp development of diffuse cyanosis is typical for…
A. Acute bronchitis
B. Bronchial cancer
C. Pneumonia
D. * Pneumothorax
E. Bronchiectatic disease
242. Sudden knife-like pain in the chest with the following pressing and distending sensations in
the chest as well as development of dyspnea are typical for:
A. Pulmonary artery thromboembolism
B. Pleurisy with effusion
C. Dry pleurisy
D. Pneumonia
E. * Pneuumothorax
243. The active mobility of the lower lungs border decreases in the case of:
A. Deep breathing
B. * Emphysema of the lungs
C. Enteroptosis
D. Physical examination
E. Dyspnea
244. The height of lungs apexes above clavicles in a healthy person takes approximately:
A. lungs apexes don’t go upwards from the the level of clavicle
B. Rise up to 1 cm
C. 1-2 cm
D. * 3-4 cm
E. 4-6 cm
245. The lower border of the left lung at the parasternal line is located at:
A. IV rib
B. V rib
C. VI rib
D. VII rib
E. * It is not determined
246. The lower border of the right lung at the scapula line is located at:
A. VI rib
B. VII rib
C. VIII rib
D. ІХ rib
E. * Х rib
247. The lower lungs borders are displaced upwards on both sides in the case of:
A. Deep breathing
B. * Liver cirrhosis
C. Pulmonary emphysema
D. Chronic blood congestion in the lungs
E. Enteroptosis
248. The sign of pulmonary emphyzema is the following percutorial sound…
A. * Bandbox (hyperresonant)
B. Dull above both lungs
C. Dull above one lung
D. Absolute dullness (flat sound)
E. Resonant one
249. Topographic percussion is used for definition of:
A. Height of lungs apexes
B. Mobility of lungs borders
C. Width of `Kroenig’s area
D. The lower lungs borders position
E. * All above mentioned
250. Topographic percussion is used for determination of all the following except of:
A. * Assessment of percussion sound on symmetrical points on the chest
B. The lungs borders mobility
C. The width of the Krenig’s area
D. The low lungs borders position
E. The size of pathological focus
251. Vocal fremitus is weakened above the whole lung parenchyma in the case of …
A. Lung abscess
B. Croupous pneumonia
C. Lobular pneumonia
D. Dry pleurisy
E. * Pulmonary emphysema
252. What percussion sound is possible to hear over cavity in the lungs?
A. Dull
B. Bandbox
C. Dull-to-tympanic
D. Resonant
E. * Tympanic
253. What percutorial sound is it possible to hear over the lungs in patients with bronchial
obstruction?
A. Dull
B. * Bandbox
C. Dull-to-tympanic
D. Resonant
E. Tympanic
254. What percutorial sound occures in the I stage of pleuropneumonia?
A. Dull
B. Dull-to-resonance
C. * Dull-to-tympanic
D. Resonant
E. Tympanic
255. What percutorial sound does occur in the II stage of pleuropneumonia?
A. * Dull
B. Bandbox
C. * Dull-to-tympanic
D. Resonant
E. Tympanic
256. What pulmonary sound can occur in percussion above the Traube’s space in left-sided
hydrothorax?
A. * Dull
B. Dull-to-resonance
C. Resonance
D. Tympanic
E. Dull-to-thympany
257. What pulmonary sound occures during percussion above Traube’s space?
A. dull
B. dull-to-resonance;
C. resonance
D. * tympanic
E. dull-to-tympanic.
258. What percussion sound occures in the II stage of atelectasis (complete collapse)?
A. * Dull
B. Dull-to-resonance
C. Dull-to-tympanic
D. Resonant
E. Tympanic
259. What results of topographical percussion may be obtained in a patient with dry pleurisy?
A. * Decreased lungs active mobility at the affected side
B. Displacement downward lower lungs borders
C. Displacement upward of lower lungs borders
D. Extension of the Krenig’s area
E. Reduction of the of the lungs’ apexes
260. Which facial expression is typical for a patient with pneumonia?
A. Pale and puffy
B. Moon-shaped and red
C. Puffy, with pale-yellowish tint
D. With exaphthalmus
E. * Facies febrilis
261. Which kind of sound will be obtained above the zone of dry costal pleurisy?
A. Dull
B. * Resonant
C. Bandbox
D. Tympanic
E. Complete dullness (flat sound)
262. Which sound will be obtained by percussion in the patient with emphysematous chest when
vocal fremitus is weakened on both sides?
A. Dull
B. * Bandbox
C. Resonant
D. Tympanic
E.
263.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
264.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
265.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
266.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
267.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
268.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
269.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
270.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
271.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absolute dullness
Morning cough is typical for:
*Bronchiectatic disease
Laryngitis
Pneumonia
Dry pleurisy
Lung cancer
Select the sign of bronchial asthma attack release:
Participation of respiratory muscles in breathing
Orthopnea and expiratory dyspnea
Inspiratory dyspnea in physical load
* Cough with small amount of glass-like transparent viscous sputum
Whistling rales in forced expiration
Periodical appearance of hemopthysis is typical for:
Pleurisy with effusion
Bronchial asthma
* Tuberculosis
Pneumosclerosis
Focal pneumonia
Select the sign of bronchial asthma attack release:
Participation of respiratory muscles in breathing
Orthopnea and expiratory dyspnea
Inspiratory dyspnea in physical load
* Caugh with small amount of glass-like transparent viscous sputum
Whistling rales in forced expiration
Periodical appearance of hemopthysis is typical for:
Pleurisy with effusion
Bronchial asthma
* Tuberculosis
Pneumosclerosis
Focal pneumonia
What is typical for pulmonary emphysema?
Decreased vital lung capacity
Increased vital lung capacity
*Increased residual volume
Increased minute lung ventilation
Respiratory acidosis
Which changes may be revealed on X-ray in chronic bronchitis?
Pulmonary tissue infiltration
Lung emphysema
Multiple small focci in the lungs
Cavity in the lung
* Pointed lung pattern
Rivolt’s test is used for…
* Differentiation of exssudate and transsudate
Determination of allergic sensitivity
Determination of sputum viscosity
Assessment of immune resistance
Assessment of blood coagulation
Which elements in sputum are typical for bronchial asthma?
Fridlender’s bacilli
* Charcot-Leyden’s crystals
Mycobacteria
Pneumococci
E. erythrocytes
272. «Rusty» sputum may be in patients with…
A. * Mitral valvular stenosis complicated with heart failure
B. Bronchopneumonia
C. Pleurisy with effusion
D. Dry pleurisy
E. Bronchiectatic disease
273. Sputum wit admixtures of scarlet blood with turns to be of rusty color in some days may be
in patients with…
A. * Pulmonary artery thromboembolism
B. Bronchopneumonia
C. Pleurisy with effusion
D. Dry pleurisy
E. Bronchiectatic disease
274. A doctor during auscultation of a patient has found vesicular breathing with metallic tint at
the right lung apex. In which disease may it be?
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Pneumonia
D. Atelectasis
E. * Pneumothorax
275. A doctor has found in a patient crepitatio redux. What pathological condition it is typical
for?
A. Bronchial asthma attack
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Initial stage of croupous pneumonia
E. * Final stage of croupous pneumonia
276. A patient developed bronchial tumour with partial obturation of bronchial lumen. Which
changes of bronchophony will be?
A. Intensification on affected side
B. * Weakening on affected side
C. Symmetrical intensification
D. Symmetrical weakening
E. Absent on affected side
277. A patient developed dry pleurisy. Which changes of bronchophony will be?
A. Intensification on affected side
B. Weakening on affected side
C. * No changes
D. Symmetrical weakening
E. Absent on affected side
278. A patient developed pleurisy with effusion. Which changes of bronchophony will be?
A. Intensification on affected side
B. Weakening on affected side
C. Symmetrical intensification
D. Symmetrical symmetrical
E. * Absent on affected side
279. A patient developed pneumonia. Which changes of bronchophony will be?
A. * Intensification on affected side
B. Symmetrical on affected side
C. Symmetrical intensification
D. Symmetrical weakening
E. Absent on affected side
280. A patient developed pulmonary emphysema. Which changes of bronchophony will be?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
281.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
282.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
283.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
284.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
285.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
286.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
287.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
288.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
289.
Intensification on affected side
Weakening on affected side
Symmetrical intensification
* Symmetrical weakening
Absent on affected side
Adventitious respiratory sounds are:
Vesicular, harsh and bronchial breathing
* Rales, crepitation and pleural friction
Vesicular breathing, moist and dry rales
Broinchial breathing, crepitation and pleural friction
Harsh breathing, crepitation and pleural friction
Atypical cells in the sputum are the signs of…
Focal pneumonia
Acute bronchitis
Bronchial asthma
Tuberculosis
* Lung cancer
Bronchial breathing in normal conditions originates in…
Alveoli
Terminal bronhchi
Medial bronchi
Large bronchi and trachea
* Larynx
Bronchial breathing is heard…
During inspiration and first 1/3 of expiration
In 1st phase of inspiration
In 1st phase of expiration
During inspiration and the last 1/3 of expiration
* During inspiration and expiration
Bronchovesicular breathing may be heard in such cases as:
* Appearence of consolidation foci in the deep layers of pulmonary tissue,
Lung emphysema
Thin chest wall
Physical loading
Swelling of bronchial mucosa
Cholesterol pleural exssudate is typical for…
* Tuberculosis and cancer
Pneumonia
Bronchitis
Pneumoconniosis
Helminthiasis
Crepitation is heard…
During inspiration and expiration
* In 1st phase of inspiration
In 1st phase of expiration
In lastt phase of inspiration
In last phase of expiration
Crepitation is heard…
During inspiration and expiration
* In 1st phase of inspiration
In 1st phase of expiration
In last phase of inspiration
In last phase of expiration
Crepitation is the symptom of
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
290.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
291.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
292.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
293.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
294.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
295.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
296.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
297.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
298.
* Croupous pneumonia
Acute bronchitis
Dry pleurisy
Chronic bronchitis
Pulmonary emphysema
Crepitation is the symptom of:
* Lung lobe complete atelectasis
Pneumonia II stage
Dry pleurisy
Chronic bronchitis
Pulmonary emphysema
Crepitation originates…
* In alveoli
In terminal bronchi
In medial bronchi
In large bronchi
Between pleural layers
Curshman’s spirals are observed in sputum of patients with…
Acute bronchitis
Bronchopneumonia
Croupous pneumonia
* Bronchial asthma
Lung cancer
Decreased Tiffneu index indicates on…
Presence of cavity in the lungs
* Obstructive disorders of lung ventilation
Restrictive disorders of lung ventilation
Compensatory erythraemia
Spontaneous pneumothorax
Diffuse dry whistling high pitched rales are heard in…
Bronchiectatic disease
Croupous pneumonia
Bronchopneumonia
* Bronchial asthma attack
Cardiac asthma attack
Ditrich’s plaques are present in sputum in…
Acute broncitis
Chronic bronchitis
* Bronchiectasia
Exudative pleurisy
Dry pleurisy
Dry rales are observed in:
Croupous pneumonia
* Bronchitis
Dry pleurisy
Pulmonary emphysema
Pneumothrax
Dry rales are observed in:
Croupous pneumonia
Lung abscess
Pulmonary emphysema
* Bronchial asthma attack
Dry pleurisy
Dry whistling rales are typical for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
299.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
300.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
301.
302.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
303.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
304.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
305.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
306.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
307.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Appearence of liquid secretion in fine bronchi
Appearence of liquid secretion in large bronchi
Appearence of liquid secretion in alveoli
* Appearence of viscous secretion in fine bronchi
Dry pleurisy
Elastic fibers are present in sputum in…
Acute broncitis
Chronic bronchitis
Bronchiectasia
* Pulmonary tissue destruction
Pleurisy
Elastic fibers in sputum indicates on…
* Pulmonary tissue destruction
Bronchial obstruction
Migration of helmints
Hyperplasia of bronchial epithelium
Atrophy of respiratory airways mucosa
Eosinophils are present in spu
tum in:
Acute broncitis
Bronchopneumonia
Croupous pneumonia
* Bronchial asthma
Lung cancer
Eosinophils are present in sputum in…
Acute broncitis
Chronic bronchitis
Bronchiectasia
Pulmonary tissue destruction
* Bronchial asthma
For diagnostics of central lung cancer optimal is…
Chest roentgenoscopy
Chest roentgenography
Fluorography
Computer tomography
* Bronchoscopy
For diagnostics of perypheric lung cancer optimal is…
Chest roentgenoscopy
Chest roentgenography
Fluorography
* Computer tomography
Bronchoscopy
Glass-like viscous transparent white sputum is typical for …
Acute bronchitis.
Chronic bronchitis
* Bronchial asthma
Pneumothorax
Pleurisy with effusion
Harsh breathing indicates on…
* Bronchitis
Dry pleurisy
Pleurisy with effusion
Pulmonary emphysema
Pneumonia
308. Hemorrhagic exssudate is typical for…
A. * Pulmonary artery thromboembolism and cancer
B. Pneumonia
C. Bronchitis
D. Pneumoconniosis and tuberculosis
E. Ascaridosis and mucoviscidosis
309. Hemorrhagic exssudate is typical for…
A. * Pulmonary artery thromboembolism
B. Pneumonia
C. Bronchitis
D. Pneumoconniosis and tuberculosis
E. Ascaridosis and mucoviscidosis
310. Hemorrhagic exssudate is typical for…
A. * Lung cancer
B. Pneumonia
C. Bronchitis
D. Pneumoconniosis and tuberculosis
E. Ascaridosis and mucoviscidosis
311. Hemorrhagic exssudate is typical for:
A. Pneumonia
B. * Lung cancer
C. Pleural ampyema
D. Ascaridosis
E. Bronchial asthma
312. Homogeneous intensive darkness with distinct oblique upper level on X-ray film is typical
for…
A. Focal pneumonia
B. Lobar pneumonia
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Bronchial asthma
E. * Pleurisy with effusion
313. If the patient develops accumulation of fluid in pleural cavity, which finding will be
revealed by inspection?
A. Retardation of affected side of the chest in respiration
B. * Retardation of affected side of the chest in respiration and protrusion of intercostal spaces
on affected side
C. Elevation of intercostal spaces on affected side
D. No changes
E. Emphysematous chest
314. If the patient with pneumonia develops crepitation over the lower lobe of the right lung,
which main respiratory sound should be expected to hear with auscultation at affected area?
A. Bronchial breathing
B. Amphoric breathing
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Pueril breathing
E. * Weakened vesicular breathing
315. If the patient develops pleural friction over the lower lobe of the right lung, which character
of pain will be in this case?
A. Constricting
B. Pierching
C. Restricting
D. Dull boting
E. * Pinching, stubbing
316. If the patient develops pleural friction over the lower lobe of the right lung, which finding
will be revealed by inspection?
A. * Retardation of affected side of the chest in respiration
B. Protrusion of intercostal spaces on affected side
C. Elevation of intercostal spaces on affected side
D. No changes
E. Emphysematous chest
317. In a healthy individual bronchial breathing is heart at the following area on the posterior
chest surface…
A. * Intrascapular region at ІІІ and ІV intercostal spaces
B. At paravertebral zones at the level of VІІ ribs
C. Below the left scapular angle
D. Below the left scapular angle
E. Above and below the scapulas
318. In a healthy individual bronchial breathing is heart at the following erea on the posterior
chest surface…
A. * Intrascapular region at ІІІ and ІV intercostal spaces
B. At paravertebral zones at the level of VІІ ribs
C. Below the left scapular angle
D. Below the left scapular angle
E. At paravertebral zones at the level of Х ribs
319. In patient’s sputum there were found diamond-shaped elements of golden yellow clolr. What
is this?
A. Cholesterol crystals
B. Hematoidin crystals
C. * Charcot-Leyden’s crystals
D. Curshman’s spirals
E. Ditrich’s plaques
320. In patient’s sputum there were found solis spiral-shaped transparent elements with shiny
central part. What is this?
A. Cholesterol crystals
B. Hematoidin crystals
C. Charcot-Leyden’s crystals
D. * Curshman’s spirals
E. Ditrich’s plaques
321. In physiological conditions crepitation is heard in the following case…
A. Heavy physical examination
B. Intake of large volume of liquid
C. Overheating
D. * Long-term bed mode in old patients
E. In low temperature of environment
322. In which between the following cases moist consonant rales may be heard:
A. * In combination of bronchitis with lung induration around the bronchus
(bronchopneumonia)
B. In lung emphysema
C. Accumulation of exsudate in the pleural cavity
D. Accumulation of transsudate in the pleural cavity
E. In attack of bronchial asthma
323. In which disease atypical cells appear in sputum?
A. Croupous pneumonia
B. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Lung abscess
E. * Lung cancer
324.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
325.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
326.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
327.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
328.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
329.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
330.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
331.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
332.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
In which disease elastic fibers appear in sputum?
Croupous pneumonia
Chronic obstructive bronchitis
Bronchial asthma
* Lung abscess
Chronic non-obstructive bronchitis
Infiltration of pulmonary tissue on X-ray film is typical for…
Tuberculosis
* Lobar pneumonia
Acute bronchitis
Bronchial asthma
Pleurisy with effusion
Intensification of bronchopulmonary pattern on X-ray film is typical for…
Focal pneumonia
Lobar pneumonia
* Chronic bronchitis
Bronchial asthma
Pleurisy with effusion
Intensified vesicular breathing is heard in such cases as:
Lung emphysema
* Thin chest wall
Liquid in the pleural cavity
Lung induration
Swelling of bronchial mucosa
Intensified vesicular breathing is heard in such pathological cases as:
* Lung emphysema
Thin chest wall
Lung induration
Liquid in pleural cavity
Pneumothorax
Intensified vesicular breathing is heard in such physiological cases as:
Physical examination
* Thin chest wall
Hypertrophy of chest muscles
Pulmonary emphysema
Pleuropneumonia, II stage
Lukerini’s test is used for…
* Differentiation of exssudate and transsudate
Determination of allergic sensitivity
Determination of sputum viscosity
Assessment of immune resistance
Assessment of blood coagulation
Lymphocytosis is typical for…
Focal pneumonia
Acute bronchitis
* Tuberculosis
Pleurisy with effusion
Lung cancer
Macrophages are present in sputum in…
Acute broncitis
Chronic bronchitis
Bronchiectasia
Pulmonary tissue destruction
* Pneumonia
333. Moist coarse consonant rales may be heard above…
A. * Lung abscess filled with pus and air and connected with a bronchus
B. Narrowed bronchi
C. Isolated cavern
D. Pleural liquid
E. Empty bronchiectasia
334. Neutrophil leycocytosis and shift to the left, toxic granulosity of neutrophils, increased ESR
– these signs are typical for …
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pulmonary emphysema
E. * Croupous pneumonia
335. Normal maximal lung ventilation is:
A. 20-40 l
B. 40-60 l
C. 60-100 l
D. * 80-200 l
E. 200-250 l
336. Normal minute volume respiration is:
A. 2-4 l
B. 4-5 l
C. * 4-8 l
D. 10-15 l
E. 15-20 l
337. Normal ratio between duration of inspiration and expiration is
A. * 1 : 1,2
B. 1,3 : 2
C. 2 : 2,3
D. 2,3 : 3
E. 3 : 3,3
338. Pathological bronchial breathing – this is:
A. Intensified bronchial breathing
B. Weakened bronchial breathing
C. * Bronchial breathing heard in atypical zones where normally vesicular breathing is heard
D. When bronchial breathing is absent in interscapular space
E. When bronchial breathing is absent at the larynx
339. Pathological bronchial breathing may be heard in the following disease\:
A. Pulmonary emphysema
B. Pneumothorax
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Pleurisy
E. * Pneumonia
340. Pathological bronchial breathing may be heard in the following syndrome:
A. Pulmonary emphysema
B. Pneumothorax
C. Accumclation of air and fluid in pleural cavity
D. Accumulation of fluid in pleural cavity
E. * Consolidation of pulmonary tissue
341. Pathological weakened vesicular breathing is typical for:
A. Physical loading
B. Thin chest wall
C. Well-developed superficial chest muscles
D. * Lung emphysema
E. Swelling of bronchial mucosa
342. Physiological weakened vesicular breathing is typical for:
A. Physical loading
B. Thin chest wall
C. * Well-developed (hypertrophied) superficial chest muscles
D. Lung emphysema
E. Pneumonia
343. Pleural friction is heard…
A. During inspiration and first 1/3 of expiration
B. In 1st phase of inspiration
C. In 1st phase of expiration
D. During inspiration and the last 1/3 of expiration
E. * During inspiration and expiration
344. Pneumotachymetry is the method for determination of
A. Arterial blood gases
B. Respiratory volumes
C. * Velocity of air streams
D. Location of pathological process in the lungs
E. Ethiology of disease of respiratory system
345. Poor bronchopulmonary pattern on X-ray film is typical for…
A. Focal pneumonia
B. Lobar pneumonia
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. * Bronchial asthma
E. Pleurisy with effusion
346. Poor bronchopulmonary pattern, elevation of diaphragm and horizontal ribs direction on Xray film is typical for…
A. * Pulmonary emphysema
B. Lobar pneumonia
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pleurisy with effusion
347. Pseudochylous exssudate is typical for:
A. Pneumonia
B. Lung cancer
C. * Syphilis with affection of serous cavities
D. Ascaridosis
E. Bronchial asthma
348. Purulent exssudate is typical for:
A. Pneumonia
B. Lung cancer
C. * Pleural ampyema
D. Ascaridosis
E. Bronchial asthma
349. Rales are heard…
A. During inspiration and first 1/3 of expiration
B. In 1st phase of inspiration
C. In 1st phase of expiration
D. During inspiration and the last 1/3 of expiration
E. * During inspiration and expiration
350. Rales originates…
A. In alveoli
B. * In bronchi
C. No any answer is correct
D. In larynx
E. Between pleural layers
351. Respiratory insufficiency of obstructive type develops due to:
A. Appearance of air in the pleural cavity
B. Limitation of the chest wall movements
C. * Obstruction of bronchial lumen
D. Diminishing of lungs' reespiratory surface
E. Diminishing of lungs parenchyma elasticity
352. Respiratory insufficiency of restiuctive type develops due to:
A. Appearance of air in the pleural cavity
B. Limitation of the chest wall movements
C. * All mentioned
D. Diminishing of lungs' reespiratory surface
E. Diminishing of lungs parenchyma elasticity
353. Round white ring on X-ray film of lungs is typical for…
A. Focal pneumonia
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Pleurisy with effusion
E. * Lung cancer
354. Spyragraphic examination lets to determine…
A. Arterial blood gases
B. Signs of pulmonary hypertension
C. Location of pathological process in the lungs
D. * Function of external respiration
E. Ethiology of disease of respiratory system
355. Spyrometry is the method for determination of
A. Arterial blood gases
B. * Respiratory volumes
C. Velocity of air streams
D. Location of pathological process in the lungs
E. Ethiology of disease of respiratory system
356. Patient D. suffers with bronchiectatic disease for 7 years. Now he is in exacerbation phase
and complais of severe cough. After one intensive coughing paroxysm he has developed
progressing dyspnea and oain in the chest. Bbandbox sound is obtain with percussion at the right
part of the chest while absence of breathing sounds - during auscultation Sudden decrease of vital
lung capacity ic recorded on spyrogram. What the presented data may suggest about?
A. Lung amyloidosis
B. Bronchial obstruction
C. Pneumonia
D. * Spontaneous pneumothorax
E. Empyema pleurae
357. The cause of restrictive type of respiratory failure may be all presented below except of:
A. Bronchial tumour which closes completely its lumen
B. Pneumofibrosis
C. Pneumonia
D. Pneumothorax
E. * Bronchial obstruction
358. The following auscultative criterion is typical for the syndrome of pulmonary emphysema…
A. Bronchial breathing
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Crepitation
D. * Weakened vesicular breathing and prolonged inspiration
E. Weakened vesicular breathing and prolonged expiration
359. The following auscultative criterion is typical for the syndrome of pulmonary tissue
consolidation…
A. * Bronchial breathing
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Crepitation
D. Weakened vesicular breathing
E. No correct answer
360. The following auscultative criterion is typical for the syndrome of liquid accumulation in
pleural cavity…
A. Bronchial breathing
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Crepitation
D. * Absent vesicular breathing at zone of liquid accumulation
E. Weakened vesicular breathing and prolonged expiration
361. The main respiratory sounds are:
A. Rales and crepitation
B. Pleural friction and rales
C. Vesicular breathing and rales
D. * Vesicular and bronchial breathing
E. Vesicular and harsh breathing
362. The most informative method for determination of origin of hemopthysis is…
A. * Bronchoscopy
B. Pneumotachymetry
C. Spyrography
D. Termography
E. 13С-respiratory test
363. The most informative method for diagnostics of pleurisy with effusion is…
A. Roentgenography
B. Fluorography
C. * Ultrasound examination of pleural cavity
D. Bronchoscopy
E. Bronchigraphy
364. The most often cause of hemopthysis is…
A. * Cancer and tuberculosis
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Acute bronchitis
E. Pneumonia
365. The reserve exspiratory volume is:
A. 300 ml
B. 800 ml
C. * 1500 ml
D. 1880 ml
E. 2000 ml
366. The reserve inspiratory volume is:
A. 100 ml
B. 1000 ml
C. * 1500 ml
D. 3000 ml
E. 4000 ml
367. Tiffneu index -this is ratio of:
A. Volumes of forced inspiration to expiration
B. * Volumes of forced inspiration to vital lung capacity
C. Volumes of forced inspiration to reserve inspiratory volume
D. Volumes of forced expiration to vital lung capacity
E. Volumes of forced expiration and inspiration vital lung capacity
368. Select the proper concentration for proteinin transsudate among the presented below:
A. * 20 g/l
B. 50 g/l
C. 60 g/l
D. 70 g/l
E. 80 g/l
369. Vesicular breathing in normal conditions originates in…
A. * Alveoli
B. Terminal bronchi
C. Medial bronchi
D. Large bronchi and trachea
E. Larynx
370. Vesicular breathing is heard…
A. * During inspiration and first 1/3 of expiration
B. In 1st phase of inspiration
C. In 1st phase of expiration
D. During inspiration and the last 1/3 of expiration
E. During inspiration and expiration
371. Vital lung capacity – this is a summation of…
A. Respiratory and residual volumes of lungs
B. * Respiratory volume, reserve inspiratory and expiratory volumes
C. Respiratory volume, reserve expiratory and minute volumes
D. Respiratory volume, reserve expiratory volume
E. Residual volume, reserve inspiratory and expiratory volumes
372. Weakened vesicular breathing with prolonged expiration are the signs of the following
syndrome…
A. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue
B. Air accumulation on pleural cavity
C. Fluid accumulation in pleural cavity
D. Accumulation of air and fluid in pleural cavity
E. * Bronchial obstruction
373. What does crepitatio indux suggest about?
A. Bronchial asthma attack
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. * Initial stage of croupous pneumonia
E. Final stage of croupous pneumonia
374. What does crepitatio redux suggest about?
A. Bronchial asthma attack
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Initial stage of croupous pneumonia
E. * Final stage of croupous pneumonia
375. What is hydrothorax?
A. It is a condition when lungs are overfilled with air
B. It is a condition when air penetrates into pleural cavity
C. * It is a condition when liquid is accumulated in pleural cavity
D. It is a condition when pulmonary tissue becomes solid
E. Presence of cavity in the lungs
376. What is pneumothorax?
A. It is a condition when lungs are overfilled with air
B. * It is a condition when air penetrates into pleural cavity
C.
D.
E.
377.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
378.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
379.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
380.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
381.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
382.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
383.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
384.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
385.
A.
B.
It is a condition when liquid is accumulated pleural cavity
It is a condition when pulmonary tissue becomes solid
Presence of cavity in the lungs
What is pulmonary emphysema?
* It is a condition when lungs are overfilled with air
It is a condition when air penetrates into pleural cavity
It is a condition when liquid is accumulated pleural cavity
It is a condition when pulmonary tissue becomes solid
Presence of cavity in the lungs
What is syndrome of pulmonary tissue consolidation
It is a condition when lungs are overfilled with air
It is a condition when air penetrates into pleural cavity
It is a condition when liquid is accumulated pleural cavity
* It is a condition when pulmonary tissue becomes solid
Presence of cavity in the lungs
What is typical for croupous pneumonia?
* Decreased vital lung capacity
Increased vital lung capacity
Increased residual volume
Increased minute lung ventilation
Respiratory acidosis
What onset is typical for bronchopneumonia?
Sharp
Acute
Prolonged
* Gradual
Dilated
What provoking factor is the most often met in bronchopneumonia?
Overeating
Overcooling
* Viral or bacterial bronchitis
Physical overload
All mentioned
What provoking factor is the most often met in pleuropneumonia?
Overeating
* Overcooling
Viral or bacterial bronchitis
Physical overload
All mentioned
Where do coarse moist rales originate
In bronchioli
* In large bronchi or trachea
In medial bronchi
In alveoli
In larynx
Where do fine moist rales originate
* In bronchioli
In large bronchi or trachea
In medial bronchi
In alveoli
In larynx
Where do mediane moist rales originate
In bronchioli
In large bronchi or trachea
C. * In medial bronchi
D. In alveoli
E. In larynx
386. Which adventitious examination is it necessary to execute for diagnostics of pneumonia?
A. * Chest X-ray
B. Examination of stomach content
C. Duodenal probing
D. Analysis of feces for helmints ova
E. Immunological examination of blood serum
387. Which adventitious examination is it necessary to execute for diagnostics of bronchial
asthma?
A. Complete blood count
B. * Pneumotachymetry
C. Plan chest X-ray
D. Contrast chest X-ray
E. Computer tomography
388. Which changes may be revealed on X-ray in bronchial asthma?
A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. * Poor lung pattern, flat diaphragm
C. Multiple small focci in the lungs
D. Cavity in the lung
E. Norm
389. Which changes may be revealed on X-ray in pneumonia?
A. * Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. Lung emphysema
C. Multiple small focci in the lungs
D. Cavity in the lung
E. Norm
390. Which changes of main respiratory sounds are diffuse dry rales usually combined with?
A. Amphoric breathing
B. * Harsh breathing
C. Pueril respiration
D. Interrupted breathing
E. Intensified vesicular breathing
391. Which changes of vocal fremitus, bronchophony and percussion soung are typical for
pulmonary tissue consolidation?
A. * Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percussion sound will be dull, bronchophony will be
intensified
B. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percussion sound will be dull, bronchophony will be
weakened
C. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percussion sound will be dull-to-thympany, bronchophony
will be weakened
D. Vocal fremitus will not be changed, percussion sound will be resonant, bronchophony will
not be changed
E. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percussion sound will be tympanic, bronchophony will be
intensified
392. Which changes will be on X-ray in cavity in the lungs?
A. Ring-like reserved shade with horizontal level
B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diaphragm
C. Pointed lung pattern
D. * Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge
E. Homogenous reserved shade of high density
393. Which changes will be on X-ray in pleurisy with effusion?
A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diaphragm
C. Pointed lung pattern
D. * Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge
E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungs, enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes.
394. Which changes will be on X-ray in pneumofibrosis?
A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diaphragm
C. * Pointed lung pattern
D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge
E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungs, enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes.
395. Which changes will be on X-ray in pneumonia?
A. * Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diaphragm
C. Pointed lung pattern
D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge
E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungs, enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes
396. Which changes will be on X-ray in pulmonary emphysema?
A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. * Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diaphragm
C. Pointed lung pattern
D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge
E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungsm enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes.
397. Which character of pain will be in pleurisy with effusion?
A. * Pressing
B. Pierching
C. Stubbing
D. No pain
E. Cutting
398. Which data may be found by auscultation in a patient with lung abscess after its drainage
and complete emptying?
A. Vesicular breathing
B. * Amphoric breathing
C. Harsh breathing
D. Harsh breathing with prolonged expiration
E. Bronchial breathing
399. Which data of auscultation of lungs are present in a healthy individual?
A. Bronchial breathing
B. Vesicular breathing
C. * Vesicular breathing over lung parenchyma and bronchial breathing in intrascapular region
D. Amphoric breathing at projection of the cavern
E. Bronchovesicular breathing
400. Which data of auscultation is to be expected above affected part of the lung in cavernous
tuberculosis?
A. Bronchial breathing
B. * Amphoric breathing at projection of the cavern
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchovesicular breathing
E. Weakened vesicular breathing
401. Which data of auscultation is to be expected above affected lung in pneumothorax?
A. Bronchial breathing
B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchovesicular breathing
E. * Absent respiratory breathing on affected side
402. Which data of auscultation is to be expected above affected part of the lung in dry pleurisy?
A. Dry whistling rales
B. Dry buzzing rales
C. Moist rales
D. Crepitation
E. * Pleural friction
403. Which data of auscultation is to be expected above affected part of the lung in pleurisy with
effusion?
A. Bronchial breathing
B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchovesicular breathing
E. * Weakened vesicular breathing of even absent over affected side
404. Which data of auscultation will be above affected part of the lung in II stage of lobar
pneumonia (corresponds to pulmonary tissue consolidation)?
A. * Bronchial breathing
B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchovesicular breathing
E. Weakened vesicular breathing
405. Which disease is sputum with sharp unpleasant smell typical for?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. * Lung gangroene
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Lung infarction
E. Pneumonia
406. Which elements are to be obviously present in pleural fluid in pleural empyema?
A. Atypical cells
B. Mesotelial cells
C. * Bacteria
D. Erythrpcites
E. Lymphocytes
407. Which elements in sputum are typical for croupous pneumonia?
A. Fridlender’s bacilli
B. * Cocci, macrophages
C. Mycobacteria
D. Pneumococci
E. Erythrocytes
408. Which elements in sputum are typical for tuberculosis?
A. Fridlender’s bacilli
B. Charcot-Leyden’s crystals
C. * Mycobacteria
D. Pneumococci
E. Erythrocytes
409. Which index of FEV1 corresponds to norm?
A. * >80 %, deviation
B. >80 %, deviation =20-30 %.
C. . 60-80 % , deviation >30 %.
D. 60 %, deviation > 30 %.
E. 55 %, deviation = 25 %.
410. Which examination method is it necessary to execute for verification of pneumonia?
A. * X-ray of the chest
B. Computer tomography
C. Bronchoscopy
D.
E.
411.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
412.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
413.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
414.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
415.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
416.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
417.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
418.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
419.
A.
B.
C.
Bronchigraphy
ECG
Which pathological conditions is crepitation typical for?
* Congestive heart failure
Bronchitis
Dry pleurisy
Lung emphysema
Pleurisy with effusion
Which pathological conditions crepitation is typical for?
* Pneumonia
Bronchitis
Dry pleurisy
Lung emphysema
Pleurisy with eefusion
Which pathological conditions are dry rales typical for?
Pneumonia, especially lobar one
* Bronchitis
Dry pleurisy
Lung emphysema
Atelectasis
Which pathological conditions are dry low-pitched rales typical for?
Pneumonia
* Chronic bronchitis
Dry pleurisy
Pulmonary emphysema
Pleurisy with eefusion
Which reasons for pulmonary tissue consolidation do you know?
Accumulation of liquid in alveoli
Replacement of pulmonary tissue to connective one
Tumour in the lungs
Atelectasis
* All mentioned above
Accentuation of II heart sound above pulmonary artery occurs in:
Aortal stenosis;
* Pulmonary artery thrombembolism
Syphilitic mesaortitis;
Atherosclerosis of aorta;
Acute catarrhal bronchitis.
Accentuation of II heart sound above pulmonary artery occurs in:
Aortal stenosis;
* Mitral incompetence
Syphilitic mesaortitis;
Atherosclerosis of aorta;
Acute catarrhal bronchitis
Accentuation of II heart sound above pulmonary artery occurs in:
Aortal stenosis;
* Bronchial asthma attack
Syphilitic mesaortitis;
Atherosclerosis of aorta;
Acute catarrhal bronchitis
Accentuation of П heart sound above the aorta is observed in:
Mitral incompetence;
Mitral stenosis;
* Aortal stenosis
D. Hypertension in lesser circulation;
E. arterial hypotension.
420. Conduction of murmur in aortic valvular defects:
A. Left axillary region
B. Botkin-Erb’s point;
C. Right axillary region
D. * Intascapular space
E. Epigastyrium
421. Conduction of murmur in mitral valvular defects:
A. * Left axillary region
B. Botkin-Erb’s point;
C. Right axillary region
D. Intascapular space
E. Epigastyrium
422. Durosier’s murmur at femoral artery is observed in:
A. Anemias
B. * Aortal incompetence
C. Aortal stenosis
D. Mitral incompetence
E. Mitral stenosis
423. Evaluate such ECG findings: P wave in I, aVL and V5-6 is double-headed and broad, in III,
aVF and V1 it is flat?
A. Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle
B. Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle,
C. Hyperthrophy of the right atrium,
D. * Hyperthrophy of the left atrium,
E. Norm
424. Evaluate such ECG findings: P wave is high and acute in leads III, aVF, in V1 is 3-4 mm,
of acute shape, in I, aVL and V5-6 is flat?
A. Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle
B. Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle,
C. * Hyperthrophy of the right atrium,
D. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium,
E. Norm
425. Functional systolic murmur differs from organic one because it:
A. Does not depend on a phase of respiration
B. Is rasping, sonorous, long
C. Does not vary at exertion;
D. * Is not conducted
E. Is heard at all points of auscultation.
426. Functional systolic murmur differs from organic one because it:
A. Does not depend on a phase of respiration
B. Is high-pitched, rasping, loud, long
C. Does not vary at exertion;
D. * Is always blowing and of low pitch
E. Is heard at all points of auscultation.
427. Functional systolic murmur differs from organic one because it:
A. Does not depend on a phase of respiration
B. Is high-pitched, rasping, loud, long
C. Does not vary at exertion;
D. * May change in different situations
E. Is heard at all points of auscultation.
428. Functional systolic murmur differs from organic one because it:
A. * Depends on a phase of respiration
B. Is high-pitched, rasping, loud, long
C. Does not vary at exertion;
D. Does not change in different situations (permanent)
E. Is heard at all points of auscultation.
429. Functional systolic murmur differs from organic one because it:
A. Does not depend on a phase of respiration
B. Is high-pitched, rasping, loud, long
C. * Varies at exertion;
D. Does not change in different situations (permanent)
E. Is heard at all points of auscultation.
430. Functional systolic murmur differs from organic one because it:
A. Does not depend on a phase of respiration
B. Is high-pitched, rasping, loud, long
C. Does not vary at exertion;
D. * Is heard only at pulmonary trunk or apex
E. Is heard at all points of auscultation.
431. Horizontal heart electrical axis position: value of angle alfa is equal to:
A. -30° to -60°;
B. 0° to -30°;
C. * 0° to +30°;
D. +30° to +69°;
E. +70° to +90°.
432. Murmur in valvular heart defects is better heard above:
A. Zone of relative heart dullness
B. Heart apex
C. Zone of absolute heart dullness
D. At xyphoid process
E. *Standard points of auscultation of valves
433. Select the normal duration of QRS complex:
A. * 0,1 sec
B. 0,12 sec
C. 0,14 sec
D. 0,16 sec
E. 0,18 sec
434. Normal position of ST segment on ECG curve?
A. On izoelectrical line
B. * May deviate from izoelectrical line not more than on 1 mm
C. May deviate from izoelectrical line not more than on 2 mm
D. May deviate from izoelectrical line not more than on 3 mm
E. May deviate from izoelectrical line not more than on 4 mm
435. Periodical intensification of 1 heart sound at heart apex is typical for:
A. Mitral incompetence
B. * Extrasystoly
C. Hypertension
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Myocarditis
436. Place of auscultation of murmur in aortal incompetence except of second intercostal space
righwards from the sternum :
A. Heart apex;
B. * Botkin-Erb’s point;
C. Second intercostal space leftwards from the sternum;
D. Jugular fossa.
E. Xyphoid process
437. Place of auscultation of murmur in mitral incompetence:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
438.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
439.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
440.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
441.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
442.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
443.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
444.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
445.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
446.
* Heart apex;
Botkin-Erb’s point;
Second intercostal space righwards from the sternum
Second intercostal space leftwards from the sternum;
Fifth intercostal space righwards from the sternum.
Place of auscultation of murmur in mitral stenosis:
* Heart apex;
Botkin-Erb’s point;
Second intercostal space righwards from the sternum
Second intercostal space leftwards from the sternum;
Fifth intercostal space righwards from the sternum.
Pleuropericardial friction murmur is better heard above:
* Borders of relative heart dullness
Heart apex
Zone of absolute heart dullness
At xyphoid process
Standard points of auscultation of valves
Splitting of IІ heart sound in a healthy children and young persons may be heard in:
Deep expiration
* Deep inspiration
Physical exercises
During sleep
Is not heard in no any case
Splitting of І heart sound In a healthy children and young persons may be heard in:
* Deep expiration
Deep inspiration
Physical exercises
During sleep
Is not heard in no any case
Vertical heart electrical axis position: value of angle alfa is equal to:
-30° to -60°;
0° to -30°;
0° to +30°;
+30° to +69°;
* +70° to +90°.
Which auscultative fenomenon (cardiac melody) includes opening snup sound?
Presystolic gallop rrhythm
Pendulum rrhythm
Protodiastolic gallop rrhythm
*Tripple rrhythm
All mentioned
Which auscultative fenomenon is observed above femoral artery in aortal incompetence?
* Durosier’s murmur
Opening snup sound
Pendulum rrhythm
Gallop rrhythm
Pericardial click
Which auscultative fenomenon is observed above femoral artery in aortal incompetence?
* Double Traube’s sound
Opening snup sound
Pendulum rrhythm
Gallop rrhythm
Pericardial click
Which auscultative fenomenon is observed in mitral stenosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
447.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
448.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
449.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
450.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
451.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
452.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
453.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
454.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
455.
Durosier’s murmur
* Opening snup sound
Pendulum rrhythm
Gallop rrhythm
Pericardial click
Which auscultative fenomenon is observed in pericardial adhesions?
Durosier’s murmur
Opening snup sound
Pendulum rrhythm
Gallop rrhythm
* Pericardial click
Which auscultative fenomenon is observed in severe tachycardia?
Durosier’s murmur
Opening snup sound
* Pendulum rrhythm
Gallop rrhythm
Pericardial click
Which auscultative fenomenon is observed in severe myocardial affections?
Durosier’s murmur
Opening snup sound
Pendulum rrhythm
* Gallop rrhythm
Pericardial click
Which heart defect is the organic ejection diastolic murmur typical for?
* Mitral incompetence
Aortal incompetence
Aortic stenosis
Stenosis of pulmonary artery;
Tricuspid valve stenosis.
Which heart defect is the organic ejection diastolic murmur typical for?
Mitral valve stenosis
Aortal incompetence
Aortic stenosis
Stenosis of pulmonary artery;
* Tricuspid incompetence.
Which heart defect is the organic ejection systolic murmur typical for?
Stenosis of mitral orifice
* Stenosis of aortic orifice
Aortic incompetence
Pulmonary artery valvular stenosis;
Tricuspid valve incompetence.
Which heart defect is the organic ejection systolic murmur typical for?
Stenosis of mitral orifice
Mitral incompetence
Aortic incompetence
* Stenosis of pulmonary artery valve;
Tricuspid valve incompetence.
Which heart defect is the organic regurgitation diastolic murmur typical for?
* Aortal incompetence
Mitral incompetence
Aortic incompetence
Stenosis of pulmonary artery;
Tricuspid valve stenosis.
Which heart defect is the organic regurgitation diastolic murmur typical for?
A. Aortal stenosis
B. Mitral incompetence
C. Aortic incompetence
D. * pulmonary artery valve incompetence;
E. Tricuspid valve stenosis.
456. Which heart defect is the organic regurgitation systolic murmur typical for?
A. Aortal incompetence
B. * Mitral incompetence
C. Aortic incompetence
D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery;
E. Tricuspid valve stenosis.
457. Which heart defect is the organic regurgitation systolic murmur typical for?
A. Aortal incompetence
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Aortic incompetence
D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery;
E. * Tricuspid valve incompetence.
458. Pericardial friction murmur is better heard above:
A. Zone of relative heart dullness
B. Heart apex
C. * Zone of absolute heart dullness
D. At xyphoid process
E. Botkin-Erb’s point
459. Accentuation of II heart sound above pulmonary artery occurs in:
A. . Hypertension in larger circulation
B. * Hypertension in lesser circulation
C. In systemic arterial hypertension
D. In myocardial infarction
E. In emotional stress
460. Accentuation of II heart sound above pulmonary artery occurs in:
A. Aortal stenosis;
B. * Mitral stenosis
C. Syphilitic mesaortitis;
D. Atherosclerosis of aorta;
E. Acute catarrhal bronchitis.
461. Accentuation of П heart sound above the aorta is observed in:
A. Mitral incompetence;
B. Mitral stenosis;
C. * Arterial hypertension;
D. Hypertension in lesser circulation;
E. Arterial hypotension.
462. Double Traube’s sound is observed in:
A. Anemias
B. * Aortal incompetence
C. Aortal stenosis
D. Mitral incompetence
E. Mitral stenosis
463. During analysis of ECG a student has made a conclusion that electrical heart axis is not
deviated. What signs are necessary to find out in ECG standard leads to make such a conclusion?
A. In the I standard lead wave R is the highest while in the III the – wave S is the deepest.
B. In the III standard lead wave R is the highest while in the I the – wave S is the deepest.
C. Wave R is the highest in the I standard lead.
D. * Wave R is the highest in the II standard lead
E. Wave R is the highest in the III standard lead
464. During analysis of ECG a student has noticed that the wave P is negative in lead aVR, its
duration is 0,08 sec. In which case may it be?
A. Hyperthrophy of both atriums
B. * In norm
C. In intraatrial block
D. In atrial extrasystole
E. In myocardial infarction of anterriolateral wall of the left ventracle.
465. During examination of patient S. aortal stenosis was revealed. Which murmur may be heard
by auscultation?
A. * Systolic at aortal valve
B. Diastolic at Botkin-Erb’s point,
C. Systolic at heart apex
D. Diastolic at aortal valve
E. Diastolic at heart apex.
466. Evaluate such correlation of the waves: RI>RII>RIII; Rv6>Rv5>Rv4; RI + RII+ RIII =16
mm, prolongation of QRS.
A. * Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle
B. Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle,
C. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium,
D. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium,
E. Norm
467. Evaluate such correlation of the waves: RIII> RII> RI; Rv1v2> Rv4> Rv5,v6, prolongation
of QRS.
A. Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle,
B. * Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle
C. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium
D. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium,
E. Norm
468. Functional murmurs in anemia are often:
A. Systolic
B. Diastolic
C. Protodiastolic
D. Presystolic
E. * Systolodiastolic
469. In the norm it is possible to to listen to the:
A. * III sound
B. IV sound,
C. Extra-pericardial sound
D. Gallop rrhythm,
E. Opening snup
470. In the V interspace 1-1,5 cm medially from the left midclavicular line it is possible to listen
to:
A. Aortal valve
B. Pulmonary trunk valve
C. * Mitral valve
D. Tricuspid valve
E. No any heart valve
471. In which disease is weakening of I heart sound observed?
A. Extrasystole
B. Simultaneous systoles of atria and ventricles
C. * Myocardiosclerosis
D. Stenosis of mitral aperture
E. Disorders of heart conduction
472. Intensification of 1 heart sound at heart apex is typical for:
A. Mitral incompetence
B. * Mitral stenosis
C. Hypertension
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Myocarditis
473. Intensification of the first heart sound is observed in:
A. Myocardial infarction;
B. * Simultaneous systoles of atria and ventricles
C. Complete atrioventricular block
D. Myocarditis
E. Heavy chronic anemia.
474. Weakening of the first heart sound is observed in:
A. *Mirtal incompletence
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Aortal valve calcification;
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Arterial hypertension
475. Metallic tint of II heart sound above the aorta may be present in:
A. Aortal incompetence
B. Aortal stenosis of rheumatic origin;
C. * Induration of aortal valve due to atherosclerosis;
D. Left ventricular hyperthrophy
E. Right ventricular hyperthrophy.
476. Place of auscultation of murmur in aortic incompetence:
A. Heart apex;
B. * Botkin-Erb’s point;
C. 3rd intercostal space righwards from the sternum
D. 3rd intercostal space leftwards from the sternum
E. Fifth intercostal space righwards from the sternum
477. Place of auscultation of murmur in aortic stenosis:
A. Heart apex;
B. Botkin-Erb’s point;
C. * Second intercostal space righwards from the sternum
D. Second intercostal space leftwards from the sternum;
E. Fifth intercostal space righwards from the sternum.
478. Projection of aortal valve on the chest wall is the following:
A. II intercostal space leftward of the sternum
B. * At the midpoint of the line connecting II costal cartilages of left and right ribs
C. Leftward of the sternum at the point of junction of the Ш rib with the sternum
D. At the midpoint of the line connecting junction of the Ш left rib and junction of V left rib to
the sternum
E. At the level of 3rd ribs at the midpoint of the sternum
479. Projection of mitral valve on the chest wall is the following:
A. II intercostal space leftward of the sternum
B. At the midpoint of the line connecting II costal cartilages of left and right ribs
C. * Leftward of the sternum at the point of junction of the Ш rib with the sternum
D. At the midpoint of the line connecting junction of the Ш left rib and junction of V left rib to
the sternum
E. At the level of 3rd ribs
480. Projection of pulmonary trunk valve to the chest wall is the following:
A. * II intercostal space leftward of the sternum
B. At the midpoint of the line connecting II costal cartilages of left and right ribs
C. Leftward of the sternum at the point of junction of the Ш rib with the sternum
D. At the midpoint of the line connecting junction of the Ш left rib and junction of V left rib to
the sternum
E. At the level of 3rd ribs
481. Projection of tricuspid valve on the chest wall
A. II intercostal space leftward of the sternum
B. At the midpoint of the line connecting II costal cartilages of left and right ribs
C. Leftward of the sternum at the point of junction of the Ш rib to the sternum
D. * At the midpoint of the line connecting junction of the III left rib and junction of V left rib
to the sternum
E. At the level of 3rd ribs
482. Protodiastolic, mesodiastolic or presystolic murmurs at heart apex are observed in:
A. * Mitral stenosis
B. Mitral incompetence
C. Aortal incompetence
D. Aortal stenosis
E. The cause is not indicated
483. Relative systolic murmur differs from organic one in such a way:
A. It doesn’t depend on respiratory phases;
B. It is hough, loud and long;
C. It doesn’t change in physical load
D. * Is not transmitted (“dies at the place of occurence”);
E. It is heard in all points of auscultation.
484. Slupping І sound at heart apex is typical for:
A. Mitral incompetence;
B. Aortal stenosis;
C. Aortal incompetence;
D. * Mitral stenosis;
E. Pneumosclerosis
485. Splitting of І heart sound is typical for:
A. Atrioventricular block
B. * Ventricular block of impulse conduction
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Angina pectoris
486. Splitting of ІІ heart sound at pulmonary artery is observed in
A. Aortal incompetence
B. Aortal stenosis
C. Acute bronchitis
D. * Mitral stenosis
E. Rheumatic myocarditis
487. Normal value of electric axis of the heart (angle ά) is equal to:
A. -30° to -60°;
B. 0° to -30°;
C. 0° to +30°;
D. * +30° to +69°;
E. +70° to +90°.
488. Weakening of 1 heart sound is typical for:
A. Extrasystoly
B. Synchronous systoly of atriums and ventricles, complete atrioventricular block;
C. * Myocardiosclerosis
D. Mitral stenosis;
E. Coffeinomania
489. What ECG-signs of left atrial hyperthrophy do you know?
A. Rising of amplitude of wave P.
B. Rising of amplitude of wave R.
C. Decreasing of amplitude of wave R.
D. Duration of wave P is not changed.
E. * Appearance of byphasic P wave.
490. What is the diffecence of pericardial friction murmur and organic systolic and diastolic
murmurs?
A. It is nit detectible by palpation;
B. Intensifies if a patient bends backward;
C. * Intensifies if a patient bends forward;
D. Doesn’t coinside with systole and diastole;
E. Weak; of low intensity
491. Where is Botkin-Erb’s point located?
A. V interspace 1-1,5 cm medially from the left midclavicular line
B. II interspace leftward of the sternum
C. * III-IV interspaces leftward of the sternum
D. At the xyphoid process
E. II interspace rightward of the sternum
492. Which heart defect the organic systolic murmur is typial for?
A. Stenosis of mitral orifice
B. * Stenosis of aortic orifice
C. Aortic incompetence
D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery;
E. Tricuspid valve incompetence.
493. Which among presented below murmurs are extracardial?
A. Kumb’s, Flint’s and Grahaim-Steel’s murmurs
B. Precardial, cardiopulmonic, pleuropericardial, Kumb’s, Flint’s and Grahaim-Steel’s
murmurs
C. Precardial, cardiopulmonic, pleuropericardial, Kumb’s murmurs
D. * Pericardial and pleuropericardial friction murmurs
E. Flint’s, precardial, cardiopulmonic murmurs
494. Which organic murmur at heart apex resembles sensation of a cat’s purr?
A. Systolic murmur of the mitral valve inompetence
B. * Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis
C. Systolic murmur of aortic stenosis
D. Diastolic murmur of aortic incompetence
E. Systolic murmur of stenosis of pulmonary artery
495. Which organic murmur gives the filling of “cat’s purr” at heart apex?
A. Sytolic murmur in mitral incompetence
B. * Diastolic murmur in mitral stenosis;
C. Systolic murmur in aortal stenosis;
D. Diastolic murmur in aortal incompetence;
E. Systolic murmur in in anemia
496. Place of auscultation of murmur in aortic incompetence:
A. Heart apex;
B. * 2nd intercostal space righwards from the sternum
C. 3rd intercostal space righwards from the sternum
D. 3rd intercostal space leftwards from the sternum
E. Fifth intercostal space righwards from the sternum
497. Which organic murmur gives the filling of “cat’s purr” at basis of the heart?
A. Systolic murmur in mitral incompetence
B. Diastolic murmur in mitral stenosis;
C. *Sstolic murmur in aortal stenosis;
D. Diastolic murmur in aortal incompetence;
E. Systolic murmur in in anemia
498. Which characteristics are typical for pain pattern in chronic hepatitis?
A. Located in epigastrium, appears on empty stomach
B. Night pain in epigastrium
C. Girdling pain in 1-2 hours after meal
D. Located in left hypochondrium, occurs in physical load
E. *Location in right hypochondrium, occurs in physical load
499. A patient has peptic ulcer and pylorostenosis. Which character of vomiting masses will be in
this case?
A. Vomit with admixtions of bile
B. Vomit with admixtions of blood
C. Mucus and pus in vomiting masses
D. Undigested food in vomiting masses
E. * Vomiting with food used a day before
500. Which data among the follofing indicate on decreased liver detoxication function?:
A. hyperbilirubinemia, hypoproteinemia, hypoazotemia
B. hyperbilirubinemia, hypoproteinemia, hypophenolemia
C. * hyperazotemia, hyperphenolemia, increased potassium concentration in the blood
D. hypoazotemia, hyperphenolemia, decreased potassium concentration in the blood
E. hypoazotemia, hypophenolemia, hyperammonemia
501. Accumulation of liquid in abdominal cavity is called:
A. * Ascites
B. Hydrothorax
C. Pneumothorax
D. Hydropericardium
E. Exsudate
502. What pain pattern is typical for billiary colick?
A. Discomfort in right subcostal area
B. Epigastric pain on hunger or at night
C. * Intensive, paroxysmal pain in right subcostal area
D. Distension pain in the mesogastrium
E. Discomfort in left subcostal area
503. What pain pattern is typical for chronic hepatitis?
A. * Dull-boring or mild pressing pain in right subcostal area
B. Epigastric pain on hunger or at night
C. Intensive, paroxysmal pain in right subcostal area
D. Distension pain in the mesogastrium
E. Discomfort in left subcostal area
504. In diseases of a liver and gallbladder pain may develop due to all reasons except of:
A. Distension of Glisson’s capsule
B. Spastic contractions of a gallbladder
C. Inflammation of Glisson’s capsule
D. Inflammation and distension of gallbladder walls
E. * Destruction of hepatocites
505. Select the proper appearance of xanthomas:
A. They look like angiomas elevated above the skin
B. * They look like yellow plaques
C. They look like excoriations
D. They look like hemorrhagic rash
E. They look like nettle rash
506. Inflammatory diseases of the liver include:
A. Wilson disease
B. * Hepatitis
C. Gilbert syndrome
D. Hydatid disease of the liver
E.
507.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
508.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
509.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
510.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
511.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
512.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
513.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
514.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
515.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Agenesis of the liver
Itching of the skin in liver diseases indicates on:
Presence of duodenogastric reflux
* Increased content of bile acids due to cholestasis
Affected proteins production by a liver
Deranged process of bilirubin conjugation
Increase of detoxication function of a liver
Laboratory examination of feces for scant blood may be positive:
In microbleeding from the ulcer of a stomach or intestine
In microbleeding from a tumour of gastrointestinal tract
In nonspecific ulcerous colitis
In intake of meet during meals
* All mentioned above
Which data among the follofing indicate on decreased synthetic function of a liver?
* Hypoalbuminemia, decreased levels of fibrinogenum and prothrombin
Hyperbilirubinemia, decreased levels of fibrinogenum and prothrombin
Hypoalbuminemia, hypercholesterolemia, hyperazotemia
Hyperbilirubinemia, hypercholesterolemia, hyperazotemia
Hyperalbuminemia, decreased levels of fibrinogenum and prothrombin
Cholelithiasis is a violation of metabolism:
Cholesterol
Bilirubin
Bile acids
* All of the above
Everything is wrong
Cholestasis is important in the development of:
* Cholelithiasis
Urolithiasis
Gastric ulcer
Obesity
Carditis
Chronic cholecystocholangitis is the chronic inflammation of:
Stomach and duodenum
Stomach and gall bladder
* A gallbladder and bile ducts
A gallbladder and pancreas
Stomach and bile ducts
Dilatation of anterior abdominal wall veins are typical for:
Bile ducts dyskinesia
* Cholecystocholangitis
Gastritis
Duodenitis
Colitis
Enlargement of a liver is typical for:
Bile ducts dyskinesia
*Cholecystocholangitis
Gastritis
Pancreatitis
Colitis
Factors contributing to the development of gallstone disease
Genetic predisposition
Metabolic changes
bBle ducts dysfunction
Cholestasis
E.
516.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
517.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
518.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
519.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
520.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
521.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
522.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
523.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
524.
A.
B.
C.
D.
* All of the above
Factors contributing to the development of gallstone disease:
Viral diseases
* Obesity
Prolonged hypothermia
Insolation
All of the above
What is typical for cholelythiasis?
* Intensive, paroxysmal pain in right subcostal area
Distension , permanent pain in the mesogastrium
Dull, aching pain in right subcostal area
Pain in right subcostal area on empty stomach
Intensive, paroxysmal pain in left subcostal area
The next symptoms are typical for chronic cholecystitis:
*Pain in the right hypochondrium after intake of fatty or fried food
Pain in a stomach after the physical loading
Pain in the right hypochondrium after asleep
Pain in the right hypochondrium during urination
Pain in the right hypochondrium before asleep
The next symptoms are typical for chronic hepatitis:
* Pain in the right hypochondrium, hepatosplenomegaly
Pain in the left hypochondrium
Diarrhea, intoxication
Splenomegaly, jaundice
Pain in the stomach
What is typical for dyspepsic syndrome in diseases of a gallbladder?
Diarrhea after the use of milk
Diarrhea is frequent, profuse
No changes
* Periodical constipation
Diarrhea before the use of milk
Gallstones are divided on:
* Pigment and cholesterol
Bilirubin and phosphorous
Calcium and cholesterol
Pigment and magnesium
All of the above
Markers of chronic hepatitis B are:
* HBe Ag, HBs Ag, HBV-DNA, anti-HBe Ig G, anti-HBs Ig G
HAV-RNA, anti-HAV Ig M, anti-HAV Ig G
HСV-RNA, anti-HСV Ig M
HBs Ag, HDV-RNA, anti-HDV Ig M, anti-HBe Ig M
HGV-RNA, anti-E2 HGV
Markers of chronic hepatitis D are:
HBe Ag, HBs Ag, HBV-DNA, anti-HBe Ig G, anti-HBs Ig G
HAV-RNA, anti-HAV Ig M, anti-HAV Ig G
HСV-RNA, anti-HСV Ig M
* HBs Ag, HDV-RNA, anti-HDV Ig M, anti-HBe Ig M
HGV-RNA, anti-E2 HGV
Markers of chronic hepatitis G are:
HBe Ag, HBs Ag, HBV-DNA, anti-HBe Ig G, anti-HBs Ig G
HAV-RNA, anti-HAV Ig M, anti-HAV Ig G
HСV-RNA, anti-HСV Ig M
HBs Ag, HDV-RNA, anti-HDV Ig M, anti-HBe Ig M
E.
525.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
526.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
527.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
528.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
529.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
530.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
531.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
532.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
533.
A.
B.
C.
D.
* HGV-RNA, anti-E2 HGV
Markers of chronic hepatitis С are:
HBe Ag, HBs Ag, HBV-DNA, anti-HBe Ig G, anti-HBs Ig G
HAV-RNA, anti-HAV Ig M, anti-HAV Ig G
* HСV-RNA, anti-HСV Ig M
HBs Ag, HDV-RNA, anti-HDV Ig M, anti-HBe Ig M
HGV-RNA, anti-E2 HGV
Name basic clinical signs of cholestasis syndrome:
* Jaundice, skin itching
Jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly
Pallor, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly
Stomach-aches, jaundice
Pallor, skin itching
Name character of pain in perforation of stomach ulcer:
Boring
Burning
Pressing
* “Knife-like”
Belting
Name typical signs of stomach cancer:
Loss of appetite (disgust for meat)
Marked loss of body weight for short period of time
Pain in the upper andomen (sometimes very intensive)
Periodical “unexplained” diarrhea
* All mentioned
Pain in the inguinal area relates to:
Presence of gastritis
Presence of duodenitis
* Presence of spastic colitis
Presence of pancreatitis
Normal finding
Positive Ortner’s sign is characteristic for:
Gastritis
Pancreatitis
* Cholecystocholangitis, hepatitis
Duodenitis
Colitis
Positive thymol test is characteristic for:
Gastritis
Pancreatitis
* Cholecystocholangitis, hepatitis
Duodenitis
Colitis
Presence of asterixis is characteristic for:
Gastritis
Duodenitis
* Hepatic insufficiency
Bile ducts dyskinesia
Colitis
The main ethiologic factor of chronic hepatitis is:
Bacteria
Parasites
* Virus
Fungi
E. Bile
534. The syndrome of "cholestasis" includes the increased levels of:
A. * АsАТ, АlАТ, total bilirubin
B. Cholesterol, direct bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase
C. Cholesterol, indirect bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase
D. General bilirubin, remaining nitrogen
E. General bilirubin, АsАТ, АlАТ
535. The syndrome of "cytolysis" includes:
A. * Increase of the АsАТ level, АlАТ, LDG, bilirubin
B. Increase level of cholesterol, iron, LDG
C. Decrease level of proteins, cholesterol, bilirubin, СRP
D. Decrease level of СRP, remaining nitrogen, АsАТ, АlАТ
E. Decrease of the АsАТ level, АlАТ, LDG, bilirubin
536. To the obvious biochemical researches for patients with the diseases of hepatobiliary system
belong the folloving:
A. General albumen, CRP, seromucoid, bilirubin
B. * General protein and fractions, transaminases, bilirubin, cholesterol
C. General protein and fractions, urea, creatinin, cholesterol
D. General protein and fractions, CRP, seromucoid, urea
E. General protein and fractions, CRP, cholesterol
537. What do cholesterol stones consist of?
A. Bilirubin
B. Proteins
C. Lecithin
D. Bile acids
E. * All of the above
538. What are the signs of bile lithogenicity in biochemical blood analysis?
A. Lower cholesterol, bilirubin, increased concentration of bile acids
B. * Increased levels of cholesterol, bilirubin, reducing the concentration of bile acids
C. Increased cholesterol levels, lower bilirubin, an increased concentration of bile acids
D. Lower cholesterol, bilirubin, reducing the concentration of bile acids
E. Everything is wrong
539. What are the signs of bile lithogenicity on microscopic examination of bile samples?
A. Bacteria
B. * Cholesterol crystals in large quantities
C. Mucus
D. All of the above
E. Everything is wrong
540. What color of feces in case of viral hepatitis?
A. Bright-yellow
B. Dark-brown
C. * Clays color
D. Mud-color
E. Black
541. What complex of investigations is needed for patients with the diseases of hepatobiliary
system?
A. РH-metry, ultrasonography, duodenal probing
B. РH-metry, esophagogastroduodenoscopy, ultrasonography
C. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, ultrasonography, laparoscopy
D. * cholecystography, ultrasonography, duodenal probing
E. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, laparoscopy
542. What does not belong for methods of preparation for gastroduodenoscopy?
A. Psychological preparation
B. Supper a day before at 18 o’clock
C. * Cleansing enema on previous day at 20 o’clock
D. Instruction of a patient to be on the fasten stomach in the morning
E. Irrigation of a throat with 1-2 % dicaine solution ( 3-5 min before investigation)
543. What examination method is used for early diagnostics of cholelithiasis before formation of
gallstones?
A. Gallbladder ultrasound
B. Cholecystography
C. * Microscopy and biochemical study of bile
D. Coprogram
E. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
544. What is necessary for investigation of stomach secretory function?
A. A tray, a bottle
B. 30-50 ml of 33 % magnesium sulfate solution
C. Syringies 2,0 and 20,0 ml capacity
D. 1 ml of 1% dimedrol solution
E. * 0,1% histamine solution
545. What is normal location of liver lower border on anterior median line revealed by
percussion?
A. At costal arch
B. * between the upper and medial thirds of the distance between the navel and xyphois process
C. between the lower and medial thirds of the distance between the navel and xyphois process
D. At the navel
E. At costal arch
546. What is not necessary to prepare for abdominal puncture?
A. Troacar with a stylet, a acalpel, a pincet
B. Syringes, needles, surgical gur, a plaster
C. Sterile peaces of gause, tubes
D. 0,5 % novocaine solution , 5 % iodinum solution
E. * Bobrov’s apparatus
547. How is jaundice with occlusion of the common bile duct called?
A. Physiological
B. Hemolytic
C. * Mechanical
D. Parenchymatous
E. Combined
548. What portion of bile in the duodenal contents is investigated in case of cholelithiasis?
A. A.
B. * B.
C. C.
D. D.
E. E.
549. Where are formed gallstones?
A. In the hepatic bile ducts
B. In the common bile duct
C. In the gall bladder
D. * All of the above
E. Everything is wrong
550. Where pain in a hepatic colic is conducted?
A. In the left hypochondrium
B. Epigastric
C. * In the right hypochondrium
D. In the right iliac region
E. In the left iliac region
551. Where pain in the attack of biliary colic is conducted?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
552.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
553.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
554.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
555.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
556.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
557.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
558.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
559.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
560.
To the right shoulder
To the neck
Under the right scapula
* All of the above
Everything is wrong
Which changes in coprogram are typical for chronic pancreatitis?
Semiliquid feces with unpleasant smell
Steatorrhea
Creatorrhea
Amylorrhea
* All mentioned above
Which laboratory test is informative in diagnostics of chronic pancreatitis exacerbation?
Complete blood count
*Investigation of amylase, lipase, tripsin leves and their inhibitors
Investigation of serum proteins
Coprogram
Duodenal probing
Which method is the most informative in differentiation of peptic ulcer and stomach cancer?
* Esophagogastroduodenoscopy with biopsy
Roentgenoscopy of the stomach
Roentgenography of the stomach
Examination of feces for scant blood
Е. Investigation of stomach secretion
Which method of investigation of stomach lower border is the most informative?
percussion
Auscultation
* Deep sliding palpation
Percutory palpation (determination of splashing sound)
Superficial palpation
Which pain is typical for chronic enteritis?
Diffuse pain in all abdominal region
In the left iliac region
* In paraumbilical region
In epigastrium
in lower parts of abdomen
Which pathological condition should you suspect in the patient if he has disgust to meat?
Peptic ulcer
Chronic gastritis
Hemorrhoids
* Cancer of the intestine
Enteritis
Which radiopaque preparation is necessary for X-ray examination of stomach and intestine?
Cholevid
* Barium sulphate
Bilignost
Iopagnost
Urotrast
Which symptom is characteristic for hepatitis?
Chvostek’s sign
* Murphy’s sign
Obraztsov’s sign
Mayo-Robson‘s sign
Troisier's sign
Yellow colour of skin and mucosa are caused by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
561.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
562.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
563.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
564.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
565.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
566.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
567.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
568.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
569.
Increased level of serum hemoglobin
*Increased level of serum bilirubin
Increased level of serum cholesterol
Increased level of serum creatinin
Increased level of serum urea
Skin itching in jaundice is caused by:
Increased concentration of hemoglobin
Increased concentration of bilirubin
Increased concentration of cholesterol
Increased concentration of creatinine
* Increased concentration of bile acids
What are the signs of bile lithogenicity on microscopic examination of bile samples?
Bacteria
Mucus
* Bilirubinate calcium salts and precipitates
All of the above
Everything is wrong
What color of feces in mechanical jaundice?
Bright-yellow
Dark-brown
Clays color
* Grey
Black
What are the signs of bile lithogenicity on microscopic examination of bile samples?
Bacteria
Mucus
* Bilirubinate calcium salts and precipitates
All of the above
Everything is wrong
What color of feces in mechanical jaundice?
Bright-yellow
Dark-brown
Clays color
* Grey
Black
A fever at pernicious anemia is caused by:
Massive disintegration of leukocytes;
*Disintegration of red cells;
Infectious complications;
General intoxication;
Hyperglobulinemia.
A hemorrhagic syndrome arises up as a result of all of reasons, except of:
Decreasing of thrombocytes amount
Functional deficiency of thrombocytes
Deficit of coagulation factors in plasma
Damage of vascular wall of immune character
* Decreasing of erythrocytes amount and level of hemoglobin
During auscultation of a heart in patients with anemia it is heard:
Rhythm of quail
Bradycardia
Intensification of I heart sound on apex
Aggravation of II heart sound above aorta
*Systolic murmur at apex
Excretion of which metabolites leads to hypercreatininemia?
A. * Proteins metabolites
B. Carbohydrates metabolites
C. Fats metabolites
D. All mentioned
E. Uric acid salts
570. For which disease alveolar pyorrhea is typical:
A. Pernicious anemia;
B. *Iron-deficiency;
C. Hemolytic anemia;
D. Acute leukosis;
E. Erythremia.
571. Hemorrhages in the form of small dots are named:
A. *petechia
B. purpura
C. ecchympses
D. roseola
E. papula
572. How is pain called caused by kidney block with a stone?
A. * Urocolick
B. Biliary colick
C. Intestinal colick
D. Spasmodic pain
E. Dull boring pain
573. In a patient with disease of kidney pericardial friction sound is heard. Which condition is it
typical for?
A. Myocarditis
B. Rheumatic attack
C. * chronic renal failure
D. Ischemic hereart disease
E. hypertension
574. In development of chronic pyelonephritis the most important provoking factor is:
A. Inflammation
B. * Overcooling
C. Immune disorders
D. Disorders of hemostasis
E. Liver disease
575. In patient’s urianalyses there were found leukocyturia, bacteriuria and proteinuria. Which
disease is this typical for?
A. Paranephritis
B. Acute glomerulonephritis
C. * pyelonephritis
D. Amyloidosis
E. Kidney cancer
576. In which disease nicturia may be present?
A. Acute nephritis
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. * Chronic renal failure
D. Chronic liver failure
E. Diencephalic syndrome
577. Select the method of assessment of urine outflow disorders in pyelonephritis of pregnant
women:
A. Excretory urography
B. Chromocystoscopy
C. Ultrasound
D.
E.
578.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
579.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
580.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
581.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
582.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
583.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
584.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
585.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
586.
A.
B.
C.
* Ultrasound, chromocystoscopy
Radioisotopic renography
Select the most informative method of diagnostics of acute secondary pyelonephritis:
Chromocystoscopy
Radioisotopic renography
Ultrasound
Laboratory tests
* X- ray and ultrasound
Patient O., 39 years old, complains of nicturia. What pathology is this symptom typical for?
acute nephritis;
diabetes mellitus;
* chronic kidney insufficiency;
chronic cardiac insufficiency;
diencephalic syndrome.
Signs of deficit of iron:
Psilosis
Fragility of nails
Distortion of taste
Koylonychia
* All above mentioned
The most typical symptoms in acute pyelonephritis:
Proteinuria
Bacteriuria
Erythrocituria
* Leukocyturia, bacteriuria
Sternmaiber-Malbin’s cells
The patient’s face with Adison-Birmer anemia looks like:
Pale, diffusely edematic;
*«waxen doll»;
Cyanotic, edematic;
Pale, exhausted;
Moonlike.
In which kidney disease may be convulsions?
Urocolick attack
* Renal eclampsia
Kidney tuberculosis
Tumor of a kidney
Glomerulonephritis
In which parts of digestive system the main part of iron is absorbed?
In a stomach
*In a duodenum and initial part of thin colon
In a sigmoid colon
In a caecum
Along the whole length of digestive tract
Main laboratory sign of pyelonephritis:
Large amount of casts
Lipiduria
* Prevalence of leukocyturia against of erythrocyturia
Prevalence of erythrocyturia against of leukocyturia
Proteinuria more than 2 g per day
Pathogenesis of arterial hypertension in kidney diseases is the following:
* increased production of renin
transformation of angiotensinogen in angiotensin II
decreased production of prostaglandin
D. replacement of natrium ions inside cells
E. increased production of renin
587. Patient M. experiensed pyelonephritis. What laboratory sign is the most characteristic for
this pathology?
A. * active leukocytes in urine;
B. considerable proteinuria;
C. uraturia;
D. oxalaturia;
E. glucosuria.
588. Patient A., 38 years old, developed acute nephritis. What color of urine may be observed?
A. red;
B. * color of «meat wastes»;
C. color of beer;
D. sulphur
E. straw-yellow.
589. Primary urine appears for a healthy man:
A. * in glomerulis;
B. in the proximal department of tubulis;
C. in a diatal department;
D. in the loop of Genle;
E. in glomerulis and proximal department of tubulis.
590. Provoking factors of pyelonephritis:
A. * severe bacterial infections
B. Focuses of infection in the organism
C. Immune deficiency state
D. Acute cystitis
E. All mentioned
591. Reberg’s test is performed with the purpose:
A. to reveal which part of urinary system is the source of hematuria or leukocyturia,
B. * estimation of kidney concentration function
C. for calculation of formed elements (red cells, leukocytes, casts) in urine with the method of
Kakovsky-Addis
D. for determination of diuresis
E. for determination of the amount of albumen in urine.
592. The plane X-ray of kidney allows to define:
A. condition of the pyelocaliceal system;
B. position of ureters;
C. * sizes of kidneys;
D. condition of glomerular apparatus of kidneys;
E. presence of a tumor.
593. Tongue in patient with Adison-Birmer anemia looks like:
A. *Geographical;
B. Raspberry color;
C. Coated with white fur;
D. Edemtic;
E. Clean.
594. Typical peculiarities of renal edema:
A. Appear in the evening
B. First appear on legs
C. First appear on arms
D. * Appearance on face in the morning
E. Early appearance of anasarca
595. Urinary syndrome was found out in a patient. What amount of albumen in urine is it typical
for urinary syndrome?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
596.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
597.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
598.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
599.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
600.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
601.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
602.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
603.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
604.
* till 3,5 g/day;
till 4,5 g/day;
till 5,5 g/day;
till 6,5 g/day;
till 9,5 g/day.
What amount of urine is excreted by kidneys of a healthy individual?
* 1-2 l/day;
2,5 l/day;
3,5 l/day;
5,0 l/day;
7,0 l/day;
What are casts?
Mucus, which changed its consistency in acid urine
* Protein molds from renal canaliculi
Accumulation of bacteria
Thrombocytes pressed together
Salt corks
What can not be assessed on plane X-ray of kidneys?
Form of kidneys
Size of kidneys
Location of kidneys
Presence of concrements
* Presence of crystals of salts
What can not be the reason of edema in kidney diseases?
* Increased level of albumin in blood
Increase of permeability of capillary wall
Diminishing of oncotic pressure of blood plasma
Accumulation of sodium ions in blood and tissues
Acute delay of selection of urine by lidneys
What day's requirement of the grown man in iron is needed for the erythrocytes synthesis?
20-25 mg
30-35 mg
*10-18 mg
5-10 mg
1-2 g
What does belong to contrast X-ray examination of kidneys?
* Excretory urography
Radionuclide renogram
Scintigraphy
Radiocistography
All mentioned above
What does not belong to radionuclide diagnostics of kidney diseases?
* Excretory urography
Radionuclide renogram
Scintigraphy
Radiocystography
All mentioned above
What edema are characteristic for kidney patients?
edema on lower limbs.
edema on the lumbar region
* edema below eyes
accumulation of liquid in abdominal cavity (hydroperitoneum)
edema on upper extremities.
What is ishuria:
A. absence of urination because of affection of kidney excretory function
B. * absence of urination because of impossibility to discharge urine from the bladder
C. increase of amount of urine more than 2 litres per day
D. decrease of amount of urine less than 1 litre per day
E. amount of urine excreted per day is 0-30 ml per day because of affection of kidney excretory
function
605. What is «pica chlorotica»?
A. Inacidity and achilia for patients with iron-deficiency anaemia
B. * Patients with iron-deficiency anaemia have inverted taste
C. No correct answer
D. Burning sensations on a tongue
E. Pallor with a greenish tint in patients with chronic iron-deficiency anaemia
606. What is anuria:
A. absence of urination because of affection of kidney excretory function
B. absence of urination because of impossibility to discharge urine from the bladder
C. increase of amount of urine more than 2 litres per day
D. decrease of amount of urine less than 1 litre per day
E. * amount of urine excreted per day is 0-30 ml per day because of affection of kidney
excretory function
607. What may be found out during the inspection of oral cavity in a patient with acute leukosis?
A. * Ulcerative and necrotic tonsillitis
B. Gingival bleeding
C. Multiple chronic focuses of infection
D. Ulcerative and necrotic stomatitis
E. *All mentioned
608. What is koilonychia?
A. Transversal lines of nails
B. Nails as watch glasses
C. * Spoon-shaped (concave) form of nails
D. Fragility of nails
E. Discoloration of nails
609. What is location of edema in initial stages of kidney affection?
A. * Below eyes
B. On lower limbs
C. On upper limbs
D. In lumbar region
E. In abdominal cavity
610. What is not typical for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia?
A. Dryness and shelling of skin
B. Hair fragility
C. Concavity of nail plates
D. * Slight yellow color of skin and mucous membranes
E. Parodontosis, darkening of teeth
611. What is oliguria:
A. frequent urination
B. increase of amount of urine more than 2 litres per day
C. * decrease of amount of urine less than 1 litre per day
D. increase of specific gravity of urine
E. lowering of specific gravity of urine
612. Select the proper volume of urine in oliguria:
A. excretion less than 20 ml of urine per day
B. absence of urine
C. * excretion of 300-500 ml of urine per day
D. excretion to 1000-1500 ml per day
E. excretion of more than 2000 ml per day.
613. What is Pasternatsky’s symptom?
A. Pain in palpation of lumbar region in the area of projection of kidneys
B. Appearance of pain in lumbar region in rotation of a trunk
C. * Appearance of pain at tapping of lumbar region in the area of kidneys
D. Appearance of pain in the lumbar area at coughing
E. Appearance of pain in the projection of ureter at passing of stone from a kidney
614. What is pathogenesis of kidney eclampsia?
A. * Brain edema
B. Affection of peripheral nerves
C. Brain stroke
D. Increased nerve irritation
E. All mentioned
615. What is pathological mechanism of urocolick?
A. * Obstruction of urine outflow from the kidney
B. Inflammaltion of kidney parenchyma
C. Inflammaltion of kidney calicies
D. Inflammaltion of paranephral tissues
E. No correct answer
616. What is the cause of ostealgia in patients with chronic leukosis?
A. Secondary infection
B. * Hyperplasia of myeloid tissue
C. Intoxication syndrome
D. Increased production of lymphocites in bone marrow
E. Systemis enlargement of lymphatic nodes
617. What is the origin of destroyed erythrocites in urianalyses?
A. * Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Urolithiasis
C. Paranephritis
D. Acute cystitis
E. pyelonephritis
618. What is the sourse of leukocyturia if leukocites are mainly present in I portion of urine in
Thompson’s test?
A. * Urethra
B. Kidney
C. A bladder
D. Urethers
E. rectum
619. What is the sourse of leukocyturia if leukocites are mainly present in II portion of urine in
Thompson’s test?
A. Urethra
B. * Kidney
C. A bladder
D. Urethers
E. rectum
620. What is the sourse of leukocyturia if leukocites are mainly present in III portion of urine in
Thompson’s test?
A. Urethra
B. Kidney
C. * A bladder
D. Urethers
E. rectum
621. What is typical for nephritic syndrome?
A. Gross proteinuria
B. Hypoproteinemia
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. No correct answer
E. * All enumerated
622. Which level of albumin in urine is characteristic for nephrotic syndrome?
A. * more than 3,5 gr. per day
B. 4,1 gr. per day
C. 5,0 gr. per day
D. 2,0 gr. per day
E. 0,33 gr. per day
623. What may be revealed in urinalyses of patient with acute pyelonephritis within first 48 hours
of the disease?
A. * Bacteriuria, proteinuria
B. No changes
C. Pyuria, erythrocyturia
D. Casts
E. Hematuria, proteinuria
624. What may be the consequence of gross prolonged loss of protein with urine?
A. Development of uric syndrome
B. Development of nephritic syndrome
C. Development of hematuric syndrome
D. * Development of nephrotic syndrome
E. Development of hypertensive syndrome
625. What mechanisms of formation of urine does take place at the level of kidney tubuli?
A. filtration;
B. filtration and reabsorption;
C. * reabsorption and secretion;
D. filtration and secretion;
E. reabsorption.
626. What pains are characteristic for nephrocolic:
A. dull, aching pain in lumbar region
B. intensive permanent pain in lumbar region
C. * intensive sharp attack-like pain in lumbar region on one side irradiating downward to the
internal surface of the thighs and perineum.
D. intensive sharp attack-like pain in lumbar region from the right side irradiating upward to the
right shoulder and scapula.
E. pain at the bottom of a stomach
627. What pathology of kidney is cramping paintypical for?
A. *In the attack of nephrocolic
B. In kidney eclampsia
C. Tuberculosis of kidneys
D. Tumour of kidneys
E. Glomerulonephritis
628. What pathology of urinary system is manifested with sudden sharp pain in lumbar region
from one side?
A. Paranephritis
B. Nephroptosis
C. Acute pyelonephritis
D. Acute glomerulonephritis
E. * Renal colick.
629. What position does patient with urocolick assume?
A. On affected side with legs bended in hip and knee joints and by the leg pressed to the
stomach from the side of affection
B. Semirecumbent position with lowered legs (orthopnoe)
C. Lying on a sick side
D. * Restless
E. Sitting, bending forward.
630. What results of Zimnitsky’s test do testify about violation of concentration function of
kidneys?
A. prevalence of night diuresis above daily one
B. Increased specific gravity of urine in separate portions.
C. relative gravity is below 1010 at lest in one portion of urine
D. *monotonous low specific gravity of urine is in all of portions.
E. an increase of amount of albumen is in urine.
631. What sign may be found during inspection of a patient with chronic lympholeukosis?
A. Systemic increase of peripheral lymphatic nodes, they are painless and not connected with
skin
B. Enlargement of a spleen
C. Mild enlargement of a liver
D. Appearance of violet-blue nodes on the skin ( leukaemides).
E. * All above mentioned
632. What syndrome are the following signs typical for: edema, marked proteinuria,
hypoproteinemia, dysproteinemia, hypercholesterolemia?
A. Uric syndrome
B. Nephritic one
C. * Nephrotic syndrome
D. Hypertensive syndrome
E. Renal eclampsia.
633. What type of a disease is acute glomerulonephritis?
A. * Immunoallergic
B. Allergic
C. Authoimmune
D. Infectious
E. Dysthrophic
634. What type of a disease is acute pyelonephritis?
A. Immunoallergic
B. Allergic
C. Authoimmune
D. * Infectious
E. Dysthrophic
635. When does deformation of calicies and thin renal parenchyma of kidneys appear on
excretory urogram?
A. * In chronic diffuse nephritis
B. In the case of polycystosis
C. Norm.
D. In uncomplicated urolithiasis
E. In hydronephrosis.
636. When does the displacement of one kidney appear on plane X-ray?
A. In diffuse nephritis
B. In the case of polycystosis
C. In chronic kidney insufficiency of the II stage.
D. * In nephroptosis
E. In hydronephrosis.
637. When does the enlargement of one kidney appear on plane X-ray?
A. In diffuse nephritis
B. In the case of polycystosis
C. In chronic kidney insufficiency of the II stage.
D. In uncomplicated urolithiasis
E. * In hydronephrosis.
638. When does the enlargement of both kidneys appear on plane X-ray?
A. In nephritis
B. In the case of hypertrophy
C. In the case of diabetic nephropathia
D. * In the case of polycystosis
E. In chronic kidney insufficiency
639. Where do lymphocites develop?
A. * In lymphatic nodes and in all lymphoid organs.
B. In red bone marrow
C. In a thymus
D. In a spleen
E. In kidneys
640. Where do red cells develop?
A. In lymphatic nodes
B. In a spleen
C. In thymus
D. * In red bone marrow
E. In a liver
641. Which cells do not belong to the reticular stroma of bone marrow?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Erythroblasts
C. Fatty cells
D. Osteoblasts
E. Endothelial cells
642. Which changes in biochemical blood study are possible if the patient suffers from chronic
pyelonephritis for 10 years?
A. Hypoproteinemia
B. Hyperpliporoteinemia
C. Hyperbilirubinemia
D. * hypercreatininemia
E. Dysproteinemia
643. Which changes in complete blood count are the most often presented in acute
pyelonephritis?
A. Decreased ESR
B. Leukopoenia
C. Decreased hemoglobin content
D. Thrombocytopenia
E. * Shift on the left
644. Which changes of kidney concentration function are typical for chronic pyelonephritis?
A. * hypoisosthenuria
B. isosthenuria
C. hypersthenuria
D. hyposthenuria
E. oliguria
645. Which cnahges in urianalyses are typical for chronic glomerulonephritis?
A. Active leukocytes
B. Protein in urine less than 1 %
C. Leukocytes cover all vision field
D. * Erythrocytes till 30 in one vision field
E. Bacteria till 100 in one vision field
646. Which data of urianalyses are typical for acute glomerulonephritis?
A. * increased protein, erythrocytes and hyaline and wax casts
B. increased protein, and hyaline casts
C. leukocyturia, granular casts
D. Crystals of uric acid salts in urine
E. No correct answer
647. Which data of urianalyses are typical for acute pyelonephritis ?
A. increased protein, erythrocytes and hyaline and wax casts
B. * protein in low concentration, leukocyturia, bacteriuria
C. leukocyturia, granular casts
D. Crystals of uric acid salts in urine
E. No correct answer
648. Which degree of nephroptosis is present if it is possible to palpate the lower kidney pole, it
is not displaceble?
A. * I;
B. II;
C. III;
D. IV;
E. total nephroptosis.
649. Which degree of nephroptosis is present if it is possible to palpate all the kidney in iliac
region, it is easly displaceble, move to the opposite side of the body?
A. I;
B. II;
C. * III;
D. IV;
E. total nephroptosis.
650. Which degree of nephroptosis is present if it is possible to palpate all the kidney, it is easly
displaceble, but does not move to the opposite side of the body?
A. I;
B. * II;
C. III;
D. IV;
E. total nephroptosis.
651. Which examination should you prescribe for a patient if you revealed erythrocytes, protein
and casts in his urine?
A. Renography
B. Chest X-ray
C. * Ultrasound examination of kidneys
D. Renal scintigraphy
E. Duodenal probing
652. Which from objective symptoms are typical for anemia?
A. *Paleness of skin and mucous membranes
B. Petechias
C. Cyanosis
D. Edema
E. Rash
653. Which iron absorbs the best?
A. Those which is the component of plants
B. Those which is the component of albumens which contain haem (veal)
C. Those which is the component of dietary sorts of meat (rabbit, chicken)
D. Those which is received with groats
E. Any iron is absorbed inspite of valency and amount
654. Which irradiation is typical for urocolick?
A. * Downward to internal surface of thighs and perineum
B. Upward to the right scapula
C. Toward the neck
D. Toward the navel
E. No irradiation
655. Which laboratory test is useful for assessment of kidney concentration function?
A. Complete blood count;
B. ECG;
C. Nechiporenko’s test;
D. * Zimnitsky’s test
E. determination of daily proteinuria.
656. Which laboratory test is useful for assessment of kidney filtration function?
A. Complete blood count;
B. Nechyporenko’s test;
C. Canalicular reabsorption
D. * Clearance by endogenous creatinine (glomerular filtration)
E. determination of daily proteinuria.
657. Which laboratory test is useful for assessment kidney concentration function?
A. Complete blood count;
B. Nechyporenko’s test;
C. * Canalicular reabsorption
D. Clearance by endogenous creatinine (glomerular filtration)
E. determination of daily proteinuria.
658. Which level of protein in urine is typical for acute glomerulonephritis?
A. 0,03 g/l
B. 0,03-1 g/l
C. 1-2 g/l
D. 2-3 g/l
E. * More than 3 g/l
659. Which level of protein in urine is typical for acute pyelonephritis?
A. No protein in urine
B. * 0,03-1 g/l
C. 1-2 g/l
D. 2-3 g/l
E. More than 3 g/l
660. Which main sign of chronic renal failure is the main criterion of its severity?
A. Hypertension
B. * Serum creatinin
C. Degree of anemia
D. Proteinuria
E. Heart failure
661. Which organ does product erythropoietin?
A. Lymphatic nodes and all lymphoid organs.
B. Red bone marrow
C. Thymus
D. A spleen
E. * Kidneys
662. Which organs do not belong to haemopoetic system (does not participte in productio of
blood formed elements)?
A. Bone marrow
B. *Thymus
C. Spleen
D. Lymph nodes
E. Liver
663. Which results of ultrasound examination should be expected in chronic right-sided
pyelonephritis?
A. Thin kidney parenchyma because of sclerosis on both sides symmetrically
B. * Thin kidney parenchyma because of sclerosis on right side
C. Stones in calicies
D. Ellarged calicies
E. Swelling of kidney parenchyma
664. Which results of ultrasound examination should be expected in acute glomerulonephritis?
A. Thin kidney parenchyma because of sclerosis on both sides symmetrically
B. Thin kidney parenchyma because of sclerosis on one side
C. Stones in calicies
D. Enlarged calicies
E. *Swelling of kidney parenchyma on both sides symmetrically
665. Which symptoms arise up in patients with acute leukosis?
A. General weakness
B. Pain in joints and muscles
C. High body temperature
D. Frequent pain during swallowing
E. * All above
666. Which syndrome is marked loss of albumin with urine typical for?
A. Urinary syndrome
B. Nephritic syndrome
C. Hematuria
D. * Nephrotic syndrome
E. Hypertension.
667. Which syndrome is not typical for pyelonephritis
A. Uric
B. * Nephrotic
C. Pain
D. Intoxication
E. Dysuric
668. Which changes in complete blood count are the most often presented in acute
pyelonephritis?
A. Decreased ESR
B. *Leukocytosis
C. Decreased hemoglobin content
D. Thrombocytopenia
E. Shift on the right
669. Acute febrile form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:
A. * an evanescent salmon-pink macular rashes,;
B. chronic pain and swelling of many joints in a symmetric fashion.
C. chronic asymmetric arthritis of large joints,
D. purpuric skin rashes,
E. hemarthroses.
670. Acute febrile form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:
A. * hepatosplenomegaly;
B. Involvement of large and small joints
C. mild or painless synoviitis.
D. colicky abdominal pain,
E. massive bleeding after traumas.
671. Acute febrile form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:
A. * polyserositis,
B. rheumatoid nodules,
C. Uncommon systemic features.
D. nephritis;
E. massive bleeding after teeth extraction
672. Acute febrile form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:
A. * leukocytosis;
B. chronic pain and swelling of many joints;
C. asymptomatic iridocyclitis;
D. purpuric skin rashes,
E. massive bleeding after operations
673. In complete blood count of a patient with B12 deficiency anemia all the signs are
determined except of:
A. decreasing hemoglobin and erythrocytes amount
B. macrocytosis
C. increasing of CI more than 1,1
D. * decreasing of CI less then 0.8
E. Zholly’s bodies, Kebot’s rings in erythrocytes
674. For what disease color index is more than 1,05?
A. Iron-deficiency anemia
B. Posthemorrhagic anemia
C. *B12 deficiency anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
E. Acute leukosis
675. For what disease color index is more than 1,05?
A. Iron-deficiency anemia
B. Posthemorrhagic anemia
C. * Folic acid deficiency anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
E. Acute leukosis
676. How is it needed to take away blood for determination of thrombocytes?
A. Inflict the drop of iodine into the place of puncture
B. Inflict the drop of alcohol into the place of puncture
C. Inflict a drop of manganese potassium into the place of puncture
D. * Inflict the drop of 14 % magnesium sulfate solution into the place of puncture
E. Inflict the drop of 25 % magnesium sulfate solution into the place of puncture
677. How many classes of haemopoetic cells there are?
A. *6
B. 4
C. 7
D. 5
E. 3
678. How many levels of thrombotest are determined?
A. * 7
B. 6
C. 4
D. 8
E. 5
679. How the I-st phase of blood coagulation activity is determined?
A. * By determination of time of plasma recalcification and test of prothrombin consumption.
B. By determination of prothrombin index
C. By determination of fibrinogen concentration
D. By a thrombotest level
E. By determination of plasma tolerance to the heparin
680. Patient was prescribed determination of blood haematocrite. Specify, what level of
haematocrite is normal for a male?
A. 29-36
B. 36-42
C. *40-48
D. 48-54
E. more than 54
681.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
682.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
683.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
684.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
685.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
686.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
687.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
688.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
689.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Polyarticular form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:
* symmetric involvement of large and small joints.
macular rashes,
systemic features;
nephritis;
massive bleeding after traumas.
Polyarticular form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:
* rheumatoid nodules,
hepatosplenomegaly,
asymmetric arthritis of large joints,
migratory polyarthritis;
massive bleeding after teeth extraction.
Signs of deficit of iron:
Psilosis
Fragility of nails
Distortion of taste
Koilonychia
*All above mentioned
Specify which indexes of leukocytes in blood are normal?
2,0-5,0 · 109/l
*4,0-9,0 · 109/l
9,0-11,0 · 109/l
11,0-13,0 · 109/l
13,0-14,0 · 109/l
Tongue in patient with long-term Adison-Birmer anemia looks like:
*Smooth;
Raspberry;
Coated with white fur;
Edemtic;
Clean.
What is anisocytosis:
erythrocytes of different size
appearance of red corpuscles of different form
appearance of leukocytes of different form
appearance of leukocytes of different size
appearance of thrombocytes of different size
What is coagulation time by Lee-White?
*5-10 min
3-5 min
6-12 min
1-3 min
12-13 min
What is displacement of leukocyte formula to the left?
Appearance in blood of increased amount of lymphocytes
Appearance in blood of increased amount of leukocytes
Appearance in blood of increased amount of monocytes
Appearance in blood of increased amount of erythrocytes
*Appearance in blood of increased amount of stab neutrophil and juvenile neutrophils
What is displacement of leukocyte formula to the right?
Appearance in blood of increased amount of lymphocytes
Appearance in blood of increased amount of leukocytes
Appearance in blood of increased amount of monocytes
Appearance in blood of increased amount of erythrocytes
* Decreased amount of immatured neutrophils in perypheric blood
690.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
691.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
692.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
693.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
694.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
695.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
696.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
697.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
698.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is not typical for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia?
Dryness and shelling of skin
Hair fragility
Concavity of nail plates
Subicteritiousness of skin and mucous membrane
Parodontosis, darkening of teeth
What is poikilocytosis:
* appearance of red corpuscles of different size
appearance of red corpuscles of different form
appearance of leukocytes of different form
appearance of leukocytes of different size
appearance of thrombocytes of different form
What is polyuria:
frequent urination
*the increase of amount of urine more than 2 l/day
the increase of amount of urine more than 1 l/day
increase of specific gravity of urine
lowering of specific gravity of urine.
What type of fever may be found out in a patient with acute leukosis?
Intermittant or remittant fever
*Hectic fever
Irregular fever
Permanent fever
Undulating fever
Which sign does confirm the diagnosis of thrombocytopenic purpura?
*Diminishing in peripheral blood amount of thrombocytes
Negative symptom of pinching and tapping
Prolonged bleeding time by Lee-White
Incresedd concentraion of fibrinogen in blood serum
All mentioned
Where do lymphocites become matured?
In lymphatic nodes.
In red marrow
*In thymus
In a spleen
In buds
Which indexes characterizes the II phase of blood coagulation?
time of plasma recalcification
*prothrombin index
fibrinogen concentration
thrombotest level
Beeding tine by Lee-White
Which indexes characterizes the II phase of blood coagulation?
determination of time of plasma recalcification
* determination of prothrombin index
determination of fibrinogen concentration
a thrombotest level
determination of plasma tolerance to the heparin
Which levels of thrombotest correspond to hypocoagulation?
III-IV
*-III
IV-V
VI-VII
II-I
699. Patient was prescribed determination of blood haematocrite. Specify, what level of
haematocrite is normal for a female?
A. 29-36
B. *-36-42
C. 40-48
D. 48-54
E. more than 54
700. Which indexes characterizes the II phase of blood coagulation?
A. time of plasma recalcification
B. Beeding tine by Lee-White
C. fibrinogen concentration
D. thrombotest level
E. *plasma tolerance to the heparin
701. Data of percussion of patient’s heart are as follows: the absolute heart dullness is absent.
What may be a reason of these changes?
A. Retrocardial tumour
B. Left-sided pleural effusion
C. Right-sided pleural effusion
D. * Acute pulmonary emphysema
E. Normal data
702. A student is examining patient’s pulse. The normal frequency of pulse is equall to (per
minute):
A. 50-80
B. 60-70
C. 60-100
D. 50-90
E. * 60-90
703. A student is examining patient’s pulse. What parameter should he start from to assess pulse
properties?
A. Rrhythm
B. Filling
C. Frequency
D. Tension
E. * Similarity on both radial arteries
704. A student should assess patient’s facial expression. Which pathological condition is
“Corvizar’s face” is typical fo?
A. Kidney diseases
B. Infectious diseases
C. * Hheart failure
D. Anaemia
E. Peritonitis
705. A student should perform inspection of a patient. He found edema on patient's legs. Such a
type of edema is typical for:
A. * ongenital heart disease
B. Rachitis
C. Respiratory pathology
D. Syphilis
E. Brucellosis
706. Alternated pulse is typical for:
A. Incompetence of aortal valve
B. Stenosis of aortal valve
C. Heart block
D. Atrial flutter
E. * Heavy myocardial affections
707.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
708.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
709.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
710.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
711.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
712.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
713.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
714.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
715.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
By inspection of a patient with heavy cardiac insufficiency it is possible to discover:
Pale and puffy face
* Cachexy or anasarca
Edema on the legs without elevation of skin under the pressure
Fingers as “drumsticks”
Jaundice
By palpation patient’s pulse is dull. In what disease is dull pulse observed?
Myocarditis
Pericarditis
Mitral defects
* Hypertension
Heart insufficiency
By palpation patient’s pulse is low and slow. “Pulsus parvus and tardus” is observed in:
Mirtal incompletence
Mitral stenosis
Aortal incompletence
* Atenosis of ostium of aorta
Hypertension
By palpation patient’s pulse is quick and high. “Pulsus celler et altus” is observed in:
mirtal incompletence
mitral stenosis
* aortal incompletence
stenosis of aortal valve
hypertension
Acrocyanosis in heart insufficiency occurs due to such patological mechanisms as follows:
Reduction of quantity of restored hemoglobin
Slowing of blood flow
* Diminution of oxygen utilisation by tissues
Reduction of hemoglobin oxygenation in lungs
Decreasing of arterial blood pressure
Diastolic blood pressure level depends on:
Blood viscosity
* General perypheric resistance of vessels
Volume of circulating blood
Cardiac output
Heart rate
Diastolic thrill at heart apex is the equivalent of:
Respiratory movements
Contraction of the left ventricle
Contraction of the right ventricle
Systolic murmur in aortal stenosis
* Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis
Dicrotic pulse is obcerved in:
Incompetence of aortal valve
Heart block
Atrial flutter (electrical disfunction of atriums)
Constrictive periocarditis
* Decreased arterial tonus
Displacement of borders of relative heart dullness leftwards is typical for:
hypetrophy of the right atrium
hypetrophy of the left atrium
hypetrophy of both atriums
hypetrophy of left or right ventricle
* hypetrophy of the left ventricle
716. Displacement of the left border of relative cardiac dullness is possible in:
A. “Pulmonary” heart
B. Dilatation of right cardiac borders
C. In sickness of intraventricular septum
D. * In dilatation and hypertrophy of the left ventricle
E. In exaggerated dilatation of the left atrium
717. During examination of patient’s pulse a student revealed bradycardia. Rare pulse is observed
in the case of:
A. Increased body temperature
B. Heart insufficiency
C. * Complete atrioventricular block
D. Myocarditis
E. Thyrotoxicosis
718. During examination of patient’s pulse a student has revealed tachycardia. Tachycarida is
observed in the case of:
A. Narrowing of aortic aperture
B. Hunger
C. Brain tumour
D. * Fever
E. Jaundice
719. Dyspnea in heart insufficiency occurs due to the following cause:
A. Decrease of blood pressure
B. Slowing of blood flow
C. * Irritation of the respiratory centre by carbonic acid
D. Reduction of oxygen utilisation by tissues
E. Increase of restored hemoglobin concentration
720. Epigastric pulsation which intensifies at inspiration is caused by:
A. True liver pulsation
B. Conducted liver pulsation
C. Pulsation of abdominal part of aorta
D. Pulsation of the left liver
E. * Contractions of the right ventricle
721. Function of arterioli are as follows:
A. Change with metabolites between blood and tissues
B. * Maintainance of proper pressure in arterial bed
C. Act as a shunts
D. Accumulate blood in heart failure
E. Gas exchange between blood and alveolar air
722. How apex beat will be changed in pericardial adhesions?
A. Absent
B. High
C. * Negative
D. Diffuse
E. Resistant
723. Select a proper patient’s behaivior during attack of angina pectoris:
A. The patient is “restless”
B. The patient is restless, with locomotory and speech excitation
C. The patient is sitting upright (orthopnea)
D. The patient is staying upright
E. * The patient is “stiffing in one position” – staying in the same position from the beginning
of the attack till its finish
724. How the square of absolute cardiac dullness will change in large mediastinal tumour?
A. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will not change
B. * The square of absolute cardiac dullness will increases
C. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will decreases
D. The square of absolute cardiac dullness first decreases and then turns to be normal
E. The square of absolute cardiac dullness first increases anf than markedly increases
725. If apex beat is determined in V intercostal space on 1,5 сm medially from the left
midclavicular line, it is necessary to suspect…
A. Left ventricular hyperthrophy
B. * Normal location of apex beat
C. Right-side pneumothorax
D. Pleurisy with effusion on the right side
E. Pulmonary emphysema
726. If apex beat is located in VI interspace – it may be due to:
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Tricuspid valvular stenosis
C. Low position of diaphragm
D. Pleuropericardial adhesions
E. * Stenosis of aortal orifice
727. If the left border of relative cardiac dullness is located in the VІ interspace on the left
midclavicular line – it may be due to:
A. * Left ventricular dilatation
B. Left side pneumothorax
C. Low position of diaphragm
D. Normal position of the border
E. Sclerosis of the right lung
728. If the right border of relative cardiac dullness is located at the right sternal border – it means
…
A. compensatory emphysema of the right lung
B. hyperthrophy of the right ventricle
C. right ventricular dilatation
D. left atrial dilatation
E. * normal location of the border
729. If the upper border of relative cardiac dullness is located at the ІIІ interspace on the left
parasternal line – it may be due to:
A. Atelectasis of the right lung
B. Hyperthrophyt of the left atrium
C. Dilatation of the left ventricle
D. Dilatation of aorta
E. * Normal position
730. If the upper border of relative cardiac dullness is located at the ІІ interspace on the left
parasternal line – it may be due to:
A. Atelectasis of the right lung
B. * Hyperthrophyt of the left atrium
C. Dilatation of the left ventricle
D. Dilatation of aorta
E. Narrow pulmonary artery
731. If the width of cardiac vascular bundle is equal to 8 cm – it may be due to:
A. * Dilatation of the left atrium
B. Enlargement of the right atrium
C. Normal size
D. Mediastinal tumour
E. Pleurisy with effusion
732. In the patient M. dull pulse was determined. What changes of blood pressure it is possible to
reveal?
A. Low systolic and diastolic
B. * High systolic and diastolic
C.
D.
E.
733.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
734.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
735.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
736.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
737.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
738.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
739.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
740.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
741.
A.
B.
High systolic and low diastolic
Low systolic and high diastolic
No changes
In which case displacement of the right border of relative cardiac dullness is possible?
In dilatation of vascular bundle
* In dilatation of the right atrium and right ventricle
In dilatation of left atrium
In dilatation of the left ventricle
In hypertrophy of the left ventricle
Limits for diastolic blood pressure are:
50-80 mm of Hg
50-90 mm of Hg
* 60-90 mm of Hg
60-95 mm of Hg
70-95 mm of Hg
Limits for normal systolic blood pressure are:
90-120 mm of Hg
* 100-140 mm of Hg
100-160 mm of Hg
105-160 mm of Hg
110-160 mm of Hg
Negative apex beat is the sign of:
Pericardiitis with effusion
Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle
Left ventricular dilatation
* Adhesions between both pericardial layers and a chest wall
Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle
Non-synchronous (different) pulse is typical for
Incompetence of aortal valve
Stenosis of aortal valve
Incompetence of mitral valve
Stenosis of mitral valve
* Mitral valvular stenosis
Pathological decrease of the square of absolute heart dullness is typical for:
Sclerosis of anterior parts of the lungs
Exudative pericarditis
* Lung emphysema
Big tumour of posterior mediastinum
Aortic valvular defects
Pathological enlargement of the square of absolute heart dullness is typical for:
* Large tumour of posterior mediastinum
Lung emphysema
Left-sided pneumothorax
Pneumopericarditis
Attack of bronchial asthma
Positive venous pulse is observed in
Incompetence of aortal valve
Stenosis of aortal valve
Incompetence of mitral valve
Stenosis of mitral valve
* Tricuspid valve incompetence
Pulse deficiency is typical for:
incompetence of aortal valve
Stenosis of aortal valve
C. * Atrial fibrillation (electrical disfunction of atriums)
D. Sharp decreasing of vascular tonus
E. Severe myocardial lesion
742. Pulse filling characterises the following:
A. Level of maximal arterial blood pressure
B. Cardiac output
C. * Amplitude of dilatation of arteries in systole
D. Speed of myocardial contractions
E. Width of vascular bundle
743. Pulse tension characterises the following:
A. * Level of maximal arterial blood pressure
B. Volume of circulating blood
C. Cardiac output
D. Speed of myocardial contractions
E. Degree of dilatation of arteries
744. Quick pulse is typical for:
A. Incompetence of aortal valve
B. Stenosis of aortal valve
C. All cases of bradicardia
D. * All cases of tachycardia
E. Stenosis of mitral valve
745. Reduced apical beat occurs in the following case:
A. * Mitral stenosis
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Hypetrophy and dilatation of the left ventricle
D. Aortic incompletence
E. Hypertension
746. Systolic blood pressure level depends on:
A. Blood viscosity
B. General perypheric resistance of vessels
C. Volume of circulating blood
D. * Cardiac output
E. Heart rate
747. The difference of blood pressure in norm should not exceed:
A. * 5 mm of Hg
B. 10 mm of Hg
C. 22 mm of Hg
D. 30 mm of Hg
E. 40 mm of Hg
748. The necessary condirtion for rising of diastolic blood pressure is the following:
A. * Elevation of general perypheric resistance of vessels
B. Elevation of blood viscosity
C. Increased volume of circulating blood
D. Increased minute volume of blood
E. Increased cardiac output
749. The sequence of determination of cardiac dullness borders by percussion is the following:
A. Right, left and upper borders of relative dullness + heart transverse diameter
B. Right, left and upper borders of relative dullness + right, left and upper borders of absolute
dullness
C. * Right, left and upper borders of relative dullness + heart transverse diameter + right, left
and upper borders of absolute dullness
D. Right, left and upper borders of relative dullness + right, left and upper borders of absolute
dullness
E. Right, left and upper borders of absolute dullness + right, left and upper borders of relative
dullness
750. The square of normal apex beat is equal to
A. * 1-2 cm square
B. 3-4 cm square
C. 5-6 cm square
D. 0,2-0,5 cm square
E. 0,5 -1 cm square
751. True liver pulsation is the sign of:
A. Congestion in the larger circulation
B. Cardial liver cirrhosis
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Aortal valve incompetence
E. * Tricuspid valve incompetence
752. What are “vessels of resistance”?
A. Arterial part of vascular bed
B. Artery of medial caliber
C. * arterioli
D. capillary
E. Corinary arteries
753. What characteristics of pain in the case of the attack of angina pectoris do you know?
A. Burning, lasts by hours, days
B. Dull, diffuse ache, irradiates to the left hand
C. Pressing, burning, irradiates to the left hand, does not disappears after taking of validol or
nitroglycerin
D. * Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of validol or
nitroglycerin
E. Aching pain in one point of precordium, does not irradiate
754. What colour do pronounced cardiac edema have?
A. Red
B. Green
C. White
D. * Dark-blue
E. Brown
755. What contents of restored hemoglobin is present in blood of patients with perypheric
cyanosis? (parameters in gram/liter):
A. 10-20
B. 10-20
C. 50-60
D. * 70-80
E. 90-100
756. What hemodynamic parameter is pulse filling equval to?
A. Minute volume of blood
B. The common resistance of periferic vessels
C. Combination of minute blood volume and common resistance of periferic vessels
D. * Cardiac output
E. Viscosity of blood
757. What hemodynamic parameter pulse tension is equal to?
A. Minute volume of blood
B. * The common resistance of perypheric vessels
C. Combination of minute blood volume and common resistance of periferic vessels
D. Viscosity of blood
E. Cardiac output
758. What is the cause of aortal heart configuration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
759.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
760.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
761.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
762.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
763.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
764.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
765.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
766.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
767.
Dilatation of the right ventricle
Dilatation of the right atrium
* Dilatation of the left ventricle
Dilatation of the left atrium
sickness of intraventricular septum
What is duration of pain in the case of attack of angina pectoris?
For 1-2 minutes
* For 5-10 minutes
For 10-30 minutes
From several seconds till 20-30 minutes
For hours, days
What is the cause of mitral heart configuration?
Dilatation of the right ventricle
Dilatation of the right atrium
Dilatation of the left ventricle
* Dilatation of the left atrium
sickness of intraventricular septum
What is necessary to find out before determination of the right border of relative dullness?
Blood pressure and pulse of a patient
Degree of severity of the disease
* The heght of the diaphragm on the right side
Resiliance of the chest
The square and location of cardiac beat
What is normal location of the left border of absolute cardiac dullness?
At the left midclavicular line
* 2сm medially from the relative one
1,5-2 сm outside of left midclavicular line
3-4 сm outside of right border of absolute cardiac dullness
0,5-1 сm outside of the right border of absolute cardiac dullness
What is normal location of the left border of relative cardiac dullness?
0,5 сm outside from the right sternal border
* 1-1,5 сm medially from the left midclavicular line
At the left sternal border
At medial line
1-1,5 см medially from medial line
What is normal location of the right border of absolute cardiac dullness?
At the right sternal edge
At medial line
* At the left sternal edge
0,5 сm outside from the left sternal edge
1 сm outside from the left sternal edge
What is normal location of the right border of relative cardiac dullness?
* 1-1,5 сm laterally from the right sternal border
1-1,5 сm inside from the left midclavicular line
At the left sternal border
At medial line
1-1,5 см medially from midline
What is normal location of the upper border of absolute cardiac dullness?
3rd interspace
* Level of 4th rib
4th interspace on the left side
Upper side of the 5 rib
The lower edge of 5 rib
What is normal location of the upper border of relative cardiac dullness?
A. The upper edge of 4th rib
B. The upper edge of 3rd rib
C. * The lower edge of 3rd rib
D. In 3rd interspace
E. The upper edge of 2nd rib
768. What is the width of heart vascular bundle equal to in norm:
A. 1-2 cm
B. 4-5 cm
C. * 5-6 cm
D. 11-13 cm
E. 13-16 cm
769. What should be the strength of percutory stroke in determination of absolute cardiac
dullness borders?
A. Strong
B. Moderate
C. * Weak
D. Loud
E. Weak and moderate
770. What should be the strength of percutory stroke in determination of relative cardiac dullness
borders?
A. Strong
B. * Moderate
C. Weak
D. Loud
E. Weak and moderate
771. What the heart transverse diameter is equal to in norm:
A. 8-9 cm
B. 4-6 cm
C. 12-15 cm
D. * 11-13 cm
E. 13-16 cm.
772. When will absolute cardiac dullness decrease?
A. In hypertension
B. * In pulmonary emphysema
C. In rheumatіc fever
D. In peptic ulcer
E. . In chronic hepatitis
773. When will absolute cardiac dullness decrease?
A. In rheumatіc fever
B. * In low position of diaphragm
C. In chronic nephritis
D. In nettle rash
E. In rheumatoid arthritis
774. Which complaints of patients with heart diseases are caused by increased blood pressure in
pulmonary circulation?
A. Dizziness, headache
B. Pain in the heart area, palpitation
C. Palpitation, edema on legs
D. * Dyspnea, cough, asthma, blood spitting
E. Nausea, vomiting
775. Which method is better for percussion of a heart?
A. Immediate percussion
B. * Mediate percussion finger by finger
C. Mediate percussion through clothes
D. Mediate percussion with iron pleximeter
E. Combined percussion
776. Which square of cardiac dullness and in which way will change in inspiration?
A. Will not change
B. * Slightly increase absolute cardiac dullness
C. Slightly decrease absolute cardiac dullness
D. Slightly increase relative cardiac dullness
E. Slightly decrease relative cardiac dullness
777. Which disease is Musse’s sign typical for?
A. Hypertension
B. Ischemic heart disease
C. * Aortal valve incompetence
D. Rheumatic heart disease
E. Chronic pyelonephritis
778. Which disease is pulsation of carotic arteries typical for?
A. Heart failure
B. Septic endocarditis
C. * Aortal valvular disease
D. Tricuspid incompetence
E. Hypertension
779. Which disease is pulsation of jugular veins typical for?
A. Heart failure
B. Septic endocarditis
C. Mitral incompetence
D. * Tricuspid incompetence
E. Hypertension
780. How is pulsation of carotic arteries called?
A. Negative pulse
B. *Carotic shudder
C. Positive pulse
D. Venous pulse
E. Arterial pulse
781. Displacement of borders of relative heart dullness leftwards is typical for:
A. Ascites
B. Splanchnoptosis
C. Left sided hydrothorax
D. All mentioned
E. * No correct answer
782. Displacement of borders of relative heart dullness leftwards is typical for:
A. Left ventricular failure
B. Splanchnoptosis
C. Left sided hydrothorax
D. All mentioned
E. * No correct answer
783. Which changes of vocal fremitus, bronchophony and percutory soung in I stage of croupous
pneumonia?
A. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percutory sound will be dull, bronchophony will be
intensified
B. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percutory sound will be dull, bronchophony will be
weakened.
C. * Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percutory sound will be dull-to-thympany,
bronchophony will be weakened
D. Vocal fremitus will not be changed, percutory sound will be resonant, bronchophony will
not be changed .
E. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percutory sound will be thympanic, bronchophony will be
intensified.
784. Which index of FEV1 corresponds to the 1st degree of respiratory failure?{
A. >80 %, deviation
B. * >80 %, deviation =20-30 %.
C. . 60-80 % , deviation >30 %.
D. < 60 %, deviation > 30 %.
E. 55 %, deviation\= 25 %.
785. Which index of FEV1 corresponds to the 2nd degree of respiratory failure?
A. >80 %, deviation
B. >80 %, deviation =20-30 %.
C. * 60-80 % , deviation >30 %.
D. < 60 %, deviation > 30 %.
E. 55 %, deviation = 25 %.
786. Which index of FEV1 corresponds to the 3rd degree of respiratory failure?
A. >80 %, deviation
B. >80 %, deviation =20-30 %.
C. . 60-80 % , deviation >30 %.
D. * < 60 %, deviation > 30 %.
E. 55 %, deviation = 25 %.
787. Which data of auscultation will be above affected part of the lung in I stage of lobar
pneumonia?
A. Bronchial breathing
B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchovesicular breathing
E. * Weakened vesicular breathing
788. Which properties of pulse will a patient have if he has systolic thrill at Botkin-Erb’s point
and carotic shudder?
A. Low and slow
B. * Quick and high
C. Irregular
D. Of different feeling and tension
E. Without changes
Situations real-life
1.
Data of percussion of patient’s heart are as follows: the borders of relative heart dullnessthe right is on 2,5 cm laterally from the right edge of the sternum, the left one is on 1.5 cm medially
from midclavicular line, the upper one is at the upper edge of the III rib. What a reason and which
symptoms are possible to find out in this patient?
A. Left ventriclular dilatation, cardiac asthma
B. * Right ventriclular dilatation, edema on legs
C. Left atrial dilatation, atrial fibrillation
D. No complaints
E. Left ventriclular dilatation, dyspnea in phyical load
2.
Data of percussion of patient’s heart are as follows: the borders of relative heart dullness: the
right one is on 1 cm laterally from the right edge of the sternum, the left one is on 3.5 cm laterally
from the left midclavicular line, the upper one is at the upper edge of the III rib. What a reason and
which complaints are possible to find out in this patient?
A. * Left ventriclular dilatation, cardiac asthma
B. Right ventriclular dilatation, edema on legs
C. Left atrial dilatation, atrial fibrillation
D. No complaints
E. Right ventriclular dilatation, dyspnea in phyical load
3.
Data of percussion of patient’s heart are as follows: the borders of relative heart dullnessthe right is on 1 cm laterally from the right edge of the sternum, the left one is on 1.5 cm medially
from midclavicular line, the upper one is at the upper edge of the II rib. What heart chamber is
enlarged?
A. Left ventricle
B. Right ventricle
C. * Left atrium
D. No any chamber
E. Right ventricle
4.
During examination of patient S. mitral stenosis was revealed. The patient complains of
dyspnea, by inspection edema are visible, the liver lower border is 3 cm below the costal arch. How
the heart borders are changed?
A. Displacement of right border of relative cardiac dullness rightward
B. Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward
C. Displacement of the upper heart border of relative cardiac dullness upward
D. Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward, the right border –
rightward and the upper one – upward
E. * Displacement of the right heart border of relative cardiac dullness rightward and the upper
one – upward
5.
Patient N., 20 years old, was hospitalized to the therapeutic department of a hospitаl. His
complaints are: pain in heart area and above the large joints wich migrates from one joint to other,
edema of whole the body. Body temperature is 38 °С. From anamnesis it is known that the patient
had periodical tonsillites in childhood. The patient had experienced heavy thore throat 2 weeks ago.
What is more probable origin of present patological condition?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Aortal stenosis
C. Septic endocarditis
D. * Rheumatic fever
E. Hypertonic crisis
6.
A patient who is being on long-standing treatment because of mitral heart defect, is
examined with auscultation at the moment. What is the direct auscultatory sign of mitral stenosis?
A. * Intensification of 1st heart sound at the apex.
B. Systolic murmur at heart apex.
C. Systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space rightwards from the sternum.
D. Systolic murmur at the xyphoid process.
E. Systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space leftwards from the sternum.
7.
A patient who is being on long-standing treatment because of mitral heart defect, is
examined with auscultation at the moment. What is the direct auscultatory sign of mitral
incompetence?
A. Intensification of 1st heart sound at the apex.
B. * Systolic murmur at heart apex.
C. Systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space rightwards from the sternum.
D. Systolic murmur at the xyphoid process.
E. Systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space leftwards from the sternum.
8.
A patient who is being on long-standing treatment because of aortic heart defect, is
examined with auscultation at the moment.. What is the direct auscultatory sign of aortic
incompetence?
A. Intensification of 1st heart sound at the apex.
B. Accentuation of the II sound at the pulmonary artery.
C. * Systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space rightwards from the sternum.
D. Systolic murmur at the xyphoid process.
E. Systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space leftwards from the sternum.
9.
A patient who is being on long-standing treatment because of aortic heart defect, is
examined with auscultation at the moment. What is the direct auscultatory sign of aortic
incompetence?
A. Intensification of 1st heart sound at the apex.
B. Accentuation of the II sound at the pulmonary artery.
C. * Systolic murmur at Botkin-Erb’s point.
D. Systolic murmur at the xyphoid process.
E. Systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space leftwards from the sternum.
10.
At auscultation of a heart the first sound at heart apex is intensified, second sound at
pulmonary artery is amplified. Adventitious sound is heard after te second sound.. At the apex is
recorded the diastolic descendo murmur merging with the second heart sound and protodiastolic
mumur. Murmur intensifies in position of the patient on the left side and it is conducted towards
axillary region. What heart defect this phenomena are typical for?
A. * Stenosis of mitral orifice
B. Stenosis of aortic orifice
C. Aortic incompetence
D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery
E. Tricuspid valve incompetence
11.
At auscultation of a heart the first sound at heart apex is weakened, second sound at
pulmonary artery is amplified. At the apex it is recorded the diastolic murmur merging with the first
heart sound. The murmur occupies all the systole, intensifies in position of the patient on the left
side and is conducted towards axillary region. What heart defect this phenomena are typical for?
A. * Stenosis of mitral orifice
B. Stenosis of aortic orifice
C. Aortic incompetence
D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery
E. Tricuspid valve incompetence
12.
At inspection of patient R., 29 years old, paleness of the skin and mucosa, capillary
“carotide shudder” were revealed. Data of auscultation: the I sound at the apex and the 2nd sound at
the aorta are weakened. Soft blowing protodiastolic murmur is heard at the 2nd intercostal space
rightwards of the sternum. Which heart defect are these data typical for?
A. Stenosis of mitral orifice
B. Stenosis of aortic orifice
C. * Aortic incompetence
D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery
E. Tricuspid valve incompetence
13.
At inspection of patient R., 29 years old, who complains of dizziness and periodical faints,
paleness of the skin and mucosa is revealed. Data of percussion show shift of the right border of
relative heart dullness to the anterior axillary line. By auscultation: the I sound at the apex and the
2nd sound at the aorta are weakened. Rough rasping systolic murmur is heard at the 2nd intercostal
space rightwards of the sternum. Which heart defect are these data typical for?
A. Stenosis of mitral orifice
B. * Stenosis of aortic orifice
C. Aortic incompetence
D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery
E. Tricuspid valve incompetence
14.
During examination of a patient’s heart the following auscultation picture was revealed: the
heart sounds are weakened, tachycardia, tripple rrhythm is heard at the apex which is better
auscultated when the patient is lying on the left side. Which pathological condition are these data
typical for?
A. * Stenosis of mitral orifice
B. Stenosis of aortic orifice
C. Aortic incompetence
D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery
E. Tricuspid valve incompetence
15.
In patient C. with aortal incompetence systolic thrill in the ІІ intercostal space rightward of
the sternum was determined. Indicate, please, expected changes of the heart borders position.
A. Displacement of right border of relative cardiac dullness rightward,
B. * Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward
C. Displacement of the upper heart border of relative cardiac dullness upward,
D. Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward, the right border –
rightward,
E. Displacement of the right heart border of relative cardiac dullness rightward and the upper
one – upward.
16.
Patient M., 72 years old, suffers with atherosclerosis. He complains of headache and
periodical dizziness. By inspection it is possible to see movements of his head in anterioposterior
direction and pulsation of carotic arteries. Aortal incompetence is diagnosed by auscultation and
ultrasound examination. Which data of auscultation is it possible to reveal?
A. * Diastolic murmur at heart apex
B. Systolic murmur at heart apex
C. Diastolic murmur at aorta
D. Diastolic murmur at pulmonary trunk
E. Systolic murmur at aorta
17.
A patient suffers from dyspnoe, pain in the heart region, feeling of heart intermissions. On
the phonocardiogram Q-to-first sound pause is more then 0,06 seconds. What disease is possible in
the patient?
A. Aortal incompetence,
B. Mitral incompetence
C. Aortal stenosis
D. * Mitral stenosis
E. Tricuspidal stenosis
18.
A patient who is being on long-standing treatment because of aortic heart defect, now is
examined with auscultation. What is the direct auscultatory sign of aortic stenosis?
A. Intensification of ist heart sound at the apex.
B. Accentuation of the II sound at the pulmonary artery.
C. * Systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space rightwards from the sternum.
D. Systolic murmur at the xyphoid process.
E. Systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space leftwards from the sternum.
19.
At auscultation of a heart the first sound at heart apex is weakened, second sound at a
pulmonary artery is amplified. At the apex it is recorded the systolic murmur merging with the first
heart sound. The murmur occupies all the systole, intensifies in position of the patient on the left
side and is conducted towards axillary region. What heart defect this phenomena are typical for?
A. * Stenosis of mitral orifice
B. Stenosis of aortic orifice
C. Aortic incompetence
D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery
E. Tricuspid valve incompetence
20.
At inspection of patient R., 29 years old, paleness of the skin and mucosa, capillary
“carotide shudder” were revealed. Data of auscultation: the I sound at the apex and the 2nd sound at
the aorta are weakened. Soft blowing protodiastolic murmur is heard. What phenomena may be
revealed at patient’s femoral artery?
A. * Flint’s murmur, doble Traube’s sound.
B. Kumb's murmur
C. Systolic murmur.
D. Intermittent pulse.
E. Paradoxic pulse.
21.
Data of an echocardiogram: considerable enlagrement of sizes aorta, abnormal systolic
movements of its walls, decreased diameter of aortic orifice at the moment of separation of cusps.
What disease is possible in the patient?
A. Aortal incompetence,
B. * Aortal stenosis
C. Aortitis
D. Aortoclerosis
E. Calcinosis
22.
Data of an echocardiogram: hypertrophy of the left ventricle and atrium, deformation of
mitral valve cusps, unidireted movement of cusps in separation phase. What disease is possible in
the patient?
A. Mitral incompetence,
B. * Mitral stenosis
C. Aortal stenosis
D. Prolapse of the mitral valve
E. Tricuspidal stenosis
23.
In patient P., 20 years old, which is suffering from rheumatic fever within recent 5 years,
marked weakening of the II sound at the aorta is heard by auscultation as well as rough systolic
murmur at the aorta, which is transmitted towards carotic arteries. What heart defect is probably
present in this case?
A. Stenosis of the mitral valve.
B. Mitral valve incompetence.
C. Defect of intreventricular septum.
D. Aortic valve incompetence.
E. * Stenosis of the aortic rout.
24.
A patient with exacerbation of rheumatic fever is undergone ultrasound examination of his
heart. Which data of EchoCG may be expected in mitral stenosis?
A. considerable enlagrement of aorta sizes, abnormal systolic movements of its walls,
decreased diameter of aortic orifice at the moment of separation of its cusps
B. * hypertrophy of the left atrium, deformation of mitral valve cusps, equal direction of
movement of cusps in separation phase
C. hypertrophy of the left atrium and ventricle, deformation and shrivering of mitral valve
cusps, incomplete closure of its cusps
D. Prolapse of the mitral valve,
E. considerable enlagrement of the left ventricle, incomplete closure of aortic valve cusps.
25.
A patient with exacerbation of rheumatic fever is undergone ultrasound examination of his
heart. Which data of EchoCG may be expected in mitral incompetence?
A. considerable enlagrement of aorta sizes, abnormal systolic movements of its walls,
decreased diameter of aortic orifice at the moment of separation of its cusps
B. hypertrophy of the left atrium, deformation of mitral valve cusps, equal direction of
movement of cusps in separation phase
C. * hypertrophy of the left atrium and ventricle, deformation and shrivering of mitral valve
cusps, incomplete closure of its cusps
D. Prolapse of the mitral valve,
E. considerable enlagrement of the left ventricle, incomplete closure of aortic valve cusps.
26.
A patient with exacerbation of rheumatic fever is undergone ultrasound examination of his
heart. Which data of EchoCG may be expected in aortic stenosis?
A. considerable enlagrement of aorta sizes, abnormal systolic movements of its walls,
decreased diameter of aortic orifice at the moment of separation of its cusps
B. hypertrophy of the left atrium, deformation of mitral valve cusps, equal direction of
movement of cusps in separation phase
C. * hypertrophy of the left atrium and ventricle, deformation and shrivering of mitral valve
cusps, incomplete closure of its cusps
D. Prolapse of the mitral valve,
E. considerable enlagrement of the left ventricle, incomplete closure of aortic valve cusps.
27.
A patient with exacerbation of rheumatic fever is undergone ultrasound examination of his
heart. Which data of EchoCG may be expected in aortic incompetence?
A. considerable enlagrement of aorta sizes, abnormal systolic movements of its walls,
decreased diameter of aortic orifice at the moment of separation of its cusps
B. hypertrophy of the left atrium, deformation of mitral valve cusps, equal direction of
movement of cusps in separation phase
C. hypertrophy of the left atrium and ventricle, deformation and shrivering of mitral valve
cusps, incomplete closure of its cusps
D. Prolapse of the mitral valve,
E. * considerable enlagrement of the left ventricle, incomplete closure of aortic valve cusps.
28.
A patient with rheumatic fever suffers with dyspnoe, pain in the heart region, feeling of
heart intermissions. A doctor supposes mitral stenosis in the patient. Which data of
phonocardiogram lets to asses degree of stenosis?
A. Intensity of I heart sound
B. Intensity of II heart sound at pulmonary artery
C. diastolic murmur
D. * Q-to-first heart sound pause
E. all of them
29.
Data of an echocardiogram: hypertrophy of the left ventricle and atrium, deformation of
mitral valve cusps, equal direction of movement of cusps in separation phase. What disease is
possible in the patient?
A. Mitral incompetence,
B. * Mitral stenosis,
C. Aortal stenosis,
D. Prolapse of the mitral valve,
E. Tricuspidal stenosis.
30.
Data of echocardiogram: considerable enlagrement of aorta sizes, abnormal systolic
movements of its walls, decreased diameter of aortic orifice at the moment of separation of its
cusps. What disease is it possible in the patient?
A. Aortal incompetence,
B. * Aortal stenosis,
C. Aortitis,
D. Aortoclerosis,
E. Calcinosis.
31.
Data of phonocardiographic examination: widening of aortic rout, sickness and calcification
of its walls. What disease is it possible in the patient?
A. Aortitis,
B. * Atherosclerotic aortosclerosis,
C. Myocarditis,
D. Syphilitic mesaortitis,
E. Calcinosis.
32.
A 20- year-old patient with a history of preceding streptococcal infection complains of
malaise, headache, anorexia, subfebrile fever. On exam, mild generalized edema, blood pressure is
150/90 mm Hg, heart rate is 100/min, respiratory rate is 20/min, the urinalysis showed increased
protein, red cells casts and hyaline casts. What is your diagnosis?
A. * Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Essential hypertension
E. Bacterial endocarditis
33.
A man, aged 25, presents with facial edema, moderate back pains, body temperature of 37,5
С, blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg, hematuria [ up to 100 in v/f], proteinuria [2,0 g/L], hyaline
casts - 10 in v/f., urine specific gravity -1020. The onset of the disease is probably connected with
acute tonsillitis 2 weeks ago. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. * glomerulonephritis
B. pyelonephritis
C. Cancer of the kidney
D. Urolithiasis
E. Renal failure
34.
Patient T., 48 years old, has an attack of kidney eclampsia. What will not be
characteristically for this state?
A. Convulsions
B. * Eyeballs are soft
C. Swellings of neck veins
D. Pupils are dilated and irresponsive on light
E. Smell from a mouth
35.
A patient complains of gingival bleedings,incraesed body temperature till 38`C,marked
general weakness.He feels himself sick for the recent 2weeks.Data of objective
examination,petectnia on the skin,by palpation enlarged submandibular axillary and femoral lymph
nodes.Data of CBC: thrombocytes-120000/l, Le-18,6 .10`9/l, blast cels-80%, ESR-36 mm/hr. Acute
leukaemia is diagnosed. What is the main treatment for this disease?
A. corticosteroides
B. radiotherapy
C. * chemiotherapy
D. surgical therapy
E. immunostimulators
36.
A patient complains of pain in the lumbar region, dark urine, weakness, dizziness. These
symptoms arise after usage of aspirin and ampicillin. Data of objective examination: skin pallor,
subicteric sclera. Ps-90 per min, liver +2cm, spleen +3cm, painful in palpation. Data of CBC :er2,2.10 9/l, Hb-60g/l.CI-0,5, Le-9,4.10`9/l,basophil-0,5%,e-3%,stub-6%,lymph-25%,mon-7%, ESR38mm/hr, reticulocytes-24%. Biochemical blood study: bilirubin common-38mmol/l. Which
preparation is it necessary to prescribe to prevent renal failure?
A. Isotonic saline solution
B. * 4% sodium solution
C. glucose solution
D. 7% potassium solution
E. transfusion of blood.
37.
A 25-year-old woman complained of fatigue, hair loss, and brittle nails. On exam, pallor of
skin, pulse rate 94/min, blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg. CBC: Hb 90 g/L, RBC 3.5•1012/L, color
index 0.7, ESR 20 mm/h. Serum iron level 8.7 mcmol/L. What treatment would you initiate?
A. * Ferrous sulfate orally
B. Iron dextrin injections
C. Vitamin B12 intramuscularly
D. Blood transfusion
E. Packed RBCs transfusion
38.
A 47-year-old obese man complained of periodic attacks of acute arthritis in the 1st left
tarsophalangeal joint. Lab exam revealed increased serum level of uric acid. What is the diagnosis?
A. * Gout arthritis
B. Reiter’s disease
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Rheumatic arthritis
E. Osteoarthritis
39.
A 47-year-old obese man complained of periodic attacks of acute arthritis in the 1st left
tarsophalangeal joint. Lab exam revealed increased serum level of uric acid. What is the diagnosis?
A. * Gout arthritis
B. Reiter’s disease
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Rheumatic arthritis
E. Osteoarthritis
40.
A patient of 32 years old complains of severe weakness, tremor of extremities. Objective
examination\: body weight loss, wet and warm skin. The thyroid gland is enlarged up to the 3rd
degree, painless, elastic. Pulse\: 108. BP- 160\55 mmHg. Everything else is normal. Which
pathological condition are these data typical for:
A. * Diffuse toxic goiter
B. Diffuse euthyroid goiter
C. Hypothyreosis
D. Chronic fibrous thyroiditis
E. Vegetovascular dystonia
41.
A patient of 31 years old complains of severe weakness, tremor of extremities. Objective
examination: body weight loss, wet & warm skin. The thyroid gland is enlarged up to the 3rd
degree, painless, elastic. Pulse rate is 108 per min, blood pressure 160/55 mmHg. No any other
pathological changes are found out. Which pathological condition are these data typical for?
A. * Diffuse toxic goiter, thyrotoxicosis
B. Diffuse euthyroid goiter
C. Hypothyreosis
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Essential hypertension
42.
A patient who suffers from postheamorrhagic anemia was treated with tardiferon. Now
erythrocytes and hemoglobin contents are normal. How long treatment with iron preparation should
last?
A. 11-5 months
B. 3-4 weeks
C. 5-6 weeks
D. * 2-3 months
E. 7-8 months
43.
A patient who suffers from postheamorrhagic anemia was treated with tardiferon. Within
five weeks. Now erythrocytes and hemoglobin contents correspond to norm. Is it necessary to
continue treatment?
A. no
B. * yes if serum iron and indexes of its metabolism are lower than normal
C. yes but choose another drug
D. all answers are wrong
E. it is necessary to check other criteria’s of CBC
44.
A wonan , 57 y . o . suffers from weakness, absence of appetite, liquid feces. She has these
problems for 2 years. Data of objective examination: paleness of skin, sclera are yellowish, the
tongue is bright-red with fissures. Lymph nodes are enlarged. P ulse is 100 per min . Blood pressure
100 per min. Liver + 3 cm. spleen is not enlarged . Data of CBC: Hb 56 g / l , er . 1,2 х10 12/ l ,
color index - 1,4 , macrocites, leuk . 2 , 5 х10 9/ l , eozyn. 1 %, juvenile 1 %, metamyelocites 1 %,
stub neutroph. 8 %, segmented neutroph. 47 %, lymphocites 38 %, monocites 4 % , reticulocites 0,1
%. ESR 20 mm per hr, thrombocites 100x10 9/l, Which treatment is it necessary to prescribe?
A. Folic acid
B. Iron preparations
C. * Vitamin B12
D. Glucocorticoids
E. All mentioned
45.
A wonan, 38 y.o. suffers from menorrhagias. She complains of flickering before eyes,
dizziness, skin dryness, loosing of hairs. Data of ovjective exaiation: paleness of skin and mucosa .
Pulse is 100 per min , rrhythmic . Liver and spleen are not enlarged . Data of CBC: Hb 90 g / l , er .
3,3х10 9/ l , CI - 0,7, reticulocites .1,2%, leuk .4,8х10 9/l , eosyn .2%, stub 3%, segmented 70%,
lymphocites 25%, monocites 10%. Serum iron 4,2 mkmol / l . Which treatment is it necessary to
prescribe?
A. Folic acid
B. * Iron preparations
C. Vitamin B12
D. Glucocorticoids
E. All mentioned
46.
In patient who suffers from duodenal ulcer complains of general weakness, dyspnoe in
insignificant physical load and desire to eat a chalk. Data of objective examination: skin paleness,
throphic changes of skin. CBC: erythrocytes 3,3.1012/l Hb 90g/l Ci-0,75, reticulocytes-2%, serum
iron-5,6 micmol/l. Which diet will you prescribe for the patient?
A. low fat diet
B. * enriched with meat and fruits
C. enriched with milk products
D. enriched with vegetables
E. restriction of salt intake
47.
On the second postoperative day after a subtotal thyroidectomy, the patient tells the doctor
that he feels numbness and tingling around the mouth. What a doctor may suspect in the patient?
A. Thyrotoxic crisis.
B. Hypothyreoid coma
C. * Disfunction of parathyroid glands
D. Brain stroke
E. Hypertonic crisis
48.
Patient L., 46 years old, a woman, is inspected by a doctor. Data of inspection\: the face is of
intensive red colour, round (like Moon), hair growth is present on patient's chin and under the upper
lip. Which disease this facial expressionis typical for?
A. * Itsenko-Kushing's syndrome
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Mixedema
D. Sclerodermia
E. No any answer is correct.
49.
Patient L., 46 years old, a woman, is inspected by a doctor. Data of inspection\: the face is of
intensive red colour, round (like Moon), hair growth is present on patient's chin and under the upper
lip. Which disease this facial expressionis typical for?
A. * Itsenko-Kushing's syndrome
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Mixedema
D. Sclerodermia
E. No any answer is correct.
50.
Patient S. 40 years old, is on the long-standing treatment in endocrinologial department.
Data of inspection: the face is puffy, amimic, eye slits ate narrowed, hair is abcent on the external
parts of eyebroves, the nose and lips are enlarged, skin is pallid. Which disease is this facial
expression typical for?
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Quinke's edema
C. Acromegalia
D. * Hypothyreosis
E. No any answer is correct.
51.
Patient S. 40 years old, is on the long-standing treatment in endocrinologial department.
Data of inspection: the face is puffy, amimic, eye slits ate narrowed, hair is abcent on the external
parts of eyebroves, the nose and lips are enlarged, skin is pallid. Which disease is this facial
expression typical for?
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Quinke's edema
C. Acromegalia
D. * Hypothyreosis
E. No any answer is correct.
52.
Patient В.45 years old, a woman, was admitted to a hospital with complaints on palpitation,
tremor of her hands. Data of examination: expression of fair on patient's face, eye sleats are
widened, eyes are protruded. Which facial expression is observed in the patient?
A. facies mitralis
B. facies Hippocraticа
C. * facies Basedovica
D. facies febrilis
E. No any answer is correct
53.
Patient В.45 years old, a woman, was admitted to a hospital with complaints on palpitation,
tremor of her hands. Data of examination\: expression of fair on patient's face, eye sleats are
widened, eyes are protruded. Which facial expression is observed in the patient?
A. facies mitralis
B. facies Hippocraticа
C. * facies Basedovica
D. facies febrilis
E. No any answer is correct
54.
In a patient of 48 y.o. during examination in admissious department pneumonia was
diagnosed in the middle lobe of the right lung. Which data of palpation will be?
A. Barrel-shaped chest
B. Paralytic chest
C. Pain in one interspace
D. * Increased resistance of the affected part of the chest
E. Thoracic type of breathing
55.
Patient A. 63 y.o., is on long-standing treatment because of thrombophlebitis of the lower
limbs veins. Suddenly he has developed sharp pain in the right part of the chest. It intensifies in
inspiration, is followed with cough and expectoration of bloody sputum. Besides the patient has
marked dyspnea, severe wekness, dizziness. In examination geleral condition is severe. Skin pallor,
cyanosis of the face and neck. Respiratory rate is 36 per min. Which disease should you suspect?
A. Croupous pneumonia
B. * Pulmonary thrombembolism
C. Lung cancer
D. Exacerbation of bronchiectatic disease
E. Rupture of pulmonary abscess into a bronchus
56.
Patient H. is diagnosed acute catarrhal bronchitis. The patient suffers of shills, cough with
expectoration of mucous sputum. Which data of percussion should be expected ower the chest?
A. Bandbox sound
B. Dull sound
C. Dull-to-thympany sound
D. * Clear pulmonary (resonant) sound
E. Slight dullness
57.
A patient complains of fever, dry cough, progressing inspiratory dyspnea. Data of
auscultation and percussion lets to attending doctor to suspect pleurisy with effusion. Which forced
position is typical for such patients?
A. Sitting
B. * Lying on the affected side
C. Lying on healthy side
D. The patient is sitting, declining forward, supporting with hands on the window-steel
E. The patient is restless
58.
Patient V. on 4th day after operation because of ovarial cystoma had developed sharp pain
in the right part of the chest and expectoration of pink sputum, dyspnea. Percussion of lungs showed
dullness in the lower parts of both lungs. Which complication is possible?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Lung abscess
Pneumonia
* Lung infarction (pulmonary artery thrombembolism)
Pleurisy with effusion
Pneumothorax
59.
A patient with pleural exudation was undergone pleurocentesis and 1 liter of fluid was
obtained. In the same time ultrasound examination showed that there were 2 litres of fluid in the
pleural cavity. How data of percussion will change after the puncture?
A. The sound will become tympanic
B. The sound will stay dull
C. The sound will become bandbox
D. The sound will become resonant
E. * The intensity and square of dullness will decrease
60.
Data of inspection of a chest: the lover part of its sternum is depressed into the chest, the
chest is narrow, costoarticular junctions are enlarged and resemble beads. What type of a chest is
present in this patient?
A. Paralytic
B. * Rachitic
C. Lordosis
D. Emphysematous
E. Normal
61.
Data of inspection of a chest of a patient with tuberculosis: its anterior-posterior diameter is
decreased, the chest is not symmetrical, scapulas are separated from it like wings, intercostal spaces,
supra- and subclavicular fossa are elevated. What type of a chest is present in this patient?
A. * Paralytic
B. Rachitic
C. Lodosis
D. Emphysematous
E. Normal
62.
During inspection of a chest it was revealed that spinal cord is curved backward and
rightward in its thoracic part. How is this deformation called?
A. Kyphosis
B. Scoliosis
C. Lordosis
D. * Kyphoscoliosis
E. Kypholordosis
63.
During inspection of a chest it was revealed that spinal cord is curved backwards in its
thoracic part more than in norm. How is this deformation called?
A. * Kyphosis
B. Scoliosis
C. Lordosis
D. Kyphoscoliosis
E. Kypholordosis
64.
During inspection of a chest it was revealed that spinal cord is curved leftwards in its
thoracic part more than in norm. How is this deformation called?
A. Kyphosis
B. * Scoliosis
C. Lordosis
D. Kyphoscoliosis
E. Kypholordosis
65.
During inspection of the patient’s chest the last one is revealed to be diminished in anterioposterior and lateral diameters, the chest is narrow and flat. Epigastric angle is less than 90 degrees.
What is the type of the chest?
A. * Asthenic
B.
C.
D.
E.
Normosthenic
Hypersthenic
Emphysematous
Foveated
66.
During prophylactic examination of adolescent person it was revealed by percussion that the
lungs apexes rise above the clavicles up to 3 cm. How to assess revealed signs?
A. Pulmonary emphysema
B. Bronchial obstruction
C. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue
D. * Norm
E. Right-sided hydrothorax
67.
In the patient ill with croupous pneumonia in the stage of hepatization of pulmonary tissue
cough will be … and vocal fremitus will be …
A. * Moist cough, intensified vocal fremitus
B. Dry cough, weakened vocal fremitus
C. Moist cough, weakened vocal fremitus
D. Moist cough, absent vocal fremitus
E. Cough is absent, weakened vocal fremitus
68.
A patient developed sufficient intensification of vocal fremitus in the lower part of the right
lung. Which percussion sound should you expect in the patient?
A. Resonant
B. Tympanic
C. * Dull
D. Bandbox
E. Flat
69.
Patient R. is on long-standing treatment because of pleurisy with effusion. Typical
complaint in this disease on the stage of stabilization of exudation is:
A. Pain in the chest at inspiration
B. Chocking over in swallowing
C. * Feeling of heaviness and tension in lower part of the chest on the affected side
D. Dry cough
E. Hemopthysis
70.
Patient R. is on long-standing treatment because of lung disease. In the morning he usually
develop cough with expectoration for about 200 ml of purulent sputum. Which pathological
condition is it typical for?
A. Tuberculosis
B. * Bronchiectatic disease
C. Focal pneumonia
D. Empyema pleurae
E. Bronchial asthma
71.
Patient K., 20 y.o., after overcooling developed chills, pain in the right part of the chest,
general weakness. In the evening of the same day his body temperature rose up to 40 ºC, cough
with expectoration of small amount of sputum developed. Present data of examination: condition of
the patient is of moderate severity, skin pallor, sweat. Respiratory rate 24 per min. Retardation of
the right part of the chest in respiration, by percussion – dull sound below of scapular angle on the
same side. Which pathological mechanism lies in the basis of this condition?
A. * Inflammatory consolidation of pulmonary tissue
B. Obstruction of fine bronchi
C. Bronchial tumour
D. All mentioned
E. No any of them
72.
A patient, 37 y.o., complains of dyspnea, cough with expectoration of small amount of
sputum. Several times she developed attacks of suffocation, these attacks disaper after expectoration
of sputum. The patient suffers of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease for 5 years. During the last
2 month she noticed aggravation of her condition after grippe. Present examination data: during
percussion hyperresonant sound is heard over all the lungs. Lower lungs borders mobility is
decreased. Which changes are possible to find above lungs apexes?
A. Bilateral diminishing
B. Unilateral diminishing
C. * Bilateral enlargement
D. Unilateral enlargement
E. No changes
73.
A patient, 42 y.o., suffers of bronchial asthma for years. Now she is urgently transported to
a clinics with prolonged asthma attack. Data of examination: condition is severe. The patient is
excited, skin is pale-grey, moist. Respiration is frequent, superficiall. By auscultation a doctor
cannot hear any respiratory sounds. What is the cause of this condition?
A. * Gross spasm of fine bronchi with following ineffective pulmonary ventilation
B. Pleural effusion
C. Pulmonary tissue consoldation
D. Block of the trachea
E. No any answer is correct
74.
A patient, 28 y.o., complains of dyspnea in rest, dull pain in the right part of the chest, dry
cough, fever 38,5 ºC, weakness, sweating. He is ill for the last weak. Received treatment because of
grippe. 1 day ago the patient developed pain in the right chest, dry painful cough and dyspnea. Data
of examination: general condition is of moderate severity, acrocyanosis, respiratory rate 36 per min,
the right part of the chest retardation in respiration. Data of percussion: from the middle of the right
scapula and downwards dull percussion sound is heard which shifts to complete dullness. Which
pathological condition is possible to supect?
A. * Croupous pneumonia located in the right lower lung lobe
B. Right-sided pleurisy with effusion
C. Tumour of the right lung
D. Echinococcus cyst of the lung
E. Tuberculosis
75.
A patient applies to a doctor with complaints on pain in the right part of the chest in deep
inspiration, dry cough, general weakness. A doctor after examination suspected dry pleurisy in him.
Which data of objective examination wil be helpful in diagnostics of this disease?
A. Low grade fever
B. Dull-to-thympany sound below the right scapula
C. * Pleural friction sound in the right part of the chest below the scapula in inspiration and
expiration
D. Decreased lower lung border mobility on the right side
E. External signs of dyspnea
76.
A patient applies to a doctor with complaints on pain in the right part of the chest in deep
inspiration, dry cough, general weakness. A doctor after examination suspected pleurisy with
effusion in him.Which character of pain is typical for this disease?
A. Cutting and permanent
B. Stubbing, appears in inspiration, cough
C. * Feeling of heaviness and tension on the affected side
D. Pressing, occurs in physical load
E. Pain is absent
77.
A patient applies to a doctor with complaints on pain in the right part of the chest in deep
inspiration, dry cough, general weakness. A doctor after examination suspected pleurisy with
effusion on the right side of the chest in him.Which changes of topographic percussion should be
expected?
A. Decreased lower lung border mobility on the opposite side
B. Bilateral decrease of lower lung border mobility
C. * The zone of transition of clear pulmonary (resonant) sound to the dull one is located above
the expected normal position of the left lower lung border
D. Widened Kroenig’s area
E. No changes
78.
A patient applies to a doctor with complaints on pain in the right part of the chest in deep
inspiration, dry cough, general weakness. A doctor after examination suspected right-sided dry
pleurisy in him. What is the character of pain in this case?
A. Cutting permanent
B. * Stubbing, appears in inspiration or cough
C. Feeling of heaviness and tension on the affected side
D. Pressing, occurs in physical load
E. Pain is absent
79.
In patient T., 42 y.o., who is ill with right-sided dry pleurisy, on the 4th day of the disease
pain in the chest had decreased, but the patient developed heaviness in the right part of the chest,
progressive dyspnea, general weakness and fever about 37,8 ºC. A doctor suspect pleurisy with
effusion in him. Which changes will be in objective examination?
A. In dynamic inspection of the chest there will be retardation of affected part in respiration
B. Enlargement of the right part of the chest
C. Weakened vocal fremitus on the right side
D. Dullness above the lower part of the right side of the chest with oblique upper border
E. * All mentioned
80.
A patient applies to a doctor with complaints on pain in the right part of the chest in deep
inspiration, dry cough, general weakness. A doctor after examination suspected right-sided pleurisy
with effusion in him. Which changes of topographic percussion should be expected?
A. Bilateral decrease of lower lung border mobility
B. The zone of transition of clear pulmonary (resonant) sound to the dull one is displaced
downwards
C. The zone of transition of clear pulmonary (resonant) sound to the dull one is displaced
upwards
D. * Widened Kroenig’s area
E. No changes
81.
A patient of 45 y.o. complains of paroxysmal attacks of expiratory dyspnea, severe dry
cough. He is ill for 5 years. Attacks occur mostly at night, suddenly, last for 2-3 hours, than the
patient start to expectorate viscous mucous sputum and an attack disappear. Data of examination:
forced position – sitting, supporting on a table with hands. Participation of adventitious respiratory
muscles in breathing. Respiration is shallow, with whistling sounds. The chest is widened, lower
lungs borders are displaced downward. Which changes of lung apexes is it possible to find out?
A. Bilateral decrease of heighth of lungs apexes
B. Unilatreral decrease of heighth of lungs apexes
C. * Bilateral increase of heighth of lungs apexes
D. Unilatreral inecrease of heighth of lungs apexes
E. No changes
82.
A patient of 45 y.o. complains of attack of expiratory dyspnea, severe dry cough. He is ill
for 5 years. Attacks occur mostly at night, suddenly, last for 203 hours, than the patient start to
expectorate viscous mucous sputum and an attack disappear. Data of examination: forced position –
sitting, supporting on a table with hands. Participation of adventitious respiratory muscles in
breathing. Respiration is shallow, with whistlings, borders are displaced downward. The chest is
widened. Which disease is it possible to diagnose?
A. Pleurisy with effusion
B. Exacerbation of non-obstructive chronic bronchitis
C. * Bronchial asthma
D. Bronchiectatic disease
E. Croupous pneumonia
83.
Patient A. complains of dry cough followed by pain in the right part of the chest, fever 3940° C, sweating, dyspnea. During objective examination croupous pneumonia was diagnosed.
Which provoking factor of this disease do you know?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Viral infection
Tobacco dust inhalation
* Overcooling
Overheating
Eating of spoiled food
84.
Patient A. complains of dry cough followed by pain in the right part of the chest in deep
breathing and cough, fever 39-40 ºC, sweating, dyspnea. During objective examination croupous
pneumonia was diagnosed. Which anatomical structure affection causes cough in this disease?
A. Tracheal mucous membrane
B. Bronchial mucous membrane
C. Lungs parenchyma
D. * Pleura
E. Lymph nodes
85.
Patient B. was hospitalized in pulmonological department with pneumonia of the right
lower lung lobe. Data of examination: retardation of affected side of the chest in breathing, by
palpation – decreased elasticity of the chest on affected side. Which percutorial sound is it possible
to listen to in this area?
A. Clear pulmonary (resonant)
B. Tympanic
C. * Dull
D. Bandbox
E. Dull-to-thymppany
86.
26. Patient Z. complains of permanent pain in the chest, cough with expectoration of bloody
sputum, diffusely mixed with mucus. Sputum looks like strawberry jelly. Which disease is it typical
for?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pulmonary tuberculosis
D. Pneumonia
E. * Lung cancer
87.
A patient is ill with acute bronchitis. He complains of cough with easy expectoration of
small amount of white transparent sputum, easly diacharged. How is this sputum called?
A. Serous
B. * Mucous
C. Mucopurulent
D. Purulent
E. Glass-like
88.
A patient is ill with croupous pneumonia. He complains of chills, general weakness, dryness
in the mouth, headache, sweating, pain in muscles. Body temperature is 39,2 ºC. Which syndrome
do these data indicate on?
A. Mucociliary insufficierncy
B. * Endogenous intoxication
C. Respiratory failure
D. Pulmonary tissue consolidation
E. Bronchial obstruction
89.
A patient with chronic bronchitis complains of dry cough, pierching sensations behind the
sternum at the moments when the patient leaves warm room and goes to the cold as well as when he
breathes with tobacco dust. Which anatopmical system affection does cause this sensation?
A. Pharynx
B. * Mucosa of trachea and large bronchi
C. Lung parenchyma
D. Pleura
E. Lymph nodes
90.
Patient E. 48 y.o., 3 days ago was undergone resection of one lung because of destructive
tuberculosis. Which data of inspection will be?
A. Barrel-shaped chest
B. Pigeon chest
C. * In dynamic inspection of the chest there will be retardation of affected part in respiration
D. Collapse of the affected part of the chest
E. Wide intercostal spaces on the affected side
91.
Patient P. is hospitalized with diagnosis “bronchial asthma, severe exacerbation. Pulmonary
emphysema, respiratory failure of II degree”. Which position of lower lung border will be in this
case?
A. Displaced downward on one side
B. Displaced upward on one side
C. * Displaced downward on both sides
D. Displaced upward on both sides
E. No changes
92.
Patient complains of periodical attacks of expiratory dyspnea which occur after contact with
animal’s foeter. They may be stopped with salbutamol inhalations and finish with expectoration of
sputum. Which sputum is it typical for this diseas?
A. Serous
B. Mucous
C. * Glass-like mucous
D. Mucopurulent
E. Purulent
93.
Patient P. is hospitalized with diagnosis “bronchial asthma, severe exacerbation. Pulmonary
emphysema, respiratory failure of II degree”. How will mobility of lungs lower borders will change
in this case?
A. Decrease on one side
B. Increase on one side
C. * Decrease on both sides
D. Increase on both sides
E. No changes
94.
A patient complains of dyspnea in rest, heaviness in the head and deranged sleep. Data of
examinations: diffuse cyanosis, respiratory rate is 34 per min. Which syndrome are these data
typical for?
A. Mucociliary insufficiency
B. Bronchial obstruction
C. * Respiratory failure
D. Pulmonary tissue consolidation
E. Pulmonary tissue hyperpneumatization
95.
A patient complains of acute intensive pain in the right part of the chest. The pain has
occurred suddenly 30 min ago. By percussion on the anterior side of the chest on the level of 3-5
ribs tympanic sound is heard. Which syndrome are these data typical for?
A. Mucociliary insufficiency
B. Bronchial obstruction
C. * Presence of air in pleural cavity
D. Pulmonary tissue consolidation
E. Pulmonary tissue hyperpneumatization
96.
A patient with bronchial asthma suffers from periodical attacks (1-2 times per day) which
may be released with salbutamol inhalations. Between attacks he feel himself quite well, physical
activity is not restricted. How to evaluate patient’s condition?
A. Satisfactory
B. * Moderate severity
C. Severe
D. Very severe
E. Agony
97.
A patient of 26 y.o. developed a disease suddenly 2 days ago. The disease started sharply
with headache, weakness, cough whith “rusty” sputum. Data of examinations: face is hyperemic,
respiratory rate 36 per min. By percussion above the lungs – dull sound is heard rightward from the
right scapula angle, vocal fremitus is absent there. Boby temperature is 38 ºC Which preliminary
diagnosis is the most probable?
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Bronchiectatic disease
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Pleurisy with effusion
E. * Pneumonia
98.
A patient of 38 y.o. developed a disease 2 weeks ago when he felt cough, weakness, body
temperature elevation up to 38 ºC. His condition sharply worsened till the end of 1st week, when he
developed chills, excess sweating, fever 39 ºC. 2 days before hospitalization during cough the
patient expectorated 600 ml of bed smelling sputum and then patient’s condition benefited. Now
respiratory rate is 20 per min, temperature – 37,6 ºC. In which disease is possible to discharge
sputum in such a way?
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. * Lung abscess
C. Pulmonary infarction
D. Pneumonia
E. Pleurisy with effusion
99.
A patient 38 y.o. complains of attack-like cough with expectoration of small amount of
“rusty" sputum, pain in the right side in deep breathing and cough. Onset of the disease was acute
after overcooling. Data of examination: body temperature 39,2 C, respiratory rate 22 per min. Skin
is moist, hyperemia of cheeks. Which diagnosis is the most probable?
A. Pleurisy with effusion
B. Bronchiectatic disease
C. Pulmonary tuberculosis
D. Acute bronchitis
E. * Pneumonia
100. A patient of 40 y.o. complains of attack-like cough with brownish sputum, pain in the right
side in deep breathing, sweating. He is ill for 6 days after overcooling. Data of examination: body
temperature 39,6 C, respiratory rate 26 per min. By percussion in lower parts of right lung – dull
sound, by palpation – vocal fremitus is absent. Which disease is the most probable?
A. * Fibrinous pleurisy
B. Lung abscess
C. Empyema pleurae
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
E. Lung athelectasis
101. In a patient of 48 y.o. during examination in admissious department pneumonia was
diagnosed. The inflammatory focus is located in the lower lobe of the right lung. Which data of
inspection of the chest will be?
A. Barrel-shaped chest
B. Paralytic chest
C. * In dynamic inspection of the chest there will be retardation of affected part in respiration
D. Collapse of the affectedt part of the chest
E. Thoracic type of breathing
102. A patient of 40 y.o. complains of attack-like cough with brownish sputum, pain in the right
side in deep breathing, sweating. He is ill for 6 days after overcooling. Data of examination: body
temperature 39,6 ºC, respiratory rate is 26 per min. During percussion in lower parts of right lung
dull sound is heard. Which changes of vocal fremitus will be?
A. Intensified above the upper part of affected lung
B. Decreased upper part of affected lung
C. * Absent on affected side
D. Not changed
E. No any answer is correct
103. A patient of 60 y.o. complains of dyspnea with difficult expiration, which intensifies in
physical load, on cough with expectoration of small amount of mucopurulent sputum, especially in
the morning. He suffers from COPD for years. What is the mechanism of dyspnea in this disease?
A. Hypercapnia
B. *Bronchial obstruction (at the level of fine and median bronchi)
C. Bronchospasm
D. Obstruction of upper airways
E. Accumulation of sputum
104. A patient of 64 y.o. was a worker in the staliness factory in the past. He was ill with chronic
bronchitis for years. Now he is hospitalized with complaints on acute pain in the right part of the
chest and dyspneawhich developed suddenly 2 hors beore. Data of examination: cyanosis, swelling
of neck veins. Respiratory rate is 2 per min. One part of the chest is enlarged. During percussion
tympanic sound on the right side of the chest is heard. Which pathological condition is it possible to
suspect?
A. Intercostal neuralgy
B. Dry pleurisy
C. Exacerbation of bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
E. * Sponrtaneous pneumothorax
105. A patient for several days complains of cough with expectoration of sputum, on voise
hoarsness and general weakness. He leaves near earth-flax mine. Data of examination: enlarged
lymph nodes above the right clavicle and in axillary region. Data of examination of
otolaryngologist: paresis of the right vocal fold. Which pathological condition is it necessary to
suspect?
A. * Cancer of the right lung
B. Right-sided pneumonia
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Syphilis
E. Pulmonary tuberculosis
106. Patient B. is seeking for medical advice becаuse of increased body temperatute up to 38 ?C,
sweating, dry cough and general weakness. Bronchopneumonia was diagnosed in the patient. What
onset is typical for bronchopneumonia?
A. Sharp
B. Acute
C. Prolonged
D. * Gradual
E. Dilated
107. Patient B. is seeking for medical advice becаuse of increased body temperatute up to 39 ºC,
pain in the left part of the chest. Pleuroneumonia was diagnosed in the patient. What onset is typical
for pleuropneumonia?
A. Sharp
B. * Acute
C. Prolonged
D. Gradual
E. Dilated
108. Patient D. complains of dry cough, hoarseness, general weakness, sweating, increase of
body temperature up to 37,5 ºС. Data of physical examination: vocal fremitus is not changed, above
the lungs resonant pulmonary sound is heard. What these data testify about?
A. Pulmonary emphysema
B. * Acute catarrhal bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Norma
E. Hydrothorax
109. Patient H. complains of acute pain in the right part of the chest, which gains more severe
intensity at cough, deep breathing. What is the mechanism of development of the pain?
A. Distension of pleura
B. * Irritation of pleura because of its ruffness
C. Irritation of bronchial mucosa
D. Irritation of lung parenchyma
E. Pressing on the heart
110. Patient J. complains of dyspnea, cough, night sweating. The lung apex height on the right
side is equal to 1-1,5 cm, Krenig’s area is reduced. What the revealed signs specify about?
A. Pulmonary emphysema
B. * Pneumofibrosis of the apex
C. Pneumothorax
D. Norma
E. Right-sided hydrothorax
111. Patient R. can’t sleep at night because of severe dyspnea, which make him to sit in a bed.
How does such position of the patient in the bed is called?
A. Dyspnoe
B. * Ortopnoe
C. Tachypnoe
D. Eupnoe
E. Bradypnoe
112. Patient R. complaints of feeling of air hunger and difficulties in expiration. Data of
inspection: patient is staying and leaning against window-still. Respiratory rate is 28 per min,
wheezes are heard on the distance What revealed signs testify about?
A. * Bronchial obstruction
B. Inflammation of pulmonary tissue
C. Air in the thoracic cavity
D. Hydrothorax
E. Asphyxia
113. Patient R., aged 47, complains of severe dyspnea, cough, sweating, weakness for about
recent 5 years. She explanes this disorders as a result of inhalation of dust for years. Which disease
may develop in prolonged inhalation of dust?
A. Pneumonia
B. * Chronic bronchitis
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Pleurisy
E. Laringtis
114. Patient S. suffers with morning cough with expectoration of large volume of greenish
sputum. The sputum is better expelled in a certain position of patient’s body. Occureing of a such
kind of cough is typical for:
A. * Bronchiectatic disease
B. Laryngitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Dry pleurisy
E. Lung cancer
115. Patient T. complains of painful pierching sensations behind the sterrnum during coughing as
well as on dry cough.This type of pain is typical for:
A. Bronchitis
B. Bronchiectatic disease,
C. * Tracheitis
D. Dry pleurisy
E. Exudative pleurisy
116. Patient T. complains of sharp pain in the right part of his chest at deep breathing and cough.
Such a pain is typical for:
A. Bronchitis
B. Bronchiectatic disease
C. Diffuse bronchitis
D. * Dry pleurisy
E. Exudative pleurisy
117. Patient T. complains of sharp pain in the throat especially in swallowing. This type of pain is
typical for:
A. Bronchitis
B. * Pharyngitis
C. Diffuse bronchitis
D. Dry pleurisy
E. Exudative pleurisy
118. Patient with partial obstruction of a main bronchus by a tumour devepoted not complete
atelectasis. Which percutorial sound may be obtained above the affected zone?
A. Resonant
B. Bandbox
C. Tympanic
D. * Dull
E. Dull-to-thympany
119. Patient Y. was hospitalized with complaints on dry cough, chills and pain in the chest. In a
hospital he started to expectorate rusty sputum. What should a doctor suppose in the patient?
A. Diffuse catarrhal bronchitis
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Bronchiectatic disease
D. Focal pneumonia
E. * Pleuropneumonia
120. Patient А. Suffers of liver cirrhosis for 10 years. Now he complains of general weakness,
reduction of body weight, feeling of heaviness in the left and right hypohondriums. No any
pathology of thoracic cavity organs was revealed by physical examination, no liquid in abdominal
cavity. The left and the right lower lungs borders are displaced upwards. What may be the cause of
these findings?
A. Pulmonary emphysema
B. Pneumothorax
C. Norma
D. Bilateral hydrothorax
E. * High level of diaphragm, because of enlargement of the liver and spleen
121. Patient А. complaints on cоugh with attacks of expiratory dyspnea. By palpation weakened
vocal fremitus was revealled while bandbox sound was heard during percussion. What these signs
indicate on?
A. * Pulmonary emphysema
B. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue
C. Cavity in the lungs
D. Liquid in the pleural cavity
E. Air in the pleural cavity
122. Patient К. complains of increase of body temperature up to 37,8 ºС, pain in the chest on the
right side as well as of dyspnea and cough. Vocal fremitus is amplified on the right side. By
percussion dull sound is revealed. Which pathological process is present in the patient?
A. Pulmonary emphysema
B. Bronchial obstruction
C. * Consolidation of pulmonary tissue
D. Air in the pleural cavity
E. Hydrothorax
123. Patient К. complains of expiratory dyspnea, general weakness. By percussion above the
lungs bandbox sound is revealed, enlargement of the Krenig’s area, descendence of the lower lungs
borders on both sides. How to assess revealed signs?
A. * Pulmonary emphysema
B. Bronchial obstruction
C. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue
D. Norma
E. Right-sided hydrothorax
124. Patient К. is suffering from cоugh, fever up to 38,2 ºС, dyspnea. Intesified vocal fremitus
was revealed by palpation of his chest while during percussion dull percussion sound was heard
leftwards from the ІV to the VІ pibs. What these signs suggest about?
A. Pulmonary emphysema
B. * Consolidation of pulmonary tissue
C. Bronchial obstruction
D. Cavity in the lungs
E. Liquid in the pleural cavity
125. The patient C. complaints on dyspnea. The disease has began after overcooling. At physical
examination such symptoms were revealed as dyspnea, vocal fremitus above the lower part of the
right lung is absent; the chest is resistent on the right side. By percussion in the lower part of the
right lung dull percussion sound is revealed as well as displacement of the lower lung border on
posterior axillary line up to VІ rib. What the revealed signs testify about?
A. Pulmonary emphysema
B. Bronchial obstruction
C. * Consolidation of pulmonary tissue
D. Air in the pleural cavity
E. Right-sided hydrothorax
126. The patient complains of expiratory dyspnea, cough with difficult expectoration of viscous
mucous sputum. He assumes forced position. Which actually position is typical for this pathological
condition?
A. * Orthopnoe
B. Tachipnoe
C. Bradipnoe
D. Eupnoe
E. Polypnoe
127. The patient G. complains of dyspnea and dry cough. By percussion bandbox sound is heard.
The mobility of the lower lungs border is limited. How to assess revealed signs?
A. * Pulmonary emphysema
B. Pneumofibrosis of the apex
C. Pneumothorax
D. Norma
E. Right-sided hydrothorax
128. Patient P., 54 years old, suffers from bronchial asthma for 10 years. At inspection of his
chest its anterior-posterior diameter is enlarged, the chest is of barrel shape. What type of a chest is
present in this patient?
A. Paralytic
B. Rachitic
C. Lordosis
D. * Emphysematous
E. Normal
129. Patient K., 56 y.o., is on long-standing treatment in therapeutic department because of heart
disease. He is on bed regimen. Where is edema located in such cases most often?
A. * Lumbar region
B. Feets
C. Below eyes
D. On hands
E. On legs
130. A patient with rheumatic fever developed pericarditis. A doctor during auscultation has
found murmur in precordial region located leftwards in the third - fourth intercostal spaces between
medioclavicular and anterior axillary lines, it is heard very close to the ear of the examiner. The
examiner supposed pleuropericardial friction murmur in the patient. Select typical sign of
pleuropericardial friction murmur:
A. * Corresponds to respiration and heart rate
B. Intensifies if the patient declines forward
C. Intensifies if to press the bell of the stethoscope tightly the chest wall
D. Intensifies if the patient rises his hands up
E. Intensifies if the patient performes some excersises
131. At inspection of patient R., 29 years old, paleness of the skin and mucosa, capillary
“carotide shudder” were revealed. Data of auscultation: the I sound at the apex and the 2nd sound at
the aorta are weakened, protodiastolic murmur. The examiner supposes aortal incompetence in the
patient. Which maneur may help in recognition of the disease?
A. To ask the patient to breath deeply, to inhale and stop breathing
B. To ask the patient to decline forward or to press the bell of the stethoscope tightly the chest
wall
C. * To ask the patient to rise his hands up
D. To ask the patient to perform some excersises
E. No any maneur is used
132. Data of auscultation of a heart: near the left edge of the sternum in third - fourth intercostal
spaces the changeble murmur is listened. The murmur is synchronous with heart contractions. The
examiner supposes pericardial friction sound in the patient. Which maneur may help in recognition
of the murmur?
A. To ask the patient to breath deeply, to inhale and stop breathing
B. * To ask the patient to decline forward
C. To ask the patient to rise his hands up
D. To ask the patient to perform some excersises
E. No any maneur is used
133. Data of auscultation of a heart: near the left edge of the sternum in third - fourth intercostal
spaces the changeble murmur is listened. The murmur is synchronous with heart contractions. The
examiner supposes pleuropericardial friction sound in the patient. Which maneur may help in
recognition of the murmur?
A. * To ask the patient to breath deeply or to inhale and stop breathing
B. To ask the patient to decline forward or to press the bell of the stethoscope tightly the chest
wall
C. To ask the patient to rise his hands up
D. To ask the patient to perform some excersises
E. No any maneur is used
134. During examination of patient’s heart a student has felt diastolic thrill at heart apex.
Diastolic thrill at heart apex is the equivalent of:
A. Respiratory movements
B. Contraction of the left ventricle
C. Contraction of the right ventricle
D. Systolic murmur in aortal stenosis
E. * Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis
135. During examination of a patient with mitral stenosis slupping Ist heart sound is heard as well
as acentuation of II sound and its split at pulmonary artery, opening snup sound, diastolic murmur.
Which among presented fenomena belong to tripple rrhythm?
A. * Slupping I sound, acentuation of II sound at pulmonary artery, opening snup sound.
B. Slupping I sound, opening snup sound, diastolic murmur
C. Acentuation of II sound pulmonary artery, opening snup sound
D. Slupping I sound, opening snup sound
E. Slupping I sound, II sound split at pulmonary artery, opening snup sound
136. During examination of patient S. aortal incompetence was revealed. The patient complains
of headache, periodical dizziness. Skin palenes is visible as well as pulsation of carotic arteries.
Which auscultaroty penomenon may be heard on femoral arteries?
A. * Double Traube’s sound
B. Systolic murmur
C. Diastolic murmur
D. Musse’s sign
E. Tripple rrhythm
137. During examination of patient S. aortal incompetence was revealed. The patient complains
of headache, periodical dizziness, skin palenes is visible as well as carotic arteries pulsation. A
doctor is listening to patient’s femoral arteries by presing femoral artery with phonendoscope.
Which auscultaroty penomenon is he cheking for?
A. * Durosier’s murmur
B. Systolic murmur
C. Diastolic murmur
D. Musse’s sign
E. Tripple rrhythm
138. During inspection, palpation, percussion and auscultation of a patient the congestion in his
lungs is revealed, which is caused by severe left ventricular failure. Which adventitious heart
sounds may be auscultated at the apex of the patient’s heart?
A. I heart sound,
B. II heart sound
C. Opening snup sound,
D. Pericardial click
E. * III heart sound
139. In a patient who is being on long-standing treatment because of chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease, enlargement of the right ventricle and pulmonary hypertension are revealed by
ultrasound examiation of a heart. What auscultation data is it possible to expect?
A. Intensification of 1st heart sound at the apex.
B. * Accentuation of the II sound at the pulmonary artery.
C. Systolic murmur at Botkin-Erb’s point.
D. Diastolic murmur at the xyphoid process.
E. Systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space rightwards of the sternum.
140. In patient C. mitral valvular incompetence and left ventricular hypertrophy were diagnosed.
Indicate, please, expected changes of the heart borders position.
A. Displacement of right border of relative cardiac dullness rightward,
B. Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward
C. Displacement of the upper heart border of relative cardiac dullness upward,
D. * Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward, the upper heart
border of relative cardiac dullness upward
E. Displacement of the right heart border of relative cardiac dullness rightward and the upper
one – upward.
141. In patient C. mitral valvular incompetence with right ventricular failure was diagnosed.
Indicate, please, expected changes of the heart borders position.
A. Displacement of right border of relative cardiac dullness rightward,
B. Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward
C. Displacement of the upper heart border of relative cardiac dullness upward,
D. * Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward, the upper heart
border of relative cardiac dullness upward, the right heart border of relative cardiac dullness
rightward
E. Displacement of the right heart border of relative cardiac dullness rightward and the upper
one – upward.
142. In patient C. with aortal heart defect systolic thrill in the ІІ intercostal space of the right
chest was determined by palpation while diastolic murmur – by auscultation. Indicate, please, data
of auscultation of femoral artery.
A. * Flint’s murmur, doble Traube’s sound.
B. Kumb's murmur
C. Systolic murmur.
D. Intermittent pulse.
E. Paradoxic pulse.
143. In patient S. whith mitral heart defect intensified І sound above the heart apex is heard.
Signs of right ventricular failure are present in the patient (edema on lower limbs, hepatomegaly,
jugular veins swelling). Which finding is it possible to hear over pulmonary artery?
A. Systolic murmur
B. Diastolic murmur
C. Slapping I sound
D. Weakened I sound
E. * Accentuation of ІІ heart sound or (an) its split
144. The changeable murmur is auscultated leftwards in the third - fourth intercostal spaces
between medioclavicular and anterior axillary lines, it is heard very close to the ear of the examiner.
The murmur intensifies at deep inspiration, corresponds to respiration and heart rate. What is this
murmur?
A. Systolic murmur
B. Diastolic murmur
C. Pericardial friction murmur
D. * Pleuropericardial friction murmur
E. No any of them
145. 48-aged patient has chronic obstructive bronchitis, lung emphysema, diffuse
pneumosclerosis. ECG investigation showed in him: Рп.ш is more than 2,5 mm; in V1 and V2 QRS
is of qR-type (large R wave); interval S-T is displaced downwards to 1-2 mm and negative, QRS in
v5.6 is of RS shape. What that ECG changes indicate on?
A. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle,
B. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle,
C. Hypertrophy of the left atrium,
D. Hypertrophy of the left atrium,
E. * Hypertrophy of the right ventricle and atrium
146. Data of auscultation of a heart: near the left edge of the sternum in third - fourth intercostal
spaces the changeable murmur is listened which is heard very close to the ear of the examiner,
strengthens at inclination of the patient’s trunk forward and if to press the bell of the stethoscope to
the chest wall. The murmur is synchronous with heart contractions. What kind of murmur is
present?
A. Systolic murmur
B. Diastolic murmur
C. * Pericardial friction murmur
D. Pleuropericardial friction murmur
E. No any of them
147. Data of ECG: rrythm is sinus, regular, heart rate is 60 per min. Voltage is decreased.
Electrical axis is vertical. What is the angle ά in this case?
A. 0-30 degree
B. 30-70 degree
C. * 71-90 degree
D. 91-180 degree
E. 0-(-30) degree
148. Data of ultrasound examination of a heart: widening of aortic rout, sickness and calcification
of its walls. What pathological condition is present in the patient?
A. Aortitis
B. * Atherosclerotic affection of aortoa
C. Myocarditis
D. Syphilitic mesaortitis
E. Calcinosis
149. During analysis of ECG a student has made conclusion that electrical heart axis is deviated
leftwards. What signs are necessary to find out in ECG standard leads to make such a conclusion?
A. * In the I standard lead wave R is the highest while in the III the – wave S is the deepest.
B. In the III standard lead wave R is the highest while in the I the – wave S is the deepest.
C. Wave R is the highest in the I standard lead.
D. Wave R is the highest in the II standard lead
E. Wave R is the highest in the III standard lead
150. During examination of a patient with mitral stenosis the following auscultation picture was
revealed: the heart sounds are weakened, tachycardia, specific rrhythm is heard at the apex which is
better auscultated when the patient is lying on the left side. How such a rhythm is called?
A. Presystolic gallop rrhythm,
B. Protodiastolic gallop rrhythm
C. Mezodiastolic gallop rrhythm
D. Pendulum rrhythm
E. * Tripple rrhythm
151. During examination of a patient’s heart the following auscultation picture was revealed: the
heart sounds are weakened, tachycardia, tripple rrhythm is heard at the apex which is better
auscultated when the patient is lying on the left side. In which pathology does it occur?
A. * Stenosis of mitral orifice
B. Stenosis of aortic orifice
C. Aortic incompetence
D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery
E. Tricuspid valve incompetence
152. During inspection, palpation, percussion and auscultation of a patient the congestion in his
lungs is revealed, which is caused by severe left ventricular failure. Which adventitious heart sound
may be auscultated at the apex of the patient’s heart?
A. I heart sound,
B. II heart sound
C. Opening snup sound,
D. Pericardial click
E. * IV heart sound
F.
153. During examination of patient E, 20 years old, it was revealed elevation of the lower part of
his sternum. What is the type of the chest?
A. Rachitic
B. *Foveated
C. Emphysematous
D. Paralytic
E. No any answer is correct
154. During examination of patient A, 16 years old, it was revealed protrusion of the sternum
forward. The chest resembles those in birds. What is the type of the chest?
A. *Rachitic
B. Foveated
C. Emphysematous
D. Paralytic
E. No any answer is correct
155. Morning cough is typical for:
A. *Chronic bronchitis
B. Laryngitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Dry pleurisy
E. Lung cancer
156. Morning cough is typical for:
A. *Smokers
B. Laryngitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Dry pleurisy
E. Lung cancer
157. Patient P, a woman, complains of dyspnea. Patient feels that it is difficult both to inhale and
exhale air. How is this type of dyspnea called?
A. Expiratory
B. Inspiratory
C. *Mixed
D. Objective
E. Subjective
158. Patient P, a woman, complains on dizziness, faintness, dyspnea. Patient feels that it is
difficult to inhale air. How is this type of dyspnea called?
A. Expiratory
B. *Inspiratory
C. Mixed
D. Objective
E. Subjective
159. Patient P, 54 years old, suffers with bronchial asthma for 10 years. By inspection of his chest
it was revealed that its anterior-posterior diameter is enlarged, the chest is of barrel shape. What
type of chest is present in this patient?
A. Paralytic
B. Rachitic
C. Lodosis
D. *Emphysematous
E. Normal
160. Patient C.,19 y.o. Data of inspection of the chest: sternum is protruded forward as a comb.
What type of the chest does take place in this case?
A. * Rachitic
B. Foveated
C. Emphysematous
D. Paralytic
E. No any answer is correct
161. Patient R. is on long-standing treatment because of lung disease. 1 hour ago he occasionally
has expectorated up for about 200 ml of purulent sputum in one coughing act. Which disease is it
typical for?
A. Tuberculosis
B. * Lung abscess
C. Focal pneumonia
D. Empyema pleurae
E. Bronchial asthma
162. Patient R. is on long-standing treatment because of lung disease. 1 hour ago he occasionally
has caughed up about 200 ml of purulent sputum. Caughing with large amount of sputum (with full
mouth) in the morning is typical for:
A. Tuberculosis
B. * Bronchiectatic disease
C. Focal pneumonia
D. Empyema pleurae
E. Bronchial asthma
163. Patient A.,20 y.o., was fallen ill 2 days before. The onset was acute with chills, t-38 °С,
paint in the throat, dry cough accompanied with pierching sensations behind the sternum. Objective
data: general condition is close to satisfactory, body temperature is normal, during auscultation
vesicular breathing is heard in the lungs, respiratory rate is 20 per min. Which disease may be
suspected?
A. Focal pneumonia
B. Acute bronchitis
C. * Laryngotracheitis
D. Acute respiratory viral infection
E. Pulmonary tuberculosis
164. Patient A.,20 y.o., has developed a disease 2 days before. The onset was acute with chills, t38 ?С, paint in abdominal region, nausea, dry cough. The same symptoms were 3 weeks before.
Objective data: dull percussion sound and moist fine rales above the lower right part of the chest are
heard. Which adventitious examinations are necessary to prove diagnosis?
A. * Chest X-ray
B. Examination of stomach content
C. Duodenal probing
D. Analysis of feces for helmints ova
E. Immunological examination of blood serum
165. Patient B., 42 y.o., complains of cough with expectoration of mucopurulent sputum,
dyspnea, fever, headache, general weakness. He was fallen ill 3 days before after overcooling.
Objective data: above the lungs bandbox percussion sound is heard, during auscultation- harsh
breathing, diffuse dry whistling rales. Data of complete blood count: leuk. – 9,8х10л12/l, ESR – 18
mm per hr. Which adventitious examinations are necessary to prove diagnosis?
A. Ultrasound examination
B. * Pneumotachymetry
C. Plan chest X-ray
D. Contrast chest X-ray
E. Computer tomography
166. During auscultation of an adolescent person intensified vesicular breathing above all parts of
lungs was revealed after the patient has performed physical exercises. What is probably cause of
such a finding?
A. Appearence of consolidation foci in the deep layers of pulmonary tissue
B. Lung emphysema
C. Thin chest wall
D. Physical loading
E. * Normal finding
167. A patient aged 30 y.o. complains of low grade fever, dry cough, nasal excretions and
headache. The onset was acute 2 days before. Objective data: general condition is close to
satisfactory, harsh breathing is heard in the lungs. Pointed lung pattern on X-ray. Which disease
may be suspected?
A. * Acute bronchitis
B. Focal pneumonia
C. Acute respiratory viral infection
D. Pulmonary emphysema
E. Bronchial asthma
168. Patient S., 42 y.o., complains of pain and sensation of heaviness and overfilling in the right
part of the chest, dyspnea, cough with hemopthysis, marked general weakness. He has lost 10 kg of
body weight for the last 2 months. During objective and X-ray examination pleural fluid was
revealed. During procedure of pleurocentesis the hemorrhagic pleural content was obtained. Which
disease should be suspected?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. * Malignant tumour of pleura
C. Rupture of pleural vessels because of pneumothorax
D. Pulmonary tuberculosis
E. Bronchiectatic disease
169. A patient complains of mixed expiratory dyspnea. Objective data: barrel chest, bandbox
percussion sound, weakened vesicular breathing in auscultation. Which syndrome are these data
typical for?
A. Mucociliary insufficiency
B. Bronchial obstruction
C. Respiratory failure
D. Pulmonary tissue consolidation
E. * Pulmonary tissue hyperpneumatization (pulmonary emphysema)
170. A patient developed complete atelectasis of the whole lung lobe. Which data of auscultation
will be in the patient?
A. * Bronchial breathing above the whole affected zone
B. Amphoric breathing at the affected zone
C. Vesicular breathing all over the chest
D. Bronchovesicular breathing at the affected zone
E. Vesicular breathing is absent
171. A patient developed dry pleurisy. Which data of auscultation will be in the patient?
A. Bronchial breathing above the affected zone
B. Amphoric breathing at the affected zone
C. * Vesicular breathing all over the chest
D. Bronchovesicular breathing at the affected zone
E. Vesicular breathing is absent
172. A patient developed lobar pneumonia of the right lover lung lobe. Which data of
auscultation will be above affected part of the lung in I stage of the disease?
A. Bronchial breathing
B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchovesicular breathing
E. * Weakened vesicular breathing
173. A patient developed lobar pneumonia of the right lover lung lobe. Which data of
auscultation will be above affected part of the lung in II stage of the disease?
A. * Bronchial breathing
B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchovesicular breathing
E. Weakened vesicular breathing
174. A patient developed pleurisy with accumulation of a large volume of liquid. Which data of
auscultation will be at the zone of collapsed lung just above the liquid?
A. * Bronchial breathing
B. Amphoric breathing
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchovesicular breathing
E. Metallic respiration
175. A patient developed pleurisy with effusion. Which data of auscultation will be at the
projection of accumulated liquid?
A. Bronchial breathing
B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchovesicular breathing
E. * Weakened vesicular breathing of even absent depending on the volume of fluid
176. A patient developed syndrome of air accumulation in pleural cavity. How will main
respiratory sounds change in this case?
A. Bronchial breathing above the whole affected side
B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchovesicular breathing
E. * Vesicular breathing is weakened or even absent
177. A patient with bronchiectatic disease developed decompencation of chronic pulmonary
heart. Which method is the most informative in verification of this pathological condition?
A. X-ray of the chest
B. * Ultrasoud examination of a heart
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Bronchigraphy
E. ECG
178. A patient with chronic dyspnea and hemopthysis is suspected to have central lung cancer.
Which method is the most effective in verification of this syndrome?
A. X-ray of the chest
B. Ultrasound exaination
C. * Bronchoscopy
D. Bronchigraphy
E. ECG
179. A patient with chronic pain in the chest and hemopthysis is suspected to have peripheral
lung cancer. Which method is the most effective in verification of this syndrome?
A. X-ray of the chest
B. * Computer tomography
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Bronchigraphy
E. ECG
180. A patient with cough and pain in the chest is suspected to develop pneumonia. Which
method is necessary to prescribe for verification of this disease?
A. * Plan chest X-ray
B. Computer tomography
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Bronchigraphy
E. ECG
181. A patient with pneumonia developed dry pleurisy. Which data of auscultation is to be
expected above affected part of the lung?
A. Dry whistling rales
B. Dry buzzing rales
C. Moist rales
D. Crepitation
E. * Pleural friction
182. A patient with tuberculosis experienced a large cavern in the right upper lung lobe. Which
data of auscultation is to be expected at affected part of the lung?
A. Bronchial breathing
B. * Amphoric breathing at the affected side
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchovesicular breathing
E. Weakened vesicular breathing
183. A patient with tuberculosis developed pneumothorax. Which data of auscultation is to be
expected above affected side of the chest?
A. Bronchial breathing
B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchovesicular breathing
E. * Absent respiratory sounds, possible metallic respiration
184. A young boy was examined by military commission and the conclusion was made that he is
healthy. Which data of auscultation of lungs are to be expected?
A. Bronchial breathing
B. Vesicular breathing
C. * Vesicular breathing over lung parenchyma and bronchial breathing in intrascapular region
D. Amphoric breathing
E. Bronchovesicular breathing
185. At examination of patient X. the following findings were obtained as: complaints on fever,
cough, nightly sweating; at objective examination: thin chest wall; vocal fremitus is not changed,
tympanic percussion sound is heard at the right subscapular region, while by auscultation amphoric
breathing is heard in the same region. Which pathological condition do these signs indicate on?
A. Consolidation focus in pulmonary tissue
B. Lung emphysema
C. Thin chest wall
D. * Cavity in the lung
E. Norm
186. Data of chest X-ray of a patient indicate on cavity in the lungs. Which actually changes will
be on X-ray?
A. * Ring-like reserved shade with horizontal level
B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diafragm
C. Pointed lung pattern
D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge
E. Homogenous reserved shade of high density
187. Data of chest X-ray of a patient indicate on diffuse pneumofibrosis. Which actually changes
will be on X-ray?
A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diafragm
C. * Pointed lung pattern
D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge
E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungsm enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes.
188. Data of chest X-ray of a patient indicate on tuberculosis. Which actually changes will be on
X-ray?
A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diafragm
C. Pointed lung pattern
D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge
E. * Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungs, enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes.
189. Data of chest X-ray of a patient indicate on pleurisy with effusion. Which actually changes
will be on X-ray?
A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diafragm
C. Pointed lung pattern
D. * Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge
E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungsm enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes
190. Data of chest X-ray of a patient indicate on pneumonia. Which actually changes will be on
X-ray?
A. * Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diafragm
C. Pointed lung pattern
D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge
E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungsm enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes
191. Data of chest X-ray of a patient indicate on pulmonary emphysema. Which actually changes
will be on X-ray?
A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. * Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diafragm
C. Pointed lung pattern
D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge
E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungsm enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes
192. During auscultation of patient P., 60 years old, who experienced COPD, dry whistling rales
above all parts of the lungs were heared as well as weakened vesicular breathing. What is the
mechanism of such auscultatory phenomena origin?
A. * Accumulation of viscous mucus in bronchi
B. Induration of pulmonary tissue (pneumonia)
C. In lung emphysema
D. Accumulation of liquid in the pleural cavity
E. Attack of bronchial asthma
193. During auscultation of a patient with croupous pneumonia a doctor found bronchial
breathing above the medial lobe of the right lung. Which changes of vocal fremitus, bronchophonia
and percussion sound should you expect?
A. Weakened vocal fremitus, bandbox percussion sound and intensified bronchophonia
B. Weakened vocal fremitus, bandbox percussion sound, weakened bronchophonia
C. * Intensified vocal fremitus, dull percussion sound, intensified bronchophonia
D. Intensified vocal fremitus, tympanic percussion sound, weakened bronchophonia
E. Intensified vocal fremitus, dull percussion sound, weakened bronchophonia
194. During auscultation of a patient a doctor found in him pulmonary emphysema. Which
changes of vocal fremitus, bronchophony and percussion sound should be expected in this case?
A. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percussion sound will be dull, bronchophony will be
intensified
B. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percussion sound will be dull, bronchophony will be
weakened.
C. * Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percussion sound will be bandbox (hyperresonant),
bronchophony will be weakened
D. Vocal fremitus will not be changed, percussion sound will be resonant, bronchophony will
not be changed .
E. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percussion sound will be tympanic, bronchophony will be
intensified.
195. During auscultation of a young boy with fever a doctor found in him pulmonary tissue
consolidation syndrome. Which changes of vocal fremitus, bronchophony and percussion sound
should be expected in this case?
A. * Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percussion sound will be dull, bronchophony will be
intensified
B. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percussion sound will be dull, bronchophony will be
weakened.
C. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percussion sound will be dull-to-thympany, bronchophony
will be weakened
D. Vocal fremitus will not be changed, percussion sound will be resonant, bronchophony will
not be changed .
E. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percussion sound will be tympanic, bronchophony will be
intensified.
196. During auscultation of a young female with long-term low grade body temperature a doctor
revealed a focus of amphoric breathing in her lungs. Which pathological condition is it necessary to
suspect in the patient?
A. * Tuberculosis with cavern in the lungs
B. Pleurisy with effusion
C. Pneumothorax
D. Dry pleurisy
E. Pneumonia
197. For patient X. with bronchial asthma and emphysema X-ray was made. Which changes may
be revealed?
A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. * Poor lung pattern, plan diafragm
C. Multiple small focci in the lungs
D. Cavity in the lung
E. Norm
198. For patient X. with chronic bronchitis X-ray was made. Which changes may be revealed?
A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. Lung emphysema
C. Multiple small focci in the lungs
D. Cavity in the lung
E. * Pointed lung pattern
199. For patient X. with lobar pneumonia X-ray was made. Which changes may be revealed?
A. * Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. Lung emphysema
C. Pultiple smll focuses in the lungs
D. Cavity in the lung
E. Norm
200. For patient X. with tuberculosis X-ray was made. Which changes may be revealed in millaty
form of the disease?
A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration
B. Lung emphysema
C. * Multiple small focci in the lungs
D. Cavity in the lung
E. Norm
201. Forced expiratory volume for the 1st second (FEV1) was measured in a patient. Which
index of FEV1 corresponds to norm?
A. * >80 %, deviation
B. >80 %, deviation \=20-30 %
C. . 60-80 % , deviation >30 %
D. 60 %, deviation > 30 %
E. 55 %, deviation \= 25 %
202. In a patient with tuberculosis X-ray was recorded. It was revealed numerous pathological
focci in upper lung lobes of both lungs. Which data of auscultation is to be expected?
A. Bronchial breathing
B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side
C. Vesicular breathing
D. * Bronchovesicular breathing
E. Weakened vesicular breathing
203. In a patient with pneumonia X-ray was recorded. It was revealed fluid in pleural cavity.
Which data of auscultation is to be expected?
A. Bronchial breathing
B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchovesicular breathing
E. * Weakened vesicular breathing of even absent over affected side
204. In sputum of patient Ya., 42 years old, atypical cells were found. Which disease these
elements indicate on?
A. Croupous pneumonia
B. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Lung abscess
E. * Lung cancer
205. In sputum of patient Ya., 42 years old, elastic fibers were found. Which disease these
elements indicate on?
A. Croupous pneumonia
B. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
C. Bronchial asthma
D. * Lung abscess
E. Chronic non-obstructive bronchitis
206. In sputum of patient Ya., 42 years old, the following elements are present: eosinophils,
Charcot-Leyden crystals, Curshman’s spirals. Which disease these elements indicate on?
A. Croupous pneumonia
B. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
C. * Bronchial asthma
D. Acute bronchitis
E. Chronic non-obstructive bronchitis
207. Patient B. is seeking for medical advice because of increased body temperatute up to 39 °C,
cough. Bronchopneumonia was diagnosed in the patient. What onset is typical for
bronchopneumonia?
A. Sharp
B. Acute
C. Prolonged
D. * Gradual
E. Dilated
208. Patient B. is seeking for medical advice because of increased body temperatute up to 39 °C,
cough. Bronchopneumonia was diagnosed in the patient. What provoking factor is the most often in
bronchopneumonia?
A. Overeating
B. Overcooling
C. * Viral or bacterial bronchitis
D. Physical overload
E. All mentioned
209. Patient B. is seeking for medical advice because of increased body temperatute up to 39 °C,
cough. Pleuropneumonia was diagnosed in the patient. What provoking factor is the most often in
pleuropneumonia?
A. Overeating
B. * Overcooling
C. Viral or bacterial bronchitis
D. Physical overload
E. All mentioned
210. Patient B. is seeking for medical advice becаuse of increased body temperatute up to 39 ≥C,
pain in the left part of the chest. Pleuroneumonia was diagnosed in the patient. What onset is typical
for pleuropneumonia?
A. Sharp
B. * Acute
C. Prolonged
D. Gradual
E. Dilated
211. Patient M., 46 years old, suffers with bronchiectatic disease for 20 years. Which method of
diagnostics is the most informative in verification of diagnosis?
A. Bronchoscopy
B. Fluorography
C. Ultrasound examination of pleural cavities
D. * Computer tomography
E. Bronchigraphy
212. Patient N. developed trauma of the chest in accident 2 hours before. He complains of
progressing inspiratory dyspnea and pain in the chest. Tympanic percussion sound and absent
vesicular breathing are revealed over the right part of the chest during physical examination. Which
pathological condition these signs testify about?
A. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue
B. Lung emphysema
C. Accumulation of fluid in pleural cavity
D. * Accumulation of air in pleural cavity
E. Norm
213. Patient N. is suffering from expiratory dyspnea. Bandbox percussion sound and weakened
vesicular breathing were revealed. Which pathological condition these signs testify about?
A. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue
B. * Lung emphysema
C. Thin chest wall
D. Physical loading
E. Norm
214. Patient N. is suffering from progressing inspiratory dyspnea. Dull percussion sound and
absent vesicular breathing were revealed over the lower part of the right lung. Which pathological
condition these signs testify about?
A. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue
B. Lung emphysema
C. * Accumulation of fluid in pleural cavity
D. Accumulation of air in pleural cavity
E. Norm
215. Patient N. is suffering from cough, fever, dyspnea. Retardation of the left half of the chest
during breathing was revealed as well as dull percussion sound and weakened vesicular breathing at
the zone located downward from the VІ intercostal space. Which pathological condition these signs
testify about?
A. * Consolidation of pulmonary tissue
B. Lung emphysema
C. Thin chest wall
D. Physical loading
E. Norm
216. Patient P., 40 years old, was admitted to the hospital with complaints on cough with
expectoration of sputum. Data of examination: dull percussion sound in the lower parts of the lungs.
By auscultation bronchial breathing and adventitious crucking sound was heard. How to recognise
this adventitious sound (is it crepitation of fine moist rales)? Select the proper characteristics.
A. * Crepitation is heard only on the top of inspiration while moist rales are heard in both
respiratory phases
B. Moist rales are heard only on the top of inspiration while crepitation is heard in both
respiratory phases
C. During coughing rales are not changed
D. Crepitation intensifies when to press phonendoscope to the chest
E. Crepitation will change after coughing
217. Patient S. has experienced acute bronchitis. Which findings may be revealed during
auscultation of his chest?
A. Bronchial breathing all over the lungs
B. Amphoric breathing on both sides of the chest
C. Vesicular breathing
D. * Harsh breathing
E. Weakened vesicular breathing with prolonged expiration
218. Patient А. is ill for 20 years with chronic bronchitis. Now he complains of cough with
difficult expectoration of viscous sputum especially in the morning. Wery often it he has prolonged
attacks of cough with difficulty before expectoration of sputum. Which syndrome are such
symptoms typical for?
A. * Mucociliary insufficiency
B. Bronchial obstruction
C. Respiratory failure
D. Pulmonary tissue consolidation
E. Pulmonary tissue hyperpneumatization
219. Patient В. for a long time complains of subfebrine fever and general weaknes. In patient’s
sputum atypical cells are found. What does it indicate on?
A. Chronic bronchitis in exacerbation
B. Pulmonary tuberculosis
C. * Lung cancer
D. Pulmonary tissue destruction
E. Bronchial asthma
220. Patient Н. complains of low grade fever for last week as well as on moist cough. No data of
respiratory disease in the past. In patient’s sputum there were found alveolar macrophages,
leukocytes, coccal microflora. What does it indicate on?
A. * Pneumonia
B. Pulmonary tuberculosis
C. Lung cancer
D. Chronic bronchitis in exacerbation
E. Bronchial asthma
221. Patient Х was treated because of acute respiratory infection for the last 4 days. Following
examination of this patient revealed crepitation in the lower lobe of the left lung. Which
pathological process do this phenomenon indicate on?
A. Accumulation of viscous mucus in bronchi
B. * Inflammation of pulmonary tissue (pneumonia)
C. Lung emphysema
D. Accumulation of liquid in the pleural cavity
E. Attack of bronchial asthma
222. Which disease are presented below data of pleural fluid examination typical for: specific
gravity - 1020, protein - 50 g/l, Rivolt’s test is positive (++), leuk. - 2-4 in v.f., erythrocites 50 in
v.f., atypical cells:
A. Pleurisy in tuberculosis
B. Pleural empyema
C. Pleurisy in pneumonia
D. * Pleurisy in malignant tumour of pleura or lung tissue
E. Congestive heart failure
223. Which disease are presented below data of pleural fluid examination typical for: specific
gravity - 1020, protein - 35 g/l, Rivolt’s test is positive, leuk. - 15-20 in v.f., prevalence of
neutrophils; erythrocites 1-2 in v.f., atypical cells are absent:
A. Pleurisy in tuberculosis
B. Pleural empyema
C. * Pleurisy in pneumonia
D. Pleurisy in malignant tumour of pleura or lung tissue
E. Congestive heart failure
224. Which disease are presented below data of pleural fluid examination typical for: red color,
smell is absent, viscous consistency, leuk. - 6-8 in v.f., erythrocytes 20-30 in v.f., mycobacteria are
absent, moderate amount of atypical cells, elastic fibers 20-30 in v.f.:
A. Focal pneumonia
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Croupous pneumonia
D. Lung abscess
E. * Lung cancer
225. Which disease are presented below data of pleural fluid examination typical for: rusty color,
smell is absent, viscous consistency, leuk. - 50-60 in v.f., erythrocites 3-5 in v.f., coccal mycroflora,
macrophages 3-5 in v.f., mycobacteria and atypical cells are absent:
A. Focal pneumonia
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. * Croupous pneumonia
D. Lung abscess
E. Lung cancer
226. Which disease are presented below data of pleural fluid examination typical for: specific
gravity - 1035, protein - 14 g/l, Rivolt’s test is negative, leuk. – cove all vision field, erythrocytes 01 in v.f., atypical cells re absent:
A. Pleurisy in tuberculosis
B. * Pleural empyema
C. Pleurisy in pneumonia
D. Pleurisy in malignant tumour of pleura or lung tissue
E. Congestive heart failure
227. Patient A. complaint of dyspnea. Vocal fremitus is weakened on the left side. By percussion
the area of dullness on the left scapular line from the level of VІth rib downwards was revealed. It is
necessary to carry out pleural puncture to this patient. Which indications to this procedute do you
know?
A. Bronchiectatic disease, complicated by emphysema of the lungs
B. About high level of diaphragm, because of enlargement of the liver and spleen
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Pneumonia of the lower part of the right lung
E. * Hydrothorax
228. A patient developed syndrome of air accumulation in pleural cavity. Which specific sound
may be heard at the zone of air accumulation?
A. Bronchial breathing above the whole affected side
B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchovesicular breathing
E. * Metallic respiration
229. A student during inspection of a patient with heart failure has found edema on patient's legs.
Such edema in initial stage of heart failure occur:
A. * In the evening
B. In the morning
C. At night
D. Are persisting
E. Are not typical
230. A student during inspection of a patient with 1st stage of heart failure has found edema.
What is typical location of edema in initial stage of heart failure?
A. * On legs
B. Below eyes
C. On arms
D. All ower the body
E. Are not typical
231. A student during inspection of a patient with heart failure revealed edema. The patient was
on the bed mode for long time. In this case edema will be located:
A. On legs
B. Below eyes
C. On arms
D. All ower the body
E. * On lumbar region
232. A student should perform inspection of a patient with final stage of heart failure and
anasarca. In this case edema will be located:
A. On legs
B. Below eyes
C. On arms
D. * All ower the body
E. Lumbar region
233. By palpation patient’s pulse is dull. In which case is it possible?
A. Myocarditis
B. Pericarditis
C. Mitral defects
D. * Atherocsclerotic induration of arteril wall
E. Heart insufficiency
234. By palpation patient’s pulse is high and quick. How is this called in Latine?
A. Pulsus parvus and tardus
B. * Pulsus celler et altus
C. Pulsus alternans
D. Pulsus dicroticus
E. Pulsus mollis
235. By palpation patient’s pulse is high and quick. Which heart valvular defect is it typical for?
A. * Aortal incompetence
B. Aortal stenosis
C. Mitral incompetence
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Tricuspid incompetence
236. By palpation patient’s pulse is low and slow. How is this called in Latine?
A. * Pulsus parvus and tardus
B. Pulsus celler et altus
C. Pulsus alternans
D. Pulsus dicroticus
E. Pulsus mollis
237. By palpation patient’s pulse is low and slow. Which heart valvular defect is it typical for?
A. Aortal incompetence
B. * Aortal stenosis
C. Mitral incompetence
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Tricuspid incompetence
238. During examination of patient’s pulse a student revealed bradycardia. Rare pulse is observed
in the case of:
A. Increased body temperature
B. Heart failure
C. * Brain affections
D. Myocarditis
E. Thyrotoxicosis
239. During examination of patient’s pulse a student revealed bradycardia. Rare pulse is observed
in the case of:
A. Increased body temperature
B. Heart insufficiency
C. * Hypothyreosis
D. Myocarditis
E. Thyrotoxicosis
240. During examination of patient’s pulse a student revealed tachycardia. Tachycarida is
observed in the case of:
A. Narrowing of aortic aperture
B. Hunger
C. Brain affection
D. * Fever
E. Jaundice
241. During examination of patient’s pulse a student revealed tachycardia. Tachycarida is
observed in the case of:
A. Narrowing of aortic aperture
B. Hunger
C. Brain affection
D. * Thyrotoxicosis
E. Jaundice
242. During examination of patient’s pulse a student revealed tachycardia. Tachycarida is
observed in the case of:
A. Narrowing of aortic aperture
B. Hunger
C. Brain affection
D. * Decompensation of heart failure
E. Jaundice
243. How apex beat will be changed in aortal valve defects?
A. Low
B. Reduced
C. Negative
D. * Diffuse
E. Not changed
244. How apex beat will be changed in arterial hypertension?
A. Low
B. Reduced
C. Negative
D. Not changed
E. * Diffuse
245. How apex beat will be changed in chronic left ventricular heart failure?
A. Low
B. Reduced
C. Negative
D. Not changed
E. * Resistant
246. During general inspection of a patient the specific cyanotic color of his lips, as well as skin
pallor with yellowish tint and flash on the cheeks were revealed. What pathological condition are
thеse signs typical for?
A. * Mitral stenosis
B. Aortal stenosis
C. Septic endocarditis
D. Rheumatic fever
E. Hypertonic crisis
247. During general inspection of patient К. a doctor had noticed specific light-brown colouring
of patient’s skin (“coffee with milk”). Petechial hemorrhagic rash is observed on conjunctivas and
skin of the trunk (Lukin’s symptom). What pathological condition are these data typical for?
A. Angina pectoris
B. Myocardial infarction
C. * Septic endocarditis
D. Rheumatic fever
E. Hypertonic crisis
248. Patient A., a woman of 67 years old, complains of attacks of retrosternal pain, dyspnea in
physical load and in rest. Data of examination: the face is pale, cyanosis of lips, edema on the legs.
The absolute heart dullness borders are as follows: the right – at the right edge of the sternum, the
left –2 cm laterally from midclavisular line in VI intercostal space, the upper – at the cartilage of the
IV rib on the right parasternal line. What is the probably reason for the pain?
A. Ischemic heart disease
B. * Left ventricular hyperthrophy and relative coronary insufficiency
C. Pneumonia
D. Pneumothorax
E. No any of mentioned above
249. Patient L., 75 years old, suffers with atherosclerosis. Aortic valve stenosis was diagnosed.
What change of pulse filling is typical for this pathology?
A. Increased
B. * Decreased
C. Different
D. Not changed
E. All mentilned above
250. Patient L., 75 years old, suffers with atherosclerosis. Atrial fibrillation was diagnosed. What
change of pulse filling is typical for this pathology?
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. * Different
D. Not changed
E. All mentilned above
251. Patient L., 75 years, suffers with atherosclerosis. The aortic valve incompletence was
diagnosed. What change of pulse filling is typical for this pathology?
A. * Increased
B. Decreased
C. Different
D. Not changed
E. All mentilned above
252. Patient M., 22 years old, suffers with rheumatic heart disease since childhood. By inspection
it was revealed movements of his head in anterioposterior direction synchronous with cardiac beats,
the skin is pallid. Pulsation of carotic arteries is present on the neck. How is this phenomenon
called?
A. norm
B. * ”Carotic shudder”
C. Kurvuazie’s sign
D. Koher’s sign
E. any answer is correct
253. Patient P. is sufferind with hypertension of І stage (blood pressure -140/90 mm Hg). After
intramuscular injection of medicamentous preparation suddenly abrupt skin paleness appeard, and
the patient had lost consciousness. Data of inspection: blood pressure is 90/50 mm of Hg,
tachycardia. What patological condition has developed?
A. * Collapse
B. Shock
C. Hypertonic crisis
D. Heart attack
E. Bronchospasm
254. Patient S. with heart failure developed edema. Why cardiac edema is always located on the
lower parts of patient’s body?
A. Due to decrease of oncotic pressure of the blood
B. Due to decrease of hydrostatic pressure in the vascular bed
C. * Due to increase of hydrostatic pressure in the leg veins, slowing of blood flow, especially
in the lower parts of patient’s body
D. Due to increase concentration of antidiuretic hormone
E. Due to increase concentration of aldosterone
255. Patient D., 70 years old, is on long-standing treatment in therapeutic department because of
ischemic heart disease. He tends to sit with the lowered legs. What position does take place in this
case?
A. Passive
B. Active
C. Forced passive
D. * Ortopnoe
E. Horizontal
256. Patient К., 37 years old, is occupying a forced posture: he is sitting, and bending forward.
Data of general inspection: cyanosis, edema on the face, hands and neck, as well as swelling of
jugular veins (Stock’s symptom). What pathological condition are these signs typical for?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. * Exudative pericarditis
C. Septic endocarditis
D. Rheumatic fever
E. Hypertonic crisis
257. Patient К. was hospitalised to the therapeutic department of a clinic with disease of a heart.
His pulse is irregular and of different filling and tension, pulse waves come after each othe in
absolutelly different periods of time. What kind of arhythmia is such a pulse typical for?
A. Sinus arrhythmia
B. * Atrial fibrillation
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. AV block
E. Normal findings
258. The patient’s condition is severe. During general inspection marked acrocyanosis as well as
swelling of crues, feet were revealed. Swelling of neck veins is observed. The liver is enlarged,
symptom of “drum-type rodes”,. “the watch glasses” are present. What syndrome are these
symptoms typical for?
A. Syndrome of the left ventricular failure
B. * Syndrome of the right ventricular failure
C. Syndrome heart rrhythm disorders
D. Acute coronary syndrome
E. Syndrome of vascular insufficiency
259. How apex beat will be changed in mitral stenosis?
A. Not changed
B. * Reduced
C. Negative
D. Diffuse
E. Resistant
260. How the square of absolute cardiac dullness will change in chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease with pulmonary emphysema?
A. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will not change
B. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will increase
C. * The square of absolute cardiac dullness will decrease
D. The square of absolute cardiac dullness decrease and then turns to be normal
E. Not changed
261. How the square of absolute cardiac dullness will change in bronchial asthma attack in
patient with mild course of the disease ?
A. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will not change
B. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will increase
C. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will decrease
D. * The square of absolute cardiac dullness decreases during attack and normalises aftr finish
of attack
E. Not changed
262. If the left border of relative cardiac dullness is located on 2 cm laterally from the left
midclavicular line – it means …
A. Compensatory emphysema of the right lung
B. Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle
C. Enlargement of the left atrium
D. Normal location of the border
E. * Enlargement of the left ventricle
263. If the right border of relative cardiac dullness is located on 3 cm laterally from the right
sternal border – it means …
A. Compensatory emphysema of the right lung
B. Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle
C. * Enlargement of the right ventricle
D. Enlargement of the left atrium
E. Normal location of the border
264. In which disease apex beat may be found in IV interspace 3 cm medially from left
midclavicular line?
A. Cardioneurosis
B. Angina pectoris
C. Arterial hypertension
D. * Mitral stenosis
E. No correct answer
265. In which disease apex beat may be found in VI interspace on anterior axillary line?
A. Cardioneurosis
B. Angina pectoris
C. * Arterial hypertension
D. Mitral stenosis
E. No correct answer
266. In which disease apex beat may be found in VI interspace on anterior axillary line?
A. Cardioneurosis
B. Angina pectoris
C. * Aortal stenosis
D. Mitral stenosis
E. No correct answer
267. In which disease apex beat may be found in VI interspace on anterior axillary line?
A. Cardioneurosis
B. Angina pectoris
C. * Heart failure
D. Mitral stenosis
E. No correct answer
268. Pulse of different filling on both arms is typical for:
A. Incompetence of aortal valve
B. Stenosis of aortal valve
C. * Incompetence of mitral valve with dilataion of the left atrium
D. Combined aortal defect
E. No correct answer
269. What characteristics of pain in the case of cardioneurosis?
A. Burning, lasts by hours, days
B. Intensive pain irradiating to spinal cord and along aorta
C. * Pressing, burning pain at heart apex, disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin
D. Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of Validol or
nitroglycerin
E. Stubbing pain in precordium, does not irradiate
270. What characteristics of pain in the case of dissecting aortal aneurism?
A. Burning, lasts by hours, days
B. * Intensive pain irradiating to spinal cord and along aorta
C. Pressing, burning pain at heart apex, disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin
D. Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of validol or
other sedatives
E. Stubbing pain in precordium, does not irradiate
271. What characteristics of pain in the case of myocardial infarction?
A. Burning, lasts by hours, days
B. Dull, diffuse ache, irradiates to the left hand
C. * Pressing, burning, irradiates to the left hand, does not disappear after taking of Validol or
nitroglycerin, lasts for some days
D. Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of validol or
nitroglycerin, lasts for 15 minutes
E. Stubbing pain in precordium, does not irradiate
272. What characteristics of pain in the case of myocarditis?
A. * Permament dull boring pain,which intensifies in physical load
B. Dull, diffuse ache, irradiates to the left hand
C. Pressing, burning, irradiates to the left hand, does not disappears after taking of validol or
nitroglycerin
D. Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of validol or
nitroglycerin
E. Stubbing pain in precordium, does not irradiate
273. What characteristics of pain in the case of pericarditis?
A. Burning, lasts by hours, days
B. Dull, diffuse ache, irradiates to the left hand
C. Pressing, burning, irradiates to the left hand, does not disappears after taking of validol or
nitroglycerin
D. Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of validol or
nitroglycerin
E. * Stubbing pain in precordium, synchronous with heart contractions, does not irradiate
274. What characteristics of pain in the case of angina pectoris attack?
A. Burning, lasts by hours, days
B. Dull, diffuse ache, irradiates to the left hand
C. Pressing, burning, irradiates to the left hand, does not disappears after taking of validol or
nitroglycerin
D. * Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of validol or
nitroglycerin
E. Aching pain in one point of precordium, does not irradiate
275. Which complaints of patients with heart diseases are caused by increased blood pressure in
systemic circulation?
A. dizziness, headache
B. flickering before eyes, hum in ears
C. * all mentioned
D. dyspnea, cough, asthma, blood spitting
E. nausea, vomiting
276. In a healthy person, 25 years old, blood pressure was found 120/80 mm Hg on the brachial
artery. What data of blood pressure should you expect on the legs?
A. 100-120/70-80
B. 120-140/80-90
C. * 140-150/90-100
D. 150-160/100-110
E. 160-180/110-120
277. Data of percussion of patient’s heart: the borders of relative heart dullness: the right is 2,5
cm laterally from the right edge of the sternum, the left one is on 1.5 cm medially from
midclavicular line, the upper one is at the upper edge of the III rib. The borders of absolute heart
dullness are as follows: the right is at the left edge of the sternum, the left one is 1 cm medially from
the relative one, the upper one is on the level of the IV rib. Which pathological condition are these
signs typical for?
A. Enlargement of the left ventricle
B. * Enlargement of the right ventricle
C. Enlargement of the left atrium
D. Norm
E. All answers are wrong
278. Data of percussion of patient’s heart: the borders of relative heart dullness: the right is on 1
cm laterally from the right edge of the sternum, the left one is on 0.5 cm laterally from
midclavicular line, the upper one is at the upper edge of the III rib. The borders of absolute heart
dullness are as follows: the right is at the left edge of the sternum, the left one is 1 cm medially from
the relative one, the upper one is on the level of the IV rib. Which these signs are typical for?
A. * Enlargement of the left ventricle
B. Enlargement of the right ventricle
C. Enlargement of the left atrium
D. Enlargement of the right atrium
E. Norm
279. Data of percussion of patient’s heart: the borders of relative heart dullness: the right is on 1
cm laterally from the right edge of the sternum, the left one is on 1.5 cm medially from
midclavicular line, the upper one is at the upper edge of the II rib. The borders of absolute heart
dullness are as follows: the right is at the left edge of the sternum, the left one is on the left
midclavicular line, the upper one is on the level of the IV rib. Which these signs are typical for?
A. Enlargement of the left ventricle
B. Enlargement of the right ventricle
C. * Enlargement of the left atrium
D. Enlargement of the right atrium
E. Norm
F.
280. The borders of patient’s absolute heart dullness show its enlargement: the right border is at
mediane line, the left one is 1 cm medially of the left midclavicular line, the upper one is on the
level of the V rib. What may be a reason of these changes?
A. * Retrocardial tumour
B. Left-sided pleural effuion
C. Right-sided pleural effuion
D. Acute pulmonary emphysema
E. Normal data
281. During examination of patient S. aortal stenosis was revealed. The patient complains of
headache, periodical dizziness. Skin palenes is visible as well as carotic arteries pulsation. How the
heart borders may change?
A. Displacement of right border of relative cardiac dullness rightward
B. * Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward
C. Displacement of the upper heart border of relative cardiac dullness upward
D. Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward, the right border –
rightward and the upper one – upward
E. Displacement of the right heart border of relative cardiac dullness rightward and the upper
one – upward
282. During general inspection of a patient the specific face appearance was revealed with sticky
eyes, opened mouth and expression of suffer and tiredeness (Corvisar’s face). What pathological
condition are thеse signs typical for?
A. * Chronic heart failure
B. Acute left ventricular heart failure
C. Septic endocarditis
D. Rheumatic fever
E. Hypertonic crisis
283. During general inspection of a patient the specific face appearance was revealed with sticky
eyes, opened mouth and expression of suffer and tiredeness. How is this facial expression called?
A. * Corvisar’s face
B. Mitral face
C. Basedovic face
D. Myxedematous face
E. Hippocratic face
284. During general inspection of patient К. a doctor had noticed specific light-brown colouring
of patient’s skin (“coffee with milk”). Septic endocarditis was diagnosed. Which skin rash is
possible to reveal in this disease?
A. * Petechial hemorrhagic rash on conjunctivas and skin of the trunk
B. Erythema annulare
C. Erythema nodosum
D. Nettle rash
E. No rash
285. During general inspection of patient К. petechial hemorrhagic rash on conjunctivas and skin
of the trunk was revealed. Which skin color is it possible to reveal in this disease?
A. * Light-brown (like “coffee with milk”)
B. Erythema
C. Cyanosis
D. Yellow
E. Pink
286. During general inspection of patient К. with rheumatic fever a doctor revealed specific rash
on his skin. Whish type of rash is typical for rheumatic fever?
A. Petechial hemorrhagic rash on conjunctivas and skin of the trunk.
B. * Erythema annulare
C. Papulas
D. Nettle rash
E. No rash
287. Patient D., 70 years old, is on long-standing treatment in therapeutic department because of
rheumatic fever with pericardial effusion. What forced position is typical in this case?
A. Tends to sit with the lowered legs
B. * Tends to sit bending forward
C. Horizontal position
D. On the left side
E. Forced position is not typical
288. Patient M., 22 years old, suffers with rheumatic heart disease since childhood. By inspection
there were revealed movements of his head in anterioposterior direction. How is this sign called?
A. ”Carotic shudder”
B. *Musse’s sign
C. Koher’s sign
D. Durosier’s sign
E. Botkin-Erb’s sign
289. Patient M., 72 years old, suffers with atherosclerosis. He complains of headache and
periodical dizziness. By inspection it was revealed movements of his head in anterioposterior
direction and pulsation of carotic arteries. Heart valvular defect is diagnosed by auscultation and
ultrasound examination. Which skin color is it possible to expect in this patient?
A. * Paleness
B. Hyperemia
C. Cyanosis
D. Yellow
E. Pink
290. Patient К. was hospitalised ito the therapeutic department of a clinic with disease of a heart.
His pulse is irregular. Each second wave is of decreased filling. How is this pulse called?
A. Dull pulse
B. * Pulsus alternans
C. Thready pulse
D. Mild pulse
E. Dictotic pulse
291. During general inspection edema on patient’s legs was revealed. Edema occurs in the
evening, skin above it is cyanotic, cold and dense. Which pathology is this edema typical for?
A. Liver cirrhosis
B. Hypopropeinaemia on fasting
C. Renal failure
D. * Heart failure
E. Normal finding
292. A patient suffers from heart failure. What is the typical characteristics of cyanosis in
cardiovascular system disturbances?
A. Central cyanosis is typical for these disturbances
B. * It is located on distal parts of patient’s body (acrocyanosis)
C. Cyanosis of the affected part of patient’s body
D. Cyanosis on limbs which occurs in cold
E. All mentioned above
293. During inspection, palpation, percussion and auscultation of a patient the congestion in his
lungs is revealed, which is caused by severe left ventricular failure. Which adventitious heart sound
may be auscultated at the apex of the patient’s heart?
A. I heart sound
B. II heart sound
C. * III and IV heart sounds
D. Opening snup sound
E. Pericardial click
294. Evaluate such correlation of the waves: Wave P is present before each complex QRS, it is
maximal in II standart leads, diffenetce of RR intervals is not more than 0,10 - 0,15 sec; heart rate is
60-90 per minute.
A. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle,
B. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle,
C. Ectopic rrhythm,
D. Heart block,
E. * Normal sinus rrhythm
295. Evaluate such correlation of the waves: Wave P is present before each complex QRS, it is
maximal in I standart lead, diffenetce of RR intervals is less than 0,10 - 0,15 sec; heart rate is 60-90
per minute.
A. * Hypertrophy of the left ventricle,
B. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle,
C. Ectopic rrhythm,
D. Heart block,
E. Normal sinus rrhythm.
296. In a patient weakened first and second heart sounds are recorded, rasping systolic murmur is
auscultated in the second intercostal space rightwards from the sternum which is conducted to arotic
and subclavial arteries. What heart defect are conduction of the murmur typical for?
A. Stenosis of mitral orifice
B. * Stenosis of aortic orifice
C. Pulmonary trunk valve incompetence;
D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery;
E. Tricuspid valve incompetence
297. In patient C. with aortal incompetence systolic thrill in the ІІ intercostal space of the right
chest was determined. Indicate, please, expected changes of his blood pressure.
A. Low systolic and diastolic
B. High systolic and diastolic
C. High systolic and low diastolic
D. * Low systolic and high diastolic
E. No changes.
298. In patient C. with aortal stenosis systolic thrill in the ІІ intercostal space of the right chest
was determined. Indicate, please, expected changes of his pulse.
A. * Low and slow
B. Quick and high
C. Irregular
D. Of different filling and tension
E. Without changes.
299. In patient C. with aortal stenosis systolic thrill in the ІІ intercostal space of the right chest
was determined. Indicate, please, expected changes of the heart borders position.
A. Displacement of right border of relative cardiac dullness rightward,
B. * Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward
C. Displacement of the upper heart border of relative cardiac dullness upward,
D. Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward, the right border –
rightward,
E. Displacement of the right heart border of relative cardiac dullness rightward and the upper
one – upward.
300. In patient S. the slapping І sound above the heart apex is heard as well as opening snup
sound and slapping ІІ heart sound above pulmonary artery. Pulse deficiency is 15 per minute. What
kind of disease is it possible to reveal in that case?
A. Mirtal incompletence
B. * Mitral stenosis
C. Aortal incompletence
D. Stenosis of ostium of aorta
E. Hypertension
301. In patient S. the slapping І sound above the heart apex is heard as well as a slapping and
reduplicated ІІ heart sound above the pulmonary artery. Pulse deficiency is 15 per minute. Mitral
stenosis was diagnosed. What cardiac murmur is it possible to reveal by auscultation?
A. Systolic at aortal valve,
B. Diastolic at Botkin-Erb’s point
C. Systolic at heart apex
D. Diastolic at aortal valve
E. * Diastolic at heart apex
302. One the phonocardiogram of a patient with acquired valvular heart disease the diamondshaped systolic murmur is registered with maximal amplitude in II interspace rightward of the
sternum. Which heart valvular defect this murmur is typical for?
A. Aortal incompetence,
B. Mitral incompetence,
C. * Aortal stenosis
D. Mitral stenosis,
E. Tricuspidal stenosis.
303. In patient A., 32 y.o., eho suffers fromsevere anemia, attending doctor has revealed relative
heart murmur during auscultation. Organic systolic murmur differs from the relative one because it:
A. Depends on a phase of respiration
B. Is blowing, mild and low in pitch
C. Varies at exertion
D. * Is conducted to other parts of a body
E. Is heard at all points of auscultation
304. Patient O., 40 years old, was admitted to the clinic because of hypertension of the II stage.
Data of ECG: R1>RII>RIII. RV6>RV5>RV4, SIII>SII>SI. What do these data testify about?
A. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle
B. * Hypertrophy of the left ventricle
C. Block of the right bundlebranch of Hiss
D. Block of the left bundlebranch of Hiss
E. Subepicardial ischemia
305. Patient O.,40 years old, complains of faints and frequent attacks of dizziness. From patient’s
anamnesis: she had attack of rheumatic fever 20 years ago. The signs of aortic stenosis are revealed
by examination. What kind of murmur is typical for this disease?
A. * Systolic.
B. Presystolic.
C. Mesodiastolic.
D. Protodiastolic.
E. Holodiastolic.
306. The patient’s heart is extended leftward, upwards and rightwards; slapping I sound is heard
at the apex as well as II sound and adventitious heart sound that together create triple rrhythm. What
obvious component of triple rrhythm was not named?
A. I heart sound,
B. II heart sound
C. III heart sound
D. * Opening snup sound
E. Pericardial click
307. The patient L., 75 years old, suffers from atherosclerosis. The aortic valve incompletence
was diagnosed. What auscultatory phenomenon is it possible to listen to on the femoral artery?
A. Systolic sound,
B. Diastolic sound,
C. * Double Traube’s sound
D. Opening snup sound,
E. No any sounds
308. The patient L., 75 years, suffers from atherosclerosis. The aortic valve incompletence was
diagnosed. What murmur is it possible to listen to on the femoral artery?
A. Systolic
B. Diastolic
C. * Double Durozier’s murmur
D. Nunt’s murmur,
E. No any murmur.
309. The patient L., 75 years old, suffers from rheumathic heart disease. The mitral stenosis was
diagnosed. What adventitious heart sound is it possible to listen to by auscultation of his heart?
A. III heart sound,
B. IV heart sound,
C. Pericardial click sound
D. * Opening snup sound
E. No any sounds
310. The patient with diagnosis “arterial hypertension” is 64 years old. His ECG data are the
following: increased wave R in leads V5-6 and deep wave S v1v2, segment ST is displaced
downward in left leads. What that ECG changes indicate on?
A. * Hypertrophy of the left ventricle
B. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle,
C. Hypertrophy of the left atrium,
D. Hypertrophy of the left atrium,
E. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle and atrium.
311. Data of auscultation of a heart: near the left edge of the sternum in third - fourth intercostal
spaces the changeble murmur is listened. The murmur is synchronous with heart contractions. The
examiner supposes pericardial friction sound in the patient. Which maneur may help in recognition
of the murmur?
A. To ask the patient to breath deeply, to inhale and stop breathing
B. * To press the bell of the stethoscope tightly patient’s chest wall
C. To ask the patient to rise his hands up
D. To ask the patient to perform some excersises
E. No any maneur is used
312. During examination of patient’s heart a student has felt systolic thrill at the basis of patient’s
heart. Systolic thrill is the equivalent of:
A. Respiratory movements
B. Contraction of the left ventricle
C. Contraction of the right ventricle
D. * Systolic murmur in aortal stenosis
E. Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis
313. During examination of patient S. aortal incompetence was revealed. The patient complains
of headache, periodical dizziness. Skin palenes is visible as well as pulsation of carotic arteries.
Which auscultaroty penomenon may be heard on femoral arteries?
A. * Double Durozier’s murmur
B. Systolic murmur
C. Diastolic murmur
D. Musse’s sign
E. Tripple rrhythm
314. In patient C. aortal incompetence was determined. Indicate, please, expected changes of his
blood pressure.
A. Low systolic and diastolic
B. High systolic and diastolic
C. * High systolic and low diastolic
D. Low systolic and high diastolic
E. No changes.
315. In patient C. aortal incompetence was determined. Indicate, please, expected changes of his
pulse.
A. Low and slow
B. * Quick and high
C. Irregular
D. Of different filling and tension
E. Without changes.
316. In patient S. weakened І sound above the heart apex is heard. Mitral incompetence was
diagnosed. What cardiac murmur is it possible to reveal by auscultation?
A. Systolic at aortal valve,
B. Diastolic at Botkin-Erb’s point
C. * Systolic at heart apex
D. Diastolic at aortal valve
E. Diastolic at heart apex
317. In patient S. weakened I and II heart sounds are heard as well as murmur in II intercostal
space rightward of the sternum. Aortal stenosis was diagnosed. What cardiac murmur is it possible
to reveal by auscultation?
A. * Systolic at aortal valve,
B. Diastolic at Botkin-Erb’s point
C. Systolic at heart apex
D. Diastolic at aortal valve
E. Diastolic at heart apex
318. In patient S. weakened I and II heart sounds are heard as well as murmur in Botkin-Erb’s
point. Aortal incompetence was diagnosed. What cardiac murmur is it possible to reveal by
auscultation?
A. Systolic at aortal valve,
B. *Diastolic at Botkin-Erb’s point
C. Systolic at heart apex
D. Diastolic at aortal valve
E. Diastolic at heart apex
319. Assess the following data of stomach probing: basal secretion: total acidity - 10 mmol/l; free
НСІ - 5 mmol/l; combined НСІ - 1 mmol/l; debit-hour – 0,5 mmol/l. It is typical for:
A. * Hypoacidity
B. Hyperacidity
C. Norm
D. Achilia
E. No any answer is correct
320. A doctor has performed deep sliding palpation of patient’s intestine. In the norm the length
of sigmoid intestine is equal to:
A. * 20-25 сm
B. 15-20 сm
C. 5-10 сm
D. 10-15 сm
E. 30-40 сm
321. A doctor has performed deep sliding palpation of patient’s intestine. Which part of the
intestine is is necessary to examine after caecum?
A. Sigmoid intestine
B. Descending part of colon
C. Transverse part of colon
D. Appendix
E. * Terminal part of ileum
322. A doctor has performed deep sliding palpation of patient’s stomach. Small stomach curve
may be revealed by palpation:
A. In norm
B. * In gastroptosis
C. In enlargement of a stomach
D. When stomach is small
E. In ematiation
323. A doctor has performed deep sliding palpation of patient’s stomach. In the norm stomach
lower border is situated:
A. 2-3 сm below the navel
B. * 2-3 сm above the navel
C. At the level of the navel
D. At xyphoid process
E. 1-2 сm below the navel
324. A doctor has performed deep sliding palpation of patient’s intestine. Which part of the
intestine is is necessary to examine first of all?
A. Caecum
B. Transverse colon
C. * Sigmoid colon
D. Ascending colon
E. Descending colon
325. A doctor has performed deep sliding palpation of patient’s intestine. What is normal
diameter of caecum?
A. 1-2 сm
B. 2-3 сm
C. * 3-4 сm
D. 5-6 сm
E. 6-7 сm
326. A doctor has performed deep sliding palpation of patient’s intestine. Which part of the
intestine is it necessary to examine after caecum?
A. Appendix
B. terminal part of ileum
C. Ascending colon
D. * Caecum
E. Transverse colon
327. A doctor performs deep sliding palpation of patient’s intestine. Which part of the intestine is
examined in the last order?
A. Caecum
B. Descending colon
C. * Transverse colon
D. Appendix
E. Terminal part of ileum
328. A patient complaints of pain in epigastrium which intensifies after intake of spicy food.
Sometimes he develops vomiting with previous nausea. Affection of which part of digestive tract
should you suspect?
A. Esophagus
B. Gallbladder
C. *Stomach
D. Large intestine
E. Liver
329. A patient developed symptomes: loss of appetite, disgust to meat, nausea, loss of body
weight, feeling of stomach overdistension after meals, depression. These signs indicate on:
A. Chronic gastritis
B. Acute gastritis
C. * Cancer of the stomach
D. Acute pancreatitis
E. Stomsch ulcer
330. A patient developed vomiting with undigested food immediatelly after meals without
previous nausea. Vomiting usually occurs if the patients decline forward. Affection of which part of
digestive tract should you suspect?
A. * Esophagus
B. Stomach
C. Duodenum
D. Small intestine
E. Large intestine
331. A patient is troubled with nght hunger pain in epigasrium, nausea and heartburn. Which
method is the most informative in verification of diagnosis?
A. Plane X-ray of abdominal organs
B. * Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Colonoscopy
E. Rectoromanoscopy
332. A student is determining position of stomach lower border by palpation. He put the right
hand 3 cm below xyphoid process revealed by palpation elastic cylinder 2 cm length which is
slightly movable and painless, does not produce rumbling sounds. What the organ is this?
A. Pylorus
B. Duodenum
C. * Transverse colon
D. Pancreas
E. Small stomach curve
333. Assess the following data of stomach probing: basal secretion: total acidity - 50 mmol/l; free
НСІ - 30 mmol/l; combined НСІ - 10 mmol/l; debit-hour - 3 mmol/l. It is typical for:
A. Hypoacidity
B. Hyperacidity
C. * Norm
D. Achilia
E. No any answer is correct
334. Assess the following data of stomach probing: basal secretion: total acidity - 0 mmol/l; free
НСІ - 0 mmol/l; combined НСІ - 0 mmol/l; debit-hour – 0 mmol/l. It is typical for:
A. Hypoacidity
B. Hyperacidity
C. Norm
D. * Achilia
E. No any answer is correct
335. By percussion of a liver by Kurlov’s method the following liver sizes were revealed: 12 х 10
х 9 cm. It may be present in all pathological conditions except of:
A. Chronic hepatitis
B. Liver cirrhosis
C. Liver cancer
D. Heart failure
E. * Cholecystitis
336. Data of examination of a patient: sclera a slightly yellow, "spider angiomata" on the skin,
palmary erytema, laffing off hairs, dilatation of veins of abdominal wall. Affection of which organ
may you suspect?
A. Gallbladder
B. * Liver
C. Intestine
D. Pancreas
E. Spleen
337. Data of rectoromanoscopy: mucosa of proctosigmoid part of the intestine is pink, lustrous,
smooth with visible non-dilated vessels. What is your interpretation of these data?
A. Chronic proctitis
B. Chronic sygmoiditis
C. Chronic proctosigmoiditis
D. Chronic colitis
E. * Norm
338. During deep sliding palpation of parts of intestine a doctor revealed that sigmoid colon
diameter is decreased, it is of solid consistence and painful. What these data indicate on?
A. Intestinal atonia
B. Adhesions between intestine and posterior abdominal wall
C. * Spasm of smooth muscles of the intestine because of its inflammation
D. Marked accumulation of gas in the intestine
E. Coprostasis
339. During examination of a patient dyskinesia of bile ducts was revealed. Which method of
examination is informative for verification of diagnosis?
A. * Multimoment (fractional) duodenal probing
B. Retrograde pancreatocholangiography
C. Biohemical blood study
D. Plane X-rays of abdominal organs
E. Stomach probing
340. During examination of a patient with peptic ulcer it was revealed pain in epigastrium when
to percuss with tips of fingers on abdominal wall. This symptom is called:
A. Boas’ symptom
B. * Mendel’s symptom
C. Kehr’s sign
D. Otrhner’s symptom
E. Vasylenko’s symptom
341. During inquiry it was revealed that a patient complains on general weakness, dizziness and
tarry stools. Which pathology chould you suspect?
A. * Stomach or intestinal bleeding
B. Lung bleeding
C. Fissure of the anus
D. Hemorrhoids
E. Dysentery.
342. During palpation of a liver a doctor revealed it in the right hypochondrium at midclavicular
line. Liver lover border is 1 cm lower from the costal arch, its edge is acute, mild, painless. It is
typical for:
A. Hepatitis
B. Cirrhosis
C. * Norm
D. Congestion in the liver
E. Fat hepatosis
343. During percussion splashing sound was revealed rightward from midline. Which symptome
is positive in the patient?
A. * Vasylenko’s symptom
B. Kehr’s symptom
C. Mendel’s symptom
D. Clark’s symptom
E. Merphy’s symptopm
344. During X-ray examination of a stomach “defect of filling” was revealed. Which disease is it
typical for?
A. * Stomach cancer
B. Chronic gastritis
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Pylorostenosis
E. For no any one of them
345. During X-ray examination of a stomach barium sulphate solution was revealed in it 24 hours
after intake per os. How to interpret these data?
A. Peptic ulcer
B. Stomach cancer
C. * Pylorostenosis
D. Norm
E. Stenosis of cardia
346. During X-ray examination of a stomach the “niche symptome” was revealed. Which disease
is it typical for?
A. Stomach cancer
B. * Peptic ulcer
C. Chronic gastritis
D. Pylorostenosis
E. Penetration of an ulcer
347. During inspection of a patient with liver disease “spider angiomata” were revealed. How do
they look like?
A. * Like dilated arterioli elevated above the skin
B. Like yellow plaques
C. Like excoriations
D. Like hemorrhagic rash
E. Like nettle rash
348. Edema on lower limbs in liver cirrhosis indicates on:
A. Presence of duodenogastric reflux
B. Increased content of bile acids in cholestasis
C. * Affected proteins production by a liver
D. Deranged process of bilirubin conjugation
E. Increase of detoxication function of a liver
349. Fractional stomach probing of patient I. shoves decreased acidity. Which appetite is typical
for this condition?
A. Preserved
B. Increased
C. * Decreased
D. Deranged
E. Disgust for meat
350. Fractional stomach probing of patient I. shoves increased acidity. Which appetite is typical
for this condition?
A. Preserved
B. * Increased
C. Decreased
D. Deranged
E. Disgust for meat
351. Fractional stomach probing of patient I. with stomach cancer shoves achilia. Which appetite
is typical for this condition?
A. Preserved
B. Increased
C. Normal
D. Deranged
E. * Disgust for meat
352. Fractional stomach probing was performed for a patient. It was revealed increased acidity of
stomach content. Which stool is typical for these patients?
A. Stool with undigested food
B. * Constipation
C. Diarrhea
D. Constipation with following diarrhea
E. Normal
353. Fractional stomach probing was performed for a patient with gastritis type A. It was
revealed decreased acidity of stomach content. Which stool is typical for these patients?
A. Normal
B. * Diarrhea
C. Constipation
D. Constipation with following diarrhea
E. Stool with undigested food
354. In a patient splashing sound was revealed by percutory palpation of the abdomen in 1 hour
after the last meal. What this sign indicates on?
A. * Norm
B. Decreased stomach secretion
C. Achilia
D. Intensified motor and evacuatoty function of the stomach
E. Weakened motor and evacuatoty function of the stomach or hypersecretion
355. In a patient splashing sound was revealed by percutory palpation of the abdomen in 8 hours
after the last meal. What this sign indicates on?
A. Norm
B. Achilia
C. Decreased stomach secretion
D. Intensified motor and evacuatoty function of the stomach
E. * Weakened motor and evacuatoty function of the stomach or hypersecretion
356. In patient H. which suffers from peptic ulcer during palpation of abdominal wall it was
revealed muscular defence. Abdominal wall is rigid, the patient can not relax muscles by himself,
liver dullness is absent. Which possible complication is present in the patient?
A. Perivisceritis
B. * Perforation
C. Bleeding
D. Malignization
E. Penetration
357. In patient L. chronic gastritis with considerably decreased secretory function of the stomach
was diagnosed. Which will be appearance of patient’s tongue?
A. Tongue with papillar hyperplasia
B. * «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy)
C. Moist, pink and clear tongue
D. Dry as a brush
E. Smooth tongue with raspberry color.
358. Intragastral pH-metry was performed for a patient. The result is: рН =7,0. What is indicate
on?
A. Normal acidity
B. Slightly increased acidity
C. Considerably increased acidity
D. Decreased scidity
E. * Anacidity
359. Patient applies for medical advice because of pain in paraumbilical region which appears
mostly in the morning, it is crumping and is followed with intestinal inflation. Affection of which
part of digestive tract should you suspect?
A. Stomach
B. Esophagus
C. Gallbladder
D. * Intestine
E. Pancreas
360. A patient applies for medical advice with complaints on intensive attack-like crumping pain
in the right hypochondrium irradiating to the right shoulder. Affection of which part of digestive
tract should you suspect?
A. Stomach
B. Pancreas
C. Intestine
D. * Gallbladder
E. Liver
361. A patient applies for medical advice with complaints on belting pain after meals which
decreases after usage of enzymes. Affection of which part of digestive tract should you suspect?
A. Stomach
B. * Pancreas
C. Intestine
D. Gallbladder
E. Liver
362. A patient complains of erructation with the smell of “rotten eggs” and on diarrhea. Such
complaints are typical for:
A. * Decreased acidity of stomach juice
B. Increased acidity of stomach juice
C. Stomach bleeding
D. Normal acidity of stomach juice
E. Intestinal bleeding
363. A patient complains of impossibility to swallow, unpleasant sensations behind the sternum
during meals. This symptome is named:
A. * Dysphagia
B. Dyspepsia
C. Dystonia
D. Anorexia
E. Bulimia
364. A patient complains of nausea, vomiting, erructation and heartburn. Which syndrome are
these complaints typical for?
A. Asthenic
B. Intoxication
C. * Dyspeptic
D. Syndrome of cholestasis
E. Syndrome of malabsorption
365. A patient complains of spastic pain in paraumbilical region and abdominal flatulence. The
first step in examination of the patient by palpation should be the following:
A. * Superficial palpation
B. Profound sliding methodical palpation by Obrastsov and Strajecko.
C. Penetrating palpation
D. Balotting palpation
E. Percutory palpation
366. Patient E. complains of heartburn, eructation with acid content. During fractional stomach
probing it was revealed high acidity of the ocontent. Which will be appearance of patient’s tongue?
A. * Tongue with papillar hyperplasia
B. «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy)
C. Moist, pink and clear tongue
D. Dry as a brush
E. Smooth tongue with raspberry color.
367. Patient F. which often uses alcohol, had viral hepatitis 5 years ago. During inspection
"medusa head " was revealed. Which pathological condition is this sign typical for?
A. Peptic ulcer
B. Intestinal obstruction
C. * Liver cirrhosis
D. Chronic colitis
E. Pancreatitis
368. Patient G. is seeking for medical advise because of periodical crumping pain in the lower
parts of abdominar region, pain does not depend on food intake and it arises before defecation.
Affection of which part of digestive tract should you suspect?
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. * Large intestine
D. Spleen
E. Pancreas
369. Patient is troubled with periodical pain in epigastrium, which appears 20-30 min after meals.
This pain is called:
A. * Early
B. Late
C. Pain on hunger
D. Night pain
E. Seasonal pain
370. Patient K. after party, where he used alcohol, had developed unpleasant sensations in
epigastrium, general weakness, salivation and nausea. Which pathological condition theses
symptoms are typical for?
A. Gastroptosis
B. Stomach cancer
C. * Acute gastritis
D. Chronic gastritis
E. Peptic ulcer
371. Patient L. complains of pain in epigastrium which occurs mostly at night and disappears
after meals. This problem arises in autumn and spring. Which disease this pain pattern is typical
for?
A. Esophagitis
B. * Peptic ulcer
C. Colitis
D. Enteritis
E. Stenosis of esophagus
372. Patient R. complains of increased frequency of defecation till 4-5 times a day within the last
weak. Volume of stool and amount of liquid in it are also increased. Which possible cause of this
condition do you know?
A. Infection
B. Intoxication
C. Food allergy
D. Exposure to radiation
E. * All mentioned
373. Peptic ulcer was diagnosed in a patient. Which method is useful in recognition of
Helicobacter pylori infection?
A. Intragastral рН-metry
B. Complete blood count
C. Determination of uropepsinogen
D. * С-respiration test
E. Stomach probing
374. In patient L. chronic gastritis with considerably inecreased secretory function of the stomach
was diagnosed. Which will be appearance of patient’s tongue?
A. *Tongue with papillar hyperplasia
B. «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy)
C. Moist, pink and clear tongue
D. Dry as a brush
E. Smooth tongue with raspberry color.
375. In patient L. perforation of peptic ulcer was diagnosed complicated with peritonitis. Which
will be appearance of patient’s tongue?
A. Tongue with papillar hyperplasia
B. «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy)
C. Moist, pink and clear tongue
D. *Dry and coated with brownish masses
E. Smooth tongue with raspberry color.
376. In patient L. chronic hepatitis was diagnosed. Which will be appearance of patient’s tongue?
A. Tongue with papillar hyperplasia
B. «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy)
C. Moist, pink and clear tongue
D. Dry as a brush
E. *Smooth tongue with raspberry color.
377. Fractional stomach probing was performed for a patient with gastritis type B. It was revealed
increased acidity of stomach content. Which stool is typical for these patients?
A. Normal
B. Diarrhea
C. * Constipation
D. Constipation with following diarrhea
E. Stool with undigested food
378. In patient L. chronic gastritis with considerably inecreased secretory function of the stomach
was diagnosed. Which will be appearance of patient’s tongue?
A. *Tongue with papillar hyperplasia
B. «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy)
C. Moist, pink and clear tongue
D. Dry as a brush
E. Smooth tongue with raspberry color.
379. In patient L. perforation of peptic ulcer was diagnosed complicated with peritonitis. Which
will be appearance of patient’s tongue?
A. Tongue with papillar hyperplasia
B. «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy)
C. Moist, pink and clear tongue
D. *Dry and coated with brownish masses
E. Smooth tongue with raspberry color.
380. In patient L. chronic hepatitis was diagnosed. Which will be appearance of patient’s tongue?
A. Tongue with papillar hyperplasia
B. «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy)
C. Moist, pink and clear tongue
D. Dry as a brush
E. *Smooth tongue with raspberry color.
381. Fractional stomach probing was performed for a patient with gastritis type B. It was revealed
increased acidity of stomach content. Which stool is typical for these patients?
A. Normal
B. Diarrhea
C. * Constipation
D. Constipation with following diarrhea
E. Stool with undigested food
382. A 29-year-old woman is critically ill. The illness was manifested by high fever, chills,
sweating, aching pain in lumbar area, a discomfort in urination, and frequent voiding.
Pasternatsky’s sigh is positive on both sides. On lab exam, WBC of 20.000/mcL; on urinalysis
protein of 0.6g/L, leukocyturia, bacteriuria. Which pathological condition is it typical for?
A. * Acute pyelonephritis
B. Exacerbation pf chronic pyelonephritis
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
D. Acute cystitis
E. Nephrolithiasis
383. A 40-year-old man complained of headache in occipital area. On physical examination, the
skin was pale; there was face and hand edema, blood pressure of 170/130 mm Hg. On EchoCG,
there was hypertrophy of the left ventricle. Ultrasound examination of the kidneys revealed thinned
cortical layer. Urinalysis showed proteinuria of 3.5 g/day. Which pathological condition is it typical
for?
A. * Chronic glomerulonephritis.
B. Essential arterial hypertension.
C. Chronic pyelonephritis.
D. Polycystic disease of the kidneys.
E. No any of them.
384. A blood test was prescribed to a patient with iron-deficiency anemia for determination of
iron. Specify, what amount of iron of blood serum is in norm (mk m/l)
A. 1,5-3,5
B. 3,5-6,5
C. 7,5-11,7
D. * 12,5-30,4
E. 32,2-35,9
385. Patient E, 42 y.o., who is for 8 years ill with chronic glomerulonephritis, complains of head
pains, nausea, vomit, itch of skin. What changes may be expected in blood?
A. Increases of bilirubin;
B. * increased creatinine;
C. decrease of ESR;
D. increase of cholesterol
E. increase of transaminases.
386. Patient E., 52 y.o., who is ill with chronic pyelonephritis, biochemical blood test is
conducted. What changes may be?
A. increase of level of glucose in blood;
B. increase of bilirubin;
C. * increase of creatinine;
D. decrease of alfa-amylase
E. increase of alkaline phosphatase.
387. In patient F., 30 y.o., urine is taken for analysis. Casts were found out in urine. What is this?
A. glanced aside, what had changed the consistency in sour urine;
B. * proteine molds of kidney tubulis;
C. accumulation of bacteria;
D. pressed thrombocytes;
E. slat corks.
388. In patient F., 30 years old., urine is taken for analysis. Hyaline casts were found out in urine.
What are hyaline casts?
A. aside, what had changed the consistency in sour urine;
B. * albuminous molds of kidney tubuli;
C. accumulation of bacteria;
D. pressed thrombocytes;
E. Salt corks.
389. In patient M., 37 y.o., it was found out violation of process of urine filtration. What
department of nephrone is filtration of urine located in?
A. in proximal ductule;
B. in the interstitium of kidney;
C. in a glomerulus;
D. * in the loop of Genle;
E. in a distal ductule.
390. Patient M. develops pyelonephritis. What laboratory sign is most characteristic for this
pathology?
A. * active leukocytes in urine;
B. considerable proteinuria;
C. uraturia;
D. oxalaturia;
E. glucosuria.
391. At the blood analysis of patient A. was determined the level of haemoglobin – 92 gr/l.
Specify, what level of haemoglobin is normal for women:
A. 150-160
B. 140-160
C. 130-150
D. *120-140
E. 100-120
392. During research of patient’s urine the following findings were revealed: 5-6 leukocytes are
found in 1 vision field, single fresh red cells in 1 vision field. What research must be appointed to a
patient for clarification of diagnosis?
A. Complete blood count;
B. ECG;
C. * Nechiporenko’s test;
D. Zimnitsky’s test
E. determination of daily proteinuria.
393. During the routine inspection of a teenager blood test was made, in which were foun the
following data of leukocytes formula: juvenile neutrophils – 3 %, stab neutrophils – 10 %. Which
cells of granulocytic row are normally in the perypheric blood flow?
A. juvenile
B. *Stab neutrophils
C. Myelocytes
D. Promielocites
E. Metamyelocyte
394. In a patient A., 30 years old, urine was taken for analysis. There was found out a lot of
changed red cells in the urine (1/2 of every vision field). What is the possible cause of their origin in
the urine?
A. * acute glomerulonephritis;
B. Uncomplicated urolithiasis;
C. acute cystitis;
D. paranephritis;
E. cancer of urinary bladder.
395. For a patient E., 38 y.o., there are attack-like pains in a counter-clockwise lumbar area,
which irradiate downward. Wqhat these data indicate on?
A. acute glomerulonephritis;
B. * urolithiasis;
C. hypernephroma;
D. chronic glomerulonephritis;
E. heart attack.
396. In patient A. it was found out violation of concentration function of kidneys. What area of
nephrone does participate in the concentration of urine?
A. glomerulus;
B. * distal tubule;
C. loop of Genle;
D. proximal tubule;
E. collapsible tubes.
397. For patient E., 52 years old, who is ill with chronic pyelonephritis for 12 yers, biochemical
blood test is conducted. What changes may be found if the patient has renal failure?
A. increase of glucose level in blood;
B. increase of bilirubin;
C. * increase of serum creatinine;
D. increase of amylaze
E. increase of alkaline phosphatase.
398. For patient I., 54 years old, paranephritis is diagnosed. What position does patient with
paranephritis assume?
A. * On affected side with legs bended in hip and knee joints and with the leg pressed to the
stomach on the side of affection
B. Semirecumbent position with lowered legs (orthopnoe)
C. Lying on a sick side
D. Knee-elbow position
E. Sitting, bending forward.
399. For the patient of 43 y.o., in the urinalysis it is found out the changed red cells. What is the
cause of appearance red cells in urine?
A. * acute nephritis;
B. urolithiasis;
C. acute cystitis;
D. kidney amyloidosis;
E. the cancer of urinary bladder.
400. For what purpose Tompson’s test is performed (tree-glass test)?
A. * for the exposure of department of the urinary system, which is the source of hematuria or
leukocyturia,
B. estimation of kidney concentration function
C. for calculation of formed elements (red cells, leukocytes, casts) in urine with the method of
Kakovsky-Addis
D. for determination of diuresis
E. for determination of the amount of albumen in urine.
401. In patient T., 30 y.o., it was found iron-deficiency anemia, confirmed by laboratory blood
test. Specify the most typical complaints for iron deficiency.
A. Loss of tactile sensation
B. No any of them
C. * Fragility of nails
D. Labial fissure
E. Anosmia
402. In patient T., 30 y.o., it was found iron-deficiency anemia, confirmed by laboratory blood
test. Specify the most typical complaints for iron deficiency
A. Loss of tactile sensation
B. * Graying of hair
C. Labial fissure
D. Anosmia
E. No any of them
403. In patient T., 30 years old iron-deficiency anemia was found, confirmed by laboratory blood
test. Specify the most typical complaints for iron deficiency.
A. Incontinence in caughing
B. Graying of hair
C. Fragility of nails
D. Labial fissure
E. *All mentioned
404. In the complete blood count of a patient it was found that the concentration of haemoglobin
is 92 g/l, color index is 0,8. A patient is undergone treatment because of iron-deficiency anaemia.
What changes are characteristic in the complete blood count in this disease?
A. Presence of microcytes and megalocites
B. Toxic grittiness of leukocytes
C. Blast cells
D. * anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, microcytosis
E. Changes are abcent
405. In urine of the patient of 43 years old, it were found out the changed red cells . What is
appearance in urine of the changed red corpuscles related to?
A. * acute nephritis;
B. urolithiasis;
C. acute cystitis;
D. kidney amyloidosis;
E. cancer of urinary bladder.
406. A patient, 38 y.o., complains on weakness, dizziness, dyspnea, burning sensations in the
tongue. During examination there were found signs of folic acid-deficiency anemia. What kind of
tongue is typical for this disease?
A. Normal
B. *Brilliant and smooth
C. Coated with grey fur
D. Clean
E. Swollen
407. A patient, 38 years old, complains on weakness, dizziness, dyspnea, burning sensations in
the tongue. During examination there were found the signs of folic acid-deficiency anemia. What
kind of tongue does this patient have?
A. *Geographical
B. Normal
C. Coated with grey fur
D. Clean
E. Swollen
408. A patient, 40 years old, has massive uterine bleeding. During inspection the signs of
hypochromic anemia were found. Which research is specific for the assessment of treatment
efficiency and regeneration function of the bone marrow?
A. ESR
B. Blood proteins
C. *Reticulocytes account
D. Form of erythrocytes
E. Serum iron
409. Patient A., 35 years old, is troubled with appearance of sediment in his urine which make the
urine cloudy but disappear in an hour. Appearance of what substance in urine can you suspect?
A. * Salts;
B. protein;
C. bilious pigments;
D. glucose;
E. urinary acid.
410. Patient A., 35 years old, is troubled with appearance of sediment in his urine which make the
urine cloudy and don’t disappear in an hour. Appearance of what substance in urine can you
suspect?
A. Salts;
B. * protein;
C. bilious pigments;
D. glucose;
E. urinary acid.
411. Patient A., 35 years old, is troubled with appearance of sediment in his urine which make the
urine cloudy but disappear in an hour. Appearance of what matter in urine can you suspect?
A. * Salts;
B. protein;
C. bilious pigments;
D. glucose;
E. urinary acid.
412. Patient A., 35 years old, is troubled with increased amount of urine excreted per day. During
examination is was revealed that urine specific gravity is increased. Appearance of what matter in
urine makes its gravity increased?
A. Salts;
B. protein;
C. bilious pigments;
D. * glucose;
E. urinary acid.
413. Patient A.complains of unpleasant feelings in lumbar region, oedema below eyes in the
morning. She was fallen ill sharply 3 days ago. 2 weeks ago he had influenza. What inspection must
be conducted?
A. ECG;
B. Ultrasound of a heart;
C. * total blood count;
D. determination of cholesterol in blood
E. X-ray of thorax.
414. Patient E. 48 years old., is ill with chronic pyelonephritis for 10 years. What changes in
biochemical blood test do indicate on kidney insufficiency?
A. albuminemia;
B. beta-lipoproteinaemia;
C. hyperbilirubinemia;
D. * creatininemia
E. dysproteinemia.
415. Patient E. has renal failure. By physical examination it was revealed swelling of
subcutaneous tissue of whole the body. Accumulation of liquid in subcutaneous fat tissue on whole
the body is called:
A. Ascites
B. * Anasarca
C. Hives
D. Pleurisy
E. Pericarditis
416. Patient E., 38 years old, complains of attack-like pains in lumbar area, which irradiate
downward. What does can this symptom testify about?
A. acute glomerulonephritis;
B. * urolithiasis;
C. hypernephroma;
D. chronic glomerulonephritis;
E. heart attack.
417. Patient I. 40 years old, 5 years ago was undergone the resection of stomach because of
peptic ulcer complication. The expressed general weakness, shortness of breath, appeared lately.
Blood test: er. 3,1x1012/l, Hb 60 gr/l, color index 0,6, leukocytes 4,5x109/l, eosynophiles 2%, stub
3%, segm. neutr. 55%, lymph. 32%, mon. 8%, ESR 5 mm/hour. What laboratory test will help in
clarification of diagnosis?
A. level of ilirubin
B. level of glucose
C. * level of serum iron
D. level of creatinine
E. level of amylase
418. Patient M., 27 years old, is ill for 7 years with chronic glomerulonephritis. Name possible
changes of cardiovascular system?
A. Systolic murmur on teh apex;
B. weakening of II heart sound above an aorta;
C. * high blood pressure
D. breaking up I heart sound on an apex
E. “gun tone of Strazhesko”.
419. Patient M., 52 years old., experienced edema. Acute glomerulonephritis was diagnosed.
What is the pattern of edema in this disease?
A. appear in the evening;
B. first appear on lower extremities;
C. first appear on overhead extremities;
D. * appear on face in the morning;
E. Early development of anasarca.
420. Patient P, a woman, complains of dizziness, faintness, dyspnea. Data of inspection: skin is
pale with yellow tint. What data will prove diagnosis “anemia”?
A. Paleness of the tongue
B. Increased skin moistness
C. Reddness of conjuntive
D. * Paleness of conjuntive
E. Pulsation of carotide arteries
421. Patient A., 38 years old , developed acute nephritis. What color of urine may be found in this
patient?
A. red;
B. * color like «meat wastes»;
C. color of beer;
D. sulphur
E. straw-yellow.
422. The patient with pernicious anemia has suddenly increased temperature to 39,20С. What is
the reason of temperature rise?
A. Intoxication
B. *Disintegration of erythrocytes
C. No correct answer
D. Joining of hepatitis
E. Disintegration of leukocytes
423. Skin paleness in patients with kidney diseases usually is combined with:
A. Overfeeling of skin vessels
B. Combination of anaemia, vascular spasm and tissue edema
C. * Edema of tissues
D. Vascular spasm
E. Skin is lost of pigment
424. During palpation of a person of asthenic constitution in vertical position a doctor revealed
the lower pole of the right kidney. Kidney surface is smooth, painless and solid. The left kidney was
nor felt by palpation. What these data testify about?
A. Chronic pyelonephritis
B. * Variant of norm
C. Cancer of the right kidney
D. Atrophy of the left kidney
E. Chronic glomerulonephritis
425. During palpation of kidneys the following was revealed: it is possible to palpate all the
kidney, it is easly displaceble, but does not move to the opposite side of the body. Which degree of
nephroptosis is present?
A. I
B. * II
C. III
D. IV
E. total nephroptosis
426. A patient complains of gingival bleedings, incraesed body temperature till 38`C,marked
general weakness.He feels himself sick for the recent 2weeks.Data of objective examination:
petechnia on the skin,by palpation enlarged submandibular axillary and femoral lymph nodes.Data
of CBC: thrombocytes-120000/l, Le-18,6 .10`9/l, blast cels-80%, ESR-36 mm/hr. Acute leukaemia
is diagnosed. Which symptom indicate an intoxication syndrome?
A. petechnia, gingival bleeding, low account of thrombocytes
B. * general weakness, fever
C. enlarged lymph nodes,decreased amount of RBC, thrombocytes,blast cells in CBC
D. all mentioned
E. no correct answer.
427. A patient complains of gingival bleedings,incraesed body temperature till 38`C,marked
general weakness.He feels himself sick for the recent 2weeks.Data of objective
examination,petectnia on the skin,by palpation enlarged submandibular axillary and femoral lymph
nodes.Data of CBC: thrombocytes-120000/l, Le-18,6 .10`9/l, blast cels-80%, ESR-36 mm/hr. Acute
leukaemia is diagnosed. Which symptoms indicate a malignant proliferation?
A. petechnia, gingival bleeding, low account of thrombocytes
B. general weakness,fever
C. * enlarged lymph nodes,decreased amount of RBC,thrombocytes,blast cells in CBC
D. all mentioned
E. no correct answer.
428. A patient complains of gingival bleedings,incraesed body temperature till 38`C,marked
general weakness.He feels himself sick for the recent 2weeks.Data of objective
examination,petectnia on the skin,by palpation enlarged submandibular axillary and femoral lymph
nodes.Data of CBC: thrombocytes-120000/l, Le-18,6 .10`9/l, blast cels-80%, ESR-36 mm/hr. Acute
leukaemia is diagnosed. Which symptoms indicate on hemorrhagic syndrome?
A. * petectnia,gingival bleeding,low account of thrombocytes
B. general weakness,fever
C. enlarged lymph nodes,decreased amount of RBC,thrombocytes,blast cells in CBC
D. all mentioned
E. no correct answer.
429. A patient suffers of peptic ulcer. The last exacerberation starts 1week ago. Since the last
evening the patient has noticed dissappearance of pain. Data of examination:moderate severity,skin
is pale and covered with cold sweat. BP is 105/70mm of Hg. PS-105 per min. Which hematologic
problem may arise in the patient in 3days?
A. * acute posthemorrhagic anaemia
B. chronic iron-defficiency anaemia
C. chronic vitamin B12-defficiency anaemia
D. hemolypic anaemia
E. aplastic anaemia
430. A patient suffers of peptic ulcer. The last exacerberation starts 1week ago.Since the last
evening the patient has noticed dissappearance of pain. Data of examination:moderate severity,skin
is pale and covered with cold sweat. BP is 105/70mm of Hg. PS-105 per min. Which complication
of the main disease are thsese signs typical for?
A. acute posthemorrhagic anaemia
B. * chronic iron-defficiency anaemia
C. chronic vitamin B12-defficiency anaemia
D. hemolypic anaemia
E. .aplastic anaemia
431. A 54-year-old woman complains of increasing fatigue and easy bruising of 3 weeks’
duration. Physical findings included pale, scattered ecchymoses and petechiae and mild
hepatosplenomegaly. CBC: RBC – 2.5x1012/L; Hb – 73 g/L; HCT 20%; PLT – 23.000/mcL; and
WBC – 162x109/L with 82% of blasts. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Acute leukemia
B. Chronic leukemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Hemolytic anemia
E. Megaloblastic anemia
432. A 60-year-old man complains of fever, significant weight loss, bone and joint pain, and
bleeding gums. On exam, paleness, lymphadenopathy, hepato- and splenomegaly. CBC\: WBC –
270•109/L with 13\% lymphocytes, 1\% monocytes, 21\% basophiles, 29\% neutrophils, 9\% blasts,
12% promyelocytes, 12\% myelocytes, 2\% metamyelocytes, 1\% eosinophils. ESR – 22 mm/h.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Acute leukemia
B. Chronic leukemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Hemolytic anemia
E. Megaloblastic anemia
433. A patient complains of gingival bleedings,incraesed body temperature till 38`C,marked
general weakness.He feels himself sick for the recent 2weeks.Data of objective
examination,petectnia on the skin,by palpation enlarged submandibular axillary and femoral lymph
nodes.Data of CBC: erythrocythes-2,1.10 9/l,Hb-80g/l, thrombocytes-120000/l, Le-18,6 .10`9/l,
l%,stub-2%,segm-9%, lymph-5%, mon-3%, blast cels-80%, ESR-36mm/hr.Which data of CBC
directly proves diagnosis of acute leukaemia?
A. erythocytes 2,1.10`12/l
B. thrombocytes-120000/l
C. leukocytes 18,6.10`9/l
D. ESR-36mm/hr
E. * blast cells 80%
434. A patient complains of gingival bleedings,incraesed body temperature till 38`C,marked
general weakness.He feels himself sick for the recent 2weeks.Data of objective
examination,petectnia on the skin,by palpation enlarged submandibular axillary and femoral lymph
nodes.Data of CBC: erythrocythes-2,1.10 9/l,Hb-80g/l, thrombocytes-120000/l, Le-18,6 .10`9/l,
l%,stub-2%,segm-9%, lymph-5%, mon-3%, blast cels-80%, ESR-36mm/hr.Which disease has
developed in the patient:
A. * acute leukaemia
B. chronic leukaemia
C. hemolytic anaemia
D. vitamin B12-deficiency anaemia
E. symptom of dysseminated hypercoagulation
435. A patient had stomach resection a year ago. He complains of general weakness, giddiness.
Blood count: Er 2,6 g/L, Hb 80 g/L, color index 0.7, L – 3.7 g/L, reticulocytes 1%, segm. neutroph.
56%, lymph. 34%, mon. 6%, ESR 17 mm/hour. Erythrocytes are hypochromic; there are
anisocytosis and poikilocytosis. Serum iron 5 mcmol/L. Which pathological condition are these data
typical for?
A. * Iron-deficiency anemia
B. B12-deficiency anemia
C. Сhronic myeloleukosis
D. Aplastic anemia
E. Chronic lymphoid leukosis
436. A patient suffers of peptic mucous disease for more than 5 years. The last exacerberation
starts 1week ago.Since the last evening the patient has noticed dissappearance of pain. Data of
examination:moderate severity,skin is pale and covered with cold sweat. BP is 105/70mm of Hg.
PS-105 per min. Which examination is necessary to prescribe for verification of diagnosis?
A. * analysis of faeces for scant/hidden blood
B. ionogram
C. coagulation
D. CBC
E. ECG
437. A patient who suffers from postheamorrhagic anemia was treated with tardiferon. Within
five weeks. Now erythrocytes and hemoglobin contents correspond to norm. Which criteria of
laboratory test are necessary to for control of treatment efficacy?
A. erythrocyte count
B. hemoglobin content
C. CI and ESR
D. * serum iron and indexes of its metabolism
E. serum bilirubin
438. A patient, 35yrs old, complains of weakness, palpitation, flickering before eyes, dizziness.
He has peptic ulcer in anamnesis. Data of examination: skin palor, vesicular breathing in lungs,
systolic murmur at heart apex, pulse rate-100/min, BP-100/70 mm of Hg. Data of CBC:
erythrocytes-3,2.1012/l, Hb-75g/l CI-0,7. What is probable cause of anemia in this case?
A. decreased iron absorption
B. * periodical blood loss
C. invasion of helmints
D. newgrows
E. Poor iron content in diet
439. A patient, 35yrs old, complains of weakness, palpitation, flickering before eyes, dizziness.
He has peptic ulcer in anamnesis. Data of examination: skin palor, vesicular breathing in lungs,
systolic murmur at heart apex, pulse rate-100/min, BP-100/70 mm of Hg. Data of CBC:
erythrocytes-3,2.1012/l, Hb-75g/l CI-0,7. Which type of anemia is present?
A. posthemorrhagic anemia
B. sideroblastic anemia
C. thalassemia
D. * iron-deficiency anemia
E. hyperchromic anemia
440. A patient, 40yrs old, complains of weakness, fragility of nails, loss of hair. He has duodenal
ulcer in anamnesis. Data of fibrogastroscopy: duodenal deformation because of scars. Data of CBC:
erythrocytes-3,6.1012/l, Hb-90g/l, CI-0,7, serum iron-8,7micmol/l. What is the pathogenesis of
anemia in this case?
A. increased iron consumption
B. increased excretion of iron
C. * permanent loss of iron
D. deranged transport of iron
E. decreased absorption of iron
441. A patient, 48yrs old, suffers from prolonged menses with severe discharge of blood. Last
3months she complained of general weakness, dizziness, attacks of palpitation, flickering before
eyes. Data of examinations: skin pallor, fragility of nails. On ECG, extrasystoly is recorded. Data of
CBC: erythrocytes-2,8.1012/l, Hb-96g/l, CI-0,7, anisocytosis, poikilocytosis. ESR-4mm/hr. What is
the cause of anemia?
A. * blood loss
B. poor iron consumption in diet
C. poor iron absorption
D. increased iron excretion with urine
E. helminthic invasion
442. A patient, 55yrs old, complains of pain in sternal bone and in ribs. 6 months ago he had
pathological fracture of the left shin. Data of lab tests: protein-110g/l, positive M-gradient. The
patient is suspected plasma cell myeloma. Which rest is necessary to prescribe?
A. CBC
B. Biochemical blood study
C. * Determination of Bence Jones protein in urine
D. X-ray of ribs
E. CT of the chest
443. A patient, 60yrs old, complains of general weakness, fatigue, parestesia in limbs. He had
resection of stomach 3years ago because of peptic ulcer. Data of examination: the tongue is of
raspberry colour and smooth, the patient is not stable in Romberg’s position. Data of CBC:
erythrocytes-2,5.1012/l, Hb-88g/l CI-1,3, macrocytosis. What disease is present?
A. * vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
B. iron-deficiency anemia
C. hemolytic anemia
D. hypochromic anemia
E. hyperchromic anemia
444. A patient, 60yrs old, complains of general weakness, fatigue, parestesia in limbs. He had
resection of stomach 3years ago because of peptic ulcer. Data of examination: the tongue is of
raspberry colour and smooth, the patient is not stable in Romberg’s position. The patient is
diagnosed vitamin B12 deficiency anemia. How do you explain parestesia?
A. affection of central nervous system
B. * affection of peripheral nervous system
C. dystension of skin
D. affection of subcutaneous fat
E. all mentioned
445. A patient,35yrs old, who suffers of autoimmune gastritis and vitamin B12-deficiency
anemia, presents signs of funicular myelosis. Data of CBC: erythrocyte-2,2.1012/l, Hb-80g/l, LC2,4.109/l, ESR-40mm/hr, direct bilirubin-8,6micmol/l, indirect bilirubin-27micmol/l. What is
funicular myelosis?
A. * demyelinization of posteriolateral columns of spinal cord
B. demyelinization of anterior columns of spinal cord
C. affection of brain cortex
D. demyelinization of peripheral nerves of lower limbs
E. no correct answer
446. A patient,35yrs old, who suffers of autoimmune gastritis and vitamin B12-deficiency
anemia, presents signs of funicular myelosis. Data of CBC: erythrocyte-2,2.1012/l, Hb-80g/l, LC2,4.109/l, ESR-40mm/hr, direct bilirubin-8,6micmol/l, indirect bilirubin-27micmol/l. Which
substance is not produced with patient’s gastric mucosa responsible for vitamin B12 absorption in
intestine?
A. full hydrochloric acid
B. combined hydrochloric acid
C. pepsin
D. * gastromucoprotein
E. lactic acid
447. A patient,35yrs old, who suffers of autoimmune gastritis and vitamin B12-deficiency
anemia, presents signs of funicular myelosis. Data of CBC: erythrocyte-2,2.1012/l, Hb-80g/l, LC2,4.109/l, ESR-40mm/hr, direct bilirubin-8,6micmol/l, indirect bilirubin-27micmol/l. What is
probable reason of funicular myelosis?
A. prolonged hypoxia of nervous system
B. increased bilirubin content in blood serum
C. * accumulation of propionic and methylmalonic acids n blood serum
D. infection contamination due to leukaemia
E. malnutrition due to gastritis
448. During assessment of a patient at risk for hematologic problems, the doctor palpates the
patient's spleen just below the ribs on the left side. What is correct interpretation of obtained
results?
A. Norm
B. * Splenomegaly
C. Decreased sizes of spleen
D. This is not spleen but the left kidney
E. This is not spleen but descending colon
449. In a patient, 30yrs old, aplastic anemia was diagnosed. What is pathogenesis of anemia?
A. membranopathy
B. hemoglobinopathy
C. autoimmune affection of erythrocytes
D. affection of erythrocytes by immune complexes
E. * bone marrow affection
450. In patient B 46 y.o who suffers of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease for 15 years, in
CBC it was revealed that erythrocytes account is equal to 4,5 .1012/l. there are no other changes in
CBC and bone marrow puncture. What is the correct interpretation of obtained results?
A. normal RBC level
B. absolute erythrocytosis( erythraemia)
C. number of RBC is increased, because of increased circulating blood volume.
D. * This is relative erythrocytosis for compensation of chronic hypoxia
E. All answers are correct
451. In patient B 46 y.o who suffers of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease for 15 years, in
CBC it was revealed that erythrocytes account is equal to 4,5 .1012/l. there are no other changes in
CBC and bone marrow puncture. Select the main mechanism of erythrocytosis in chronic hypoxia
in patients with bronchopulmonary diseases:
A. intensified erythropoiesis
B. increased hemopoyetic function of kidneys
C. increased blood viscosity
D. * erythrocytes enter perypheric circulation from depot
E. dilution of blood.
452. In patient who suffers from duodenal ulcer complains of general weakness, dyspnoe in
insignificant physical load and desire to eat a chalk. Data of objective examination: skin paleness,
throphic changes of skin. CBC: erythrocytes 3,3.1012/l Hb 90g/l Ci-0,75, reticulocytes-2%, serum
iron-5,6 micmol/l. Which pathological condition takes place?
A. erythremia
B. hemolytic anemia
C. * iron-deficiency anemia
D. aplastic anemia
E. vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
453. Patient 38 years old complains on weakness, dizziness, dyspnea, burning sensations in the
tongue. During examination were found the signs of folic acid-deficiency anemia. In which diseases
usually this type of anemia develops?
A. * Chronic liver diseases
B. Chronic kidney diseases
C. Diseases of a stomach
D. Affection of bone marrow
E. Infectious diseases
454. Patient 38 years old complains on weakness, dizziness, dyspnea, burning sensations in the
tongue. During examination were found the signs of folic acid-deficiency anemia. In which diseases
usually this type of anemia develops?
A. * Chronic diseases of intestine
B. Chronic kidney diseases
C. Diseases of a stomach
D. Affection of bone marrow
E. Infectious diseases
455. Patient V., 40 years old, has massive uterine bleeding. During inspection the signs of
hypochromic anemia were found. Which research is specific for diagnostics?
A. ESR
B. Blood proteins
C. Reticulocyte
D. Form of erythrocytes
E. Serum iron
456. Patient B, 25 years old, complains of weakness, dizziness, hemorrhagic rash on the skin. She
is ill for the last month. Data of CBC: erythrocytes- 1,0. 1012/l, Hb-30g/l, CI-0,9, LC-1,2.109/l,
thrombocytes-42.109/l. How to make interpretation of these results?
A. depression of red cells stem
B. depression of white cells stem
C. depression of thrombocytes
D. * decreased Hb content in erythrocytes
E. depression of all bone marrow stems
457. Patient B, 25 years old, complains of weakness, dizziness, hemorrhagic rash on the skin. She
is ill for the last month. Data of CBC: erythrocytes- 1,0. 1012/l, Hb-30g/l, CI-0,9, WBC-1,2.109/l,
thrombocytes-42.109/l. Which examination method is the most informative in verification of
diagnosis?
A. lymph node biopsy
B. * sternal puncture
C. biopsy of spleen
D. biopsy of liver
E. pleurocentesis
458. Patient L., 46 years old, a woman, is inspected by a doctor. Data of inspection\: the face is of
intensive red colour, round (like Moon), hair growth is present on patient's chin and under the upper
lip. Which disease this facial expressionis typical for?
A. * Itsenko-Kushing's syndrome
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Mixedema
D. Sclerodermia
E. No any answer is correct.
459. Patient L., 46 years old, a woman, is inspected by a doctor. Data of inspection\: the face is of
intensive red colour, round (like Moon), hair growth is present on patient's chin and under the upper
lip. Which disease this facial expressionis typical for?
A. * Itsenko-Kushing's syndrome
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Mixedema
D. Sclerodermia
E. No any answer is correct.
460. Patient, 62yrs old, is hospitalized with complaints of enlargement of neck, subclavian and
axillary lymph nodes, general weakness, increased sweating, subfebrile body temperature within the
last 3months. Data of CBC:WBC-64.109/l, lymphocytes-72%. Which examination method is
necessary for diagnosis?
A. computer tomography
B. * myelogram
C. Lymphography
D. Lymphosintigraphy
E. X-ray
461. Patient, 62yrs old, is hospitalized with complaints of enlargement of neck, subclavian and
axillary lymph nodes, general weakness, increased sweating, subfebrile body temperature within the
last 3months. Data of CBC: WBC-64.109/l, lymphocytes-72%. Blast cells 1-2%. Which disease is
possible to suspect?
A. vitamin B12-deficiency anemia
B. plasma cell myeloma
C. * acutre leukaemia
D. chronic leukaemia
E. mononucleosis
462. Patients P., a female, feels general and muscular weakness,dyspnoe, dizziness, fragidity of
hair and nails, desire to eat chalk. She has data about uterine fibromyoma with frequent bleedings in
the anamnesis. Data of CBC: 2,8.10`12/l, HB-105g/l, color index-0.78, anisocytosis, poikilocytosis,
serum iron-10mmmol/l. Which diagnosis is prescribed?
A. talassemia
B. aplastic anaemia
C. * iron-defficiency anaemia
D. vitamin B12-defficiency anaemia
E. autoimmune hemolytic anaemia
463. When taking the blood pressure of a patient after a parathyroidectomy, the doctor notes that
the patient's hand has gone into flexion contractions. What is the doctor’s interpretation of this
observation?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. * Hypocalcemia
E. All above mentioned
464. Within the last year, a patient complained of weakness, fatigue, sweating, dry cough.
1month ago, he had severe herpes infection. Data of present examination:enlarged lymph nodes in
the neck, in axillary region. The lymph nodes are slightly dense and painless. Data of CBC:
leukocytes-4,0.109/l, lymphocytes-80%. Chronic lympholeukosis was diagnosed. Which properties
of lymph nodes are typical for this disease?
A. mild, elastic, painful
B. mild, elastic, painless
C. * solid, painful
D. solid, painless
E. not enlarged
465. Within the last year, a patient complained of weakness, fatigue, sweating, dry cough.
1month ago, he had severe herpes infection. Data of present examination:enlarged lymph nodes in
the neck, in axillary region. The lymph nodes are slightly dense and painless. Data of CBC:
leukocytes-4,0.109/l, lymphocytes-80%. Which examination should be performed in first line?
A. biochemical blood study
B. biopsy of enlarged lymph nodes
C. blood immunogra
D. chest x-ray
E. * sternal puncture
466. A student determined position of stomach lower border by percutory palpation. He put the
right hand 3 cm lower downward than with the usage of deep sliding palpation he revealed elastic
cylinder 2 cm in length slightly movable and painless without rumbling sounds. What the organ is
this?
A. Pyorus
B. Duodenum
C. * Transverse colon
D. Pancreas
E. Small stomach curve
467. Patient applies for medical advice because of pain in paraumbilical region which appears
mostly in the morning, they are crumping and are followed with intestinal inflation. Affection of
which part of digestive tract should you suspect?
A. stomach
B. esophagus
C. * gallbladder
D. intestine
E. pancreas
468. Patient G. is seeking for medical advise because of periodical crumping pain in the lower
parts of abdominal region, pain does not depend on food intake and it arises before defecation.
Affection of which part of digestive tract should you suspect?
A. stomach
B. small intestine
C. * large intestine
D. spleen
E. pancreas
469. Patient I., 26 y.o.., entered clinic with complaints on edema below eyes, increase of body
temperature to 37,8 degree, discoloration of urine. 2 weeks ago he was ill with quinsy. What
research must be conducted?
A. ECG;
B. * urinalysis;
C. Chest X-ray;
D. Ultrasound of a heart
E. gastroscopy.
470. Patient R. complains of increased frequency of defecation till 4-5 times a day within the last
weak. Volume of stool and amount of liquid in it are also increased. Which possible cause of this
condition do you know?
A. Infection
B. Intoxication
C. Food allergy
D. Exposure to radiation
E. * All mentioned
471. Patient М. is seeking for medical advise because of complaints on poor appetite, disgust for
meat, considerable loss of body weight during the last year, periodical blood admixtures to the
stool. Which pathological condition should you suspect in the patient?
A. peptic ulcer
B. Chronic gastritis
C. hemorrhoids
D. * cancer of the intestine
E. enteritis
472. During auscultation of a young boy with fever a doctor found in him weakened vesicular
breathing above the right lobe which is following with cough. Pneumonia was diagnosed. Which
changes of vocal fremitus, bronchophony and percutory sound should be expected in this case?
A. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percutory sound will be dull, bronchophony will be
intensified
B. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percutory sound will be dull, bronchophony will be
weakened.
C. * Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percutory sound will be dull-to-thympany,
bronchophony will be weakened
D. Vocal fremitus will not be changed, percutory sound will be resonant, bronchophony will
not be changed .
E. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percutory sound will be thympanic, bronchophony will be
intensified.
473. During auscultation of a young boy a doctor found in him acute bronchitis. Which changes
of vocal fremitus, bronchophony and percutory sound should be expected in this case?
A. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percutory sound will be dull, bronchophony will be
intensified
B. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percutory sound will be dull, bronchophony will be
weakened.
C. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percutory sound will be bundbox, bronchophony will be
weakened
D. * Vocal fremitus will not be changed, percutory sound will be resonant, bronchophony will
not be changed .
E. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percutory sound will be thympanic, bronchophony will be
intensified.
474. Forced expiratory volume for the 1st second (FEV1) was measured in patient with bronchial
asthma. Which index of FEV1 corresponds to the 3rd degree of respiratory failure?
A. >80 %, deviation
B. >80 %, deviation \=20-30 %
C. . 60-80 % , deviation >30 %
D. * < 60 %, deviation > 30 %
E. 55 %, deviation \= 25 %
475. Forced expiratory volume for the 1st second (FEV1) was measured in patient with bronchial
asthma. Which index of FEV1 corresponds to the 1st degree of respiratory failure?{
A. >80 %, deviation
B. * >80 %, deviation \=20-30 %
C. . 60-80 % , deviation >30 %
D. < 60 %, deviation > 30 %
E. 55 %, deviation \= 25 %
476. Forced expiratory volume for the 1st second (FEV1) was measured in patient with bronchial
asthma. Which index of FEV1 corresponds to the 2nd degree of respiratory failure?{
A. >80 %, deviation
B. >80 %, deviation \=20-30 %
C. * 60-80 % , deviation >30 %
D. < 60 %, deviation > 30 %
E. 55 %, deviation \= 25 %
477. Patient R. complains of increase of body temperature, dyspnea, cough, sweating. Vocal
fremitus is weakened on the right side, dull-to-thympanic percutory sound is revealed by percussion
at this area. By auscultation weakened vesicular breathing and crepitation are heard. What the
probable reason of this changes?
A. Pulmonary emphysema
B. Acute catarrhal bronchitis
C. * Pneumonia, I stage
D. Pneumonia, II stage
E. Norm
Questins to pictures
1. Presented on the picture 1 changes may testify about:
A. *Liver cirrhosis
B. Chronic cholecystitis
C. Chronic cholangitis
D. Chronic hepatitis
E. Polyserositis
2. Look at the picture 2. In the patient you can see changes of skin which relate to “minor liver
signs”. What is this?
A. Varicous dilatation of veins
B. Hemorrhage into the skin
C. Intradfermal accumulation of hemosiderin
D. Hemorrhagic rash
E. *Weakly pulsationg angiomas (spider angiomata)
3. Which disease can you suspect if you reveale on patient’s trunk signs presented on the picture
2?
A. Cholelithiasis
B. Chronic calculous cholecystitis
C. hemophilia
D. Vitamin В-12-defficiency anaemia
E. *Liver cirrhosis
4. Look at the picture 2. Pathology of which organ do the presented signs indicate on?
A. Stomach
B. Pancreas
C. Gallbladder
D. Spleen
E. *Liver
5. Look at the picture 3. Which disease is it possible to suspect if you see such signs as in the
picture?
A. *Liver cirrhosis
B. Chronic pancreatitis
C. Chronic cholecystitis
D. Peptic ulcer
E. Chronic colitis
6. Look at the picture 3. Name the main mechanisms of presented pathological condition:
A. Activation of lipids hyperperoxidation and dysbalance of minetal metabolism
B. Disorders of cellular and humoral immunity
C. *Blood flow block in the liver and development of portocaval anastomoses
D. Gastrointestinal hormonal system dysfunction
E. Vegetative nervous system dysfunction
7. How are presented on the picture 4 changes called?
A. Papilomas
B. Spider angiomata
C. Hemorrhagias
D. Hematomas
E. *Xanthelasmas
8. Look at the picture 4. During examination of a . patient with liver cirrhosis there were revealed
presented on the picture signs. Choos the proper characteristics for them:
A. Angiomas elevated under the skin
B. Skin excoriations
C. Hemorrhages
D. Nettle rash
E. *Cholesterol plaques
9. Look at the picture 5. This micropreparation of liver parenchyma is typical for:
A. Acute viral hepatitis
B. *Micronodular liver cirrhosis
C. Macronodular liver cirrhosis
D. Fat hepatosis
E. Reactive hepatitis
10. Look at the picture 5. This micropreparation of liver parenchyma is typical for:
A. Acute viral hepatitis
B. Micronodular liver cirrhosis
C. Жирового гепатозу
D. Reactive hepatitis
E. *Macronodular liver cirrhosis
11. At the picture 7 there are indicated zones of skin hyperesthesia in pancreatitis. Which number
does indicate Shoffar’s zone?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1, 2
E. *1
12. At the picture 7 there are indicated zones of skin hyperesthesia in pancreatitis. Which number
does indicate Gubergrits-Slkulsky’s zone?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1, 2
E. *2
13. At the picture 7 there are indicated zones of skin hyperesthesia in pancreatitis. Which number
does indicate Dejarden’s point?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1, 2
E. *3
14. At the picture 7 there are indicated zones of skin hyperesthesia in pancreatitis. Which number
does indicate Mayo-Robson’s point?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 1, 2
E. *4
15. In which among enumerated diseases may be pain in the points and zones indicated on the
picture 7?
A. Cholecystitis
B. Peptic ulcer
C. Liver cirrhosis
D. Gastritis
E. *Pancreatitis
16. Look at the picture 8. How is the zone on the picture 8, marked with oblique lines, called if
pain in this point is the most characteristic for inflammation of the head of a pancreas?
A. Zakhariin’s point
B. Gubergrits-Skulsky’s point
C. *Shoffar’s point
D. Vasylenko’s point
E. Orthner’s point
17. Look at the picture 9. How is the point indicatedа on the picture, called if pain in this point is
the most characteristic for inflammation of the head of a pancreas?
A. Gubergrits-Skulsky’s point
B. Mayo-Robson’s point
C. *Dejarden’s point
D. Kach’s point
E. Male-Gy’s point
18. Look at the picture 9. How is the point indicatedа on the picture, called if pain in this point is
the most characteristic for inflammation of the tail of a pancreas?
A. Gubergrits-Skulsky’s point
B. Dejarden’s point
C. Kach’s point
D. Male-Gy’s point
E. *Mayo-Robson’s point
19. Look at the picture 11. How is method of examination callsed?
A. Cholecystography
B. Fibrosocpy
C. Irrigography
D. Colonoscopy
E. *Duodenal probing
20. A patient suffers of chronic noncalculous pancreatitis. She was prescribed examination
presented on the picture 11. Which stimulator should be used for obtaining gallbladder bile
(portion "В")?
A. 7% decoction of dry cabbage
B. 0,2% caffeine solution
C. 5% alcohol solution
D. meat-stock
E. *33% Magnium sulfate solution
21. A patient suffers of chronic noncalculous pancreatitis. She was prescribed examination
presented on the picture 11. Select, which changes of bile are typical for this disease:
A. Leukocytes, mucus in portion А.
B. *Leukocytes, mucus, desquamated epithelium in portion B.
C. Erythrocytes, бактерії in portion А.
D. Leukocytes, mucus, desquamated epithelium in portion С.
E. Erythrocytes in portion В.
22. Look at the picture 1. This symptom is called «caput medusae». What is this?
A. Abdominal enlargement
B. Change of skin color
C. Spider angiomata
D. Intradermal accumulation of chalesterol
E. *Dilatation of subcutaneous veins of anterior abdominal wall
23. On the picture 1 a patient with liver cirrhosis is presented. Which syndrome indicate on
presented on the picture signs?
A. *Portal hypertension
B. Hypersplenismus
C. Liver enczephalopathy
D. Hepatorenal syndrome
E. Syndrome of minor liver signs
24. Sign of which disease is presented on the picture 12 symptom?
A. Left-ventricular failure
B. Hepatic insufficiency
C. Renal failure
D. Vascular insufficiency
E. *Right-ventricular failure
25. How is presented on picture 12 symptom called?
A. Anasarca
B. Caput medusae
C. Acromegaly
D. Hydrothorax
E. *Аscites
26. Look at the picture 13. Which disease are indicated with number 1 changes typical for?
A. Aortal stenosis
B. Mitral incompetence
C. Aortal incompetence
D. Tricuspid incompetence
E. *Mitral stenosis
27. Look at the picture 13. Which disease are indicated with number 2 changes typical for?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Mitral incompetence
C. Aortal incompetence
D. Tricuspid incompetence
E. *Aortal stenosis
28. Look at the picture 13. Which disease are indicated with number 3 changes typical for?
A. Aortal stenosis
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Mitral incompetence
D. Tricuspid incompetence
E. *Aortal incompetence
29. Which heart defect are presented on the picture 14 changes typical for?
A. Aortal stenosis
B. Mitral incompetence
C. Aortal incompetence
D. Tricuspid incompetence
E. *Mitral stenosis
30. What are presented on the picture 15 changes typical for?
A. Aortal stenosis
B. *Norm
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Mitral incompetence
E. Aortal incompetence
31. How is presented on the picture 16 heart configuration called?
A. Mitral
B. Tricuspid
C. Pulmonary
D. Mixed
E. *Aortal
32. What is presented on the picture 16 heart configuration typical for?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Mitral incompetence
C. Tricuspid incompetence
D. Aortal and mitral incompetence
E. *Aortal stenosis
33. At the picture 17 you can see that a student detremines a symptom by palpation. How is this
symptom called?
A. Ascites
B. Anasarca
C. Caput medusae
D. Acromegaly
E. *Cat’s purr
34. On the picture 17 you can see determination of diastolic cat’s purr. Where should this symptom
be determined?
A. *Heart apex
B. Aorta
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Xyphoid process
E. Heart basis
35. On the picture 17 you can see determination of systolic cat’s purr. Where should this symptom
be determined?
A. *Aorta
B. Heart apex
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Xyphoid process
E. Heart basis
36. Which valve (it is presented on the picture 18) is the most often affected in rheumatic heart
disease?
A. Aortal
B. Tricuspid
C. *Mitral
D. Pulmonary
E. All valves are affected equally
37. Which valve (it is presented on the picture 18) is the most often affected in infectious
endocarditis?
A. Mitral
B. Tricuspid
C. Pulmonary
D. All valves are affected equally
E. *Aortal
38. Which valve (it is presented on the picture 18) is the most often affected in atherosclerosis?
A. Mitral
B. Tricuspid
C. Pulmonary
D. All valves are affected equally
E. *Aortal
39. Which valve (it is presented on the picture 18) is the lest often affected in rheumatic heart
disease?
A. Aortal
B. Mitral
C. Tricuspid
D. All valves are affected equally
E. *Pulmonary
40. Look at the picture 18. Which heart defect the presented symptom is the most often develops in?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Tricuspid stenosis
C. Pulmonary artery stenosis
D. All of them are observed equally often
E. *Aortal stenosis
41. How is presented on the picture 19 symptom called?
A. Variant angina pectoris
B. Unstable angina pectoris
C. Stable angina pectoris
D. Angina pectoris on exertion
E. *hemodynamic angina pectoris
42. In which heart defect is presented on the picture 20 symptom left ventricular hypertrophy
observed more often ?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Tricuspid stenosis
C. Pulmonary trunk stenosis
D. All of them are observed equally often
E. *Aortal stenosis
43. How is presented on the picture 20 symptom called?
A. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium
B. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium
C. Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle
D. Hyperthrophy of both atriums
E. *Hyperthrophy of the lleft ventricle
44. How is presented on the picture 21 symptom called?
A. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium
B. Hyperthrophy of the right atrium
C. Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle
D. Hyperthrophy of both atriums
E. *Hyperthrophy of the lleft ventricle
45. In which heart defect is presented on the picture 21 symptom observed more often?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. *Aortal stenosis
C. Tricuspid stenosis
D. Pulmonary trunk stenosis
E. All of them are observed equally often
46. Presented on the picture 22 symptom is the sign of such pathological condition as:
A. *Right ventricular failure
B. Left ventricular failure
C. Liver insufficiency
D. Total heart failure
E. Renal failure
47. How is presented on the picture 23 device called?
A. *Colonoscop
B. Fibrogastroscop
C. Rectoscop
D. Bronchoscop
E. Irrigoscop
48. What is indicated on the picture 24 with number 1?
A. Upper anterior segment of a kidney
B. Lower anterior segment of a kidney
C. Lower segment of a kidney
D. Posterior segment of a kidney
E. *Upper segment of a kidney
49. What is indicated on the picture 24 with number II ?
A. Upper segment of a kidney
B. Lower anterior segment of a kidney
C. Lower segment of a kidney
D. Posterior segment of a kidney
E. *Upper anterior segment of a kidney
50. What is indicated on the picture 24 with number III ?
A. Upper segment of a kidney
B. Upper anterior segment of a kidney
C. Lower segment of a kidney
D. Posterior segment of a kidney
E. *Lower anterior segment of a kidney
51. What is indicated on the picture 24 with number IY?
A. Upper segment of a kidney
B. Upper anterior segment of a kidney
C. Lower anterior segment of a kidney
D. Posterior segment of a kidney
E. *Lower segment of a kidney
52. What is indicated on the picture 24 with number Y?
A. Upper segment of a kidney
B. Upper anterior segment of a kidney
C. Lower anterior segment of a kidney
D. Lower posterior segment of a kidney
E. *Posterior segment of a kidney
53. Patient У. is on the long-standing treatment because of terminal stage of kidney disease. He
developed changes of skin presented on the picture 25. How is the syndrome called which
develops in terminal stige of kidney disens
A. Eclampsy
B. Slin-muscular syndrome
C. Hemorrhagic syndrome
D. Spider angiomata
E. *Renal failure
54. How is element presented on the picture 26 called?
A. Glomeruli
B. Renal calicies
C. Renal calilulis
D. Renal columns
E. Renal complex
55. What is presented on the picture 27 symptom the most typical for?
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. *Renal failure
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Urolithiasis
E. Pulmonary insufficiency
56. What may be the reason for changes on ECG presented on the picture 28 in a patient with
glomerulonephritis?
A. Arterial hypotension
B. *Arterial hypertension
C. Myocarditis
D. Metabolic changes
E. Affection of coronary atreries
57. What may be the reason for changes presented on the picture 31 in a patient with
glomerulonephritis?
A. Heart failure
B. Vascular insufficiency
C. *Renal failure
D. Lymphostasis
E. Adrenal insufficiency
58. Which symptom is presented on the picture 27 present in a patient with kidney disease?
A. *Facies nephritica
B. Facies hippocratica
C. Corvisar’s face
D. Botkin’s face
E. Gumprecht’s face
59. Look at the picture 30. Hemodialisis is performed for a patient. In which case is this procedure
prescribed?
A. Heart failure
B. Vascular insufficiency
C. Lymphostasis
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. *Renal failure
60. How is presented on the picture 29 symptom called?
A. Corvisar’s face
B. Botkin’s symptom
C. Gumprecht’s symptom
D. Strazjesko’s symptom
E. *Pasternstsky’s symptom
61. How is presented on the picture 30 procedure called if it is executed for a patient with terminal
stage of kidney disease?
A. Hemosrption
B. *Hemodialysis
C. Plasmapheresis
D. Bloodletting
E. Ozonazing
62. Look at the picture 32. In which disease the layer of a kidney indicated with number 1 is
affected?
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Urolithiasis
C. Renal failure
D. Kidney amyloidosis
E. *Glomerulonephritis
63. Look at the picture 32. In which disease the layer of a kidney indicated with number 2 is
affected?
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. Urolithiasis
C. Renal failure
D. Kidney amyloidosis
E. *Pyelonephritis
64. What is indicated on the picture 33 with number 1?
A. A. efferent
B. A. communis
C. V. afferent
D. V. efferent
E. *A. afferent
65. What is indicated on the picture 33 with number 2?
A. A. afferent
B. A. communis
C. V. afferent
D. V. efferent
E. *A. efferent
66. What is indicated on the picture 34 with number 1?
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. *Hydronephrosis
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Renal failure
E. Амілоїдоз нирок
67. При якій хворобі нирок спостерігається зображений на рисунку 29 симптом?
A. Гломерулонефрит
B. *Пієлонефрит
C. Сечокам”яна хвороба
D. Ниркова недостатність
E. Kidney amyloidosis
68. Look at the picture 35. The patient develops pain during superficial palpation in points indicated
on the picture with N 4, 5. 6. Which pathological condition can you suspect?
A. Gastroduodenitis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Cholecystitis
D. Peptic ulcer
E. *Enterocolitis
69. On eth picture 36 you can see the scheme of different parts of intestine. Which affection is
indicated with letter А?
A. Colitis
B. Enterocolitis
C. Proctitis
D. Proctosigmoiditis
E. *Enteritis
70. On eth picture 36 you can see the scheme of different parts of intestine. Which affection is
indicated with letter В?
A. Colitis
B. *Enterocolitis
C. Enteritis
D. Proctitis
E. Proctosigmoiditis
71. On eth picture 36 you can see the scheme of different parts of intestine. Which affection is
indicated with letter С?
A. *Colitis
B. Enteritis
C. Enterocolitis
D. Proctitis
E. Proctosigmoiditis
72. What is indicated with letter «а» on the picture 49?
A. Norm
B. Complete AV-block
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Q-myocardial infarction
E. *Levogram, ischemia of anterior wall of the left ventricle, septum, apex and posterior wall
of the left ventricle
73. What is indicates with letter «б» on the picture 49?
A. Levogram, ischemia of anterior wall of the left ventricle, septum, apex and posterior wall of
the left ventricle
B. Complete AV-block
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Q-myocardial infarction
E. *Norm
74. What is indicates with letter «а» on the picture 50?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Norm
Complete AV-block
Atrial fibrillation
Q-myocardial infarction
*Levogram, ischemia of anterior wall of the left ventricle, septum, apex and posterior wall
of the left ventricle
75. What is indicates with letter «б» on the picture 50?
A. Levogram, ischemia of anterior wall of the left ventricle, septum, apex and posterior wall of
the left ventricle
B. Complete AV-block
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Q-myocardial infarction
E. *Norm
76. On the picture 51 you can see changes on ECG and contrast angiography indicated with letter
“a”. They are typical for
A. Norm
B. Complete AV-block
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Q-myocardial infarction
E. *Angina pectoris;
77. On the picture 51 you can see changes on ECG and contrast angiography indicated with letter
«б». They are typical for
A. Norm
B. Levogram, ischemia of anterior wall of the left ventricle, septum, apex and posterior wall of
the left ventricle
C. *Q-myocardial infarction
D. Complete AV-block
E. Atrial fibrillation
78. On the picture 52 you can see process of development of coronary arteries atheroclerosis. It is
the main cause of the following disease:
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Complete AV-block
C. Brain stroke
D. Extrasystoly
E. *Myocardial infarction
79. On the picture 52 you can see a part of coronary artery. Which pathological process is indicated
with number 1?
A. Stenosis of the artery
B. Development of aneurism
C. Development of thrombus
D. Sdimentation of cholesterol crystals
E. *development of atherosclerotic plaque
80. On the picture 53 are presented irradiation of pain in the following disease:
A. Left-side pleurisy
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Left-side intercostal neuralgia
D. Radial nerve neuritis
E. *Myocardial infarction
81. On the picture 53 are presented irradiation of pain in the following disease:
A. Left-side pleurisy
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Left-side intercostal neuralgia
D. Radial nerve neuritis
E. *Angina pectoris
82. Which device is presented on the picture 54?
A. External cardiac pacemaker
B. Device for 24hr blood pressure monitoring Е2
C. Cardioverter
D. Defibrillator
E. *Device for 24hr ECG monitoring by Holter
83. What is the purpose for usage of the device presented on the picture 54?
A. For 24hr blood pressure monitoring
B. For stabilization of cardiacrrhythm
C. For improvement of metabolic processes in myocardium
D. All mentioned
E. For 24hr ECG monitoring
84. In the patient presented on the picture55 develops such a pathological condition as:
A. Brain stroke
B. Perforation of peptic ulcer
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax
D. Glaucoma
E. *Myocardial infarction
85. Patient presented on the picture 55 complains of pain. Retrosternal pain with irradiation to the
left urm is typical for
A. Brain stroke
B. Perforation of peptic ulcer
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax
D. Glaucoma
E. *Myocardial infarction
86. Which examination method is presented on the picture 56?
A. Electroencefalogram
B. *Ophthalmoscop
C. Sonograph
D. Computer X-ray device
E. Computer tmomgraph
87. On the picture 56 you can see process of ophthalmoscopy in the patient with arterial
hypertension. What actually may be diagnosed with this method?
A. Vision loss
B. Brain vessels aneurism
C. Conjunctivitis
D. Inflammation of saliva gland
E. *Retinopathy
88. Which process is presented on the picture 57?
A. Measurement of central venous pressure
B. Auscultation of heart murmurs on the limb vessels
C. Auscultation of pulse
D. Stopping of bleeding
E. *Measurement of arterial pressure
89. Which disease may be recognized with the method presented on the picture 57?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Angina pectoris
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Cardiac rrhythm disorders
E. *Arterial hypertension
90. On the picture 58 you can see the syndrome typical for:
A. Lung tuberculosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Cardiomegaly
D. Norm
E. *Pleuricy
91. On the picture 58 you can see the syndrome typical for:
A. *Hemothorax;
B. Lung tuberculosis
C. Lung cancer
D. Cardiomegaly
E. Norm
92. Look on the picture 59. According to the appearance of the presented patient you can suspect in
him affection of:
A. Cardiovascular system
B. Endocrine system
C. Urinary system
D. Locomotory apparatus
E. *Respiratory system
93. On the picture 59 you can see the patient with respiratory failure. How is this forced position
called?
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Sitting
D. Painless
E. *Orthopnoe
94. On the picture 60 you can see the patient with respiratory failure. How is this forced position
called?
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Sitting
D. Painless
E. *Orthopnoe
95. On the picture 60 you can see the patient with respiratory failure. Which disease will not cause
development of respiratory failure?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Fallot’s tetrad
D. Scleroderma
E. *Pyelonephritis
96. Look at the picture 64. Which among the mentioned diseases is it possible to suspect if you
reveal this facial expression?
A. Myxedema
B. Addisson’s disease
C. Cushing’s disease
D. Acromegaly
E. *Diffuse toxic goitre
97. Look at the picture 64. Which sign typical for endocrine pathology is it presented on the
picture?
A. Eyes asymetry
B. Skin paleness
C. Ematiation
D. Hyperpigmentation
E. *Exophthalmos
98. The patient presented on the picture 64 sufffers of endoctine diseases. Except of exophthalmos
you can see in here:
A. Gynaecomastia
B. Edema on lower limbs
C. *Enlarged thyroid gland
D. Red-violet strias on the abdominal wall and thighs
E. ascites
99. Look at the picture Рис. 65. Which among the mentioned diseases is it possible to suspect if you
reveal this facial expression?
A. Diffuse toxic goitre
B. Rheumativ fever
C. Angina pectoris
D. Acromegaly
E. *Myxedema
100. Look at the picture 63. Which disease are this body proportions typical for?
A. Rheumatic fever
B. Hypothyreosis
C. Cushing’s disease
D. Ostheoarthrosis
E. *Acromegaly
101. Look at the picture 63. Affection of which endocrine gland this disorder of growth is typical
for?
A. Pancreas
B. *Hypophysis
C. Thyroid gland
D. Adrenal glands
E. Sex glands
102. Look at the picture 65. Which signs of thyroid gland dysfunction can you see?
A. Paraorbital edema
B. *Puffy amimic face
C. Eyebrows enlargement
D. Acrocyanosis
E. Hyperpigmentation
103. Look at the picture 63. Which disease this enlargement of feet and palms is typical for?
A. Rheumatic fever
B. Hypothyreosis
C. Cushing’s disease
D. Osteoarthrosis
E. *Acromegaly
104. Look at the picture 63. Which disease this enlargement of face sizes is typical for?
A. *Acromegaly
B. Rheumatic fever
C. Hypothyreosis
D. Cushing’s disease
E. Osteoarthrosis
105. Look at the picture 61. Which changes of feet are presented on the picture?
A. Bushar’s nodes
B. Osteosclerosis
C. Usuras
D. Rheumatoid nones
E. *Ostheoporosis and subluxation of joints
106. Look at the picture 63. Which part of endocrine gland these disorders of grows correspond
to?
A. Posterior part of hypophysis
B. Thyroid gland
C. Adrenal glands
D. Medial part of hypophysis
E. *Anterior part of hypophysis
107.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
108.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
109.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
110.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
111.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
112.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
113.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
114.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
115.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Look at the picture 66. Which part of endocrine gland these disorders correspond to?
Pancreas
Thyroid gland
Medial part of hypophysis
Sex glands
*Adrenal glands
Look at the picture 69. What causes development of presented on the picture elements?
Osteoporosis
Osteosclerosis
Usuras
Accumulation of proteins
*Accumulation of uric acid salts
Look at the picture 64. What is the cause of presented pathology?
Hyperproduction of somatotropin
Hypoproduction of somatotropin
Hyperproduction of insulin
Hypoproduction of thyroxin
Hyperproduction of thyroxin
Look at the picture 67. Which diagnosis can you put for the patient with such wrists?
Osteoarthrosis
Psoriatic arthritis
Rheumatic arthritis
Systemic scleroderma
*Rheumatoid arthritis
Look at the picture 67. Which deformation of a wrist is presented?
Bushar’s nodes
Nails like «watch glasses»
Heberdeb’s nodes
Rhematoid nodes
*Ulnar deviation of wrist
Look at the picture 67 Which changes of a wrist are presented?
All mentioned
Nails like «watch glasses»
Edema of tarsophalangeal joints
Rhematoid nodes
*Finger phalanx deformation like «swan’s neck» and ulnar deviation of wrist
Look at the picture Рис. 69. Which disease are these elements typical for?
Osteoarthrosis
Rheumatoid arthrotits
Psoriatic arthritis
Rheumatic arthritis
*Gout
Look at the picture 69. How are presented on the picture elements called?
Finger phalanx deformation like «swan’s neck»
Rhematoid nodes
Bushar’s nodes
Heberden’s nodes
*Tophuses
Look at the picture 70. This symmetrical affection of joints are the most typical for:
Spondyloarthrosis
Osteoarthrosis
Rheumatic fever
Gout
*Rheumatoid arthritis
116. Look at the picture 70. Which deformation of the wrist is presented?
A. Ulnar deviation of wrist
B. Nails like «watch glasses»
C. Edema of tarsophalangeal joints
D. Rhematoid nodes
E. *Herberden's and Bushair's nodules
117. Look at the picture 70. How are the presented on the wrist elements called?
A. Defiguration of elbow joint
B. Bushar’s nodes
C. Heberden’s nodes
D. Tophuses
E. *Rhematoid nodes
118. Look at the picture 66. Which disease are these changes of face and trunk typical for?
A. Addison’s disease
B. *Cushing’s syndrome
C. Obesity
D. Acromegaly
E. Gigantism
119. Look at the picture 66. Which sign of Cushing syndrome is presented?
A. Increased bidy mass index
B. *Red-violet strias on the abdominal wall
C. Puffy amimic face
D. Enlarged eyebrows, low jaw, feet and palms
E. Dilated eyeslits, shiny eyes, moist skin
120. Which method of examination is presented in the picture 37
A. Pneumotachymetry
B. Bronchigraphy
C. Bronchoscopy
D. *Spirography
E. Electrocardiography
121. Look at the picture 37. Diagnostics of which pathological conditions is it possible to provide
with this method?
A. Intoxication syndrome
B. All mentioned
C. Syndrome of liquid accumulation in pleural cavity
D. Syndrome of lungs hyperinflation
E. *Respiratory failure syndrome
122. Which method of examination is presented in the picture 38?
A. Spirography
B. Pneumotachymetry
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Electrocardiography
E. *Bronchigraphy
123. Look at the picture 38. Diagnostics of which pathological conditions is it possible to provide
with this method?
A. Pneumonia
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Obstructive bronchitis
D. Pleuricy
E. *Bronchiectatic disease
124. Which method of examination is presented in the picture 39?
A. Spirography
B. Pneumotachymetry
C. Bronchigraphy
D. *Chest X-ray
E. Bronchoscopy
125. Which pathological condition is X-ray film presented on the picture 39 typical for?
A. Intoxication syndrome
B. Bronchial obstruction syndrome
C. Syndrome of liquid accumulation in pleural cavity
D. Respiratory failure syndrome
E. *Syndrome of lungs hyperinflation
126. Which pathological condition is X-ray film presented on the picture 40 typical for?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Bronchiectatic disease
C. Obstructive bronchitis
D. Lung cancer
E. *Pneumonia
127. Look at the picture 41. What is location of pathological process on this X-ray film?
A. Upper lung lobe
B. Medial lung lobe
C. Lower lung lobe
D. Medial and lower lung lobes
E. *Upper and medial lung lobes
128. Which pathological condition is X-ray film presented on the picture 41 typical for?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Bronchiectatic disease
C. Obstructive bronchitis
D. Lung cancer
E. *Pneumonia
129. Which method of examination is presented in the picture 42?
A. Ultrasound examination
B. Bronchigraphy
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Chest X-ray
E. *Spirography
130. Which pathological condition can you diagnose with the examination method presented on
the picture 42?
A. Intoxication syndrome
B. Syndrome of liquid accumulation in pleural cavity
C. Syndrome of lungs hyperinflation
D. Mucocilliary insufficiency syndrome
E. *Bronchial obstruction syndrome
131. Which pathological condition can you diagnose with the examination method presented on
the picture 42?
A. Intoxication syndrome
B. Syndrome of liquid accumulation in pleural cavity
C. Syndrome of lungs hyperinflation
D. Mucocilliary insufficiency syndrome
E. *respiratory failure syndrome
132. Look at the picture 43. Which character of sputum will be in the patient with croupous
pneumonia?
A. “Strawberry jelly”
B. *Rusty sputum
C. Purulent sputum
D. Curshman’s spirals in sputum
E. Foamy sputum
133. Look at the picture 43. Which character of sputum will be in the patient with bronchial
asthma?
A. “Strawberry jelly”
B. Rusty sputum
C. Purulent sputum
D. Foamy sputum
E. *Curshman’s spirals in sputum
134. Look at the picture 43. Which character of sputum will be in the patient with bronchial
asthma?
A. “Strawberry jelly”
B. Rusty sputum
C. Purulent sputum
D. Foamy sputum
E. *”Glass-like” viscous sputum
135. Look at the picture 44. Which medical preparations are the most often used to release
bronchial asthma attack?
A. Mucolytics
B. Antihistamine agents
C. Enzyme inhibitors
D. Desensitization agents
E. *В-2 agonists
136. Look at the picture 44. Which method of medical preparations administration is the most
often used in treatment of bronchial asthma?
A. Parenteral
B. Peroral
C. External
D. Sublingual
E. *Inhalations
137. Look at the picture 45. What is the cause of occurrence of this syndrome?
A. Bronchial spasm
B. *All mentioned
C. Edema of bronchial mucosa
D. Hypersecretion
E. Tracheobronchial dyskinesia
138. Look at eth picture 45. Which syndrome are these changes of bronchi typical for?
A. Increased pneumatisation of lungs
B. Pulmonary tissue consolidation
C. Respiratory failure
D. Bronchial ectasia
E. Bronchial obstruction
139. Look at eth picture 45. Which syndrome are these changes of bronchi typical for?
A. Pneumonia
B. Pleuricy
C. Respiratory failure
D. Bronchial ectasia
E. *Bronchial asthma
140. Which method of examination is presented on the picture 47?
A. Stomach probing
B. Duodenal probing
C. Rectoromanoscopy
D. Colonoscopy
E. *Fibrogastroscopy
141. Look at the picture 47. In which disease is this method used the most often?
A. Pancreatitis
B. Cholecystitis
C. Cholangitis
D. Hepatitis
E. *peptic ulcer
142. Look at the picture 48. Which syndrome is the presented symptom belongs to?
A. Intoxication
B. Malabsorption
C. Asthenic
D. Pain
E. *Dyspeptic
143. Look at the picture 46. Which digestive system orhans may be examined with presented
method?
A. *Large intestine
B. Esophagus
C. Cardial part of a stomach
D. Pyloric part of a stomach
E. Duodenum
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