Module 1. General aspects of hygiene and ecology
Text test questions
1. The wing anemometer has measuring speed of the wind …
A. From 0,05-0,1 m/sec;
B. From 0,1 – 1 m/sec;
C. From 1-10 m/sec;
D. * From 0,5 – 15 m/sec
E. From 1 to 50 m/sec.
2. A direction and force of a wind is taken into account for need of …
A. Illumination of room;
B. Ventilation of room;
C. * Construction and planning of cities
D. Heating of room;
E. None of above.
3. A direction and force of a wind is taken into account for need of …
A. Illumination of room;
B. Ventilation of room;
C. * Construction and planning of cities
D. Color of wall;
E. None of above.
4. A hygienic norm of rate of movement of air is in an apartment (in m/s):
A. 0,05 - 0,1;
B. * 0,1 - 0,2;
C. 0,1 - 0,5;
D. 0,2 - 0,3;
E. 0,5 - 1.
5. A quantity of an air that comes into the room during 1 hour is
A. * The volume of ventilation
B. The ratio of ventilation;
C. Kind of ventilation;
D. Amount of oxygen;
E. Amount of carbonic dioxide.
6. Absolute humidity is expressed as
A. * Mm.Mc colume
B. Degrees;
C. Grams per cubic metre of air
D. Kilogram
E. Watt.
7. Absolute humidity is measured by
A. Catatermometer.
B. Hygrometer.
C. Thermometer.
D. Barometer,
E. * Psychrometer
8. Air is dry when relative humidity is
A. * to 30 %
B. to 45 %
C. to 55 %
D. to 70 %
E. to 85 %
9. Air is moist when relative humidity is
A. to 40 %
B. to 55 %
C. 56 – 60 %
D. 51 – 85 %
E. * more 60 %
10. Air is not dry when relative humidity is
A. to 30 %
B. to 25 %
C. 25 – 30 %
D. 25– 40 %
E. * 30-40 %
11. Air is not moist when relative humidity is
A. * 40 – 55 %
B. 56 - 70 %
C. 71 - 85 %
D. more than 85 %
E. more than 95 %
12. Amount of moisture being contained in 1m3 air with at the given temperature is
A. Relative humidity;
B. * Absolute humidity;
C. Maximum humidity;
D. A dew Point;
E. None of above.
13. Anemometer is used for measuring
A. * Air velocity
B. Air temperature
C. Humidity;
D. Cooling power of air;
E. Atmospheric pressure.
14. Anemometer is used for measuring
A. * Air velocity
B. Air temperature;
C. Humidity;
D. Cooling power of air;
E. Atmospheric pressure.
15. Anemometer is used for measuring:
A. * Speed of air motion
B. Humidity;
C. Cooling power of air;
D. Atmospheric pressure.
E. Air temperature;
16. At what time limits (mode) does barograph work?
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. * Daily and weekly
E. Weekly and monthly
17. At what time limits (mode) does thermograph work?
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. * Daily and weekly
E. Weekly and monthly
18. Barograph usually used for:
A. Measuring of temperature of air
B. * Measuring of atmospheric pressure
C. Measuring and registration of changes of temperature of air
D. Measuring of amplitude of changes of temperature of air
E. Measuring and registration of temperature of body
19. Choose the place, for which temperature 20°C is normal:
A. Ward for newborns
B. * Ward for adults
C. Hospital passage
D. Operative department
E. Industry buildings
20. Device for measuring of atmosphere pressure is
A. Sphygmomanometer
B. * Barometer- aneroid
C. Anemometer
D. Psychrometr.
E. Pyranometr.
21. Device for measuring of rate of movement of air:
A. is an actinometry;
B. is psychrometer;
C. * is catathermometer;
D. is a barometer;
E. is a thermometer.
22. Doctors of hyperbaric oxygenation wards
23. For measuring of air temperature in an apartment thermometer placed in a centre at the
level of a 2,5 m from a floor and in 5 minutes took off result. What is wrong?
A. a device is wrong chosen, catathermometer is needed;
B. research is necessary executed not in a centre an apartment, but at a window;
C. a checkin measuring is not observed;
D. * a measuring level is wrong, it is necessary at the level of a 1,5 m from a floor;
E. Researches are necessary executed not in a centre, but at a door.
24. For the calculation of rate of air movement by Catathermometer necessary
A. * A factor of Catathermometer;
B. Atmospheric pressure;
C. Relative humidity;
D. Area of window;
E. A volume of apartment.
25. For the hygienic inspection of classroom measured the light coefficient, area of floor,
volume of apartments, speed motions of air near a vent opening and its area, temperature
of air. What parameters are needed for a calculation of multipleness of ventilation?
A. A light coefficient, volume of apartment and temperature of air;
B. Necessary researches are not conducted;
C. an area of room and light coefficient;
D. a temperature of air and rate of its movement at vent openings;
E. * a volume of classroom, rate of movement of air at vent openings and opening
area.
26. For what does use of psychrometer?
A. * for determination of absolute humidity of air;
B. for research of atmospheric pressure of air;
C. for the record of dynamics of air humidity;
D. for research of rate of air movement;
E. for determination of intensity of infrared rays.
27. Graphical diagram, which characterizes number of a wind in the given district, measured
by long-term observations name
A. Wind direction;
B. * Rose of winds;
C. Air velocity;
D. Speed of the wind;
E. Cooling power of air.
28. Heat irradiation through convection and radiation gets lower in case of:
A. Low air temperature
B. High velocity of the air
C. Bright artificial illumination
D. * Usage of fans
E. Low velocity of the air
29. Heat irradiation through convection and radiation gets lower in case of:
A. Low air temperature
B. * High air temperature
C. High air velocity
D. Bright artificial illumination
E. Usage of fans
30. ?Heat loss of the body through the radiation growth when:
A. * When the temperature of the nearest surfaces is low
B. When the temperature of the nearest surfaces is high
C. When the humidity of the nearest surfaces is low
D. When the humidity of the nearest surfaces is high
E. When there are no surfaces around
31. Heating effect of the air is not enhanced with:
A. Low velocity of the air
B. High humidity
C. High radiation temperature
D. * High atmosphere pressure
E. Hard work
32. High altitude is good for one of following persons
A. Suffering from chronic bronchitis,
B. Suffering from diseases of heart,
C. Suffering from infections of kidneys,
D. * Suffering from anemia
E. Suffering from diseases of liver.
33. High altitude is good for one of following persons
A. * Suffering from anemia;
B. Suffering from chronic bronchitis,
C. Suffering from diseases of heart,
D. Suffering from infections of kidneys,
E. Suffering from emphysema.
34. How does high humidity of air influence on the ways of heat emission of man ?
A. Increases radiation
B. Decreases a convection
C. Increases a perspiration
D. * Decreases perspiration
E. Decreases a radiation
35. How does mark a calm in a wind rose?
A. By a circle the diameter of which equals the number of calmsv
B. * By a circle the radius of which equals the number of calms
C. By a circle length of which equals the number of calms
D. circle, the area of which equals the number of calms
E. circle, the diameter of which equals the number of calms
36. How does the hair of hygrometer react on changing of humidity?
A. At growth of humidity shortens
B. * At growth of humidity lengthens
C. At diminishing of humidity lengthens
D. At drying lengthens
E. At growth of humidity changes the diameter
37. How many scales on the clock-face of anemometer?
A. One
B. Two
C. * Three
D. Four
E. Five
38. How many types of anemometers you know?
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
39. How much rhumbs must be in the “rose of wind”?
A. 4;
B. 6;
C. * 16;
D. 15;
E. 20.
40. Humidity of air influence on next kind of exchange in human body
A. Vitamins exchange;
B. * Heat exchange;
C. Protein exchange;
D. Fat exchange;
E. Gas exchange.
41. Hygienic norm of relative humidity of air in apartments (in %):
A. 20-28;
B. 20-40;
C. 30-90;
D. * 30-60;
E. 60-80.
42. Hygienic norms of temperature of air in a dwelling apartment (in 0С):
A. From + 16 to +18;
B. + 16;
C. From + 18 to +20;
D. * From + 20 to +22;
E. From + 22 to +24.
43. Hygrograph registers air humidity changes
A. for a day and a hour.
B. * for a day and a week
C. for a day and a month.
D. for a week and a month
E. for a hours and a month.
44. In what unit measuring speed of air?
A. Meters
B. Hours;
C. Centimeters;
D. * Meter per second
E. m3/hour.
45. In what units does estimate speed and force of wind?
A. * In meters per second
B. In marks
C. In kilometers for a minute
D. In meters for a minute
E. In percents
46. In what units measured humidity?
A. m/s
B. points
C. km/min
D. m/min
E. * %
47. In which case both thermometers in psychrometer will show the same temperature?
A. When relative humidity is 0%
B. When relative humidity is 60%
C. When relative humidity is 100%
D. * When relative humidity is 60-80%
E. It’s impossible
48. In which one of the following conditions may development "Caisson's disease"?
A. Effects of decreased Atmospheric Pressure;
B. Effects of Increased temperature;
C. * Effects of Increased Atmospheric Pressure
D. Effects of decreased temperature;
E. None of the above.
49. Inside of barometer-aneroid
A. Little bundle of hair.
B. Mercury thermometer.
C. * box without air
D. System of aneroid boxes.
E. Alcogol thermometer
50. Inside of capillary tube of maximal thermometer is
A. Alcohol;
B. * Mercury;
C. Iron;
D. Water;
E. Air.
51. Inside of capillary tube of minimal thermometer is
A. * Alcohol;
B. Mercury;
C. Iron;
D. Water;
E. Air.
52. Kata thermometer is used for measuring
A. Air temperature;
B. Humidity;
C. Radiation temperature;
D. * Cooling power of air
E. Atmospheric pressure.
53. Low temperature of air conduce to the increase of next ways of heat loses
A. Perspiration;
B. Radiation;
C. Convections and perspiration;
D. Conduction and radiation;
E. * Convections and conduction.
54. Main principle of psychrometer’s work consists in what?
A. in research of maintenance in mid air of amount of air ions;
B. * in research of difference of temperature of dry and moist thermometers in
psychrometer;
C. in measuring of difference of barometric pressure in a morning and evening day
part;
D. in measuring of temperature of air in the 3 points of apartment and calculation of
average;
E. in determination of time of cooling of catthermometer from 38 0С to 35 0С .
55. Maximal humidity of air depend from
A. Atmospheric pressure;
B. * Temperature of air;
C. Relative humidity;
D. the deficit of satiation;
E. Temperature of body.
56. Name kinds of discomfort microclimate:
A. * Calefacient, cooling
B. Calefacient, radiating
C. Cooling, hyper terming
D. Allowable, unallowable
E. Optimal and not optimal
57. Name normal middle temperature in class room.:
A. +16 - +180 C
B. +18 - +200 C
C. +16 - + 190 C
D. * +20 - +220 C
E. +22 - +25 0C
58. Name normal middle temperature in class room.:
A. +16 - +180 C
B. * +18 - +200C
C. +16 - + 190 C
D. +20 - +220 C
E. +22 - +250 C
59. Name normal middle temperature in living room.
A. +16 - +180 C
B. +18 - +200C
C. +16 - + 190 C
D. * +20 - +220 C
E. +22 - +25 0C
60. Name the advantages of the aspirative psychrometer
A. Indicates relative humidity
B. Works quickly
C. Is protected from the heat radiation
D. * Is protected from heat radiation and air velocity
E. Not correct
61. Name the parameters, which not characterized microclimate:
A. Humidity of air;
B. Temperature;
C. * Chemical structure of air
D. Speed of air motion;
E. Radiation temperature
62. Name the parameters, which not characterized microclimate:
A. Humidity of air;
B. Temperature;
C. * Chemical structure of air
D. Speed of air motion;
E. Radiation temperature.
63. Name the types of thermometers according to the way of measurement:
A. Electric, water
B. Alcoholic, Hg, aspirating
C. * Alcoholic, Hg, electric
D. Maximal and minimal
E. Day and week
64. Natural ventilation is caused by
A. Difference of the temperature of outside and inside air;
B. Wind force;
C. * A and B both.
D. Color of wall;
E. None of above.
65. Natural ventilation is caused by
A. Difference of the temperature of outside and inside air;
B. Wind force;
C. * A and B both
D. Color of wall;
E. None of above.
66. Natural ventilation largely depends on the following natural for¬ces:
A. * Difference of temperatures inside an apartment and outside of the apartment and
increased pressure on the walls of external air at wind
B. B. Difference of temperatures and humidity inside an apartment and outside
C. C. Difference of speed of motion of air inside an apartment and outside
D. D. A presence of sources of radiation temperature inside of apartment
E. E. Difference of pressure of air inside an apartment and outside
67. Normal indices of air’s humidity is
A. 10-20 %;
B. 70-80 %;
C. 20-30 %;
D. * 30-60 %;
E. 80-100 %.
68. On how many parts is divided the temperature scale on Celsius?
A. 180
B. 80
C. * 100
D. 120
E. 50
69. One of the earliest temperature scales was that devised by
A. * Fahrenheit
B. Celsius;
C. Kelvin;
D. Reaumur;
E. None of the above.
70. One of the following is not effect of cold and dry air on the body.
A. All the body functions are more active;
B. Breathing is deeper and more frequent,
C. * Loss of appetite
D. The circulation of blood is increased;
E. A process of digestion is stimulated.
71. Psychrometer Assmana used for measuring?
A. temperature
B. * humidity
C. atmospheric pressure
D. speed of air motion
E. cooling ability of air
72. Psychrometer Augusta used for measuring?
A. temperature
B. * humidity
C. atmospheric pressure
D. speed of air motion
E. cooling ability of air
73. Relative air humidity is
A. Difference between absolute and maximal humidity
B. Max humidity/ absolute humidity in %
C. Maximal humidity + absolute humidity
D. Absolute humidity + max humidity
E. * absolute humidity/max humidity in %
74. Relative humidity is measured by
A. Catatermometer.
B. * Hygrometer
C. Thermometer.
D. Barometer
E. Psychrometer
75. Research of microclimate of apartments is conducted in a hospital. What device use for
measure the temperature of air ?
A. * Psychrometer;
B. Anemometer;
C. Aspirator;
D. Katatermometer;
E. Piranometer.
76. Rosa of winds – it is
A. Repetition of direction of winds is for the short interval of time in this locality;
B. direction of motion of winds is in an environment;
C. * graphic image of repetition of winds in this locality on rhumbs for the
protracted interval of time;
D. frequency of winds of certain direction is in this locality.
E. Repetition of direction of winds is for the protracted interval of time.
77. The air changes in the room during 1 hour when all windows and doors are closed may
be not more
A. * 0,5
B. 1,5;
C. 2,5;
D. 5,0;
E. 25.
78. The catathermometer is used for determination speed of air motion
A. * From 0,1-0,3 m/sec;
B. From 0,1 – 1 m/sec;
C. From 1-10 m/sec;
D. From 0,1 – 15 m/sec
E. From 1 to 50 m/sec
79. The catathermometer is used for determination:
A. * rates of movement of air;
B. to humidity of air;
C. temperatures of air;
D. atmospheric pressure;
E. radiant radiation.
80. The cup anemometer has measuring speed of the wind
A. From 0,05-0,1 m/sec;
B. From 0,1 – 1 m/sec;
C. From 1-10 m/sec;
D. From 0,1 – 15 m/sec
E. * From 1 to 50 m/sec
81. The method of anemometry is use for determination:
A. * rates of movement of air a more than 1 m/s;
B. rates of movement of air a less than 0,5m/s;
C. a relative humidity;
D. middle temperature of air;
E. absolute humidity.
82. The most fatal complication which can occur to divers (under high atmospheric pressure)
A. Pulmonary oedema;
B. * Air embolism
C. Rupture of spleen;
D. Myocardial infarction;
E. None of above.
83. The relative humidity of the air in case of calefacient microclimate is:
A. * Over 70%
B. Over 65%
C. Over 60%
D. Over 55%
E. Over 30%
84. The wing anemometer has measuring speed of the wind:
A. From 0,05-0,1 m/sec;
B. From 0,1 – 1 m/sec;
C. * From 1-10 m/sec;
D. From 0,1 – 15 m/sec
E. From 1 to 50 m/sec
85. Thermograph registers air temperature changes
A. for a day and a hour.
B. * for a day and a week.
C. for a day and a month.
D. for a week and a month
E. for a hours and a month.
86. Thermograph usually used for
A. Measuring of temperature of air
B. * Registration of changes of temperature of air
C. Measuring and registration of changes of temperature of air
D. Measuring of amplitude of changes of temperature of air
E. Measuring and registration of temperature of body
87. To the methods of ventilation intensification belong
A. Opening of windows,
B. Opening window leaves,
C. Transoms;
D. Ventilating channel;
E. * All are correct
88. Units of atmosphere pressure measuring
A. * Mm.Mc colume
B. Degrees;
C. Grams per cubic metre of air.
D. Kilogram;
E. Watt.
89. Units of temperature measuring:
A. Mm.Mc colume
B. * Degrees;
C. Grams per cubic metre of air.
D. Kilogram;
E. Watt.
90. What are temperature norms for the leaving rooms (°C)?
A. 16 -18;
B. 16;
C. 18 - 20;
D. * 20 - 22;
E. 22 - 24.
91. What basic indexes of hygienical estimation of temperature condition ?
A. Minimum temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines
B. Maximal temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines
C. * Middle temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines
D. Optimal temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines
E. Possible temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines
92. What compensate mechanisms do work at raising in mountains?
A. Increase of Increase of blood pressure;
B. Decrease of Increase of blood pressure;
C. * An increase of amount of red corpuscles is in blood
D. Decrease of amount of red corpuscles is in blood
E. pain in joints and muscles
93. What deficit of satiation ?
A. * A difference is between maximal and relative humidity
B. A difference is between maximal and absolute humidity
C. A difference is between absolute and relative humidity
D. Difference between maximal and by the point of dew
E. Difference between absolute and by the point of dew
94. What devise used for registration of body’s temperature?
A. Catatermometer.
B. * Maximal mercury thermometer
C. Minimal alcohol thermometer.
D. Minimal mercury thermometer.
E. Luxmeter.
95. What disease appears during influence of high air pressure?
A. Mountain’s disease.
B. Hypertension.
C. * Caisson disease
D. Stenocardia.
E. Goiter.
96. What disease is caused with the high temperature?
A. * Heatstroke
B. Infrared cataract
C. Sunstroke
D. Ultraviolet eritema
E. Burn
97. What disease is caused with the low temperature?
A. * Owercooling
B. Infrared cataract
C. Sunstroke
D. Ultraviolet eritema
E. Burn
98. What do you need to evaluate air velocity using katatermometer?
A. * Katatermometer factor
B. Pressure
C. Humidity
D. of window leaf
E. Volume of the room
99. What does atmospheric pressure depend on?
A. Geographic longueurs
B. * Altitude
C. Air temperature
D. Altitude and geographic longueurs
E. Altitude and geographic latitude
100.
What does maximal humidity depend on?
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. * Temperature of the air
C. Relative humidity
D. Saturation deficit
E. Dew point
101.
What does not behave to physical properties of air?
A. * infrared rays;
B. a temperature of air;
C. a humidity;
D. a rate of movement of air;
E. atmospheric pressure.
102.
What factor does atmospheric pressure depend from?
A. Geographical longitude
B. * A height above the level of sea
C. * Temperature of air
D. Height above the level of sea and geographical breadth
E. Height above the level of sea and geographical longitude
103.
What functions of hygrograph ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Measuring of absolute humidity
Measuring of relative humidity
Record of changes of absolute humidity
* Record of changes of relative humidity
Measuring and record of changes of relative humidity
104.
What humidity is normal for leaving rooms?
A. * 30-60 %
B. 30-50 %
C. 40-50 %
D. 50-60 %
E. 30-40 %
105.
What humidity measures by a hygrometer ?
A. Absolute
B. * Relative
C. Maximal
D. Absolute and relative
E. Relative and maximal
106.
What humidity of air is rationed?
A. maximal;
B. minimum;
C. absolute;
D. * relative;
E. none of above.
107.
What information is needed for the calculation of relative humidity?
A. absolute humidity and temperature of air;
B. maximal humidity and rate of movement of air;
C. * absolute and maximal humidity;
D. maximal humidity and atmospheric pressure;
E. minimum humidity and rate of movement of air.
108.
What information is needed for the calculation of rate of air movement by the
method of catathermometry?
A. A volume of apartment;
B. Pressure of air;
C. Humidity of air;
D. * Time of cooling of catathermometer;
E. A rate of movement of air (middle).
109.
What information is needed for the calculation of rate of air movement by
Catathermometer?
A. Volume of apartments;
B. Relative humidity;
C. Atmospheric pressure;
D. area of windows;
E. * Temperature of air.
110.
What is psihrometry used for?
A. * To evaluate absolute humidity
B. To study atmospheric pressure
C. To fixate air humidity dynamics
D. To study air velocity
E. To study infrared light
111.
What is put aside on rhumbs by wind roses ?
A. Directions of winds
B. * Repetition of directions of winds
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
C. Speed of winds
D. Repetition of speed of winds
E. Direction and speed of motion of winds
What is the norm of air velocity (m/s)?
A. 0,05 - 0,1;
B. * 0,1 - 0,2;
C. 0,1 - 0,5;
D. 0,2 - 0,3;
E. 0,5 - 1.
What is the norm of optimal average temperature for the educational building?
A. +16 - +180С
B. * +18 - +200С
C. +16 - +200С
D. +20 - +250С
E. +22 - +250С
What is the norm of optimal relative humidity for the hospital?
A. 30-40 %.
B. 30-70 %.
C. 40-70 %.
D. * 40-60 %.
E. 50-80 %.
What is the norm of relative humidity for rooms (%)?
A. 20-28;
B. 20-40;
C. 30-90;
D. * 30-60;
E. 60-80.
What is the sensitive part of barograph?:
A. Little bundle of hair.
B. Mercury thermometer.
C. * Bimetal plate
D. System of aneroid boxes.
E. Alcogol thermometer
What is the sensitive part of hygrograph?:
A. * Little bundle of hair.
B. Mercury thermometer.
C. Bimetal plate
D. System of aneroid boxes.
E. Alcogol thermometer
What is the sensitive pert of thermograph?
A. Little bundle of hair.
B. Mercury thermometer.
C. * Bimetal plate
D. System of aneroid boxes.
E. Alcogol thermometer
What is typical for Heatstroke?
A. * Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. Respiratory arrhythmia
D. Extrasystoly
E. Fibrillation
What is typical for Heatstroke?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Olig- and anuria
Polyuria
Dysuria
Polakiuria
Enuresis
121.
What is typical for Heatstroke?
A. Hemodilution
B. * Hemoconcentration
C. Hyper coagulation
D. Hypo coagulation
E. Hemolysis
122.
What is used to measure relative humidity?
A. Thermometer
B. Thermograph
C. * Hygrometer
D. Barometer
E. Katatermometer
123.
What is wind direction?
A. is the direction where the wind is blowing;
B. * is the direction from which the wind is blowing;
C. is the direction of overwhelming amount of winds;
D. All are correct;
E. All are wrong.
124.
What limits does cylindrical katatermometer have?
A. 0 - + 350 С
B. 0 - + 40 0С
C. +33 - + 400 С
D. * + 35 - + 38 0С
E. + 35 - + 40 0С
125.
What parameter of the microclimate we can measuring with the help of Kata
thermometer?
A. Air temperature;
B. Point of dew;
C. Relative moisture;
D. * Speed of air moving
E. Resulting temperature.
126.
What setting of barograph ?
A. Measuring of atmospheric pressure
B. * Registration of vibrations of atmospheric pressure
C. Measuring of atmospheric pressure and temperature of air
D. Measuring of amplitude of vibrations of atmospheric pressure
E. Registration of vibrations of atmospheric pressure is for a month
127.
What should be used for measurement of air velocity in the room?
A. Cup anemometer
B. Wing anemometer
C. Psihrograf
D. * Katatermometer
E. Thermometer
128.
What thermometer is used for fixing of the highest temperature for certain period
of time ?
A. Alcohol thermometer;
B. Minimal thermometer;
C. * Maximal thermometer;
D. Electric thermometer;
E. Mercury thermometer.
129.
What thermometer is used for measuring of low temperatures ?
A. * Alcohol thermometer;
B. Minimal thermometer;
C. Maximal thermometer;
D. Electric thermometer;
E. Mercury thermometer.
130.
What thermometer is used for measuring of high temperatures ?:
A. Alcohol thermometer;
B. Minimal thermometer;
C. * Maximal thermometer;
D. Electric thermometer;
E. Mercury thermometer.
131.
What thermometer is used for measuring of high temperatures ?
A. Alcohol thermometer;
B. Minimal thermometer;
C. Maximal thermometer;
D. Electric thermometer;
E. * Mercury thermometer.
132.
What thermometer is used for measuring of low temperatures ?:
A. Alcohol thermometer;
B. * Minimal thermometer;
C. Maximal thermometer;
D. Electric thermometer;
E. Mercury thermometer.
133.
What thermometer is used for registration and fixing of the lowest temperature for
certain period of time ?
A. * Alcohol thermometer;
B. Minimal thermometer;
C. Maximal thermometer;
D. Electric thermometer;
E. Mercury thermometer.
134.
What type of air’s humidity using for estimation microclimate condition?
A. Minimum humidity;
B. Middle humidity;
C. * Relative humidity
D. Maximum humidity;
E. General humidity
135.
What type of air’s humidity using for estimation microclimate condition?
A. Minimum humidity;
B. Middle humidity;
C. * Relative humidity
D. Maximum humidity;
E. General humidity.
136.
What unfavorable changes for human is caused by the warm moist air ?
A. Sunstroke;
B. * Heat Stroke;
C. Caison’s disease;
D. Asthmatic state;
E. Overcooling.
137.
What units are used to evaluate wind at Boforts scale?
A. * m/s
B. points
C. km/min
D. m/min
E. %
138.
When the rate of evaporation from the body is greatly increased?
A. * When the air is dry and warm,
B. When the air is moist and warm,
C. When the air is dry and cold,
D. When the air is moist and cold,
E. None of above.
139.
Where we measuring temperature, which characterized convection processed in
the room.
A. on 10 centimeters from floor;
B. on 150 centimeters from floor
C. * on 50 cm. from ceiling
D. on 80-90 cm. from floor;
E. All are correct.
140.
Which air affects respiratory passages, and causes, blood circulation, kidneys, and
rheumatism problems
A. dry and warm air,
B. moist and warm air,
C. dry and cold air,
D. * moist and cold air,
E. None of above.
141.
Which can be the maximal speed air motion in the room?
A. * 0,1 - 0,3 m/sec;
B. 0,5 - 0,8 m/sec
C. 1,0 - 1,5 m/sec;
D. 1 – 3 m/sec;
E. 3 – 5 m/sec.
142.
Which one of following indexes of air’s humidity is comfortable for human?
A. 10-20 %;
B. 70-80 %;
C. 20-30 %;
D. * 30-60 %;
E. 80-100 %.
143.
Which one of the following apparatus use for measuring of the atmospheric
pressure?
A. Hygrometer;
B. * Barometer;
C. Thermograph
D. Thermometer;
E. Anemometer.
144.
Which one of the following apparatus use for registration change of the
atmospheric pressure?
A. Hygrometer;
B. * Barograph
C. Thermograph
D. Thermometer;
E. Anemometer.
145.
Which one of the following apparatus use for registration change of the
temperature?
A. Hygrometer
B. Barometer;
C. * Thermograph
D. Thermometer;
E. Anemometer.
146.
Which one of the following device not measure atmospheric pressure ?
A. Mercury-cupping barometer
B. Fortin 's Standard Barometer
C. Mercury siphon barometer
D. Barometer-aneroid
E. * Hygrograph.
147.
Which one of the following is a specific method of hygiene researches?
A. Physical methods;
B. * Method sanitarian description;
C. Chemical methods;
D. Biological methods;
E. Experimental method;
148.
Which one of the following is a specific method of hygiene researches?
A. Physical methods;
B. * Method sanitarian description
C. Chemical methods;
D. Biological methods;
E. Experimental method.
149.
Which one of the following is normal indexes of relative humidity of air in
housings apartments?
A. * 30-60 %
B. 10-20 %
C. 100 %
D. 60-80 %
E. 80-100 %
150.
Which one of the following is not effects of Cold and Dry Air on the Body.
A. the circulation of blood is increased;
B. processes of digestion and assimilation are stimulated.
C. * loss of appetite;
D. metabolism are stimulated.
151.
Which one of the following is not the physiological effect of low pressure at high
altitudes?
A. Increased respiration;
B. Increased cardiac out put;
C. Increased Hb conc.
D. * Increased urine conc
E. All are correct.
152.
Which one of the following place characterized temperature in respiratory zone of
people?
A. on 10 centimeters from floor;
B. * on 150 centimeters from floor
C. on 50 cm. from ceiling;
D. on 80-90 cm. from floor;
E. All are correct.
153.
Which one of the following use for measures wind direction
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Wind vane
Kata thermometer;
Anemometer;
Hygrograph.
Barometer;
154.
Which pathological changes in an organism are caused by the local action of high
temperature ?
A. Heat-prostration
B. Sunstroke;
C. * Guardian;
D. Hyperthermia;
E. Dysfunction of thermoregulation of organism
155.
Which pathological changes in an organism are caused by the local overcooling ?
A. Cold diseases
B. Inflammatory diseases
C. Hypothermia
D. * frost-bite
E. Infectious diseases
156.
Which periodicals of barograph work may be?
A. To the day's
B. To a week's
C. To month.
D. * To the day's and a week's
E. To a week's and month.
157.
Which vertical temperature difference is allowable?
A. 0,5-1°C
B. 1-1,5°C
C. 1,5 –2 °C
D. * 2-3 °C
E. 3-4°C
158.
With the help of what device does estimate a temperature condition?
A. Alcohol thermometer
B. * Mercury thermometer
C. Minimal thermometer
D. Maximal thermometer
E. Thermograph
159.
With the help of what device does estimate a temperature condition during hour?
A. Alcohol thermometer
B. Mercury thermometer
C. Minimal thermometer
D. Maximal thermometer
E. * Thermograph
160.
With the purpose of study of influencing of microclimate on the organism of man
we must organize the systematic looking after the temperature of air during 3th days.
Choose a device which will allow most exactly to register a temperature:
A. * Thermograph
B. Alcoholic thermometer
C. Mercury thermometer
D. Psychrometer Avgusta
E. Psychrometer Assmana
161.
A next quantity of infrared irradiation enters in the complement of solar
irradiation
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
40 %;
* 49 %;
55 %;
59 %;
65 %.
162.
A next quantity of ultra-violet rays enters in the complement of solar irradiation
A. * 1 %;
B. 5 %;
C. 10 %;
D. 20 %;
E. 20 %;
163.
According to hygienic standards, is the use of these lamps allowed in educational
facilities?
A. No
B. * Yes
C. Under certain circumstances
D. With the permission of a doctor SES
E. Sometimes
164.
Among luminescent lamps, light bulbs which do not exist?
A. Fluorescent (DF)
B. White light (LB)
C. Warm white light (LTB)
D. * Cold light
E. All of the above
165.
An example for non-luminous object is .
A. a candle
B. the sun
C. an electric bulb
D. * the moon
E. fare
166.
Biodozes of ultraviolet irradiation given to the patient are measured in minutes.
What is this appliance called?
A. * Appliance Gorbachev
B. Ultravioletmetrom
C. Actinometer
D. Radiometer
E. Katathermometer
167.
Candela is the unit of
A. Luminous flux
B. * Luminous intensity
C. Wavelength
D. Natural illumination
E. None of the above.
168.
Choose the norm of natural lightning coefficient for the school rooms:
A. 0,1-0,2 %.
B. 0,2-0,5 %
C. 0.5-1 %
D. 0,5-1,5 %
E. * 1,25-1,5 %.
169.
Choose the normal value of the falling angle of the leaving rooms:
A. not less than 25°
B. not more than 25°
C. * not less than 27°
D. not more than 27°
E. not less than 30°
170.
Choose the normal value of the window angle for the leaving rooms:
A. Not less than 2°
B. * not less than 5°
C. not less than 7°
D. not less than 1°
E. not less than 27°
171.
Choose UV spectrum with the bactericidal effect :
A. * 280-10 nm
B. 315-265 nm
C. 320-280 nm
D. 380-300 nm
E. 400-315 nm
172.
Coefficient of daylight is:
A. a ratio of a glass area of windows to area of a floor
B. a attitude of distance from the upper edge of the window to a floor to distance
from the window to the opposite wall
C. * a ratio of lighting indoors to simultaneous lighting outdoor
D. angle between a horizontal surface of a table, and line conducted from this surface
to the upper edge of the window
E. an angle between a horizontal surface of a table, and line conducted from this
surface to the upper edge of the object with darken the window
173.
Coefficient of depth (CD) of room is:
A. * an attitude of distance from the window to the opposite wall to distance from
the upper edge of the window to a floor
B. the distance from the window to the opposite wall
C. a ratio of a glass area of windows to area of a floor
D. a ratio of lighting indoors to simultaneous lighting outdoor
E. an attitude of distance from the upper edge of the window to a floor to the
distance from window to the opposite wall .
174.
Development of which of the disease is not caused by inadequate lighting
A. Development of fatigue
B. Suppressors of accommodation
C. * Diabetes
D. Fatigue visual analyzer
E. Nearsightedness
175.
Disinfection of air is considered effective, if coefficient of efficiency is not less
than
A. 2
B. * 5
C. 6
D. 8,
E. 10
176.
Disinfection of air is considered effective, if an effectiveness coefficient is not less
A. Than 2
B. Than 3
C. * than 5
D. than 10
E. than 50
177.
Disinfection of air is considered effective, if effectiveness degree is not less than
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
20 %;
25 %;
60 %;
* 80 %,
50 %.
Electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths between 0.4 and 0.7 micrometers is
178.
called:
A. ultraviolet light
B. * visible light
C. infrared light
D. microwaves
E. X-rays
179.
Electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths longer than 0.7 micrometers is called:
A. ultraviolet light
B. visible light
C. * infrared light
D. microwaves
E. X-rays
180.
Electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths low than 0.4 micrometers is called:
A. * ultraviolet light
B. visible light
C. infrared light
D. microwaves
E. X-rays
181.
For lighting of workplace the angle of incidence according to hygienic norms
should be:
A. * not less than 27°
B. more than 27°
C. not less than 5°
D. more than 5°
E. not less than 70°
182.
For lighting of workplace the angle of opening of light rays according to hygienic
norms should be:
A. not less than 27°
B. more than 27°
C. * not less than 5°
D. more than 5°
E. not less than 70°
183.
For the measurement of the IR radiation you need:
A. Piranometer
B. Luxmeter
C. Psichrometer
D. * Aktimometer
E. Anemometer
184.
For the measurement of the UV radiation you need:
A. Aktinometr
B. Luxmetr
C. * Uvimetr
D. Anemometer
E. Psichrometr
185.
For which rooms Lightning coefficient 1:2 is recommended?
A. Ward
B.
C.
D.
E.
Corridor
Bath
Dressing room
* Operating room
186.
For which rooms Lightning coefficient 1:2-1:4 is recommended?
A. * Operating rooms
B. Ward
C. Dressing room
D. Pantry
E. Delivery rooms
187.
For which rooms Lightning coefficient 1:4-1:5 is recommended?
A. Wards
B. Operating rooms
C. * Dressing rooms
D. Pantry rooms
E. Delivery rooms
188.
For which rooms minimal Lightning Coefficient is 1:6 ?
A. * Ward
B. Corridor
C. Bath
D. Dressing room
E. Operating room
189.
General illumination of patients room planned to provide by luminescent lamps.
Which one of the following is the norm for classrooms?
A. 250 Lx
B. 350 Lx
C. 150 Lx
D. * 300 Lx
E. 200 Lx
190.
General illumination of patients`s room is planned to provide by incandescent
lamps. Which one of the following is the norm for patients`s room ?
A. 250 Lx
B. 350 Lx
C. 300 Lx
D. * 150 Lx
E. 200 Lx
191.
General illumination of school class is planned to provide by luminescent lamps.
Which one of the following is the norm for classrooms?
A. 250 Lx
B. 350 Lx
C. 150 Lx
D. * 300 Lx
E. 200 Lx
192.
General lamplight of school class is planned to provide by incandescent lamps.
Which one of the following is the norm for classrooms ?
A. 250 Lx
B. 350 Lx
C. * 150 Lx
D. 300 Lx
E. 200 Lx
193.
How many units does the lower scale of the luxmeter have?
A. 10
B.
C.
D.
E.
194.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
195.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
196.
A.
B.
C.
D.
197.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
198.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
199.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
200.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
201.
A.
B.
C.
20
* 30
40
50
How many units does the upper scale of the luxmeter have?
30
40
50
60
* 100
In how many areas the range is divided into UV radiation
1
2
*3
4
5
In the hospital premises
At the production
In training room
* In the operating room
In the recreational facilities
Increasing energy of light goes in the order
ultraviolet, visible, infrared.
visible, infrared, ultraviolet.
* infrared, visible, ultraviolet.
ultraviolet, infrared, visible.
ultraviolet, x-ray, visible.
Light coefficient (LC) is:
* a ratio of a glass area of windows to area of a
a attitude of distance from the upper edge of the window to a floor to distance
from the window to the opposite wall
a ratio of lighting indoors to simultaneous lighting outdoor
angle between a horizontal surface of a table, and line conducted from this surface
to the upper edge of the window
an angle between a horizontal surface of a table, and line conducted from this
surface to the upper edge of the object with darken the window
Light is a form of energy produced by a :
* luminous object
transparent object
non-luminous object
opaque object
None of the above
Light source, mounted in a valve is called:
Counter
Dosimeter
Photometer
* Lamp
All of the options
Mercury-quartz lamps and special bactericidal lamps used for the disinfections
Water,
* Air in wards
Surgical instruments;
D. Patrimonial halls,
E. All are right.
202.
Most of the radiation emitted by a human body is in the form of:
A. ultraviolet radiation and is invisible
B. visible radiation but is too weak to be visible
C. * infrared radiation and is invisible
D. humans do not emit electromagnetic radiation
E. None of above
203.
Name influence of extra doses of UV radiation.
A. Haemopoetic effect.
B. * Carcinogenic effect
C. Thermal.
D. Formation of pigment.
E. Increasing of common resistance.
204.
Name methods of measure biolodgical doze of UV-irradiation.
A. * Biolodical method
B. Geometrical method
C. Calculation methods
D. Mathematical methods
E. Astronomical method
205.
Name sanitary-prophylactic measure to prophylactic UV radiation’s insufficiency.
A. Clear window’s glasses.
B. Protect environment from wastes.
C. Using bactericide lamp.
D. * Using erytemic- luminiscent
E. Using electric lamp.
206.
Name the index, which not apply to calculation method of investigated of natural
illumination.
A. Angle of opening.
B. * Evening of illumination.
C. Angle of incidence of light rays
D. Light coefficient (LC)
E. Coefficient of day lighting.
207.
Name the index, which not apply to calculation method of investigated of natural
illumination.
A. Angle of opening.
B. * Evening of illumination.
C. Angle of incidence of light rays
D. Light coefficient (LC)
E. Coefficient of day lighting
208.
Name the minmum level of artificial illumination in the work place by
luministcent lamp.
A. 100 lux
B. 150 lux
C. 200 lux
D. 250 lux
E. * 300 lux
209.
Name the minmum level of artificial illumination in the work placeby electric
lamp.
A. 100 lux
B. * 150 lux
C. 200 lux
210.
211.
212.
213.
214.
215.
216.
217.
218.
D. 250 lux
E. 300 lux
Name the norm of artificial illumination in the classroom by electric (bulp) lamp.
A. 100 lux.
B. 125 lux
C. * 150 lux
D. 175 lux
E. 200 lux.
Name the norm of artificial illumination in the living room by electric lamp.
A. 100 lux
B. * 150 lux
C. 200 lux
D. 250 lux
E. 300 lux
Name your most typical uses for UV radiation
A. Gastritis
B. Ulcer
C. * Failure pigmentation
D. Anemia
E. Availability body nevi and warts
Non-electric sources to the artificial lighting are all except:
A. Kerosene lamps
B. Carbide lamp
C. Candles
D. Gas lamps
E. * Incandescent
Normal artificial lighting in sanitary units, bathrooms
A. 200 lux
B. 100 lux
C. 50 lux
D. * 74-100 lux
E. 150 lux
Normal artificial lighting in the House
A. 200 lux
B. * 100 lx
C. 150 lux
D. 50 lux
E. 74-100 lux
One lumen per square meter is the same as
A. * One lux
B. One candela
C. One foot candle
D. One lumen meter.
E. watt/m2
One of the following is contraindication for UV-exposure of people
A. Chill,
B. Diseases of respiratory organs;
C. Rickets;
D. * Malignant tumors
E. Osteoporosis.
One of the following is not contraindication for UV-exposure of people
A. Tuberculosis in active phase,
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Diseases of respiratory organs;
Eczema,
Malignant tumors,
Exhausting, increased sensitivity to light rickets.
219.
One of the indicators of natural light is the angle of incidence of light. Specify
corner in this picture?
A. * Angle YOU
B. Angle defects
C. Angle Das
D. This angle is not in the picture
E. This is not true angle EA Figure
220.
Solar radiation reaches the earth's surface as:
A. visible radiation only
B. ultraviolet radiation only
C. infrared radiation only
D. visible and infrared radiation only
E. * ultraviolet, visible, and infrared radiation
221.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
222.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
223.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
224.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Specify what type of fixtures exists?
Direct light
* No direct light
Evenly-scattered light
Sent-scattered light
Reflected light
The angle of incidence of light rays is
a ratio of a glass area of windows to area of a floor
a attitude of distance from the upper edge of the window to a floor to distance
from the window to the opposite wall
* a ratio of lighting indoors to simultaneous lighting outdoor
* angle between a horizontal surface of a table, and line conducted from this
surface to the upper edge of the window
an angle between a horizontal surface of a table, and line conducted from this
surface to the upper edge of the object with darken the window
The angle of opening of light rays is:
a ratio of a glass area of windows to area of a floor
a attitude of distance from the upper edge of the window to a floor to distance
from the window to the opposite wall
angle between a horizontal surface of a table, and line conducted from this surface
to the upper edge of the window
a attitude of distance from the upper edge of the window to a floor to distance
from the window to the opposite wall
* an angle between a horizontal surface of a table, and line conducted from this
surface to the upper edge of the object with darken the window
The artificial sources of UV radiation are not
Straight-blended quartz lamp
Lamp ultraviolet
Bactericidal lamps ultraviolet
* Incandescent
Arc-blended quartz lamp
225.
The brightness of visible lamp’s parts of general illumination in schools and
hospitals must not be more than
A. * 2000 nits
B. 100 nits
C. 300 nits
D. 150 nits
E. 1000 nits
226.
The disadvantage of incandescent lamps are all except:
A. Displacement spectrum in the yellow-red side
B. Sense color distortion
C. action direct rays
D. * Strobe
E. Dusky effect
227.
The disadvantage of luminescent lamps is:
A. Displacement spectrum in the yellow-red side
B. Sense color distortion
C. * Strobe
D. Dusky effect
E. Not corect
228.
The earth emits radiation with greatest intensity at:
A. * infrared wavelengths
B. radio wavelengths
C. visible wavelengths
D. ultraviolet wavelengths
E. All are correct
229.
The earth's radiation is often referred to as _radiation, while the sun's radiation is
often referred to as _radiation.
A. shortwave, longwave
B. shortwave, shortwave
C. * longwave, shortwave
D. longwave, longwave
E. None of above
230.
The gas that absorbs most of the harmful ultraviolet radiation in the stratosphere:
A. water vapor
B. nitrous oxide
C. carbon dioxide
D. * ozone
E. chlorofluorocarbons
231.
The illumination level in houses is in the range
A. 10-20 lux
B. 30 - 50 lux
C. 40-75 lux
D. * 100-140 lux
E. 150-200 lux
232.
The illumination level in ward is in the range
A. 10-20 lux
B. 30 - 50 lux
C. 40-75 lux
D. * 100-150 lux
E. 150-200 lux
233.
The illumination level in sanitary room is in the range
A. 10-20 lux
B.
C.
D.
E.
30 - 50 lux
*40-75 lux
100-140 lux
150-200 lux
234.
The length of the wave in part A of UV-rays is
A. 3000 – 760 nm;
B. 760-400 nm;
C. 400-315 nm;
D. * 315-290 nm;
E. 290-180 nm.
235.
The length of the wave in part B of UV-rays is
A. 3000 – 760 nm
B. 760-400 nm
C. 400-315 nm;
D. * 315-290 nm
E. 290-180 nm.
236.
The length of the wave in part C of UV-rays is
A. 3000 – 760 nm;
B. 760-400 nm;
C. 400-315 nm;
D. 315-290 nm;
E. * 290-180 nm.
237.
The minimal daily optimal (physiological) dose, preventing rickets of children
with the white skin, is
A. * 1 / 2 of biodose
B. 1 / 6 of biodose;
C. 1 / 5 of biodose;
D. 1 / 8 of biodose;
E. 1 / 3 of biodose;
238.
The minimal daily prophylactic dose, using for preventing rachitis in children
with the white skin, is
A. 1 / 2 biodose;
B. 1 / 6 of biodose;
C. 1 / 5 of biodose;
D. 1/ 10 of biodose;
E. * 1 / 8 of biodose
239.
The most expressed bactericidal action has next part of UV-irradiation
A. * Part C
B. Part B;
C. Part A;
D. Part A and B;
E. None of the above.
240.
The part of Ultra-violet irradiation, which absorbed by ozone layer, is
A. * Part C;
B. Part B;
C. Part A;
D. Part A and B;
E. None of the above.
241.
The proper order from shortest to longest wavelength is:
A. visible, infrared, ultraviolet
B. infrared, visible, ultraviolet
C. * ultraviolet, visible, infrared
242.
243.
244.
245.
246.
247.
248.
249.
250.
D. visible, ultraviolet, infrared
E. ultraviolet, infrared, visible
The spectrum of erythemal lamp consists
A. Only visible rays;
B. Only UV-rays of A type,
C. Only UV-rays of B type;
D. * Visible rays, UV-rays of A and B types;
E. Visible rays, UV-rays of A, B and C types.
The spectrum of mercury-quartz lamp contains
A. Only visible rays;
B. Visible rays and UV-rays of A type,
C. Visible rays and UV-rays of B type;
D. Visible rays, UV-rays of B and C types;
E. * Visible rays, UV-rays of A, B and C types
The sun emits its greatest intensity of radiation in:
A. * the visible portion of the spectrum
B. the infrared portion of the spectrum
C. the ultraviolet portion of the spectrum
D. the x-ray portion of the spectrum
E. The gamma–ray portion of the spectrum
The unit of luminous flux is
A. steradian
B. candela
C. * lumen
D. lux.
E. Watt/m2
Through which device is instrumental evaluation of artificial lighting done?
A. August psychrometer
B. hygrometer Assman
C. hygrometer
D. Barometer
E. * Illuminometer
Ultraviolet radiation from a star
A. * will not penetrate Earth's atmosphere and reach the ground.
B. has a wavelength that is longer than the visible light emitted by the star.
C. has a wavelength that is shorter than the x-rays emitted by the star.
D. a and b
E. b and c
What are the norm of lightning in the surgical operating room?
A. * 400 lux
B. 200 lux
C. 150 lux
D. 100 lux
E. 50 lux
What color is optimum for the sthenes of room oriented to the north ?
A. * Apricot
B. Light-green
C. Blue
D. Grey
E. Green
What color is optimum for the sthenes of room oriented to the south ?
A. * Light-green
B.
C.
D.
E.
251.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
252.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
253.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
254.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
255.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
256.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
257.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
258.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Yellow
Apricot
Orange
Rose
What devise used for registration of artificial illumination?
Catatermometer.
Psychrometr.
Anemometer
Barometer;
* Luxmeter.
What devise used for registration of natural illumination?
Catatermometer.
Psychrometr.
Anemometer
Barometer
* Luxmeter
What does bright spakrling cause?
* lowering of all visual functions, causes irritation
sore eye and headache
lowering of all visual functions and sore eye
causes irritation, sore eye and headache
lowering of all visual functions, causes irritation, sore eye and headache
What does bright spakrling cause?
* lowering of all visual functions and nervouse system
sore eye and headache
lowering of all visual functions and sore eye
causes irritation, sore eye and headache
lowering of all visual functions, causes irritation, sore eye and headache
What does not influents on conditions of daily lighting in the room?
Square of the floor
Cleanness of glass
Color of wall
* Relative humidity
Square of the window
What does not influents on conditions of daily lighting in the room?
* Square of the floor
Cleanness of glass
Color of wall
Relative humidity
Square of the window
What does not influents on conditions of daily lighting in the room?
Square of the floor
Cleanness of glass
Color of wall
* Relative humidity
Square of the window
What does not influents on conditions of daily lighting in the room?
Square of the floor
Cleanness of glass
Color of wall
* Relative humidity
Square of the window
259.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
260.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
261.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
262.
room?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
263.
room?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
264.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
265.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
266.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
267.
A.
What is not biologic effect of influence UV radiation?
Haemopoetic effect.
Activate metabolism
* Diuretical
Formation of pigment.
Formation of vit. D.
What is not main effect of influence of UV-irradiation.
Formation of pigment.
Stimulated.
* Thermal
Vitamin formation.
Bactericide.
What is optimal (physiological) dose of UV radiation, if biodose is 4 minute?
0,5 minute;
1,5 minute;
* 2 minute;
2,5 minute;
3 minute.
What is orientation of the windows on the world sides should be in manipulation
* on the North
on the South
on theWest
on the East
on the South- East
What is orientation of the windows on the world sides should be in operation
* on the North
on the South
on theWest
on the East
on the South- East
What is orientation of the windows on the world sides should be in patient room?
on the North
* on the South
on theWest
on the East
on the South- East
What is orientation of the windows on the world sides should be in sudy room?
on the North
on the South
on theWest
on the East
* on the South- East
What is prophylactic dose of UV radiation for adult, if biodose is 4 minute?
25 second
* 30 second
1 minute
1,5 minute
2 minute
What is the hygienic norm of artifficial light (incandenses lamp) in patient room?
50 lux
B.
C.
D.
E.
80 lux
100 lux
* 150 lux
200 lux
268.
What is the hygienic norm of artifficial light (luministcent lamp) in work place?
A. 250 lux
B. * 300 lux
C. 100 lux
D. 150 lux
E. 200 lux
269.
What is the hygienic norm of coefficient of daylight in livinig room?
A. * More than 0,75 %
B. Less than 0,25 %
C. More than 2,5 %
D. Less than 1,5 %
E. More than 1,8 %
270.
What is the hygienic norm of coefficient of daylight in operation room?
A. More than 1,5 %
B. Less than 0,5 %
C. * More than 2,5 %
D. Less than 1,5 %
E. Less than 1,0 %
271.
What is the hygienic norm of coefficient of daylight in patient room?
A. More than 1,5 %
B. * Less than 0,5 %
C. More than 2,5 %
D. Less than 1,5 %
E. Less than 1,0 %
272.
What is the hygienic norm of coefficient of daylight in study room?
A. * More than 1,5 %
B. Less than 0,5 %
C. More than 35 %
D. Less than 1,5 %
E. Less than 1,0 %
273.
What is the hygienic norm of coefficient of depth room?
A. More than 2
B. More than 3
C. More than 4
D. Less than 1
E. * Less than 2
274.
What is the length of the UV ray (nm):
A. 0.05 - 10;
B. More 400;
C. Less 0,05;
D. * 400 - 180;
E. 400 - 760.
275.
What is the name of index for estimation of natural illumination by instrumental
method
A. Angeof falling.
B. Deep Coeficient
C. Angel of opening
D. Light coefficient.
E. * Coeficient of natural illumination
276.
What is the name of the unit?
A. Anemometer
B. Actinometer
C. Hygrometer
D. * Biodozymeter
E. Uviometer
277.
What is the name of the unit?
A. Hygrometer
B. Katathermometer
C. * Illuminometer
D. Uviometer
E. Anemometer
278.
What is the norm of general artificial lightning at the cabinet of a physician (lk,
for luminescent lamps)?
A. Not more than 400;
B. Not more than 500;
C. * not less than400;
D. Not less than 500;
E. 300
279.
What is the norm of general artificial lightning at the school rooms (lk, for
luminescent lamps)?
A. not less than 100;
B. Less 200;
C. Not more than 300;
D. * not less than 300;
E. 150.
280.
What is the norm of light coefficient in doctor room?
A. * 1: 5
B. 1: 8
C. 1:10
D. 1:2
E. 1:12
281.
What is the norm of light coefficient in operation room?
A. 1: 5
B. 1: 8
C. 1:10
D. * 1:2
E. 1:12
282.
What is the norm of light coefficient in study room?
A. * 1: 5
B. 1: 8
C. 1:10
D. 1:2
E. 1:12
283.
What is the norm of light coefficient in the corridor?
A. 1: 5
B. 1: 8
C. 1:3
D. 1:2
E. * 1:10
284.
What is the sanitary model microorganism of cleanness of air of apartments?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
E.colli.
Protey
Clebsiela
* Staphylococcus aureus
Enterococcus.
285.
What is the typical range for incandescent lamps ?
A. White
B. Blue
C. * Orange
D. Violet
E. Red
286.
?What is the value of biodose in mcVt/cm2?
A. 75 - 100;
B. 100 - 150;
C. 200 - 400;
D. * 600 - 800;
E. 1000.
287.
What is the wave – length of visible part of the sunrays?
A. * From 760 to 400 nm
B. From 400 to 430 nm
C. From 430 to 485nm
D. From 605 to 640nm
E. From 760 to 900nm.
288.
What is the wavelength of the longest wavelength light that can be seen with the
human eye?
A. 400 nm
B. 4000 nm
C. 7000 nm
D. * 700 nm
E. 100 m
289.
What is visual spectrum of the sun light (nm):
A. more 300;
B. 4000 -180;
C. * 760 - 400;
D. 400 - 180;
E. 180 - 10
290.
What luminaire of incandescent lamps is made to order for illumination in ward?
A. Direct light
B. * Diffuse light
C. Indirect light
D. There is not a right answer
E. Correct A and C
291.
What luminaire of incandescent lamps is made to order for local illumination of
workplace?
A. * Direct light
B. Diffuse light.
C. Indirect light
D. There is not a right answer
E. Correct A and C
292.
What luminaire of incandescent lamps is use for illumination in study room?
A. Direct light
B. * Diffuse light
293.
294.
295.
296.
297.
298.
299.
300.
301.
C. Indirect light
D. There is not a right answer
E. Correct A and C
What luminescent lamps use for lamplight in apartments?
A. Inderect light
B. * White-light
C. Warm-white-light light
D. Daylight
E. Direct light
What measure with the help of a Gorbachov’s biodosimeter?
A. * Erythemal dose
B. Intensity of light
C. Maximal admissible level
D. Number of microbes in 1 m3 of the air
E. Efficiency of the air sanitation
What method of an estimation of a daily lighting is widespread?
A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. * Geometrical
D. Astronomical
E. Geographical
What method of an estimation of a daily coefficient is widespread?
A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. * Mathematical
D. Astronomical
E. Geographical
What method of an estimation of a dapth coefficient is widespread?
A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. * Mathematical
D. Astronomical
E. Geographical
What part of ultra-violet radiation has antirickets effect?
A. A;
B. B
C. * C;
D. D;
E. A and C.
What pathological states develop during deficiency of UV radiation?
A. Affect of eyes
B. * Tumor
C. Rickets
D. Affect of digestive organs
E. Loss of weight
What pathological states develop during deficiency of UV radiation?
A. Affect of eyes.
B. * Tumor
C. Affect of digestive organs.
D. Loss of weight.
E. Osteoporosis
When present “evening effect” during the using luminescent lamps
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* lighting is less than 75-150
lighting is less than 155-200 Lx
lighting is less than 250-500 Lx
lighting is less than 150-180 Lx
lighting is than 255-300 Lx
302.
When not present “evening effect” during the using luminescent lamps
A. * lighting should be not less than 75-150 Lx
B. lighting should be not less than 55-100 Lx
C. lighting should be not less than 25-50 Lx
D. lighting should be not less than 10-20 Lx
E. lighting should be not less than 25-30 Lx
303.
Which is most likely to happen when light passes from one material through
another denser material?
A. It is reflected.
B. * It is refracted.
C. It makes a rainbow.
D. It releases a photon.
E. It is absorbed
304.
Which of the following has a wavelength shorter than that of violet light?
A. green light
B. blue light
C. infrared radiation
D. red light
E. * ultraviolet radiation
305.
Which of the following is the speed of light?
A. 3 metres per second
B. 30 metres per second
C. 300 metres per second
D. * 300 000 000 metres per second
E. None of the above
306.
Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest energy?
A. x-rays
B. visible light
C. ultraviolet
D. gamma-rays
E. * infrared radiation
307.
Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the smallest
frequency?
A. x-rays
B. visible light
C. * radio
D. gamma-rays
E. infrared radiation
308.
Which of the following will need lowest level of illumination?
A. Dressing room
B. classroom
C. * Corridor
D. Auditoriums.
E. Hospital ward
309.
Which of the following will need lowest level of illumination?
A. Displays
B. Fine engraving
C. * Railway platform
D. Auditoriums.
E. Hospital ward
310.
Which of the following will need the highest level of illumination?
A. * Classroom
B. Bed rooms
C. Hospital wards
D. Railway platforms.
E. All of the above
311.
Which of the following will need the highest level of illumination?
A. * Dressing room
B. Bed rooms
C. Hospital wards
D. Railway platforms.
E. All of the above
312.
Which of the following will need the highest level of illumination?
A. * Proof reading
B. Bed rooms
C. Hospital wards
D. Railway platforms.
E. All of the above
313.
Which one of the following apparatus use for registration change of the artifficial
illumination?
A. Hygrometer;
B. Barograph;
C. Thermograph;
D. * Luxmeter;
E. Anemometer.
314.
Which phrase best describes a fluorescent light?
A. most any household lamp
B. glass tube with a filament that glows when hot
C. bulb with a vacuum that glows
D. * glass tube with a gas that glows when a current passes through it
E. None of the above
315.
Which phrase best describes electromagnetic radiation?
A. visible light
B. gamma rays
C. reflection
D. * waves of energy
E. beta particles
316.
Which phrase best describes the inside of an incandescent light bulb?
A. * the absence of any gas
B. the presence of a gas such as argon
C. a thin wire made of tungsten
D. a conductor of electricity
E. the presence of a gas such as mercury
317.
Which term does NOT refer to light intensity?
A. * watt
B. lumen
C. candlepower
D. candela
E. All of the above
318.
Which term refers to the amount of light falling on a surface?
A. voltage
B. light intensity
C. wattage
D. * illuminance
E. None of the above
319.
Which type of artificial light is more economical?
A. Light bulbs
B. Lamps general
C. Lamps local
D. Lamp integrated
E. * Lamp luminescent
320.
Why are fluorescent lamps not recommended for operations?
A. It is a noise generator
B. * Not clearly visible boundary demarcation line
C. Tedious eye surgeon
D. A flashing effect
E. Causes strobing.
321.
Maximum admissible CO2 concentration in apartments is
A. 0,03 %
B. * 0,1 %
C. 1 %
D. 10,0 %
E. 3 %
322.
A quantity of an air that comes into the room during 1 hour is
A. *Ventilation volume
B. Kind of ventilation
C. The ratio of ventilation
D. Amount of oxygen
E. Amount of carbonic dioxide
323.
Acid rain forms when moisture in the air interacts with
A. Nitrogen oxide and ozone;
B. Sulphur dioxide and dust;
C. * Nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide
D. Carbon dioxide;
E. Carbon monoxide;
324.
Acid rain pollutants may travel long distances, with winds carrying them
thousands of miles before they fall as…….All are true except
A. Dew,
B. * Rays
C. Fog,
D. Snow
E. Rain.
325.
Adult person during one hour exhaled one of the next volume of air
A. 10,6 L
B. 15,6 L
C. 20,6 L
D. * 22,6 L
E. 37,7 L
326.
Aeration of the soil is a direct result of :
A. Solar radiation.
B. * Influence of temperature difference and pressure fluctuations in soil and air.
C. Processes of transformation of organic substances.
D. Movement of air.
E. Processes of soil self-purification
327.
After the disposal of solid residue content of organic substances liable to decay
shall not exceed:
A. 0.1%
B. 2%
C. 5%
D. * 0.2%
E. 4%
328.
Air changes in the room during 1 hour is
A. Amount of oxygen and carbonic dioxide
B. The ratio of amount of carbonic dioxide and oxygen
C. * The ratio of ventilation volume and volume of the room
D. Volume of air, which enters to room
E. The volume of ventilation during one hour.
329.
Air conditioning use for formation and support
A. Necessary temperature
B. Necessary humidity of air
C. Necessary speed of air movement in room
D. Necessary air ionization
E. * All are correct.
330.
What does an anemometer measure?
A. * Air velocity speed
B. Air temperature
C. Humidity
D. Cooling power of air
E. Atmospheric pressure
331.
Bacteriological analysis of soil involves the following:
A. * Titer E.coli and anaerobic bacteria
B. The amount of organic carbon.
C. Staphylococci
D. Eggs and larvae of helminths.
E. Ph
332.
Biotic component of soil is :
A. Mineral compounds
B. Organic compounds
C. * Soil microorganisms
D. Organo-mineral complexes
E. Soil moisture.
333.
An anemometer is used for measuring
A. Volume changes in gases
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. *Force and velocity of wind
D. Electrical current
E. Radiation temperature.
334.
Organic matter that has been decomposed and recycled as a fertilizer and soil
amendment is
A. Soil
B. *Compost
C. Humus
D. Sand
E. Stone.
335.
Content of Carbon dioxide in the air is (rpm %)
A. 1%;
B. 0.5%;
C. * 0.04%
D. 4.7%;
E. 0.1%;
336.
Diseases that are transmitted through soil are:
A. * Botulism and tetanus.
B. Tetanus, cholera.
C. Cholera, dysentery.
D. Dysentery, gas gangrene.
E. Gas gangrene, anthrax.
337.
Disposal of dead bodies of animals, from the village should be at distance of no
less than?
A. 200 m
B. * 500 m
C. 1000 m
D. 1.5 km
E. 2 km
338.
Exceeding level of aerosol humanganese in atmosphere air causes:
A. Emphysema
B. Cancer of skin
C. Cancer of lung
D. * pneumonia
E. Lack of oxygen
339.
Exceeding level of sulfur oxide in atmosphere air causes:
A. Pneumonia
B. Cancer of skin
C. Lack of oxygen
D. * Bronchial asthma
E. Cancer of lung
340.
Expired air has following amount of oxygen
A. * 15-16 %
B. 20-21 %
C. 25-26 %
D. 30-35 %
E. 78-79 %
341.
Express-method of determination concentration CO2 in air is based on reaction of
carbon dioxide with solution
A. * Sodium hydrocarbonate
B. Hyposulphite sodium
C. Chlorine lime
D. Iodide potassium
E. Aluminium sulphate
342.
For a medium soil test, sample of ground is to be picked at?
A. At four points around the perimeter of the rectangle
B. * In five points "envelope"
C. Three-point angles of the triangle
D. In five points, selected randomly
E. At one point arbitrarily
343.
For physical and chemical analysis of soil, samples from selected sites are of the
area is (m2) ?
A. 5
B. 10
C. * 25
D. 50
E. 100
344.
For sampling soil which of the following is used?
A. * Drills Frenkel
B. Sieve pin
C. Cylinders Hennera
D. Gear Zhuravleva
E. Water bottle
345.
How many CO2 exhales one person at one hour?
A. 10,5 litre
B. 15,6 litre
C. 20.5 liter
D. * 22.6 litre
E. 37,7 litre
346.
How much percent carbon dioxyde contains atmospheric air?
A. 3,4 –4,7 %
B. 15,1-16 %
C. 20,9-21,5 %
D. 78-80 %
E. * 0,03-0,04 %
347.
How much percent carbon dioxyde contains exhaled air?
A. * 3,4 –4,7 %
B. 15,1-16 %
C. 20,9-21,5 %
D. 78-80 %
E. 0,03-0,04 %
348.
How much percent oxygen contains atmospheric air?
A. 3,4 –4,7 %
B. 15,1-16 %
C. * 20,9-21,5 %
D. 78-80 %
E. 0,03-0,04 %
349.
How much percent oxygen contains in exhaled air?
A. * 3,4 –4,7 %
B. 15,1-16 %
C. 20,9-21,5 %
D. 78-80 %
E. 0,03-0,04 %
350.
Hydroscopy soil is the ability of soil:
A. Leak
B. Hold Water
C. Raise water from depths to the surface
D. * Absorb water from air
E. Ignore air
351.
Hygiene norm of frecency rate of air exchange in room is
A. 0-1 times
B. * 2-3 times
C. 5 times
D. 6-8 times
E. 9-10 times
352.
Improved landfill base that is built outside should be no closer than
A. 200 m
B. * 500 m
C. 1000 m
D. 1-1,5 km
E. 2 km
353.
In rural conditions what must be the distance of dwelling from composting?
A. 1-5 m
B. 5-10 m
C. * 10-15 m
D. 20-30 m
E. 50 m
354.
In soil, ammonia is oxidized by action of nitrifying bacteria first into
A. Nitrites
B. Carbon oxide
C. * Nitrates
D. Water
E. Carbon dioxide
355.
What is unit for measuring speed of air?
A. Meters per hour
B. Hours
C. Centimeters
D. * Meter per second
E. m3/hour
356.
Increasing concentration carbon dioxide due to respiration is __________changes
of air
A. biological;
B. physical;
C. physiological
D. * chemical
E. radiological
357.
Indication of quantity artificial ventilation is
A. Ventilation volume
B. * Times exchange of air
C. Room volume
D. Speed air moving
E. Duration of ventilation
358.
Main indoor pollutant includes:
A. Nitrogen
B. Sulfur dioxide
C. Hydrogen sulfide
D. * Formaldehyde
E. None of the above
359.
Maximum admissible CO2 concentration in apartments is
A. 1,0 %
B. * 0,1 %
C. 98 %
D. 10,0 %
E. 30 %
360.
Minimal room volume per person is called
A. Ventilation volume
B. air replacement frequency (ACH)
C. * air cube
D. Speed of air velocity
E. Vital volume
361.
Name maximum admissible CO2 concentration in the room
A. 4 %
B. 20 %
C. 2 %
D. * 0,1%
E. 10 %
362.
Natural ventilation is caused by
A. Difference of the temperature of outside and inside air
B. Wind force outside
C. * Difference of the temperature of outside and inside air and Wind force outside
D. Humidity inside
E. Color of wall
363.
Norm of speed air moving in the rooms is
A. * 0,1-0,3 m/s
B. 0,7-0,8 m/s
C. 0, 9-1,2 m/s
D. 0,4-0,5 m/s
E. 1-3 m/s
364.
One of the following absorbs carbon from carbon dioxide of the atmosphere and
gives off free oxygen
A. Wind
B. Rain
C. Ozone
D. Animal
E. * Plants
365.
One of the following degree of soil pollution is wrong
A. Clean
B. Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Strongly polluted
E. * Indifferent.
366.
One of the following ways of toxic, radioactive and biological agents
transmission from soil to huhuman are not possible
A. Soil- plant - human
B. Soil- plant – animal - human
C. Soil- water – fish - human
D. Soil- air - human
E. * Soil- human
367.
Pathogenic organisms found naturally in soil and transmitted to huhuman by
contact with contaminated soil is
A. Goiter
B. * Botulism
C. Scurvy
D. Rickets
E. Anemia
368.
Pathogenic organisms found naturally in soil and transmitted to human by contact
with contaminated soil is
A. * Tetanus
B. Goiter
C. Scurvy
D. Rickets
E. Anemia
369.
Pathogenic organisms of animals, transmitted to human by direct contact with soil
contaminated by the wastes of infected animals is
A. * Leptospirosis
B. Goiter
C. Scurvy
D. Rickets
E. Anemia
370.
Pathogenic organisms of animals, transmitted to human by direct contact with soil
contaminated by the wastes of infected animals is
A. Goiter
B. Scurvy
C. Rickets
D. Anemia
E. * Anthrax
371.
Portion of air, which enter to rooms during 1 hour is
A. * Ventilation volume
B. air replacement frequency (ACH)
C. air cube
D. Speed of air velocity
E. Volume of the room
372.
Properties of soil which depend from its mechanical content are
A. Air penetration
B. water penetration
C. moisture’s content
D. thermal regime
E. * All are correct
373.
Pure air has following amount of carbon dioxide
A. 15-16 %
B. 20-21 %
C. * 0,03-0,04 %
D. 3,4-4,7 %
E. 78-79 %
374.
Pure air has following amount of oxygen
A. 15-16 %;
B. * 20-21 %
C. 25-26 %;
D. 30-35 %;
E. 78-79 %.
375.
Pure air has following amount of nitrogen
A. 3-4 %;
B. 20-21 %
C. 25-26 %;
D. *78-79 %;
E. 95-100 %.
376.
Ratio of air volume, which enter in rooms or move out from it for a 1 hour to
inside volume of room is
A. Ventilation volume
B. * air replacement frequency (ACH)
C. air cube
D. Speed of air velocity
E. Volume of the room
377.
Sanitary evaluation of soil include determination of Sanitary – bacteriological
numbers. What is this?
A. Quantity of acaridae eggs in 1kg of soil
B. Quantity of fly larvae on 0,25m2 of soil
C. * Microbe quantity
D. Quantity of cancerogenous substances
E. Chlebnikov number
378.
Sanitary evaluation of soil includes determination of sanitary helminthological
numbers. What is this?
A. * Quantity of acaridae eggs in 1kg of soil
B. Quantity of fly larvae on 0,25m2 of soil
C. Microbe quantity
D. Quantity of cancerogenous substances
E. Colli-titer
379.
Sanitary evaluations of soil include determination of Sanitary-entomological
numbers. What is this?
A. Quantity of acaridae eggs in 1kg of soil
B. * Quantity of fly larvae on 0,25m2 of soil
C. Microbe quantity
D. Quantity of cancerogenous substances
E. Colli-titer
380.
Sanitary-entomological research of soil not determine
A. * A number of winged flies
B. A number maggots
C. A number helminthes eggs
D. A number pre-chrysalis
E. A number chrysalis
381.
Soil ability to let air through the soil pore space is
A. * Air permeability
B. Porosity
C. soil capillarity
D. water permeability
E. moisture capacity
382.
Soil water capacity means the ability of soil to :
A. Leak
B. * Hold Water
C. Raise water from depths to the surface
D. Absorb water from air
E. gnore air
383.
Soils are composed from all exept
A. Mineral matter
B. Air
C. Water
D. * Plants
E. Micro organisms
384.
Soil is the top-most part of the earth surface and it is made up of exept:
A. Soil water
B. Mineral matter
C. *Plants
D. Soil air
E. Micro organisms
385.
Specify natural ventilation perforhumance of educational facilities for aeration
coefficient.
A. 1:2 - 1: 3.
B. 1: 5 - 1: 10.
C. 1: 20 - 1: 30.
D. * 1: 40 - 1: 50.
E. 1: 50 - 1: 100.
386.
Tell the norms of speed air moving in the rooms
A. 0,6 - 0,8m/s
B. * 0,1 – 0,3 m/s
C. 0,5 – 0,7 m/s
D. 2 –3 m/s
E. 3 – 4 m/s
387.
Provide the level of the effectiveness room ventilation by carbon dioxide (CO2)
concentration
A. Not more than 0, 95 %
B. Not more than 0, 75 %
C. * Not more than 0,1 %
D. Not more than 0,15 %
E. Not more than 0,2 %
388.
The ability of soil to raise the water from the lower layers upward is called :
A. Breath ability
B. Void
C. Moisture
D. * Soil capillarity
E. Not correct
389.
The amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased in recent years.
Environmentalists suggest this change is a direct result of the
A. Improper storage of solid and nuclear waste
B. * Overcutting of forests and the increased use of fossil fuels
C. Dumping of inorganic material into lakes and rivers
D. Use of herbicides and toxic substances such as asbestos and DDT
E. Overpopulation in rural regions
390.
The basic mass of saprophytes microorganism lies from superficial layer of soil in
deep
A. * Near 10 sm
B. Near 50 sm.
C. Near 70 sm.
D. Near 100sm.
E. Near 150 sm.
391.
The basic mass of saprophytes microorganism lies from superficial layer of soil in
deep
A. * Near 10 sm
B. Near 55 sm.
C. Near 75 sm.
D. Near 100sm.
E. Near 150 sm.
392.
The definition of soil:
A. Hard cover ground that has formed under the influence of climate;
B. * Loose, fertile surface layer of crust
C. Crust layer that contains water;
D. Loose layer of crust;
E. Layer of crust, which is distributed to huhuman activities.
393.
The consensus in the scientific community is that altering atmospheric
composition by the addition of carbon dioxide and trace gases will eventually lead to a
…... planet with a different distribution of climatic regimes.
A. wetter
B. drier
C. * warmer
D. cooler
E. smaller
394.
The content of nitrogen in the air is (rpm %)
A. 90 %;
B. 94 %;
C. 59 %;
D. * 78 %;
E. 58.9 %;
395.
The conversion process of restored organic nitrogen compounds into oxydated
inorganic ones is
A. Oxidation
B. * Nitrification
C. Chlorination
D. Ionization
E. Ozonization
396.
The disperse properties of soil determine
A. * Filtration capacity
B. Water content
C. Capillarity
D. Hygroscopic properties
E. Ways of toxic agents
397.
The main criteria in the selection of land stations for the construction of solid
waste is
A. * Sufficiency of space, the possibility of sanitary protection zone, soil and
hydrogeological conditions
B. Feasibility, availability of expansion prospects
C. Can organize sanitary protection zone
D. Location taking into account the winds rose, standing level of groundwater
E. Standing level of groundwater, direction and speed of movement of soil flow, the
possibility of sanitary protection zones
398.
The major component of photochemical smog is ……
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Nitrogen dioxide
C. * Ozone
D. Sulfuric acid
E. Particulate matter
399.
The natural ventilation may enlarge with the help of
A. Unclosing of windows in a room
B. Unclosing doors in a room
400.
401.
402.
in :
C. With the help of ventilation ducts (canal)
D. * All are correct
E. None of above
The optimum temperature range for nitrificating bacteria is
A. From -10°C to 0 °C
B. From 0°C to 2 °C
C. * From 25 °C to 37°C
D. From 50°C to 60 °C
E. From 80°C to 100°C
The process of maturation of compost in a temperate climate with winter ends in
A. 2 months
B. 3-4 months
C. 5-7 months
D. * 8-10 months
E. 10-12 months
The process of maturation of compost in a temperate climate with summer expires
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
403.
404.
405.
406.
407.
2 Months
* 3-4 months
5-7 months
8-10 months
10-12 months
The saprophytes microorganism lies from superficial layer of soil in deep
A. * Near 10 sm
B. Near 50 sm.
C. Near 70 sm.
D. Near 100sm.
E. Near 150 sm.
The source of nearly half our pollution (by weight) is from ….. category
A. * Transportation
B. Industrial processes
C. Stationary source fuel combustion
D. Agricultural
E. Domestic
The texture of soil is determined the by screening through
A. Asshuman sieves
B. * Knopf sieves
C. Krotov’s apparatus
D. Slow sand Filter
E. Rapid sand filter
The total height of compost pile should not exceed
A. * 1.5 m
B. 1 m
C. 2 m
D. 30 cm
E. 50 cm
The width of the site for composting should be:
A. 1-2 m
B. * 2-3 m
C. 5-10 m
D. 7 m
E. 10-15 m
408. The ratio of the volume of small openings in soil or rock to its total volume, usually
expressed as a percentage.
A. Air permeability
B. * Porosity
C. Soil capillarity
D. Water permeability
E. Moisture capacity
409.
Total volume of pores in unit volume of soil expressed as a percentage is called
A. Breath ability
B. * Porosity
C. Moisture
D. Capillarity of soil.
E. Not correct
410.
Unit for measuring of ventilation volume is
A. Hour
B. * (m3 /hour)
C. %
D. m/sec
E. time
411.
Use of agricultural soils for any crop is possible if the contents of chemicals in
soil are:
A. * Greater than background, but no more MAC
B. Above their MCL for limiting harmful general sanitary indicator, but below the
permissible level translocation Score
C. Above their MCL for limiting water and air parameters harm, but below the
permissible level translocation Score
D. Exceed their MAC parameters for limiting migration harm, but below the
permissible level indicator translocation
E. Above their MCL for limiting harmful translocation Score
412.
Waste from medical institutions is to neutralized by :
A. Observance on the grounds for solid waste
B. Disinfection in hospitals with the following site for removal of solid waste
C. * Pichah burning in special hospitals
D. Use pits Becker
E. All correct answers
413.
What are group criteria o f soil sanitary states you know?
A. Sanitary-and-physical criteria
B. Physical-and-chemical criteria
C. Chemical safety criteria and epidemic safety criteria
D. Radiation safety indices
E. * All corect
414.
Which concentration of carbon dioxide in the air cause death?
A. 3 %
B. 0,3 %
C. * 10-12 %
D. 1-2 %
E. 0,1-0,2 %
415.
What factors help in natural ventilation?
A. * Temperature difference between indoors and outside and intensified pressure on
the wall outside air at a wind
B. The difference in temperature and humidity indoors and outside
C. The difference velocity air in the room and beyond
416.
417.
418.
419.
420.
421.
422.
423.
D. The presence of radiation sources in the room temperature
E. The difference in air pressure in the room and beyond
What is device use for soil texture analysis?
A. Aspirator
B. * Knopf sieves
C. Gas analyzer
D. Soilmeter
E. All corect
What is main source of contamination air in the closed apartments
A. Animals
B. * People
C. Plants
D. Books
E. Electric devices
What is the air permeability of soil?
A. Ppercentage of soil particles according to their sizes
B. Total volume of pores in the unit of soil volume, which is expressed in percents
C. * Soil ability to let air through its thickness
D. Amount of moisture, which soil is capable to retain due to sorptive and capillar
powers
E. Soil ability to lift water via capillaries from the bottom layers up.
What is the main hygienic index, which characterizes room ventilation?
A. Oxide concentration (O2)
B. * Carbon dioxide (CO2) concentration
C. Nitrogen (N) concentration
D. Concentration of antropotoxins
E. Water steam concentration
What is the moisture capacity of soil?
A. Percentage of soil particles according to their sizes
B. Total volume of pores in the unit of soil volume, which is expressed in percents
C. Soil ability to let air through its thickness
D. * Amount of moisture, which soil is capable to retain due to sorptive and capillar
powers
E. Soil ability to lift water via capillaries from the bottom layers up.
What is the porosity of soil?
A. Percentage of soil particles according to their sizes
B. * Total volume of pores in the unit of soil volume, which is expressed in percents
C. Soil ability to let air through its thickness
D. Amount of moisture, which soil is capable to retain due to sorptive and capillar
powers
E. Soil ability to lift water via capillaries from the bottom layers up.
What is the Sanitary number of Khlebnikoff' in pure level of soil pollution ?
A. * 0.98-1.0
B. 0.86-0.98
C. 0.70-0.86
D. 0.50-0.55
E. 0.40-0.86
What is the soil capillarity?
A. Percentage of soil particles according to their sizes
B. Total volume of pores in the unit of soil volume, which is expressed in percents
C. Soil ability to let air through its thickness
D. Amount of moisture, which soil is capable to retain due to sorptive and capillar
powers
E. * Soil ability to lift water via capillaries from the bottom layers up.
424.
What is the texture of soil?
A. * Percentage of soil particles according to their sizes
B. Total volume of pores in the unit of soil volume, which is expressed in percents
C. Soil ability to let air through its thickness
D. Amount of moisture, which soil is capable to retain due to sorptive and capillar
powers
E. Soil ability to lift water via capillaries from the bottom layers up.
425.
What is the water permeability of soil?
A. * Soil ability to absorb surface water and to let it pass through
B. Total volume of pores in the unit of soil volume, which is expressed in percents
C. Soil ability to let air through its thickness
D. Amount of moisture, which soil is capable to retain due to sorptive and capillar
powers
E. Soil ability to lift water via capillaries from the bottom layers up.
426.
What isn’t the method of sanitary analysis of soil?
A. Sanitary entomological analysis
B. Sanitary-helmontologic analysis
C. * Organoleptical analysis
D. Sanitary-chemical analysis
E. Sanitary-radiological analysis
427.
What one of following devices use for determination of concentration CO2 by
express-method?
A. Hygrometer
B. Anemometer
C. * Syringe
D. Weather-vane
E. Aspirator
428.
What one of the following is the basic process of soil regeneration?
A. Oxidation
B. * Nitrification
C. Chlorination
D. Ionization
E. Ozonization
429.
What pollutants are emitted directly from identifiable sources?
A. Tertiary
B. Secondary
C. * Primary
D. Observable
E. None of the above
430.
What soil has the most diameters of soil parts?
A. * Stone
B. Large pebble
C. Hoggin
D. Sand
E. Clay
431.
What solution is based on reaction of carbon dioxide in Express-method of
determination concentration CO2 in air with
A. Hyposulphite sodium
B. * Sodium hydrocarbonate
C. Chlorine lime
D. Iodide potassium
E. Aluminium sulphate
432.
When burning solid untoxic dregs of ash into the atmosphere shall not exceed:
A. * 0.5 mg/m3
B. 1 mg/ m3
C. 1.5 mg/ m3
D. 2 mg/ m3
E. 2, 5mh/ m3
433.
When one of the following is indicates pollution and signifies active bacterial
action and presence of organic matter in soil.
A. If chlorine are found in soil water
B. * If nitrites are found in soil water
C. If sulphates are found in soil water
D. If carbon dioxide are found in soil water
E. If oxygen are found in soil water
434.
Which can be the maximal speed air motion in the classroom?
A. 0,3 - 0,6 m/s
B. * 0,1 - 0,3 m/s
C. 1,0 - 1,5 m/s
D. 1-2 m/s
E. 2-3 m/s
435.
Which can be the maximal speed air motion in the living room?
A. * 0,1 - 0,3 m/s
B. 0,5 - 0,8 m/s
C. 1,0 - 1,5 m/s
D. 1-2 m/s
E. 2-3 m/s
436.
Which can be the maximal speed air motion in the ward?
A. * 0,1 - 0,3 m/s
B. 0,5 - 0,8 m/s
C. 1,0 - 1,5 m/s
D. 1-2 m/s
E. 2-3 m/s
437.
Which device using for determination of speed air moving
A. Hygrometer
B. * Anemometer
C. Barometer
D. Weather-vane
E. Thermometer
438.
Which from next diseases behaves to zoonoses
A. * Leptospirosis
B. cholera
C. salmonellosis
D. bacillary dysentery
E. Tetanus
439.
Which one of the following is direct criteria of ventilation effectiveness
A. Carbon dioxide concentration
B. Dust pollution rate
C. Germ pollution rate
D. Subjective odorometric scales.
E. * Ventilation volume
440.
Which one of the following is index of efficiency of ventilation in a room
according to carbon dioxide (CO2) concentration
A. Not more than 0, 95 %
B. Not more than 0, 75 %
C. * Not more than 0,1 %
D. Not more than 0,25 %
E. Not more than 0,2 %
441.
Which one of the following is NOT a possible consequence of a greenhouse
warming?
A. Shifts in the paths of large-scale cyclonic storms
B. * Reduction in secondary pollutants
C. Increase of heat waves and droughts
D. More frequent and intense hurricanes
E. Rising sea levels
442.
Which one of the following is NOT a primary pollutant?
A. Sulfur dioxide
B. * Sulfuric acid
C. Nitrogen oxides
D. Particulate matter
E. Carbon monoxide
443.
Which one of the following is not ill-effects of polluted air
A. Nausea
B. Vomiting
C. Appetite loss
D. Headache
E. * Deafness
444.
Which one of the following is not ill-effects of polluted air
A. Nausea
B. Vomiting
C. appetite loss
D. * Goiter
E. Headache
445.
Which one of the following is not the factors responsible for purification of air
A. Wind
B. Rain
C. Oxygen and ozone, which oxidise the organic matter present in the air
D. * Nitrogen
E. Process of photosynthesis in the plants
446.
Which one of the following is the death concentration of carbon dioxide for
human
A. 0,1 %
B. 1 %
C. 3 %
D. 6 %
E. * 10 %
447.
Which one of the following is the factor responsible for purification of soil?
A. * Putrefactive bacteria
B. Wind
C. Rain
D. Ozone, which oxidize the organic matter
E. Process of photosynthesis in the plants
448.
Which one of the following is the factors responsible for purification of air
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Wind
Humidity of air
Temperature
Nitrogen
X-rays
449.
Which one of the following is the factors responsible for purification of air
A. Humidity of air
B. Temperature
C. Nitrogen
D. X-rays
E. * Process of photosynthesis in the plants
450.
Which one of the following is the main hygienic index for characterizing
ventilation
A. Oxide concentration (O2)
B. * Carbon dioxide (CO2) concentration
C. Nitrogen (N) concentration
D. Concentration of antropotoxins
E. Water steam concentration
451.
Which one of the following is undirect criteria of ventilation effectiveness
A. * Dust pollution rate
B. Ventilation volume
C. Air replacement frequency (ACH)
D. Air cube
E. None of above
452.
Who from the next microbes can make the spores in soil?
A. * Microbes of botulism’s
B. Microorganism of intestine infectious
C. Microorganism of tuberculosis
D. microorganism of tularemia
E. microorganism of leptospirosis
453.
Soil structure can be improved with the addition of:
A. Chemical fertilizer
B. Gypsum
C. Lime
D. *Organic matter
E. None of these
454.
The smallest soil particles are what?
A. Gravel
B. Pebbles
C. Sand
D. * Clay
E. Silt
455.
Which factor is the most important in determining soil characteristics?
A. Topography
B. Type of bedrock
C. The vegetation cover
D. Time
E. *Climate
456.
Landfills are generally places where
A. A soil with a low clay content and high humus content
B. *A soil with a high clay content and high humus content
C. A soil with a high clay content and low humus content
D. A soil with a high silt content and high clay content
E. A soil with high sand content and high humus content
457.
Which of the following soils will have the highest cation exchange capacity
(CEC)?
A. Microbes successfully break down the majority of trash produced.
B. Composting occurs, as there is plenty of water and oxygen.
C. *Castoff materials find a final burial ground.
D. Biodegradation readily occurs.
E. All are correct
458.
What device measures wind direction?
A. An anemometer
B. A thermometer
C. A barometer
D. * A wind vane
E. A psychrometer.
459.
Air takes up space and has weight so it is _____.
A. electrical
B. heavy
C. wind
D. *matter
460.
The lowest layer of the atmosphere is called _____.
A. Outer space
B. The aerosphere
C. *The troposphere
D. An air mass
E. Nooshere.
461.
The amount of water vapor in the air is called _____.
A. Sleet
B. Precipitation
C. Rain
D. * Humidity
E. Clouds.
462.
A scientist named Torricelli made the first _____.
A. *Barometer
B. Wind vane
C. Thermometer
D. Anemometer
E. Psychrometer.
463.
The push of air against its surroundings is called _____.
A. Humidity
B. Atmosphere
C. * Air pressure
D. Precipitation
E. Wind.
464.
What do we call the blanket of air that surrounds the Earth?
A. Wind
B. High pressure area
C. Low pressure area
D. *Atmosphere
E. Clouds.
465.
The difference in air pressure between areas can cause _____.
A. * Wind
B.
C.
D.
E.
466.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
467.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
468.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
469.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
470.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
471.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
472.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
473.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Water vapor
Sun spots
Humidity
Clouds.
What instrument measures wind speed?
A barometer
*An anemometer
A wind vane
A wind sock
Thermometer
Cooler air _____.
Rises
*Sinks
Does none of these
Is lighter than warm air
All are correct
The movement of air is called _____.
*Wind
High pressure
Humidity
Troposphere
Low pressure
Oxygen in the atmosphere is:
78%
71%
59%
0.04 %
*None of these
Nitrogen in the atmosphere is:
*78%
71%
59%
0.04 %
None of these
Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is:
78%
71%
59%
20 %
*None of these
Air is a mixture of gases such as oxygen, nitrogen and _____.
Hydrogen and water
Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
*Water vapor and carbon dioxide
Methane and hydrogen
Hydrogen and carbon dioxide
Air is a mixture of gases such as oxygen, carbon dioxide and _____.
Hydrogen and water
Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
*Water vapor and nitrogene
Methane and hydrogen
Hydrogen and carbon dioxide
474.
How many zones of sanitary preservation are around the place of water supply for
a city from a river?
A. One
B. Two
C. * Three
D. Four
E. Five
475.
Method of removal of water’s iron is?
A. Filtration
B. * Deironation
C. Softening
D. Desalting
E. Decontamination
476.
Which of the following water borne diseases is of viral origin?
A. Typhoid fever
B. *Poliomyelitis
C. Dracunculiais
D. Shigellosis
E. Cholera
477.
What are the three states of water on Earth?
A. Groundwater, lakes, and clouds
B. *liquid water, frozen water, and water vapor
C. Gas, steam, and vapor
D. Groundwater, oceans, and ice
E. Water vapor and groundwater
478.
Chlorine’s need of water is 5 mg/ dm3. What must be chlorine absorption of this
water?
A. 2,5 mg/dm3
B. 2,7 mg/ dm3
C. 4,5 mg/ dm3
D. * 5,5 mg/ dm3
E. 6 mg/dm3
479.
Contact period of Chlorine solution and water in the well for water disinfection
should be not less than:
A. 20 min
B. 40 min
C. * 60 min
D. 80 min
E. 100 min
480.
Content of free residual chlorine after finishing of chlorination process:
A. 0,1-0,2 mg/L
B. * 0,3-0,5 mg/L
C. 0,6 - 0,8 mg/L
D. 0,8 – 1,0 mg/L
E. 1,0 – 1,5 mg/L
481.
Which of the following reservoirs contains the most water?
A. Atmosphere
B. Biosphere
C. *Groundwater
D. Lakes and rivers
E. None of this
482.
Water that is good enough to drink is called ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Potable water
Artesian water
Groundwater
Surface water
Sewage water
483.
Disadvantages of UV-irradiation over the chlorination?
A. Don't denaturate the water
B. Don't change smell of water
C. Don’t change taste of water
D. * Need lightening of water
E. all are correct
484.
Excessive pumping in relation to recharge can cause ________ .
A. The water table to decline
B. A cone of depression
C. To form the well to go dry
D. *All of these
E. None of this
485.
What word means the change of state from liquid to a gas?
A. *Evaporation
B. Condensation
C. eutrophication
D. Precipitation
E. Convection
486.
How much of Earth’s water is fresh water?
A. 97%
B. 50%
C. *3%
D. 1%
E. 0.3 %
487.
Disinfecting of water is?
A. cleaning it from dirt
B. removal of unpleasant smell
C. removal of hangings up matters
D. removal of pathogenic microorganisms
E. *all are correct
488.
Essence coagulation process as a method of water purification:
A. Formation of biologically active compounds that are detrimental to the microbial
cell;
B. * Coagulant interactions with alkali reserves of water (electrolytes) with the
formation of hydrate, which absorbs suspended particles
C. Formation chlorine acid molecules that stops the growth of microbial cells;
D. Formation of multiple gas bubbles formed when adding a coagulant in water and
sedimented particles;
E. Formation of complex compounds in the form of flakes, which do not react with
rodanidom.
489.
Following steps are involved in fast sand filter: (1) coagulation (2) Floculation
(3)Rapid mixing (4) Filteration; (5) Sedimentation Select the correct sequence:
A. 1 – 2 - 3 - 4 – 5
B. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4 – 5
C. 3 – 1 – 2 – 5 – 4
D. * 1 – 3 – 2 – 5 - 4
E. 4 – 5 – 3 – 2 – 1
490.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
491.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
492.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
493.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
494.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
495.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
496.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
497.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
498.
A.
B.
C.
For what used aluminum sulfate in water?
* For coagulation
For desinfection
For deodoration
For ozonization
For chlorination
Free residual chlorine after finishing of chlorination process should be:
0,1-0,2 mg/L
* 0,3-0,5 mg/L
0,6 - 0,8 mg/L
0,8 – 1,0 mg/L
1,0 – 1,5 mg/L
Water borne diseases can be transmitted by water contaminating
Hands
Feeding utensils
Food
Recreational facilities
*All of the above
The group most at risk of water borne diseases are:
Elderly
Adolescents
*Children under five years of age
Adults man
Adult woman
How correctly store chloride lime
in open barrels
under solar rays
* in dark, dry, cool places
at high temperature
in moist room
How is cleaned slow sand filter
Washing by chlorine solution
* By scrapping of the top portion of the sand layer
Washing by reversing the flow of water through the sand bed
Washing by water under pressure
Washing by chlorine potassium permanganate
What coagulant used to illuminate the water:
Sodium fluoride
Copper sulfate
* Aluminum sulfate
Iron
Aluminum hydroxide.
How many liters of water essential for examination?
0,5 liters of water
1 liters of water
1,5 liters of water
* 2 liters of water
liters of water
What word is another name for rain, snow, sleet, and hail?
Evaporation
Artesian
Eutrophication
D. *Precipitation
E. Humidity
499.
How many zones of sanitary protection should be around the place for the city
water intake from the river?
A. One.
B. Two.
C. * Three.
D. Four
E. Five.
500.
Using of drinking water with fluoride at 0.2 mg cause in humans teeth diseases as
A. Fluorosis
B. Scurvy
C. * Caries
D. Parodontosis
E. Gingivitis
501.
Using of drinking water with fluoride at 1.7 mg cause in humans teeth diseases as
A. * Fluorosis
B. Caries
C. Rickets
D. gingivitis
E. stomatitis
502.
All of the following are water borne diseases except
A. Typhoid fever
B. Dracunculusis (Guinea worm infection)
C. *Tuberculosis
D. Poliomylitis
E. Cholera
503.
In slow filter, the surface of sand bed gets covered with a slimy grows which
called:
A. * Basic layer
B. biological layer
C. Filter layer
D. Sand layer
E. Main layer
504.
Which one of the following is unit of hardness of water?
A. Degree
B. Centimeter
C. Percent
D. * mg equ/l
E. dm3
505.
Which one of the following is unit of chlorides in water?
A. cm
B. points
C. * mg/dm3
D. mEg/L
E. CFU/dm3
506.
Which one of the following is unit of nitrates in water?
A. cm
B. points
C. * mg/dm3
D. mEg/L
E. CFU/dm3
507.
Which one of the following is unit of smell of drinking water?
A. * points
B. cm
C. mg/dm3
D. mEg/L
E. CFU/dm3
508.
Which one of the following is unit of taste of water?
A. cm
B. mg/dm3
C. * points
D. mEg/L
E. CFU/dm3
509.
Which one of the following is unit of transparence of water?
A. * cm
B. points
C. mg/dm3
D. mEg/L
E. CFU/dm3
510.
Which one of the following is basic method of disinfection of water:
A. Toxicological
B. Biological
C. Biochemical
D. * Physical
E. Bacteriological
511.
Which one of the following is basic method of disinfection of water:
A. Biological
B. Biochemical
C. General-sanitary
D. * Chemical
E. Bacteriological
512.
When a geyser erupts, hot water comes to the surface. What causes the eruption?
A. *The pressure increases.
B. The pressure decreases.
C. The temperature decreases.
D. A nearby volcano erupts.
E. Deference of the temperatures.
513.
The element chlorine, used to disinfect water, has which one of the following
chemical symbols?
A. Ch
B. *Cl
C. Co
D. Cr
E. Chlor
514.
Method of removal of water’s bacteria is?
A. Filtration
B. Deironation
C. * Decontamination
D. Softening
E. Desalting
515.
Method of removal of water’s hardness is
A. Filtration
B. Deironation
C. * Softening
D. Desalting
E. Decontamination
516.
Method of removal of water’s hardness is
A. Filtration
B. Deironation
C. * Softening;
D. Desalting
E. Decontamination
517.
Method of removal of water’s hardness is?
A. Filtration
B. Deironation
C. * Softening
D. Desalting
E. Decontamination
518.
Method of removal of water’s salt is?
A. Filtration
B. Deironation
C. * Desalting
D. Decontamination
E. Softening
519.
Methods of lightening of water is
A. Chlorination
B. * Coagulation
C. Ozonization
D. Ultraviolet irradiation
E. Ionization
520.
Which one of the following is a method of lightening of water?
A. Chlorination
B. * Coagulation
C. Ozonization
D. Ultraviolet irradiation
E. Ionization
521.
Name the factor that determines the choice and the use of water source
A. Landscape conditions
B. Chemical composition of air
C. Ease of transport routes
D. * Water capacity of source
E. Close to the seas and oceans
522.
What is norm of index coliform bacteria after chlorination?
A. * Not more 3 into 1 dm3
B. Not more 3 into 0,1 dm3
C. Not more 5 into 1 dm3
D. Not more 10 into 1 dm3
E. Not more 100 into 1 cm3
523.
Under standard conditions, one cubic centimeter (cm3) of water has a mass of
which one of the following?
A. One ounce
B. One slug
C. *One gram
D. One pound
E. One liter
524.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
525.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
526.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
527.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
528.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
529.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
530.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
531.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
532.
A.
B.
C.
One liter On amount of active chlorine in chlorine lime not influence
Temperature of the air
Sun radiation
* Atmospheric pressure
Air moving
Contact with oxygen
Which one of the following is not characteristic of atmospheric water?
Lightly mineralized
* Very hard
Without color
Dangerous in the bacteriological attitude
Dangerous in the radiological attitude
Which one of the following is reagent, used for chlorination of water?
* Chlorine lime
Hyposulphite sodium
Iodide potassium
Aluminium sulphate
Ammonium chloride
Which one of the following is reagent, used for coagulation of water
Hyposulphite sodium
Chlorine lime
Iodide potassium
* Aluminium sulphate
Ammonium chloride
A water borne disease:
Small Pox
Caries
Meningitis
Diarrhea
* Cholera
The water suitable for drinking:
Pure water
Portable water
* Potable water
Pungent water
All are correct
The best household method to obtain potable water:
Filtration
* Boiling
Chemical treatment
Decantation
UV irradiation
Which one of the following is reagent, used for dechlorination of water?
Chlorine lime
* Hyposulphite sodium
Iodide potassium
Aluminium sulphate
Ammonium chloride
Slow sand filter also called
* Biological filter
Chemical filter
Mechanical filter
D. Physical filter
E. None of the above
533.
Superficial waters are characterized by….
A. High mineralized
B. * High oxidity
C. High acidity
D. Constant temperature
E. All are correct
534.
Superficial water is characterized by…
A. High mineralized
B. * High oxidity and colority
C. Constant chemical composition
D. Constant temperature
E. Absent pathogenic organisms
535.
The advantage of fast sand filter on slow sand filter is:
A. Removed bacteria mote effectively
B. Occupies larger area
C. Preliminary storage of water is needed
D. * The washing of filters is easy
E. Occupies small area
536.
The criterion of complete satisfaction of the chlorine absorption of water and also
of the epidemic safety of water is
A. Chlorine absorption
B. * Residual chlorine
C. Chlorine’s need of water
D. Chloride acid
E. Active chlorine
537.
The desire to accelerate the sedimentation of suspended particles, discoloration of
water and filtering process has led to use in practice the following method:
A. Chlorination.
B. * Coagulation.
C. Fluoridation.
D. Overchlorination.
E. Decontamination
538.
The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to
A. * Hypochlorous acid
B. Chloric acid and products of its dissociation
C. Carbonic dioxide
D. Hydrochloric acid
E. Presence of calcium carboxide
539.
The most spread methods of disinfection of water are different methods of
chlorination. What one from the next is not applied for chlorinating of water?
A. ClO2
B. NaOCl
C. Ca(OCl)2
D. CaOCl2
E. * HCl
540.
The time of water disinfection by ozone is
A. * 3-5 min
B. 30 min
C. 60 min
D. 2 hours
541.
542.
543.
544.
545.
546.
547.
548.
549.
E. 10 hours
Time of contact for effectiveness of chlorination in summer must be not less than
A. 10 min
B. 20 min
C. * 30 min
D. 60 min
E. 90 min
Time of water's disinfection by superchlorination in winter is
A. 10 min
B. 15 min
C. * 30 min
D. 60 min
E. 120 min
To the chemical methods of water disinfecting belong
A. Boiling
B. Coagulation
C. Irradiation by UV-rays
D. Filtration
E. * Chlorination
The majority of the water on Earth is found
A. In aquifers.
B. *Oceans.
C. Polar ice and glaciers
D. The atmosphere
E. Freshwater lakes and rivers.
To the physical methods of water disinfecting belong:
A. Filtration
B. Coagulation
C. * Boiling
D. Iodination
E. Chlorination
What one from the next is not the purpose of water disinfection?
A. Elimination of E. coli
B. Elimination of causative agents of intestinal infections
C. * Change of a chemical compound of water
D. Elimination of spore forms
E. Elimination of pathogenic microorganisms
What disease can cause surplus of fluorine in water (more 1,5 mg/dm3)?
A. Caries
B. * Fluorosis
C. Stomatitis
D. Gingivitis
E. Osteoporosis
What index testifies the contamination of water by the organic matters?
A. * Ammonia
B. Hardness
C. Iodine
D. Iron
E. Sulphates
What information must be given with bottle (after taking sample)
A. Source of water supply
B. Date, place and time of sampling
550.
551.
552.
553.
554.
555.
556.
557.
C. Geological formation of soil
D. In case of well, its depth
E. * All are correct
What instrument is used for water sampling?
A. Barometer
B. Lactodensimeter
C. * Water bottle
D. Hydrometer
E. Actinometer.
What is chlorine demand of water?
A. Quantity of chlorine for oxidize the microorganisms
B. Quantityof chlorine for oxidize organic substances
C. Quantityof chlorine for oxidize norganic substances
D. Quantity of chlorine, wich absorbted by the hanging up in water matters
E. * All right
What is major categories of water pollutants
A. Infections agents
B. Organic chemical
C. Inorganic chemicals
D. Radioactive materials
E. * All are correct
Chlorination is intended to protect drinking water from
A. *Human pathogens
B. Toxic organic chemicals
C. Suspended solids.
D. Toxic inorganic chemicals.
E. Toxic heavy metals.
What is the condition necessary for coagulation?
A. * Optimum coagulant dose
B. Maximum coagulant dose
C. Water temperature is above 12 0 C
D. Previous assertion water
E. Previous disinfection of water.
What is the main building, pumping from underground sources?
A. Source water
B. First lift pumping station
C. Second lift pumping station
D. * The water network pipelines
E. Water disinfection device.
What is the main purpose of high security zone around the water source?
A. * Exclude the possibility of accidental or intentional contamination of water in the
most important parts of the pumping
B. Elimination of pollutants that come in the water, particularly pathogenic
microorganisms, through self-purification processes,
C. Rest and recovery workers, pumping,
D. Sanitary welfare of the city,
E. Improving the quality of water before serving it to consumers.
What is the main purpose of restriction zone around the water source?
A. Exclude the possibility of accidental or intentional contamination of water in the
most important parts of the pumping,
B. * Elimination of pollution that come in the water, particularly pathogenic
microorganisms, through self-process
C. Rest and recovery workers, pumping,
D. Sanitary welfare of the city,
E. Improving the quality of water before serving it to consumers.
558.
What is the minimum distance according to sanitary standards that must be
between wells and possible sources of water pollution?
A. * 30 m
B. 25 m
C. 20 m
D. 15 m
E. 10 m
559.
What is the size of the first zone of sanitary protection zones for underground
sources of water precariously blocked?
A. 30 m;
B. * 50 m
C. 100 m;
D. 300 m;
E. 500 m.
560.
Which of the following measures is used in the prevention and control of water
borne disease?
A. Proper or sanitary disposal of human waste
B. Keeping water safe during storage at home until it is consumed.
C. Treatment of known carriers.
D. None of above
E. *All of the above
561.
What concentration of fluorine should be in water for coursing caries?
A. * 0,6 mg/dm3
B. 1,5 mg/ dm3
C. 2 mg/ dm3
D. 2,5 mg/ dm3
E. 3 mg/ dm3
562.
What concentration of fluorine should be in water for coursing fluorosis?
A. 1,5 mg/ dm3
B. * 2 mg/ dm3
C. 2,5 mg/ dm3
D. 3 mg/ dm3
E. 4 mg/ dm3
563.
What method is basic method of water disinfection?
A. * Chlorinating by normal doses
B. Chlorinating by remaining doses
C. Chlorinating under a vacuum
D. Ozonization
E. Chlorinating with distillation
564.
What method of water treatment use for removed color of the water and for
acceleration of sedimentation of small particles?
A. Chlorination.
B. Ozonization
C. * Coagulation
D. Desalinization
E. Fluoridation
565.
The maximum permissible limit (BIS) of chlorides in drinking water is?
A. * 250-350 mg/dm3
B. 350-400 mg/ dm3
C. 400-500 mg/ dm3
D. 500-550 mg/ dm3
E. 550-600 mg/ dm3
566.
The maximum permissible limit (BIS) of fluoride in drinking water is?
A. 0,1-0,2 mg/ dm3
B. 0,5-0,7 mg/ dm3
C. * 0,7-1,5 mg/ dm3
D. 1,5-2 mg/ dm3
E. 2-3 mg/ dm3
567.
The maximum permissible limit (BIS) of general microbe number in drinking
water is?
A. not more 10 CFU/ dm3
B. not more 20 CFU/ dm3
C. not more 50 CFU/ dm3
D. not more 70 CFU/ dm3
E. * not more 100 CFU/ dm3
568.
The maximum permissible limit (BIS) of iron in drinking water is?
A. 0,1 mg/ dm3
B. 0,2 mg/ dm3
C. * 0,3 mg/dm3
D. 0,4 mg/ dm3
E. 0,5 mg/ dm3
569.
The maximum permissible limit (BIS) of sulphates in drinking water is?
A. 50-100 mg/ dm3
B. 150-200 mg/ dm3
C. 250-300 mg/ dm3
D. * 350-500 mg/ dm3
E. 500-550 mg/ dm3
570.
The maximum permissible limit (BIS) of turbidity in drinking water is?
A. 0,1 unit
B. 0,2 unit
C. 0,3 unit
D. 0,4 unit
E. * 0,5 unit
571.
Hardness of water does not
A. have any bad effect in boiler
B. make cooking of foods difficult
C. *make it unfit for drinking
D. cause difficulty in the washing of clothes with soaps
E. All are correct
572.
The maximum permissible limit (BIS) of total hardness in drinking water is?
A. 2 mg equ/l
B. 4 mg equ/l
C. *7 mg equ/l
D. 15 mg equ/l
E. 20 mg equ/l
573.
What reactive used for determine ammonia in water?
A. Griss reactive
B. * Nessler's reactive
C. Seignette salt
D. Barium chloride
E. Hydrochloric acid
574.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
575.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
576.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
577.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
578.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
579.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
580.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
581.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
582.
A.
B.
C.
What reactive used for determine nitrites in water?
* Griss reactive
Nessler's reactive
Seignette salt
Barium chloride
Hydrochloric acid
What sources used for sampling of water for laboratory researches?
From the tap
From the well
From the stream
From the river
* all are correct
What test used for determination of the chlorine needs of water?
One-glass test
Two-glass test
* Three-glass test
Four-glass test
Five-glass test
Which one from the next indexes of water belongs to organoleptic?
Transparency of water
Coloring of water
Smell of water
Taste of water
* All are correct
Which one from the next indexes of water not belongs to organoleptic?
Transparency of water
Coloring of water
Smell of water
Taste of water
* Concentration of iron
Which chemical matters usually used for coagulation of water?
Granozan
Chlorine gas
Chlorine Lime
Chloramines
* Aluminum sulphate
Which device used for samples of water for analyses?
Aspirator
Gas analyzer
* Bottle
Anemometer
Barograph
Which one from the following is chemical method of water disinfection:
* Treatment of water by the ions of silver
The use of ultraviolet radiation
Treatment of water by an ultrasound
Application of high-voltage impulsive currents
Boiling
Which one of the following is traditional method of water purification?
* Lightening
Ozonization
Decolorizing
D. Ionization
E. All are correct
583.
Which one of the following is basic method of disinfecting of water:
A. Toxicological
B. Biological
C. Biochemical
D. * Physical
E. Bacteriological
584.
Which one of the following is basic method of disinfecting of water:
A. Biological
B. Biochemical
C. General—sanitary
D. * Chemical
E. Bacteriological
585.
Which one of the following is decelerate the UV-disinfection of water, decreasing
the transparence of water.
A. Turbidity of water
B. Colour of water
C. Iron salts
D. None of above
E. * All are correct
586.
Which one of the following is disadvantages of a method of water ozonization?
A. Water is well disinfected
B. Organic admixtures become destroyed
C. Organoleptic features are improved
D. * Costs are higher than other treatment procedures
E. More effective against bacteria and viruses
587.
Which one of the following is method of softening of water:
A. Ozonization
B. Bacteriological method
C. * Physical method
D. Biological method
E. Biochemical method
588.
Which one of the following is a method of decolorizing of water?
A. Boiling
B. * Filtration
C. Aeration
D. Ionization
E. All are correct
589.
Which one of the following is methods of decolorizing of water:
A. Super Chlorination
B. * Settling
C. Aeration
D. Boiling
E. Softening
590.
Which one of the following is methods of decolorizing of water:
A. Super Chlorination
B. Desalinization
C. Aeration
D. * Filtration
E. Boiling
591.
Which one of the following is a method of desalinating of water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Decontamination
Deodorization
Storage
* Distillation
Coagulation
592.
Permanent hardness of water may be removed by the addition of
A. lime
B. *soda ash
C. potassium permagnate
D. sodium bicarbonate
E. All of above
593.
Which one of the following is methods of desalting of water?
A. Coagulation
B. Superfiltration
C. Storage
D. UV – radiation
E. * Freezing
594.
Both temporary and permanent hardness of water can be removed on boiling
water with
A. calcium hydroxide
B. *Sodium carbonate
C. calcium oxide
D. calcium carbonate
E. Aluminum Chloride
595.
Which one of the following is methods of improvement of quality of drinkingwater:
A. Ionization
B. Sublimation
C. * Disinfecting
D. Pasterisation
E. Sterilization
596.
Which one of the following is methods of improvement of quality of drinkingwater:
A. Ionization
B. Sublimation
C. * Deironation
D. Pasterisation
E. Sterilization
597.
Which one of the following is methods of improvement of quality of drinkingwater:
A. Sublimation
B. Ionization
C. Pasterisation
D. Sterilization
E. * Decontamination
598.
Which one of the following is methods of lightening of water?
A. Chlorinating
B. * Coagulation
C. Ozonization
D. Distillation
E. Uv-irradiation
599.
The ultimate source of water is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
600.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
601.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
602.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
603.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
604.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
605.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
606.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
607.
A.
B.
C.
D.
rivers and lakes
dew and forest
*rain and snow
underground and surface
None of above
Which one of the following is a method of lightening of water?
Deironation
Desalinating
* Filtration
Softening
Deodorization
Which one of the following is a method of lightening of water?
Fluoridation of water
* Settling
Deironation
Desalinating
Softenin
Which one of the following is a method of remove tastes and odors of water?
Settling
* Filtration through an activated carbon
Coagulation
Softening
Boiling
Which one of the following is a method of remove tastes and odors of water?
Settling
Coagulation
Softening
* Aeration
Boiling
Which one of the following is not advantage of water disinfection by ozone
* Water have chlorine smell
water is well disinfected
organic admixtures become destroyed
organoleptic features of water are improved
Water equated with spring water
Which one of the following is not chemical method of water disinfection?
* The use of ultraviolet radiation
The use to the chlorine and its preparations
Ozonization
Iodine-containing preparations
Chemical tablet methods
Which one of the following is not chemical method of water disinfection
* The use of ultraviolet radiation
The use to the chlorine and its preparations
Ozonization
Iodine-containing preparations
Chemical tablet methods
Which one of the following is not chemical method of water disinfection?
* Boiling
The use to the chlorine and its preparations
Ozonization
Iodine-containing preparations
E. Chemical tablet methods
608.
Permanent hardness of water is caused by the presence of temperature of storage
A. bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
B. carbonates of sodium and potassium
C. *chlorides and sulfates of calcium and magnesium
D. chlorides and sulfates of sodium and potassium
E. bicarbonates of sodium and potassium
609.
Which one of the following is not a method of decolorizing of water?
A. Settling
B. * Aeration
C. Coagulation
D. Filtration
E. Flocculation
610.
Which one of the following is not methods of improvement of quality of drinkingwater
A. * Sublimation
B. Desalting
C. Softening
D. Decontamination
E. Deodorization
611.
Which one of the following is not physical method of water disinfection?
A. The use of ultraviolet radiation
B. The use to the chlorine and its preparations
C. Ozonization
D. Iodine-containing preparations
E. * Chemical tablet methods
612.
Which one of the following is not a physical method of water disinfection?
A. Ultraviolet irradiation
B. Treatment by ultrasound
C. By boiling
D. By gamma-rays
E. * Ozonization
613.
Which one of the following is not the basic stage of disinfection of well:
A. Cleaning of territory round a well
B. Improvement of the technical state of well
C. * Fluorination of water
D. Disinfection of water
E. Quality control of disinfection after chlorination
614.
Which one of the following is not the basic stage of disinfection of well:
A. * Determination of distance from a well to the sources of contaminate
B. Cleaning of territory round a well
C. Improvement of the technical state of well
D. Disinfection of water
E. Quality control of disinfection after chlorination
615.
Which one of the following is not the necessary condition of the effective
disinfecting of water by the method of the ordinary chlorinating?
A. Correct choice of dose to the chlorine
B. Rapid mixing the chlorine with water
C. Sufficient time of contact a chlorine with water
D. Previous necessary to light and decolorize water
E. * Necessary of dechlorination of water
616.
Which one of the following is not traditional method of water purification?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Lightening
Decolorizing
Disinfecting
* Ionization
None of the about
617.
Which one of the following is used as coagulant for coagulation of water?
A. * Aluminum sulpfate
B. Bleaching Powder
C. Potassium Permanganate
D. Ethanol solution of iodine
E. Ozone
618.
Which one of the following is used as coagulant for coagulation of water?
A. Chloramines
B. * FeCl3
C. Chlorine gas
D. Ozone
E. CaOCI2
619.
Which one of the following methods used to accelerate the sedimentation of
suspended matters, filtration and lightening of water?
A. Chlorinating
B. Ozonization
C. * Coagulation
D. Deodorization
E. Fluoridation
620.
Which of the following substances are commonly used in a filter?
A. Charcoal
B. Sand
C. Aluminum chloride
D. * Charcoal and Sand
E. Ozone
621.
Which one of the following should be layer of water for disinfection by UVirradiation?
A. 10 cm
B. * 25 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 100 cm
E. 200 cm
622.
Which one of the next is not conditions of chlorination effectiveness:
A. Correct choose of chlorine dose
B. Keeping of contact time
C. * Previous removal of soluble salts
D. Previous water lightening
E. Mixing of chlorine with hole water volume
623.
When use the device "water bottle”?
A. For chemical analysis of water
B. * To collect samples for analysis
C. For bacteriological analysis of water
D. For sampling air for analysis
E. For radiological analysis of water
624.
When temporary hard water is boiled, one of the substances formed is
A. calcium bicarbonate
B. calcium sulfate
625.
626.
627.
628.
629.
630.
631.
632.
633.
C. hydrogen chloride
D. *carbon dioxide
E. ozone
All diseases can be transmitted through the water, except
A. Typhoid fever
B. Typhus fever
C. Tularemia
D. Hepatitis A
E. *Hepatitis B
Indirect indicators of biogenic pollution of water reservoirs
A. General mineralization of water
B. The content of ammonium, nitrite, nitrate salts
C. Concentration of fluorine
D. *Oxidizability of water
E. Iodine concentration
Differences between surface water and ground water
A. Higher mineralization
B. Higher content of oxygen
C. Higher microbe’s contamination
D. *Stable chemical composition
E. No stable chemical composition
Drinking water must posses all the following properties, except
A. Favorable organoplertic properties
B. * Contain no salts
C. Be harmless according to the chemical compound
D. Be safe in the epidemic attitude
E. Be safe according to radiation
All are the following is true except
A. Drinking water must have favorable organoplertic properties
B. * Drinking water must contain no salts
C. Drinking water must be harmless according to the chemical compound
D. Drinking water must be safe in the epidemic attitude
E. Drinking water must be safe according to radiation
All are the sources of anthropogenous pollution of superficial reservoirs except
A. Household sewage
B. Industrial waste water
C. Storm drains
D. *Geochemical structure of soil
E. Navigation
Preventive maintenance of diseases of water origin are the following, exept
A. Rational choice the source of water supply
B. Creation of sanitary protection zones
C. Control maintenance of water hygienic standards
D. Effective processing of water at waterworks
E. *Using of deep ground water as source of water
Peculiarities of salt structure of water are the risk factors for
A. Dysentery
B. Diabetes
C. * Urolithiasis
D. Anemia
E. Hepatitis A
Peculiarities of salt structure of water are the risk factors for
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
634.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
635.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
636.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
637.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
638.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
639.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
640.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
641.
A.
B.
C.
Dysentery
Diabetes
Anemia
*Hypertension
Hepatitis A
"Diseases of consumption" - the disease developing as a result of:
Artificial feeding of infants;
* Violation of nature and mode of nutrition, long-term human consumption of
refined carbohydrates
None of this
Insufficient flow in the body of dietary fiber;
Wide application in food and food additives.
A few instances of anemia have been recorded as resulting from the use of
* cow's milk
Human milk
Bananas
Bread
oranges
Additional sources of the vitamin D are:
Maize oil
* Eggs (yolk)
Pig’s fat
Plants oils
Liver of the animals
All are vegetable origin except
Vitamin A
Vitamin B1
Vitamin C
* Vitamin B12
None of these
Antibiotics affect on vitamin metabolism, as
Destroy the water soluble vitamins;
Destroyed fat soluble vitamins;
Destroy enzymes which are part of the vitamins;
Decreased the activity of vitamins in metabolism;
* Damage intestinal microflora.
Antibiotics affect on vitamin metabolism, as
Destroy the water soluble vitamins;
Destroyed fat soluble vitamins;
Destroy enzymes which are part of the vitamins;
Decreased the activity of vitamins in metabolism;
* Damage intestinal microflora.
Basic clinical symptoms of avitaminosis vit. A is
Sores on lips
mental instability
hemorrhage
* Night blindness
deformed bones
Biological properties of retinol
Normalizes protein metabolism;
Necessary for protein synthesis;
Plays important role in carbohydrate metabolism;
D. * Required for the formation of visual purple;
E. Involved in the oxidation - reduction processes.
642.
Biological properties tokoferols
A. Necessary for the synthesis of visual purple;
B. Part of the structure of vitamin F;
C. * Participate in processes related to reproduction;
D. Required to maintain a normal state of epithelium;
E. Play an important role in improving the night vision.
643.
Biological properties tokoferols
A. Necessary for the synthesis of visual purple;
B. Part of the structure of vitamin F;
C. * Participate in processes related to reproduction;
D. Required to maintain a normal state of epithelium;
E. Play an important role in improving the night vision.
644.
Bone growth creates a need for
A. Calcium
B. Phosphorus
C. Fluoride
D. Vitamin D
E. * All are corect
645.
Bones contain of water about
A. 5 %;
B. 10 %
C. * 20 %
D. 30 %
E. 40 %
646.
Carbohydrates are needed by the body
A. For growth and development
B. For repair of body tissues and their maintenance
C. For synthesis of antibodies, enzymes and hormones
D. * For furnish energy to the body
E. For maintaining body temperature
647.
Carotene is not found in high amounts in –
A. Red carrot
B. Apricot;
C. * Potato;
D. Spinach;
E. Margarine.
648.
Chemical name of vitamin C is
A. Nicotinic Acid
B. Folk Acid
C. Para-Amino-Benzoic Acid
D. Pantothenic Acid
E. * Ascorbic Acid
649.
Choose the correct statement describing the essence of the theory of adequate
nutrition
A. * Complementary classical theory in understanding the mechanisms digestion of
food, considering food as a source of nutrients for system-macroorganism
microbiocenosis "
B. Specifies standards food
C. Objector classical theory into question the value of basic nutrients for organza.
D. Enhances the calculation of the ideal balance of nutrients for organizational
E. Reduces the defenses of body to toxic substances.
650.
Choose the correct statement describing the essence of the theory of adequate
nutrition
A. * Complementary classical theory in understanding the mechanisms digestion of
food, considering food as a source of nutrients for system-macroorganism
microbiocenosis "
B. Specifies standards food
C. Objector classical theory into question the value of basic nutrients for organza.
D. Enhances the calculation of the ideal balance of nutrients for organizational
E. Reduces the defenses of body to toxic substances.
651.
Content which nutrients is it necessary to reduce in the diets of the elderly?
A. * Protein, glucose, fat
B. Vitamin D
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
E. Vitamin C
652.
Content which nutrients is it necessary to reduce in the diets of the elderly?
A. * Protein, glucose, fat
B. Vitamin D
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
E. Vitamin C
653.
Daily requirement of protein for adults is –
A. * 1 g/kg
B. 2 g/kg
C. 3 g/kg
D. 4 g/kg
E. 5 g/kg
654.
Daily requirement of vitamin A is
A. 400 IU
B. 300 IU
C. * 2000 IU
D. 1000 IU
E. 4000 IU
655.
Daily requirement of vitamin C is –
A. 20 mg
B. * 100 mg
C. 200 mg
D. 500 mg
E. 1000 mg
656.
Energy-yielding foods are foods rich in
A. Protein
B. * Carbohydrate and fat
C. Crotein and carbohydrate
D. Vitamin and protein
E. V
657.
For every 100 kilocalories vitamin B1 required is –
A. * 0,05 mg
B. 0,5 mg;
C. 5,0 mg
D. V
E. 1,0 gm.
658.
From the factors is not dependent the daily requirement of protein?
A. The intensity of labor.
B. Sex.
C. Age.
D. * Weather.
E. Physiological condition.
659.
From the factors is not dependent the daily requirement of protein?
A. The intensity of labor.
B. Sex.
C. Age.
D. * Weather.
E. Physiological condition.
660.
Highest vitamin A content is seen inA. Lemon
B. Green leafy vegetables
C. Tomato
D. Bananas
E. * Fish oils
661.
How many "essential” amino acids are
A. 4
B. 6
C. 9
D. * 8
E. 12
662.
How many % should take carbohydrates at the daily ratio?
A. 50
B. 54
C. * 64
D. 74
E. 60.
663.
How many % should take fats at the daily ratio?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. * 30
E. 33
664.
How many % should take proteins at the daily ratio?
A. 10
B. 15
C. * 11
D. 13
E. 12.
665.
How many g of the carbohydrates should eat every day men of the 1-4 physical
activity groups (per 1 kg of the weight)?
A. 4,5-5,5
B. 5,5-6,0
C. 6,0-8,3
D. 6,5- 9,3
E. * 5,1- 8,4.
666.
How many g of the protein should eat every day men of the 1-4 physical activity
groups (per 1 kg of the weight)?
A. 1,0-1,5
B.
C.
D.
E.
1,2-1,5
1,5 -2,0
2,0-2,5
* 0,9-1,5.
667.
How many g of the protein should eat every day women of the 1-4 physical
activity groups (per 1 kg of the weight)?
A. 1,0 - 1,2
B. 1,0 - 1,5
C. 1,5 - 2,0
D. 2,2 - 2,35
E. * 0,9 - 1,35.
668.
How many groups of the physical activity of adults do you know (according to
sex, for ratio counting’s)?
A. * 4
B. 6
C. 7
D. 5
E. 3
669.
How many kcal takes usually daily basic exchange of the adult?
A. 500-700
B. 800-1000
C. * 1000-1200
D. 1500-1800
E. 1800-2000
670.
How much I does the adult need(mcg)?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. * 200
E. 250.
671.
Hygienic requirements for use of food additives on the territory of Ukraine are
determined by
A. * Corresponding sanitary regulations approved by the Ministry of Health of
Ukraine
B. Resolution of the Cabinet of Ministers of Ukraine
C. Committee of the Joint FAO / WHO food additives
D. Regional Sanitary
E. Order of the Pope of Ukraine № 222
672.
Hygienic requirements for use of food additives on the territory of Ukraine are
determined by
A. * Corresponding sanitary regulations approved by the Ministry of Health of
Ukraine
B. Resolution of the Cabinet of Ministers of Ukraine
C. Committee of the Joint FAO / WHO food additives
D. Regional Sanitary
E. Order of the Pope of Ukraine № 222
673.
Iron absorption from intestine is regulated by
A. Acid secretion in stomach
B. Reducing substances in food
C. * Mucosal block in the intestinal cells in according to iron requirement
D. Alkaline medium in small intestine
E. Secretion in oral cavity
674.
What illness is characterized by next symptoms: edema, mental changes, anemia
and hair changes?
A. Cretinism
B. * Nutritional marasmus
C. Kwashiorkor;
D. Pellagra;
E. Fe-deficient anemia.
675.
Lack of vitamin C results in
A. Osteomalacia
B. Pellagra
C. Beri-beri
D. Rickets
E. * Scurvy
676.
Lack of which vitamin influences the exchange of Ca and P ?
A. А
B. С
C. Е
D. * D
E. Р
677.
Large doses of vitamin C develop
A. * Nausea and diarrhea
B. Headache
C. Irritability and anorexia
D. Calcifications of ligaments of spine
E. Haemorrhages in skin
678.
Main sources of vit. C is
A. Yeast
B. * Fresh fruits
C. Meat
D. Fish
E. Eggs
679.
Main sources of vit. C is
A. Yeast;
B. * Citrus fruits
C. Meat
D. Fish
E. Eggs
680.
Major sources of thiamine are
A. Fruits and vegetables;
B. Milk and dairy products;
C. Brewer's yeast;
D. * Products of cereals and pulses;
E. Eggs.
681.
Major sources of thiamine are
A. Fruits and vegetables;
B. Milk and dairy products;
C. Brewer's yeast;
D. * Products of cereals and pulses;
E. Eggs.
682.
Malnutrition in tropical country is mainly attributed to
A. Protein deficiency;
B. Vitamin A deficiency
683.
684.
685.
686.
687.
688.
689.
690.
691.
C. Iron deficiency
D. * All of these
E. None of this
Mineral salts are needed by the body
A. For maintaining our body temperature
B. For provide support for many organs
C. For carriers of fat-soluble vitamins
D. For growth and development
E. * For stimulate digestive secretions
Name vitamins, which synthesis by intestinal bacteria?
A. Vit. A
B. Vit. D
C. Vit. C
D. * Vit. K
E. Vit. E
Niacin is synthesized from
A. * Tryptophan
B. Methionine
C. Tyrosine
D. Phenylalanine
E. Lysine.
Normal consistence of the vitamin C in the blood is (mg%)?
A. * 0,7 - 1,2;
B. 0,07 - 0,12;
C. 50;
D. 70 - 50;
E. 7 - 12.
On exposure to sunlight which vitamin is lost?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin B6
D. * Vitamin C
E. Vitamin D
One of the following is main natural sources of carotene
A. Green leafy vegetables
B. Milk
C. * Carrots
D. Oil
E. Citrus
One of the following is not effect of deficiency phosphorus
A. * Cramps
B. Softening of bones
C. Caries of teeth
D. Stunted growth
E. Depression of vital processes
Oral vitamin A prophylaxis is given to children every
A. 1 months
B. 2 months
C. * 6 months
D. 9 months
E. 12 months
Originally vitamin C was described as
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Anti-Dermatitis Vitamin
* Anti-scorbutic vitamin
Anti-neurotic Vitamin
Anti-Sterility Vitamin
Anti-Rachatic Vitamin
692.
Poorest source of vitamin C among following is
A. Orange;
B. * Apple
C. Cabbage
D. Guava
E. Indian gooseberry
693.
Proteins are needed by the body
A. For maintaining our body temperature.
B. For provide support for many organs
C. For carriers of fat-soluble vitamins
D. * For growth and development
E. For stimulate digestive secretions
694.
Select materials that have antioxidant activity
A. * Vitamin E, vitamin C, methionine
B. Saturated fatty acids
C. Polyunsaturated fatty acids
D. Cholesterol
E. Vitamin A
695.
Select materials that have antioxidant activity
A. * Vitamin E, vitamin C, methionine
B. Saturated fatty acids
C. Polyunsaturated fatty acids
D. Cholesterol
E. Vitamin A
696.
Size basal metabolism does not depend on:
A. Height
B. Body mass
C. * Intensity of labor
D. Sex
E. Age
697.
Size basal metabolism does not depend on:
A. Height
B. Body mass
C. * Intensity of labor
D. Sex
E. Age
698.
The average daily requirement of Vitamin C is
A. 30-40 mg
B. * 50-100 mg
C. 120-150 mg
D. 150-200 mg
E. 200-250 mg.
699.
The biological value of fat the better, the more it polyunsaturated fatty acids it has
in it. What are they?
A. Stearic, Oleic
B. * Linolenic, arahydynova
C. Palmitic, linolenic
D. Arahidynova, stearic
E. Palmitic, arahydynova.
700.
The biological value of fat the better, the more it polyunsaturated fatty acids it has
in it. What are they?
A. Stearic, Oleic
B. * Linolenic, arahydynova
C. Palmitic, linolenic
D. Arahidynova, stearic
E. Palmitic, arahydynova.
701.
The body's need for vitamins A is believed to increase during growth because it
A. Needed for energy metabolism
B. Needed for muscle growth
C. Needed for blood formation
D. * Needed for bone formation
E. In the synthesis of collagen
702.
The disease goiter occurs predominantly among peoples because of their use of
A. Diet with lack of calcium
B. Some fish
C. Refined or polished rice
D. Diet containing very little fresh fruit or vege¬tables
E. * Diet with lack of the mineral nutrient iodide
703.
The highest quantities of vitamin C is found in
A. Orange
B. Lemon
C. * Indian gooseberry
D. Grapes
E. Carrot
704.
The increase in energy needs with age reflects in¬creases in
A. the energy needed by basal metabolism
B. the energy needed by in¬creased activity
C. the energy needed by increased growth of muscle and adipose tissue.
D. the energy needed by basal metabolism and in¬creased activity
E. * the energy needed by basal metabolism, in¬creased activity, and increased
growth of muscle and adipose tissue
705.
The increase in muscle mass during growth ensured by daily consumption of
A. * 1,5 to 1 g of protein per kilogram of body weight
B. 1,5 to 1 g of fat per kilogram of body weight.
C. 1,5 to 1 g of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight
D. 1,5 to 1 g of minerals per kilogram of body weight
E. 1,5 to 1 g of vitamines per kilogram of body weight
706.
The increase in muscle mass during growth ensured by daily consumption of
A. Fat.
B. * Protein
C. Carbohydrates
D. Vitamine C
E. Iron
707.
The increase in the vascular system during growth demands adequate supplies of
A. Iron,
B. Protein
C. Folate
D. Pyridoxine
E. * All are corect
708.
The most common nutrition-related problems during childhood
A. Growth retardation
B. Anemia
C. Obesity
D. Dental caries
E. * All are corect
709.
The ratio of height (in meters) to the cube root of the weight (in kilograms) is
A. Formula Broca
B. Formula Krebsa
C. Formula Pettenkofera
D. * Formula Ketle
E. Formula Assmana
710.
The relative stability during storage and cooking:what substance has relative
stability during storage and processing food has vitamin:
A. Riboflavin;
B. Pyridoxine;
C. Ascorbic acid;
D. Nicotinic acid;
E. * Retinol.
711.
The relative stability during storage and cooking:what substance has relative
stability during storage and processing food has vitamin:
A. Riboflavin;
B. Pyridoxine;
C. Ascorbic acid;
D. Nicotinic acid;
E. * Retinol.
712.
Thickness of skin folds (those of triceps and subcapsular regions) measured with
A. Height meter
B. * Skin callipers
C. Anemometer
D. Thermometer
E. Katathermometer
713.
Thickness of skin folds (those of triceps and subcapsular regions) measured with
A. Height meter
B. * Skin callipers
C. Anemometer
D. Thermometer
E. Katathermometer
714.
Various measurements and indices with regard to determina¬tion of nutritional
status are as follows except
A. Thickness of skin fold
B. * Palpation
C. Arm circumference
D. Head and chest circumference
E. Body mass index
715.
Vitamin C deficiency leads to
A. Osteomalacia;
B. Pellagra.
C. * Scurvy.
D. Beri-beri.
E. Rickets;
716.
Vitamin C helps increase absorption from plant foods next mineral salt
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
717.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
718.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
719.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
720.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
721.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
722.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
723.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
724.
A.
B.
C.
D.
* Iron
Zinc
Iodine
Phosphorus
Copper
Vitamin C is determined in fruits and vegetables by what method
Weight;
Colorimetric;
* Iodometric;
Rapid method;
statistical.
Vitamin C is determined in fruits and vegetables by what method
Weight;
Colorimetric;
* Iodometric;
Rapid method;
statistical.
Vitamin C is essential for
Transforms calcium and phosphorus into bones
Maintains osmotic pressure in blood and other tissue fluids
Formation of hydrochloric acid in the body
* Maintaining capillary in¬tegrity
Normal coagulation of the blood
Vitamin C is not destroyed
On prolonged heating
In preservation of fruits
Sun light
* Presence of acidic salts
Presence of alkaline salts
Vitamin C is remarkably stable
On prolonged heating
In preservation of fruits
Ultra violet light
* Presence of acidic salts
Presence of alkaline salts
Vitamin C required in much greater amount during
The periods of pregnancy
The periods of lactation
The periods of childhood
The periods of nervous and physical overload
* All are correct
Vitamin D normalizes:
Protein metabolism.
Hydrocarbon metabolism.
* Mineral metabolism.
Fat metabolism.
A and C.
Vitamin D normalizes:
Protein metabolism.
Hydrocarbon metabolism.
* Mineral metabolism.
Fat metabolism.
E. A and C.
725.
Vitamin E - is
A. Riboflavin;
B. * Tocopherol;
C. Nicotinic acid;
D. Retinol;
E. Carotene.
726.
Vitamin E - is
A. Riboflavin;
B. * Tocopherol;
C. Nicotinic acid;
D. Retinol;
E. Carotene.
727.
Vitamins are classified according to
A. Solubility in fats and alcohol;
B. * Solubility in water and fats;
C. Solubility in water and alcohol;
D. Solubility in alcohol and body fluids;
E. Ability (inability), synthesized in the body.
728.
Vitamins are classified according to
A. Solubility in fats and alcohol;
B. * Solubility in water and fats;
C. Solubility in water and alcohol;
D. Solubility in alcohol and body fluids;
E. Ability (inability), synthesized in the body.
729.
Vitamins synthesized
A. * Mainly in vegetable products;
B. Mainly in animal products;
C. In foods of animal and plant origin alike;
D. Mainly in the human body (water soluble);
E. Mainly in the human body (fat soluble).
730.
Vitamins synthesized
A. * Mainly in vegetable products;
B. Mainly in animal products;
C. In foods of animal and plant origin alike;
D. Mainly in the human body (water soluble);
E. Mainly in the human body (fat soluble).
731.
What % of extra weight corresponds with the I degree of obesity?
A. 3-5
B. 5-7
C. 7-10
D. * 10-15
E. 15-30
732.
What % of extra weight corresponds with the III degree of obesity?
A. 7-10
B. 10-15
C. 15-30
D. 30-50
E. * 50-99
733.
What amount should make monosaccharide at the daily carbohydrates part of the
ratio (%) ?
A. 20 - 25
B.
C.
D.
E.
* 30 - 40
15 - 20
40 - 50
10 -15
734.
What diseases results to the formation of Harrison's sulcus and pigeon breast?
A. Kwashiorkor
B. Pellagra
C. * Rickets
D. Xerophthalmia
E. Scurvy
735.
What from next clinical symptoms NOT characteristic for xerophthalmia
A. Follicular hyperkeratosis
B. For provide support for many organs
C. For carriers of fat-soluble vitamins
D. * For growth and development
E. For stimulate digestive secretions
736.
What from next clinical symptoms NOT characteristic for xerophthalmia
A. Follicular hyperkeratosis;
B. * Night blindness
C. Anemia
D. Conjunctival xerosis
E. All correct
737.
What illness is characterized by next symptoms: growth failure, wasting of
muscles, anemia, and good appetite?
A. Cretinism
B. * Nutritional marasmus
C. Kwashiorkor
D. Pellagra
E. Fe-deficient anemia
738.
What illness is characterized by next symptoms: tiredness, weakness, and dyspnea
on exertion, tachycardia, palpitations, and edema.
A. * Iron deficiency
B. Calcium deficiency
C. Kwashiorkor
D. Pellagra
E. Xerophthalmia
739.
What is components of daily losses energy by organism?
A. Basic metabolism
B. Energetic expresses for mental work and basic metabolism
C. * Basic metabolism, energetic expresses for work, specific – dynamic action of
nutrition
D. Energetic expresses for physical and mental work
E. Specific – dynamic action of nutrition, basic metabolism
740.
What is daily norm of Fe consumption for man (mg)?
A. * 15
B. 10
C. 18
D. 20
E. 17.
741.
What is daily optimal dose of the vitamin A for adults (mg, mcg)?
A. * 1,0 mg (1000mcg)
B. 1,5 mg (1500 mcg)
742.
743.
744.
745.
746.
747.
748.
749.
750.
C. 2,0 mg (2000mcg)
D. 2,5 mg (2500mcg)
E. 3,0 mg (3000mcg).
What is daily optimal dose of the vitamin C for adults (mg)?
A. 80 - 90
B. 50 - 70
C. 50 - 60
D. * 70 - 80
E. 100 -120.
What is daily optimal dose of the vitamin C for adults?
A. 50 (f) - 70 (m) mg;
B. 10 (f) - 30 (m) mg;
C. 70 (f і m) mg;
D. 80 (f і m) mg;
E. * 70 (f) - 80 (m) mg.
What is name by author of Body mass index (BMI)?
A. Formula Broca
B. Formula Krebsa
C. Formula Pettenkofera
D. * Formula Ketle
E. Formula Assmana
What is the daily dose of the vitamin B1 for adults (mg)?
A. 1,0 - 1,5
B. 1,0 - 2,6
C. * 1,3 - 1,6
D. 1,5 - 3,6
E. 2,0 - 2,6.
What is the daily dose of the vitamin B1 for adults (mg)?
A. 2,0 (f) - 2,5 (m);
B. * 1,3 (f) - 1,6 (m);
C. 17 (f) - 25 (m);
D. 15 (f) - 20 (m);
E. 1,0 (f) - 1,5 (m).
What is the daily dose of the vitamin B2 for adults (mg) ?
A. 1,5(f) - 2,6 (m);
B. * 1,6 (f) - 2,0 (m);
C. 17 (f) - 25 (m);
D. 1,0 (f) - 2,0 (m);
E. 12 (f) - 15 (m).
What is the daily dose of the vitamin C for adults (mg)?
A. 17;
B. 25;
C. 20;
D. * 15;
E. 10.
What is the daily dose of the vitamin D for adults (mcg)?
A. 5,0;
B. 10,0;
C. * 2,5;
D. 4,0;
E. 1-3 spoons of the fish fat
What is the daily dose of the vitamin PP for adults?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
751.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
752.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
753.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
754.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
755.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
756.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
757.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
758.
70 (f) - 100 (m);
1,5 (f) - 2,6 (m);
2,0 (f) - 3,0 (m);
* 16 (f) - 22 (m);
10 (f) - 20 (m).
What is the daily need of the Fe?
5- 10 mg(depends on the physical activity group)
* 15- 17 mg (depends on sex)
10- 20 mg (depends on age)
10 - 15 mg (depends on body weight)
15 - 20 mg (depends on climate)
What is the definition of "rational nutrition".
Food that has good organoleptic properties.
Meals, which provides optimal conditions for the implementation of information
and energy needs of the human body.
Diet that meets the biological rhythms of body organs and systems.
Diet that meets enzymatic capabilities of the digestive system.
* Nutrition, which generates the body enough energy, nutrients and biologically
active substances.
What is the definition of "rational nutrition".
Food that has good organoleptic properties.
Meals, which provides optimal conditions for the implementation of information
and energy needs of the human body.
Diet that meets the biological rhythms of body organs and systems.
Diet that meets enzymatic capabilities of the digestive system.
* Nutrition, which generates the body enough energy, nutrients and biologically
active substances.
What is the need of energy for people leaving in the northern regions?
1;
5;
15 - 20;
* 10 - 15;
5 - 10.
What is the optimal consistence of Ca and P at the daily ratio?
1\:1(m) - 1\: 1,1(f)
1\:1(m) - 1\:1,1(f)
1\:2 (m і f)
* 1\:1,5 (m і f)
1\: 0,5(m) - 1\:1(f)
What is the proportion of proteins/ fats/carbohydrates at the daily ratio of adults?
* 1\:1\:4
1\:1,2\: 4,6
1\:0,8\: 5
1\:1\: 5,8
1\:1,6\:4,2.
What is the quote of animal proteins at the daily ratio (%)?
40
45
30
* 55
35.
What is the quote of plants oils at the daily ratio (%)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
15
* 30
25
20
35.
759.
What is the quote of the breakfast (3 times ratio) (%)?
A. 20
B. 15
C. 35
D. * 30
E. 10.
760.
What is the quote of the dinner (3 times ratio) (%)?
A. 30 - 35
B. 35 - 40
C. 40 - 45
D. * 45 - 50
E. 50 - 55.
761.
What is the quote of the supper (3 times ratio) (%)?
A. 5,0 - 10,0
B. 10 - 15
C. 15 - 20
D. * 20 - 25
E. 25 - 30.
762.
What is the recommended weight of the daily ratio (kg)?
A. 1,5 - 2,0
B. 1,5 - 2,5
C. 3,0 - 3,5
D. 3,5 - 4,0
E. * 2,5 - 3,0.
763.
What is the typical symptoms of pellagra?
A. Angular stomatitis.
B. * Glositis.
C. Xerosis skin.
D. Xerosis conjunctiva
E. Bright red tongue.
764.
What is the typical symptoms of pellagra?
A. Angular stomatitis.
B. * Glositis.
C. Xerosis skin.
D. Xerosis conjunctiva
E. Bright red tongue.
765.
What nutrient is NOT necessary for the development of the teeth and their
surrounding structures?
A. Fluoride
B. * Vit B1
C. Vit. A
D. Vit C
E. Phosphorus
766.
What nutrients are necessary for the development of the teeth and their
surrounding structures?
A. * Fluoride, Phosphorus, Vit. A
B. Vit B1, VitB 6
C. Iron, iodine
D. Vit K, vit E
E. Vit PP
767.
What part of the daily ratio fats make?
A. 10-15 %;
B. * 25-30 %;
C. 31-35 %;
D. 36-40 %.
E. 41-45 %
768.
What part of the daily ratio proteins make?
A. 7-10 %;
B. * 11-13 %;
C. 10-11 %;
D. 13-16 %;
E. 17-20 %.
769.
What reagent is used for determination of maintenances of vitamin S in products?
A. Reactive Grissa
B. * Reactive Tilmansa
C. Reactive Nesslera
D. Reactive Folinga
E. Reactive trilon B
770.
What substance has relative stability during storage and processing food has
vitamin
A. * Thiamine;
B. Riboflavin;
C. Nicotinic acid;
D. Ascorbic acid;
E. Pyridoxine.
771.
What substance has relative stability during storage and processing food has
vitamin
A. * Thiamine;
B. Riboflavin;
C. Nicotinic acid;
D. Ascorbic acid;
E. Pyridoxine.
772.
Which disease is the clinical manifestation of vitamin A deficiency?
A. Kwashiorkor
B. Pellagra
C. Fe-deficient anemia
D. * Xerophthalmia
E. Scurvy
773.
Which disease is the clinical manifestation of vitamin A deficiency?
A. Kwashiorkor
B. Pellagra
C. Fe-deficient anemia
D. * Xerophthalmia
E. Scurvy.
774.
Which of the following are necessary for the calcification of teeth
A. Vitamin A and iron
B. Vitamin C and A
C. * Calcium, phosphorus, vitamin D
D. Iron
E. Sodium
775.
Which of the symptoms characteristic of C-vitamin deficiencies?
A. Atrophy tongue papillae.
B. Angular stomatitis.
C. Isolated thick layers bat.
D. * Weak gums that bleed.
E. Cheilosis.
776.
Which of the symptoms characteristic of C-vitamin deficiencies?
A. Atrophy tongue papillae.
B. Angular stomatitis.
C. Isolated thick layers bat.
D. * Weak gums that bleed.
E. Cheilosis.
777.
Which one of the following factors not play a role in determining nutritional needs
in the later years
A. Social factors
B. Environmental factors
C. Psychological factors
D. Physiological factors
E. * Biological factors
778.
Which one of the following foods is not sources of vitamin C
A. Fresh fruits
B. Liver
C. Kidneys
D. * Yeast
E. Green leafy vegetables
779.
Which one of the following greatly decreases the susceptibility of teeth to decay.
A. Iodine
B. * Fluoride
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
E. Iron
780.
Which one of the following is not sign of Vitamin C deficiency
A. Fatigue
B. Weakness
C. Spongy gums
D. Loss of appetite
E. * Dermatitis
781.
Which one of the following is not sign of Vitamin C deficiency?
A. Swelling of gums
B. * Xerophthalmia
C. Bad teeth
D. Spongy gums
E. Loss of weight
782.
Which one of the following is not sing of Vitamin C deficiency?
A. * Angular stomatitis
B. Spongy gums
C. Loss of weight
D. Delayed healing of wounds
E. Haemorrhages
783.
Which one of the following is required to form the dentin layer
A. Vitamin A
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Vitamin C
Calcium
Phosphorus
Vitamin D
784.
Which one of the following mineral salts helps in the formation of haemoglobin of
blood along with iron
A. Calcium
B. Phosphorus
C. Iodine
D. Chlorine
E. * Copper
785.
Which one of the following statements about clinical features of vitamin A
deficiency is not true
A. Night blindness occurs due to impaired dark adaptation
B. Bitot’s spot affects bulbar conjunctiva
C. Vit A deficiency cause follicular hyperkeratosis of the skin,
D. Xerophthalmia usually begins with a drying of the conjunctiva;
E. * Bitot’s spot affects palpebral conjunctiva
786.
Which vitamin enhances iron absorption
A. Vitamin A
B. * Vitamin C
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin B1
E. Vitamin D
787.
Which vitamine have been shown to provide some protection against cataract
formation
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin E
C. Carotene
D. * All are corect
E. None of above
788.
WHO recommends a decrease in energy intake of 5 % and then 10 % per decade
between the ages
A. of 20 and 29
B. of 29 and 39
C. of 39 and 59
D. * of 60 and 69
E. for peple older than 70
789.
WHO recommends a decrease in energy intake of 5% per decade between the
ages
A. of 20 and 29
B. of 29 and 39
C. * of 39 and 59
D. of 60 and 69
E. for people older than 70
790.
Why a few instances of anemia have been recorded as resulting from the use of
cow's milk
A. Milk is low in calcium
B. Milk is low in vit A
C. * Milk is low in iron
D. Milk is low in proteins
E. Milk is low in magnesium
791.
Good meat is
A. Soft
B. Moist,
C. Pale;
D. * Reaction should be alkaline
E. Reaction should be acidic.
792.
In what units determination of milk acidity
A. Degree
B. Percent;
C. * Terner’s degree
D. mg/cm3;
E. ml.
793.
A woman aged 42 years, with growth of 168 cm and weight 74 kg., eat a meal 4
times a day, working in production for the manufacture of sulphate of lead. What is a
treatment and die tic ration of worker should receive a diet (table) for the prevention of
prophylaxis.
A. * Healing diet number 3
B. Healing diet number 2
C. Healing diet number 1
D. Medical and dietary intake number 1
E. Medical and dietary intake number 9
794.
All are cause toxic infections except
A. Esherichia coli
B. Bac. Cereus
C. * Clostridium botulinum
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. Proteus
795.
All are clinical signs of botulism except
A. Headache,
B. Double vision,
C. Muscle weakness
D. * Toxic hepatitis
E. Difficulty in swallowing
796.
All are mycotoxicosis except
A. Aflotoxicosis
B. Alimentaric toxic
C. Aleukia
D. * Staphylococcal intoxication
E. E. ergotism
797.
All is food poisoning except
A. Botulism
B. Fysarios
C. Aflatoxicosis
D. * Brucellosis
E. Aleukia
798.
All this food may cause botulism except
A. All this food may cause botulism except
B. All this food may cause botulism except
C. All this food may cause botulism except
D. * Dairy products
E. Smoked fish.
799.
An tinned bread wheat: organoleptic without features; -3 0 acidity, porosity - 65%
rating Hygienic evaluation
A. * Bread all indicators meet hygienic requirements;
B. Bread, a higher porosity;
C. Bread has a reduced porosity;
D. Bread has a lower acidity;
E. Bread has a reduced acidity and increased porosity.
800.
As a result, veterinary examination of animals on the dairy farm, 20 cows were
found to test positive of tuberculosis. Estimate on the possibility of using milk from such
animals for food.
A. * Use for food after pasteurization at a temperature of 85 ° C for 30 minutes
B. Use for food without pretreatment without restrictions
C. Use for feeding calves
D. Spec utilization
E. Destruction
801.
At the help of what reagent it is possible to determine the presence of soda in
milk?
A. Solution of Lyogolya
B. * Solution rozole acids
C. Solution sulphuric acid.
D. Solution of KI.
E. Solution phenolphtalein.
802.
At the help of what reagent it is possible to determine the presence of starch in the
meat?
A. * Solution of Lyogolya
B. Solution of rozole acids.
C. Solution of sulphuric acid.
D. Solution of NaOH.
E. Solution of phenolphtalein.
803.
Average content of water in meat is
A. 3 - 5 %;
B. 5 – 10 %;
C. 16 - 20 %;
D. * 50 - 70 %
E. 80 - 90 %.
804.
Average specific gravity of cow's milk is
A. * 1.032
B. 1.750;
C. 2.005
D. 0.505;
E. 1.102.
805.
Bone growth creates a need for
A. Calcium,
B. Phosphorus,
C. Fluoride,
D. Fluoride,
E. * All are correct
806.
Carbohydrates are needed by the body
A. For growth and development
B. For repair of body tissues and their maintenance
C. For synthesis of antibodies, enzymes and hormones
D. * For furnish energy to the body
E. For maintaining body temperature
807.
Cheese is sources of
A. Chlorides;
B. * Calcium
C. Potassium;
D. Sodium;
E. Iron.
808.
Chief constituent of rice is
A. Fats;
B. Mineral matter;
C. Cellulose;
D. * Starch.
E. Proteins,
809.
Cow's milk is rich in next protein
A. Lact albumen;
B. * Casein
C. Lacto-globulin
D. Myosin
E. All are present
810.
Dairy milk samples were selected on the content of organic chlorine pesticide.
Size of lot 1000 liters. In toxicological laboratory SES was found that organic chlorine
pesticide content exceeds hygienic norm 4 times. Give opinion on the quality of milk
A. * Poor
B. Falsified
C. Benign
D. Semi-fit
E. Biologically valuable product
811.
Define the fungus that has become the most likely cause of a lethal outcome.
A. * Pale toadstool
B. Not correct
C. Amanita
D. Tin mushrooms
E. Wrinkles
812.
Disease in children's institution suddenly started 2-3 hours after eating cheese
made with solution of cheese at the home. All the victims were abundant repeated
vomiting, abdominal pain, liquid excrement, pale skin, some small (up to 37,3 ° C) fever.
Clinical signs were within days. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Staphylococcal toxicosis
B. Acute intestinal infection
C. Food poisoning
D. Mycotoxicosis
E. Poisoning by heavy metal salts
813.
During the inspection of sanitary conditions catering doctor forbade SES
implementation dishes, arguing that the high probability of occurrence of food poisoning.
Which of the following to sell prohibited food in organized groups?
A. * Aspic and Jellied dishes
B. Meat and fish
C. Smoked Sausage
D. Vinaigrette
E. Soups and meat broth
814.
Exclusive use of which to the cereal may cause pellagra
A. Barley.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Oats.
Wheats.
Millet.
* Maize
815.
For the preservation of milk is nor use one of the next method
A. Canning;
B. Chemicals;
C. Boiling;
D. Drying;
E. * Salting.
816.
For workers engaged in the manufacture of lead batteries, designed preventative
nutrition, diet number 3. What adds further to this diet than the list of products included
in the diet of number 3?
A. Dairy products and pectin
B. Milk
C. Treatment ration number 4
D. Treatment ration number 5
E. * Treatment ration number 3
817.
Fysarios - is a food poisoning of fungous nature, appealing as a result of
consuming:
A. * Grains,
B. Peanuts
C. Cherry
D. Potato
E. Tomato
818.
Go to the admissions department of hospital enrolled child 5 years of symptoms:
severe sweating, salivation, profuse diarrhea, brain effects, dizziness, confusion,
irritability, delusions, hallucinations, drunken gait
A. * Amanita
B. Not correct
C. False mushroom
D. Belladonna
E. Pale toadstool
819.
Heating of milk to such temperatures and for such periods of time, as are required
to destroy any pathogenic organisms that may be present, while causing minimal changes
in the composition, flavor and nutritive value of milk may be defined as
A. Boiling
B. * Pasteurization
C. Sterilization
D. Drying
E. Desiccation
820.
How do you transfer the share value of milk in degrees of a lactodensimeter?
A. Lactodensimeter impressions multiplied by a factor of 0.0002;
B. Take impressions lactodensimeter at 20 ° C;
C. * Fraction of density multiplied by 1000;
D. Multiply the value is in the thermometer shows lactodensimeter;
E. Nothing, because the density of milk - is the term adequate notion of "degrees
lactodensimeter.
821.
How does a person get infected with trichinosis?
A. * When using insufficiently thermally processed pig meat (pork fat) containing
encapsulated larvae tryhinel;
B. By drinking enough cook (fried), pork or beef affected by Finns - tryhinel larval
stage;
C. By drinking enough thermally processed pork contaminated Finns (eggs)
tryhinely;
D. By drinking enough thermally processed beef, which contains encapsulated larva
(larvae) tryhinely (Finns);
E. At the use of raw beef or pork mince (raw food diet) tryhinel eggs.
822.
How much milk or dairy drinks is recommended to use for an adult to meet daily
needs in easily digestible (milk) calcium?
A. * 500
B. 100
C. 1000
D. 250
E. 750
823.
How name kinds of the pasteurization, when is provided warming of food-stuff at
temperature 63-65 ?С during 30 minutes?
A. * Low (prolonged)
B. High (short-term)
C. Instant
D. Sterilization
E. Sublimation
824.
How name special method of drying of the frozen product in the vacuum.
A. * Sublimation
B. Pasteurization
C. Freezing
D. Sterilization
E. Souring
825.
How the crust of the break is formed (to avoid drying and contamination)?
A. As a result of protein denaturation of bread;
B. As a result of migration of water from the starch in gluten;
C. * Due to caramelization of starch;
D. The rapid evaporation of water from the surface of the test when baking it;
E. By sudden loss of water in gluten with high temperature baking of bread.
826.
In the review of care a woman 30 years, average physical development,
harmonious, no diseases, second half of pregnancy. What kind of food should be?
A. * Adequate
B. Diet
C. Medical
D. Prevention and treatment
E. Preventive
827.
In the review of care a woman aged 41, with growth of 178 cm, weight 73 kg,
BMI 23.0, is an economist suffer iron deficiency anemia are working. What kind of food
it should be?
A. Adequate
B. * Dietary
C. Medical
D. Prevention and treatment
E. Rational
828.
In what units measured acidity of milk?
A. Percent
B. Celsius degree
C. * Terner degree
829.
830.
831.
832.
833.
834.
835.
836.
837.
D. Mg / ml.
E. Mg / dm3
Meat is a major source of ...
A. * Iron, phosphorus, zinc
B. Calcium, sodium.
C. Potassium, calcium.
D. Iron, copper.
E. Fluorine, chrome.
Milk is not sources of
A. Phosphates of calcium,
B. Chlorides of calcium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
E. * Iron
Name chemical method of preserving of products.
A. Pasteurization.
B. Sterilization.
C. Drying.
D. * Pickling
E. Freezing.
Name normal ratio between protein, fat, carbohydrates
A. 2:1:4
B. 4:1:1
C. * 1:1:4
D. 1:4:1
E. 2:2:4
Name products which do not have poisonous peculiarities temporally.
A. Green potatoes
B. Uncooked beans
C. Stone of bitter almonds,
D. * Pasta
E. Stone of apricot.
Name products which do not have poisonous peculiarities temporally.
A. Green potatoes
B. * Boiling milk
C. Uncooked beans
D. Stone of bitter almonds,
E. Stone of apricot
One of the following is not the important milk-borne diseases.
A. Tuberculosis,
B. Brucellosis
C. * Botylism
D. Malta fever
E. Anthrax
Protein content is highest per 100 g in
A. Milk;
B. * Meat;
C. Rice
D. Hens egg;
E. Bread.
Protein content is highest per 100 g in
A. Milk;
B.
C.
D.
E.
Meat;
Ground nut;
Hens egg;
* Soybeans
838.
Protein of muscular tissue is
A. Myosin
B. Myogen;
C. Casein;
D. Collagen;
E. * Myosin and myogen.
839.
Proteins are needed by the body
A. For maintaining our body temperature.
B. For provide support for many organs;
C. For carriers of fat-soluble vitamins;
D. * For growth and development
E. For stimulate digestive secretions.
840.
Raising the temperature to 100°C and then by maintaining it for 15 minutes in
closed sterilized vessels may be defined as
A. Boiling
B. Pasteurization
C. * Sterilization
D. Drying
E. Desiccation
841.
Researched beef in meat first category.. organoleptic properties characteristic of
fresh meat, meat broth at cooking badly boiled soft, broth slight, smell - specific, but
slight, reaction - weak alkaline. Hygienic conclusion
A. Fresh meat, however, indicates the nature of the broth is ill-defined category of
meat;
B. Despite the favorable properties, meat - suspicious freshness (quality broth);
C. Fresh meat, but the broth cooked with violations of his cooking technology;
D. * Character broth indicates that the immature meat, broth cooked meat
immediately after slaughter;
E. Nature broth indicates that in the process of slaughter is conducted small of the
blood carcass quality and meat.
842.
Researched bread wheat. organoleptic parameters form is correct, the surface
smooth, without cracks, elastic pulp from the skin does not lag, no foreign matter, taste
and smell - specific; 4 0 acidity, porosity 58%. Hygienic evaluation
A. Bread has low acidity;
B. Bread on all parameters meet hygienic requirements;
C. * Bread has low porosity;
D. Bread, a higher porosity;
E. Bread, a higher acidity.
843.
Researched pork meat of first category. In a sample with reagents Nesslera set
After adding broth in 1 ml (after boiling test) and 5 drops of reagent, it immediately
becomes turbid and slightly yellow. Hygienic evaluation:
A. Suspicious meat freshness
B. Meat is not fresh;
C. Fresh meat, standing;
D. * Evaluation of the results difficult samples \: broken methods for conducting this
test using filtrate water solution of meat, not broth;
E. Reagents as the reaction of Nesslera positive and shows the profound decay of
protein products (ammonia) - meat spoiled and unfit for consumption.
844.
Rice contain next vitamin
A. Vit. A
B. Vit.C
C. Vit.D.
D. * Vit.B1
E. Vit.B12.
845.
The cream may be separated from milk mechanically through a
A. Thermostat;
B. Centrifuge
C. Aspirator
D. * Separator
E. Aerator
846.
The iron content is low in
A. Beef kidney
B. Pork liver;
C. * Chicken;
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
847.
The most high-grade proteins of meat are the protein of
A. * Muscular tissue
B. Nervous tissue
C. Connective tissue
D. Cartilage;
E. All of the above.
848.
The most high-grade proteins of meat is
A. Collagen;
B. * Myosin
C. Elastin;
D. Neurokeratin;
E. Chondroprotein.
849.
The study received test milk in laboratory . Established the following data: color whitish, odor - without the features, flavor - typical of milk, density - 1.038, acidity - 35 °
Turner, fat - 3,2%. Determine the quality of milk.
A. * Poor quality milk
B. Milk conditionally suitable
C. Milk benign
D. Milk, reduced quality
E. Milk falsified
850.
There was an outbreak of staphylococcus infection in kindergarten. All children
that ate ice cream got sick. What is the possible source of staphylococcal infection in the
ice cream?
A. * Personel from the hands of postural skin diseases and other outdoor areas of the
body;
B. Violations of the technology in the manufacture of ice cream;
C. Violating the terms of ice cream;
D. Violations of the delivery (transportation) ice cream;
E. Ice-cream store with other products (meat, fish).
851.
To determine the specific gravity (density) is used
A. Gygrometer
B. * Lactodensymeter;
C. Luxmeter
D. Anemometer;
E. Actinometer.
852.
To which group of food belong fresh fruits?
A. * Protective foods;
B. Energy-giving foods
C. Body building foods
D. Vitamins
E. Mineral salts
853.
Use of maize may cause
A. Anemia;
B. * Pellagra
C. Beri-beri
D. Scurvy
E. Goiter
854.
Vegetable foods contain large amount of
A. Iron
B. * Carbohydrates
C. Vitamins D
D. Proteins;
E. Fats.
855.
What tissues can become toxic to some fishes during spawning season?
A. * Roe and milt (sexual glands), as they formed new high nutrient (and toxic)
substance;
B. Muscles as they formed neurotoxin;
C. Sex glands and liver, as they accumulate toxic substance that has a paralyzing
effect;
D. Sex glands, as they accumulate toxic substances, affecting primarily the central
nervous system;
E. Muscles and sex glands, because they accumulate amigladin (prussic acid in its
decay).
856.
What antialimiter factor contained in raw egg whites?
A. Askorbatoxidasion
B. * Avidyn
C. Tiaminaza
D. Niatsytyn
E. Antitrypsin
857.
What are called "poor man's meat".
A. Bread;
B. Maize;
C. Rice;
D. * Pulses
E. Potatoes
858.
What are not typical for food toxic-infections?
A. Territorial limitation of diseases
B. Almost simultaneous illness of all who consume one and the same infected food
C. Almost simultaneous illness of all who consume one and the same infected food
D. * Long latency period
E. Evident connection between diseases and certain food consumption
859.
What are the components contained in milk that have the ability to reduce blood
cholesterol?
A. * Vitamin E
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Riboflavin
D. Pantothenic acid
E. Antiacrodinic factor
860.
What are the measures of prevention of food poisoning with copper?
A. Sanitary legislation prohibits both cooking and storing food in cast iron cookware;
B. Copper utensils are allowed only after covering its glaze;
C. Copper utensils before using it to boil 2 hours in water, acidified vinegar and use
without restriction;
D. * Copper utensils inside walls should be covered tin nickel then used without
restrictions;
E. In cast iron cookware may not store all kinds of oils for other purposes it is
adequate.
861.
What are the parameters (properties) to include his bread staple foods?
A. * High degree quantity and assimilation
B. High content of vitamins A, D, E, K;
C. High content of salts of Ca and P in the optimal ratio;
D. Food proteins contain a full set of essential amino acids;
E. Carbohydrate bread for 85 - 95% composed of simple sugars that promote their
high digestibility.
862.
What are the properties of milk and dairy products that can be attributed to their
staple foods?
A. * Widely used in medical nutrition;
B. High vitamin C;
C. High degree quantity;
D. Very high calorie content.
E. No of above
863.
What are the properties of milk that can be attributed to its basic food?
A. High vitamin C;
B. High degree quantity;
C. * High degree of assimilation;
D. Very high calorie content.
E. No of above
864.
What are the properties of milk that can be attributed to its basic food?
A. High degree of quantity;
B. * High biological value;
C. Very high calorie content;
D. High content of vitamin C.
E. No of above
865.
What diseases are possible in the use of defective bread (and flour)?
A. * Septic alekia;
B. Potato disease;
C. Chalk disease;
D. Damage mold bread and flour;
E. Food poisoning.
866.
What diseases can strike bread
A. Pest damage barns;
B. * Potato disease;
C. "Drunk" disease;
D. Mycotoxicosis;
E. Aflotoxicoses.
867.
What does not apply to defects in meat?
A. Tan.
B. Decay.
868.
869.
870.
871.
872.
873.
874.
875.
C. Mold.
D. * Collapse
E. Mucus.
What does the food value of meat depend from?
A. From correlation of muscular and connecting tissues
B. From correlation of muscular and fat.
C. From maintenance of extract matters
D. From correlation of muscular, connecting tissues and fat.
E. * From correlation of muscular, connecting tissues and fat, and maintenance of
extract matters.
What food is not include in the base of the Food Guide pyramid?
A. Breads,
B. Cereals
C. Rice,
D. Pasta
E. * Meat;
What group of food not supplies heat and energy to the body?
A. Cereals,
B. Roots;
C. Tubers;
D. Fruits;
E. * Green leafy vegetable
What harm to humans can the use of defective bread and flour cause?
A. Botulism;
B. * Couch grass toxicity;
C. Toxic food;
D. Potato disease;
E. Chalk disease.
What harm to humans can the use of defective bread and flour cause?
A. Potato disease;
B. Toxic food;
C. * Mycotoxicosis;
D. Botulism.
E. No of above
What instrument is used to determine fat milk?
A. Lactodensimeter.
B. Gear Zhuravleva.
C. * Lactobutyrometer.
D. Anemometer.
E. Actinometer.
What instrument is used to determine the density of milk?
A. * Lactodensimeter.
B. Zhuravleva Gear.
C. Lactobutyrometer.
D. Anemometer.
E. Piranometer.
What is Finns?
A. A larval stage of development tricinela;
B. A larval (cystic) Key words: echinococcal development stage;
C. * A larval (cystic) stage of tapeworm;
D. This helminths, infection which occurs when human consumption of meat and
meat products;
876.
877.
878.
879.
880.
881.
882.
883.
E. A larval stage of development of ascarid.
What is gluten flour?
A. Is a carbohydrate that provides a high degree of digestibility of bread;
B. A protein that provides a high degree of digestibility of bread;
C. Is a carbohydrate that provides a taste of bread;
D. Is cellulose, stimulating motility ZHKT;
E. * A protein substance that provides porosity of bread.
What is not typical for food toxic-infections?
A. Almost simultaneous illness of all who consume one and the same food
B. Evident connection between diseases and certain food consumption, prepared or
realized with violation of sanitary norms
C. Evident connection between diseases and certain food consumption, prepared or
realized with violation of sanitary norms
D. Evident connection between diseases and certain food consumption, prepared or
realized with violation of sanitary norms
E. * Couch
What is not typical for food toxic-infections?
A. Almost simultaneous illness of all who consume one and the same food
B. Almost simultaneous illness of all who consume one and the same food
C. Gastroenteritis
D. Flu
E. * Couch
What is the basic principle of health care food
A. * Acceleration output of harmful substances from the body
B. Increasing the energy value of the diet
C. Exclusion from the diet of individual products
D. Reduce the energy value of diet
E. Optional inclusion in food rations flavoring substances
What is the cause of the accumulation of toxic properties of raw beans?
A. Alkaloid solanine accumulation of improper storage;
B. Alkaloid accumulation of fasin of improper storage;
C. * Constant content of toxic substances fasin;
D. Alkaloid solanine in the accumulation of sprouted beans;
E. Accumulation of toxic substances in fasin of sprouted beans.
What is the most common effect of aflatoxins?
A. Tic
B. Anemia
C. Alekia
D. * Hepatocancerogenic
E. Gangrenous
What is the normal acidity of milk?
A. * 18-19 0
B. 25-26 0
C. 28-29 0
D. 31-32 0
E. ~35-38 0
What is the protein that coagulates at boiling milk?
A. * Albumin.
B. Casein.
C. Globulin.
D. Choline.
E. Calcium.
884.
What is the relationship between its output and the range of flour?
A. The more "out" meal, the higher the range of his;
B. * Greater than "output" of flour, the lower the range of his;
C. No connection, it is self-concept;
D. Direct connection;
E. Less than "output" of flour, the less the range of.
885.
What is the specific effect on intestinal function have a weak (one day), dairy
drinks (yogurt, koumiss, acidophilic products)?
A. * Activate motility, laxative effect
B. Suppress motility, associating effect
C. Not affect the motility
D. Weakly affect motility, increase vitamins digestion
E. Weakly affect motility, increase digestion trace
886.
What is the worst way of digesting meat from protein
A. * Mutton
B. Beef
C. Birds
D. Pork
E. Rabbit
887.
What kind of carbohydrates is in meat?
A. Glucose,
B. Lactose,
C. Maltose,
D. * Glycogen
E. Amylum.
888.
What kind of meat with insufficiently boiled is the reason of trichinosis?
A. Beef
B. Mutton
C. * Pork
D. Chicken
E. Fishes
889.
What kind of meat with insufficiently boiled is the reason trichinosis?
A. * Beef.
B. Mutton.
C. Pork
D. Chicken.
E. Fishes.
890.
What kind of toxic agent caused bacteriotoxicoses?
A. * Exoneurotoxins
B. Endoenterotoxines
C. Aflotoxines
D. Ergotoxine
E. Methylmercury
891.
What kind of toxic agent caused bacteriotoxicoses?
A. * Exoneurotoxins
B. Endoenterotoxines
C. Aflotoxines
D. Ergotoxine
E. Methylmercury
892.
What kind of toxic agent caused toxic infections?
A. Exoneurotoxins
B. * Endoenterotoxines
C. Aflotoxines
D. Ergotoxine
E. Methylmercury
893.
What makes a specific impact on milk digestion in the stomach?
A. * Hypersecretious, antacid, inhibits the digestion of other foods reduce hunger
B. Hypersecretious, hyposecretious, activates digestion, stimulates appetite
C. Does not affect the function of stomach acid, weakly activates the proteolytic
activity of enzymes
D. No influence
E. Does not affect the function of stomach acid increases the synthesis and activity
of proteolytic and lipolytic enzymes
894.
What methods are used for hygienic evaluation of bread?
A. * Definition of organoleptic properties and porosity;
B. Determine the organoleptic properties and humidity;
C. Determine the organoleptic properties and gluten;
D. Determine the organoleptic properties and metal impurity;
E. Determine the organoleptic properties of pests and barns.
895.
What methods are used for hygienic evaluation of bread?
A. Determine the organoleptic properties and metal impurity;
B. Determine the organoleptic properties and gluten;
C. Definition of organoleptic properties and acidity;
D. Determine the organoleptic properties and humidity;
E. Determine the organoleptic properties of pests and barns.
896.
What normal density of cow milk?
A. 1,015-1,020.
B. 1,020-1,026
C. * 1,027-1,034
D. 1,035-1,040.
E. 1,041-1,044.
897.
What of the food poisoning below are excluded from the concept of "food
poisoning"?
A. * Poisoning caused by intentional introduction of any food poison to murder or
suicide;
B. Poisoning caused by excessive consumption of food (overeating);
C. Alcohol poisoning;
D. Poisoned food additives;
E. Poisoned food containing nitrates.
898.
What of the foods poisoning below are excluded from the concept of "Food
poisoning?
A. Poisoned food containing nitrates;
B. Poisoned food additives;
C. Alcohol poisoning;
D. * Poisoning that occurs when a faulty used instead of food poisoning, like him;
E. Poisoning caused by excessive consumption of food (overeating).
899.
What one of the following food products may cause mycotoxicosis?
A. * Cereal
B. Meat;
C. Fish
D. Diary products
E. Mushrooms.
900.
What one of the following food products not causes mycotoxicosis?
A. Cereal
B.
C.
D.
E.
901.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
902.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
903.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
904.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
905.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
906.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
907.
A.
B.
C.
Bread
Peanut
* Diary products
Fruit
What one of the following is main clinical sign of staphylococcal intoxication?
Headache,
* Gastroenteritis
Muscle weakness
Toxic hepatitis
Difficulty in swallowing
What one of the following is main clinical sign of toxic infection?
Headache,
* Gastroenteritis
Muscle weakness
Toxic hepatitis
Difficulty in swallowing
What one of the following is not belong to tubers?
Carrots,
Potatoes,
* Beans,
Onions,
Arrow-root
What product is the main source of iron for peoples?
Milk
Bread.
Chess.
* Meet.
Butter.
What products and how can they cause botulism?
* Jar preserves of all kinds, as they are created anaerobic conditions necessary for
the allocation of toxin;
Products, canned strong solution of table salt, sugar, acetic acid, as these solvents
promote the secretion of toxin;
Jam, sausages, pates, offal, because they create aerobic conditions necessary for
the selection of toxin;
Hot-smoked fish, because it creates anaerobic conditions necessary for the
accumulation of toxins;
Shredded meat and fish dishes (aspic, salads, brawn) as they are created anaerobic
conditions necessary for the selection and accumulation of toxins.
What properties of bread can include it to main foods?
High content of salts of Ca and P and the optimal ratio, and fat-soluble vitamins;
Food proteins contain a full set of essential amino acids, and carbohydrates,
mainly monosaccharide;
Carbohydrate bread by 85% -95 consist of simple sugars, which contributes to
their high digestibility;
High content of vitamins A, E, F, K and Na and K;
* High biological value chemical components and a wide range of bakery
products.
What protein convolves at boiling of milk?
* Albumen
Casein.
Globulin.
D. Myosin.
E. Calcium.
908.
What protein fractions of milk proteins are represented?
A. Albumin and actin;
B. Globulin and myosin;
C. Purine bases;
D. Proteins;
E. * Albumin.
909.
What protein fractions of milk proteins represented?
A. Proteins;
B. Purine bases;
C. Albumin and actin;
D. * Casein;
E. Myosin and globulin.
910.
What proteins are represented as protein fractions of milk (cow) and that their
share relative to the total (3,3%)?
A. Milk protein completely represented a specific fraction of protein - casein (3.3%);
B. * Milk protein casein before (2,8%) and 0,5% is albumin;
C. Half of the milk protein casein is presented, the other half - albumin;
D. Milk protein before \: casein (2.5%), albumin (0,5%), globulin (0.3%);
E. Milk protein before \: casein (2.0%), albumin (1%), actin (0,3%).
911.
What proteins are represented in protein fractions of meat?
A. Miohenom and arginine;
B. Miohenom and lysine;
C. * Actin and globulin;
D. Arginine and albumin;
E. Tryptophan and globulin.
912.
What the diuretic effect of milk is conditioned by?
A. By correlation Ca : P
B. By correlation Ca : Mg
C. * By correlation K : Na
D. By the presence of ascorbic acid
E. By a presence lactose
913.
What tissues become toxic to some fish during spawning season?
A. Muscles and sex glands, because they accumulate hydrocyanic acid;
B. Sex glands, as they accumulate toxic substances, which mainly affect the central
nervous system;
C. * Liver, because it is highly accumulated, hista-looklike substances;
D. Muscles as they formed neurotoxin;
E. Sex glands and liver, as they accumulate toxic substances that paralyzing effect.
914.
What will do with meat if cysticercus are revealed in him?
A. * Freezing at low temperatures not less then 10 days
B. Meat is considered unacceptable
C. Use without limitations;
D. To pickle meat;
E. To boil meat.
915.
What will do with meat if trichinells are revealed in him?
A. * Freezing at low temperatures not less then 10 days
B. Meat is considered unacceptable
C. Use without limitations
D. To pickle meat;
E. To boil meat
916.
Which juice is recommend to include in a comprehensive medication, diet therapy
of patients with peptic ulcer stomach or 12 - duodenum with high acidity of gastric juice
in order to accelerate the healing of ulcer defect?
A. * Potato, potato and carrot
B. Apple, birch-apple
C. Pumpkin
D. Cabbage, cabbage-carrot
E. Celery, parsley
917.
Which nutrient is main sources of energy for organism
A. Protein
B. Fat
C. * Carbohydrate
D. Vitamins
E. Minerals
918.
Which of dairy products pathogenetically grounded in the diet include patients
with hiperacidic gastritis, peptic ulcer of stomach and duodenum 12?
A. * Cream
B. Dietary sour cream
C. Faint (one day) kefir
D. Symbivit
E. Koumiss
919.
Which of the confectionery products may be recommended in medical nutrition?
A. * Marmalade
B. Halva
C. Chocolate
D. Cookies
E. Caramel
920.
Which of the following cereals contain most carbohydrates?
A. Oatmeal.
B. Buckwheat.
C. Millet.
D. * Fig.
E. Barley.
921.
Which of the following cereals contain most iron and copper?
A. Pearl.
B. Corn.
C. Oatmeal.
D. Fig.
E. * Buckwheat.
922.
Which of the following cereals containing the most protein?
A. Barley.
B. Corn.
C. * Buckwheat.
D. Fig.
E. Millet.
923.
Which of the following grains contain the most fat?
A. * Oatmeal.
B. Corn.
C. Buckwheat.
D. Fig.
E. Mann
924.
Which of the following poisoning are excluded from the concept of" food
poisoning, "according to the classification?
A. Alcohol poisoning;
B. Poisoning caused by excessive consumption of food (overeating);
C. Poisoned food additives;
D. Poisoned food containing nitrates;
E. * Poisoning caused by violation of basic rules of nutrition.
925.
Which of the following properties established ongoing meat to include it to main
foods?
A. Meat fat is emulsified in a state that allows you to enter it in the diet in diseases of
liver and gall bladder;
B. Meat and meat products are valuable sources of vitamins \: C, group B, and PP;
C. * Meat and meat products have a very high degree quantity;
D. Meat and meat products (even fried and smoked) can be used with any disease
other than gastrointestinal tract disease.
E. No of above
926.
Which of the following properties established ongoing meat to include it to main
food?
A. Meat and meat products (even fried and smoked) can be used with any disease
other than gastrointestinal tract disease;
B. Meat fat is emulsified in a state that allows you to enter it in the diet in diseases of
liver and gall bladder;
C. * Meat can be cooked very wide range of dishes and products;
D. Meat is a valuable source of vitamins \: C, group B, RR.
E. No of above
927.
Which of the following properties established ongoing meat can be attributed to
the core products?
A. Extractive substances meat contribute to the motility and bowel evacuation
capacity;
B. Meat and meat products are significant sources of ascorbic acid;
C. * Meat and meat products used in medical nutrition;
D. Meat and meat products - a significant source of calcium, phosphorus and
magnesium;
E. No of above
928.
Which of the following properties of meat include it to main foods
A. * Chemical components of meat have a high degree of biological activity and
values;
B. Meat and meat products (even fried and smoked) can be used with any disease
other than gastrointestinal tract disease;
C. Meat and meat products are valuable sources of vitamins \: C, group B, and PP;
D. Meat contains fats emulsified in a state that allows you to enter it in the diet in
diseases of liver and gall bladder.
E. No of above
929.
Which of these features is most characteristic for mycotoxicosis?
A. Only acute flow;
B. * Cause is often cereal-products;
C. No defeat gastrointestinal tract;
D. Only affects the digestive tract;
E. Only affects the central nervous system.
930.
Which of these food-related toxicity to fusariotoxicoses?
A. * Septic sore throat;
B. Aflotoxicoses;
C. Erhotysm;
D. Botulism;
E. Septic mioglubinaria.
931.
Which one is the cause of bacteriotoxicoses?
A. Esherichial.coli
B. * Clostridium botulinum
C. Francisella tularensis
D. Cl.Perfringens
E. Klebsiella
932.
Which one is the cause of food infections (Toxic-infections)?
A. * Clostridium botulinum
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Brucella canis
E. Aspergillus flavus
933.
Which one of following is not method of examination of the tins before
consumption?
A. Inspection
B. Palpation
C. Percussion;
D. * Candling (by holding them in the hand in front of a candle in the dark)
E. Shaking
934.
Which one of the following cause of food infections (Toxic-infections)?
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. * Clostridium perfringens
D. Brucella canis
E. Streptococcus
935.
Which one of the following cause of Food toxemia?
A. * Which one of the following cause of Food toxemia?
B. E.coli
C. Cl.Perfringens
D. Cl.Perfringens
E. Streptococcus
936.
Which one of the following cause of Food toxemia?
A. * Clostridium botulinum
B. E.coli
C. Cl.Perfringens
D. Francisella tularensis
E. Stafilococcus
937.
Which one of the following food products can not be a reason of mycotoxicosis?
A. Cereal
B. Bread
C. Peanut
D. * Cheese
E. Fruit
938.
Which one of the following is not contains yolk
A. Fat;
B. Lecithin,
C. Vitalin;
D. Iron
E. * Protein
939.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
940.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
941.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
942.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
943.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
944.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
945.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
946.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
947.
A.
B.
C.
Which one of the following products not has poisonous peculiarities temporally?
Green potatoes
Uncooked beans
Stone of bitter almonds,
* Boiling milk
Stone of apricot
Which one of the following products not has poisonous peculiarities temporally?
Frut
* Boiling milk
Uncooked pees
Stone of apricot
Uncooked milk
Which one of the following toxin is in green bean?
Methyl mercury
Solanin
Aflatoxin
* Fazun
Amigdaline
Which one of the following toxin is in green potatoes?
Methyl mercury
* Solanin
Aflatoxin
Fazin
Amigdaline
Which one of the following toxin is in scombroide-fish?
Methyl mercury
* Histamine
Aflatoxin
Fazin
Amigdaline
Which one of the following toxin is in stone of apricot?
Methyl mercury
Solanin
Aflatoxin
Fazing
* Amigdaline
Which one of the following type of food poisoning is frequently fatal?
Staphylococcal food poisoning
* Botulism food poisoning
Clostridium perfringens food poisoning
Campylobacter food poisoning
E.coli food poisoning
Which product is recommended for slow refreezing?
Berries
* Meat
Fruit
Vegetable
Egg.
Which vitamin absent in cow’s milk
Vit A;
* Vit D
Vit C;
D. Vit E;
E. Vit. B.
948.
Which way to determine content of metal impurity in flour?
A. Sedimentation method;
B. Calculation method;
C. * Using permanent magnet;
D. Organoleptic method;
E. Electrolytic method.
949.
Which way to determine content of metal impurity in flour?
A. * Gravimetric method (mg / kg);
B. Sedimentation method (mg / kg);
C. Organoleptic method;
D. Electrolytic (mg / kg);
E. Calculation method.
950.
Whole milk contains next amount of fat
A. * 2,5 – 3,2 %;
B. 5,5 -7 %;
C. 15 - 20 %;
D. 50 – 55 %;
E. 60 – 70 %.
951.
Why a few instances of anemia have been recorded as resulting from the use of
cow's milk
A. Milk is low in calcium,
B. Milk is low in vit A,
C. * Milk is low in iron
D. Milk is low in proteins
E. Milk is low in magnesium
952.
Why organic pesticides (especially DDT) are the most dangerous for human
body?
A. * Because they are resistant to light, heat, moisture and time expired in the soil;
B. Because they are water soluble and therefore capable of striking almost all organs
and tissues of the body;
C. As they are able to accumulate only in animal products (milk, butter, meat, eggs),
most often used by man;
D. Because they have a hepatotoxic effect and "exclude" antitoxic liver function;
E. Because they are mutagenic and teratogenic properties.
953.
Give determination of concept “Distance of the back” school furniture:
A. Distance in a horizontal plane from the cutting edge of table to the back of seat
B. Distance from the back edge of table to the cutting edge of seat
C. Distance from the cutting edge of seat to the perpendicular which is put on his
plane from the back edge of table
D. Height of seat
E. * Distance in a horizontal plane from the back edge of table to the back of seat
954.
.Number of children in school class cannot more than
A. 5
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
E. * 36
955.
Unavailability of children 6 years of age to study at school characterized by:
A. *lag in the biological development, defects of pronunciation, expected in a state
of health, the failure of psycho-physiological tests
B. The existence of chronic diseases, delay in physical development, low functional
status of the body
C. The existence of the third group of health, only one psycho test; level - below the
average basic rate of physical development
D. The existence of chronic diseases, the lack of psycho-physiological tests
E. Delay in physical development, de-harmonic functions
956.
At scheduling lessons the followings hygienic principles must be taken into
account in educational establishments:
A. * Dynamics of capacity, rational alternation of objects, degree of weight of
objects
B. The mode of day, degree of weight of objects, is rationally built
C. Beginning of employments at school, rational alternation of different types of
activity, duration of lessons
D. Presence of state and school component, dynamics of capacity, principles of
accordance activity functional
E. Degree of weight of objects on the scale of Sivkova, rational alternation of
different types of activity during an educational day
957.
Additional morphological sign, that measured during the somatometry - …:
A. standing height
B. seating height
C. * anterio-posterior size of chest
D. body weight
E. chest volume
958.
Additional morphological sign, that measured during the somatometry - …:
A. seating height
B. * sircumference of shoulder
C. body weight
D. standing height
E. chest volume
959.
Additional morphological sign, that measured during the somatometry - …:
A. seating height
B. * width of shoulder girdle
C. body weight
D. standing height
E. chest volume
960.
Additional morphological sign, that measured during the somatometry - …:
A. seating height
B. * circumference of femur
C. body weight
D. standing height
E. chest volume
961.
Additional morphological sign, that measured during the somatometry - …:
A. seating height
B. * circumference of head
C. body weight
D. standing height
E. chest volume
962.
Additional morphological sign, that measured during the somatometry - …:
A. growing
B. * pelvic sizes
C. body weight
D. standing height
E. chest volume
963.
Additional morphological traits
somatometry
A. * Volume of head;
B. Standing height;
C. Sitting height;
D. Volume of the chest;
E. Weight.
964.
Additional morphological traits
somatometry
A. Sitting height;
B. * Volume of shoulders;
C. Body weight;
D. Standing height;
E. Volume of the chest.
965.
Additional morphological traits
somatometry
A. Sitting height;
B. Standing height;
C. Body weight;
D. * Width of shoulder girdle;
E. Capacity chest.
966.
Additional morphological traits
somatometry
A. * Volume of hips;
B. Standing height;
C. Sitting height;
D. Body weight;
E. Volume of the chest.
967.
Additional morphological traits
somatometry
A. Body weight;
B. * Volume of head;
C. Standing height;
D. Chest circumference;
E. Sitting height.
968.
Additional morphological traits
somatometry
A. Body weight;
B. Growth;
C. * Size of the pelvis;
D. Circle of chest;
E. Weight.
969.
Additional morphological traits
somatometry
A. * Volume of hips;
B. Standing height;
C. Sitting height;
D. Body weight;
E. Volume of the chest.
970.
Additional morphological traits
somatometry
that are determined during the determination of
that are determined during the determination of
that are determined during the determination of
that are determined during the determination of
that are determined during the determination of
that are determined during the determination of
that are determined during the determination of
that are determined during the determination of
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Sitting height;
Standing height;
Body weight;
* Width of shoulder girdle;
Capacity chest.
971.
Additional morphological traits that are determined during the determination of
somatometry
A. Standing height;
B. Sitting height;
C. * Width of shoulder girdle;
D. Volume of the chest;
E. Weight.
972.
Additional morphological traits that are determined during the determination of
somatometry
A. Body weight;
B. Growth;
C. * Size of the pelvis;
D. Circle of chest;
E. Weight.
973.
Additional morphological traits that are determined during the determination of
somatometry
A. * Volume of head;
B. Standing height;
C. Sitting height;
D. Volume of the chest;
E. Weight.
974.
Additional morphological traits that are determined during the determination of
somatometry
A. Standing height;
B. Sitting height;
C. * Front-back size of the chest;
D. Body weight;
E. Volume of the chest.
975.
Anatomic and physiological feature of preschool
A. High immunological resistance;
B. Predominance of cartilage over the bone of the spine;
C. Accelerate growth in intensity compared to toddler age;
D. * Smooth curvature of the cervical and thoracic spine in a horizontal position of
the body;
E. Lower threshold of audibility to speech frequencies than in school.
976.
Anatomic and physiological feature of preschool
A. State of development compared to toddler age does not change;
B. Myopic refractive eye dominance;
C. * Completion of curvature in the cervical and thoracic spine;
D. Touch-tone hearing acuity is significantly lower than students;
E. Linguistic thresholds are the same as in school.
977.
Anatomic and physiological feature of preschool children
A. Predominance of cartilage over the bone of the spine;
B. * Intensity of slow growth compared to preschool age;
C. Lower threshold of audibility to speech frequencies than in school;
D. Accelerate growth in intensity compared to preschool age;
E. Predominance hypermetric (myopic) refraction of an eye compared to school age.
978.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
979.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
980.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
981.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
982.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
983.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
984.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
985.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
986.
A.
Anatomic and physiological feature of preschool children
Predominance irradiation inhibition in the cortex (compared with school age);
* Intensive development of sight;
Reduce the intensity of development of internal inhibition in the cortex;
State of thermoregulation compared with toddler age does not change;
formation of language is not complete.
Anatomic and physiological feature of preschool children
Audibility thresholds at speech frequencies are the same as in school;
Touch-tone hearing acuity is much lower than the school boy;
Myopic refractive eye dominance;
State of development compared to toddler age does not change;
* Prevalence hypermetropic refractions in the eyes.
Anatomic and physiological feature of preschool children
Acceleration of growth intensity increase over the toddler age;
Predominance of bone over the ridge of cartilage in comparison with the school
age;
* Reduction of the intensity of calcification compared with toddler age;
Lack of curvature in the cervical spine;
Front curvature in the thoracic spine in a horizontal position.
Anatomic and physiological feature of school-age children
Predominance irradiation inhibition in the cortex (compared with school age);
Reduce the intensity of development of internal inhibition in the cortex;
State of thermoregulation compared with toddler age to be changed;
formation of language is not finished yet;
* Prevalence of spinal bone on cartilage compared with preschool age.
Anatomo-physiological peculiarity of preschool children :
prevalence of cartilaginous part of spine over bone parts
* slowing down the intencity of growing in compering with age of 1-3 years
lesser threshold of sensitivity on the linguistic frequency, than in the schoolboys
acceleration of intensivity of growing in compering with age of 1-3 years
prefering of hypometropic (myopic) refraction of eye in comparing with age of 13
Anatomo-physiological peculiarity of preschool children:
acceleration of intensivity of growing in compering with age of 1-3 years
prevalence of cartilaginous part of spine over bone parts
* decreasing of intensity of boning processes in compering with age of 1-3 years
absence of flexure in jugular portion of spine
permanent flexure in thoracic portion of spine
Anatomo-physiological peculiarity of preschool children:
prefering of cortical inhibition irradiation (in compering with age of 1-3 years)
* intensive development of vision
decrease of intensity the development processes of inner inhibition in cortex
termoregulation processes in compering with age of 1-3 years are the same
forming of language continues
Anatomo-physiological peculiarity of preschool children:
sensitivity tresholds on the linguistic frequences the same as in schoolboys
acuteness of tonal hearing much lower than in schoolboy
prefering of myopic refraction of eye
vision development processes in comparing with age of 1-3 years is the same
* prefering of hypermetropic refraction of the eye
Anatomo-physiological peculiarity of preschool children:
prefering of cortical inhibition irradiation (in compering with age of 1-3 years)
B.
C.
D.
E.
decrease the intensity of development processes of inner inhibition in cortex
termoregulation processes in compering with age of 1-3 years are the same
forming of language continues
* prevalence of bone part of spine over cartilaginous part in compering with age
of 1-3 years are the same
987.
Anatomo-physiological peculiarity of preschool children:
A. vision development processes in comparing with age of 1-3 years is the same
B. prefering of myopic refraction of eye
C. * completion of forming jugular and thoracic flexures of spine
D. acuteness of tonal hearing much lower than in schoolboy
E. sensitivity tresholds on the linguistic frequences the same as in schoolboys
988.
Anatomo-physiological peculiarity of preschool children:
A. high immunological resistance of organism
B. prevalence of cartilaginous part of spine over bone parts
C. acceleration of intensivity of growing in compering with age of 1-3 years
D. * flattening the jugular and thoracic flexures in horizontal position of body
E. lesser threshold of sensitivity on the linguistic
989.
At what distance from the red line must be in preschool establishments?
A. * 25 m
B. 10 m
C. 15 m
D. 30 m
E. 20 m
990.
Block-sectional type of school buildings enables you to
A. * Divide children by age group;
B. Insulate classrooms from ouside noise;
C. Create the optimal microclimate conditions
D. Creation of optimum lighting conditions;
E. Create optimum conditions for labor studies.
991.
Block-sectioned type of school buildings gives the opportunity to:
A. * divide children into age groups
B. isolate educational rooms from general school rooms
C. create an optimal conditions of microclimate
D. create an optimal conditions of lighting
E. create an optimal conditions for labour learning
992.
Choose one absolute requirement to the health and safety of the educational
process:
A. Rotate the lessons of the scheme: light, heavy, light and heavy.
B. The first lesson - is the heaviest.
C. Between lessons should always be a break for 5 minutes.
D. * All activities must conform to the age of the body
E. Each lesson physical training breaks.
993.
Choose the correct rationed values of the light mode for the educational class of
school:
A. Illumination 200 lx on the board of 500 lx, coefficient of natural illumination –
1,2 %
B. * Illumination 300 lx, on the board of 500 lx, coefficient of natural illumination –
1,5 %
C. Illumination 500 lx, on the board of 500 lx, coefficient of natural illumination – 2
%
D. Illumination of 200 lx, on the board of 500 lx, coefficient of natural illumination –
1,2 %
E. Illumination 200 lx, on the board of 300 lx, coefficient of natural illumination –
1,2 %
994.
Choose the special measures of physical hardening:
A. * air bathes, gagrlings, water procedures, wiping
B. physical education, air bathes
C. creating of optimal warm regime in the room where are the children, water bathes,
air bathes
D. gargling, walking, physical training
E. walking, rational clothes, physical education
995.
CNI (coefficient of natural illumination) in classroom must be not less than
A. 0,5 %;
B. 1,0 %;
C. 0,75 %;
D. * 1,5 %
E. 1,25
996.
Define a group of pupils' health, which is suffering from rheumatic heart disease
in the stage sub compensation:
A. * The fourth group
B. The second group
C. The fifth group
D. The first group
E. The third group
997.
Distance, which a book (notebook) from eyes at reading, letter is found on.
A. 20-25 cm
B. * 30-35 cm
C. 40-45 cm
D. 55-60 cm
E. 50-55 cm
998.
During of hygienic estimation of school text-book of requirement are produced to:
A. Type, typing, printing
B. * Paper, type, typing, printing, external design, weight
C. To bacterial contamination, wood contents in paper, weight
D. Clearness of type, printing, to creation of optimum terms for visual work
E. External design, weight and name
999.
Filling the groups in pre-school facility is : nursery - 15 children of preschool and
course group in the preschool institution is \: nursery - 15 children of preschool and
preparatory - to 20 children. Which group by number of children are overextended?
A. Nursery group
B. preparatory group
C. all of the groups
D. Preschool group
E. * all group are within norms
1000.
For determination of biological development of children it is used the next
indexes:
A. * body length, year ncreasing of body length, teeth formule
B. muscle strength of hands, shape of chest
C. character of fat localization on the body, circumference of the chest
D. deportment, sexual development degree
E. not correct
1001.
For prophylaxy the disorders of deportment, schoolchildren from the first row are
displaced to the third row and vice versa without breaking of accordance the
schoolchildren' height to the school furniture. It occurs in terms, not rarely then…
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* 2 times a year
3 times a year
4 times a year
6 time a year
It never occurs
1002.
For the study of physical development of children and teenagers widely draw on
anthropometric researches. Choose the physio-metrical method of researches from
resulted
A. Determination of mass of body
B. Determination of form of spine
C. Determination of form of thorax
D. * Determination of vital capacity of lights
E. Measure of the height
1003.
For under-fives considered the most exact index of biological age
A. Neuropsychological development
B. * Bone age
C. Annual increments, length of body
D. Harmoniousness of development
E. Pedagogical description
1004.
General Classroom will provide lighting with lighting fixtures evenly dispersing
type and incandescent. Enter the lowest value in light (LC), which meets hygienic
requirements of artificial lighting for this type of premises.
A. * 150 Lx
B. 200 Lx
C. 250 Lx
D. 300 Lx
E. 350 Lx
1005.
General illumination of school chemical laboratory is planned to provide by
luminescent lamps. Which one of the following is the norm for classrooms?
A. 250 Lx
B. 350 Lx
C. 150 Lx
D. * 300 Lx
E. 200 Lx
1006.
General illumination of school class is planned to provide by electric lamps.
Which one of the following is the norm for classrooms?
A. 250 Lx
B. 350 Lx
C. * 150 Lx
D. 300 Lx
E. 200 Lx
1007.
General illumination of school class is planned to provide by incandescent lamps.
Which one of the following is the norm for classrooms?
A. 250 Lx
B. 350 Lx
C. * 150 Lx
D. 300 Lx
E. 200 Lx
1008.
Generalizating method of learning the physical development -:
A. dynamical observing to the physical development of child
B. assessment of the physical development of child by the sygmal deviation method
C. assessment of the physical development of child by the scales of regression
D. * collective momental investigation of the physical development of children who
live in certain locality
E. assessment of biological development of chidren collective
1009.
Generalizing method study of physical development is …
A. Dynamic monitoring of physical development in children;
B. Assessment of physical development of children by empirical deviations;
C. Assessment of physical development of children on the scales of regression;
D. * Mass, overnight study of physical development of children living in certain
areas;
E. Biological development of children's assessment team.
1010.
Give the definition of "distance of seat back" of school furniture
A. Distance from the front edge of the seat to its rear edge.
B. * Distance in the horizontal plane from the rear edge of the table to the seat.
C. Distance in the vertical plane from the edge of the table, which turned into the
disciple to the plane seat.
D. Seat depth.
E. Distance in the vertical plane of the front edge of table to seat back.
1011.
Give the definition of" distance sitting” of school furniture
A. Distance in the horizontal plane from the front edge of table to seat back.
B. Distance from the back edge of the table to the front edge of the seat.
C. * Distance from front edge of the seat to the perpendicular which is dropped on it.
D. Seat height.
E. Distance from the front edge of the seat to its rear edge.
1012.
Group block of kindergarten include all except:
A. * isolation ward
B. bath
C. plying room
D. cloakroom
E. bedroom
1013.
Height child standing is determined by using
A. * Mesuring stick;
B. Anthropometer;
C. Thickness compasses;
D. Centimeter tape
E. Dynamometer.
1014.
Height child standing is determined by:
A. thermometry
B. compasses;
C. centimetre tape
D. * measurement of height;
E. dynamometer
1015.
How correctly, that during organization of work of schoolboy with a computer
requirements must be executed:
A. * Square in the workplace not less 6 meters of square, possible level of noise not
more than 50 dbSquare in the workplace not less 6 meters of square, possible
level of noise not more than 50 db
B. . Orientation class southward, southeast, NCL not less than 3 %
C. Distance to the screen not less than 40 cm
D. Advantageous location of computer, without the account of distance.
E. Illumination 200 lx, coefficient of natural illumination – 1,2 %.
1016.
How is named distance between back edge of the desk table and back of the chair
A. * Distance of the back support
B.
C.
D.
E.
Distance of sitting;
Differentia;
height of seating;
depth of seating
1017.
How is named distance between back edge of the desk table and back of the chair
A. Distance of the back support
B. * Distance of sitting;
C. Differentia;
D. height of seating;
E. depth of seating.
1018.
How is named distance between back edge of the desk table and front edge of the
sit of chair?
A. Distance of the back support;
B. * Distance of sitting
C. Differentia
D. height of seating;
E. depth of seating.
1019.
How is named distance between table and chair by the vertical
A. Distance of the back support
B. Distance of sitting
C. * Differentia
D. Height of seating
E. Depth of seating
1020.
Hygienic assessment of these indicators are subject to quality printing school
textbook
A. * Clarity, intensity, uniformity
B. Clarity, bacterial contamination
C. Intensity, parameters of visual, print
D. Paper quality, bacterial contamination, uniformity, quality recruitment
E. Font, set, trade dress
1021.
Hygienic evaluation of furniture in the children's preschool institutions is carried
out on which parameters
A. * Match the character of teaching and educational process, body position while
using the furniture, basic dimensions, their compliance with the age and stature,
accommodation facilities, sanitary maintenance
B. Match the nature of teaching and educational process
C. The main dimensions, their age and height compliance
D. The main dimensions, bacterial contamination, sanitary maintenance
E. Body position while using the furniture, their compliance with state standards
1022.
Hygienical assesstment of furniture in children preschool establishment provides
according the indexes
A. * accordance to a character of educational process, body position when using the
furniture, basic sizes, its accordans to age and stature, disposition in the rooms,
sanitary keeping
B. accordance to a character of educational process
C. basic sizes, its accordans to age and stature,
D. basic sizes, bacterial pollution, sanitary keeping
E. body position when using the furniture, its accordance to the govermental
standarts
1023.
Hygienical assesstment of indexes of quality the school textbook printing include:
A. * clearness, intensity, uniformity
B. clearness, bacterial pollution
C. intensity, indexes of visual working, font
D. quality of paper, bacterial pollution, uniformity, quality of typesetting
E. font, typesetting, outer design
1024.
In an educational room for the help of luxmeter the level of lamplight was
determined, luminescent lamps carry that out. Common lamplight of classroom must be
A. * 300 lx
B. 200 lx
C. 150 lx
D. 100 lx
E. 75 lx
1025.
In group 2 included health children only with reduced resistance:
A. True as it meets the methodological guidelines.
B. True, reduced resistance is criterion 2 groups of health
C. False, resistance is not considered
D. * False, 2nd health group includes not only children with reduced resistance, but
with unfavorable conditions
E. False, 2 groups to health include children with chronic conditions.
1026.
In school building of the centralized type on a ground floor dispose:
A. Teaching
B. Educational cabinets of senior pupils
C. Junior classes
D. * Athletic hall
E. Educational cabinets are 5-7 classes.
1027.
In which children's age bones grow rapidly?
A. * Between the ages of about 9 and 14
B. Between the ages of about 12 and 14
C. Between the ages of about 11 and 14
D. Between the ages of about 8 and 12
E. Between the ages of about 10 and 12
1028.
Indicate an area on a 1 child in a playing room in kindergarten.
A. 3,0 m2
B. * 2,5 m2
C. 2,0 m2
D. 1,5 m2
E. 1,25 m2
1029.
It is known that in 20% children who have admitted in the educational
establishments, it is long-term adaptation. What the index normalizes the first in
children?:
A. * Appetite
B. Imunoglobuline secretion
C. Sleep
D. Emotional condition
E. Speaking activity
1030.
It is used the antropometrical measures for learning of children physical
development. What is the index that is not used for it?
A. * measuring the vital capacity of lungs
B. measuring the shape of chest
C. measuring og height
D. measuring of weight
E. measuring of spine shape
1031.
It was found that 20% of children who enter into children's education, there is a
continued adaptation. Which parameters in normal children in the first place?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1032.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1033.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1034.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1035.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1036.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1037.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1038.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1039.
A.
B.
* Appetite
Immunoglobulin secretion
Sleep
Emotional state
Linguistic
Maximum number of floors in the school
6;
5;
4;
* 3;
2.
More morphological traits of the determination of somatometry
Sitting height;
* Volume of head;
Body weight;
Standing height;
Volume of the chest.
Morphofunctional characteristic of preschool children
Predominance of cartilage over the bone of the spine;
Accelerate growth in intensity compared to preschool age;
Lower threshold of audibility to speech frequencies than at school;
* formation of the reflex of writing;
Predominance myopici refraction of the eye compared to school age.
Morphofunctional characteristic of preschool children
Accelerate growth in intensity compared to preschool age;
Predominance of bone over the ridge of cartilage in comparison with the school
age;
* Muscle development hand hands, contributing writing, drawing;
Front curvature in the thoracic spine in a horizontal position of the body;
Lack of curvature in the cervical spine.
Name "school diseases", caused by incorrectly selected furniture
* Premature (early) fatigue, exhaustion, formation of neurotic phenomena,
myopia, posture disorder
Headache and dizziness, anemia, fatigue
Tonsillitis, conjunctivitis and keratitis, posture disorder
Acute respiratory viral infections, tonsillitis, fatigue
Hearing loss, myopia, anemia, formation of neurotic phenomena
Name minimum CDL (coefficient of natural illumination) in classroom:
0,5 %;
1,0 %;
* 1,5 %
0,75 %;
1,25 %.
Name somatometric index
* Growth and mass of body, circumference of thorax, head, shoulder, thigh
Growth and mass of body, circumference of thorax and head
Growth and circumference of thorax, head, shoulder, thigh
Growth and mass of body
Mass of body, circumference of thorax, head, shoulder, thigh
Name the central heating system that can be used in children's institutions
Steam heating system
Air heating system
C. * Water heating system
D. Local heating system
E. Contact heating system
1040.
Number of children in pre-school kindergarten group cannot more than
A. 35
B. 30
C. 15
D. 20
E. * 25
1041.
Number of children in younger kindergarten group cannot more than
A. 5
B. 10
C. * 15
D. 20
E. 25
1042.
Percentage of green plantations in the children preschool building territory must
be:
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
E. * 50%
1043.
Percentage of landscaped areas around Nurseries should be %
A. 10;
B. 20;
C. 30;
D. 40;
E. * 50;
1044.
Physical development of girls 10 years scale regression if the body weight and
shape of the chest are within ± 1 sigma.
A. * Harmonic
B. Low
C. Disharmonious
D. Medium
E. High
1045.
Plantography is the method of estimation:
A. Form of back
B. Form of chest
C. * Degree of flatness of foot
D. Degree of obesity
E. Force of muscles of a back
1046.
Please assess the physical development of the 10 age girl according the regression
scale, if the indexes of body weight and size of chest circumference are in the borders of
±1 sygma:
A. * harmonious
B. low
C. disharmonious
D. middle
E. high
1047.
Radius of maintenance of children of middle classes general schools in a town is
A. 0,5 (km)
B. * 1,5 (km)
C. 2,0 (km)
D. 2,5 (km)
E. 3,0 (km)
1048.
Recommended height of classroom not less than
A. 2 m
B. 2,5 m
C. * 3 m
D. 4 m
E. 5 m
1049.
Recyclable materials may be used for the production of toys in these conditions
A. * quantity of not more than 30% additives to the basic material, only for children
over 3 years, with the permission of Health of Ukraine
B. In groups of not more than 50% additives to the basic material for children of
preschool age
C. Only with the permission of Health of Ukraine
D. In groups of not more than 70% of impurities to the core material with the
permission of health service
E. Only for children aged 5 years
1050.
School furniture provides the rightness of landing of student, taken into account
here:
A. * Distance the backs, distance of seat, differentiation
B. Square on a 1 student in the meters of square
C. Growth of student
D. Localization of school desks in relation to a window
E. Distance of shoulders.
1051.
Select the best value for air regime of school premises:
A. * Training Class - 18-20 0 C, humidity 40-60%
B. Training Class - 20-22 0 C, humidity 60%
C. Cabinet Biology - 20-22 0 C, humidity 40-60%
D. Athletic Hall - 22-24 0 C, humidity 70%
E. Training Workshops - 20-22 0 C, humidity 40-60%
1052.
Sharp morbidity for a previous year
A. * A. at the age of 16-17 (for girls) and at the age of 18-19 (for boys)
B. B. at the age of 16-17 (for boys) and at the age of 18-19 (for girls)
C. C. at the age of 15-17 (for girls) and at the age of 17-19 (for- boys)
D. D. at the age of 18-19 (for girls) and at the age of 16-17 (for- boys)
E. E. at the age of 16-18 (for girls) and at the age of 18-19 (for- boys)
1053.
Signs of flat foot (by imprint).
A. Isthmus is less than 50 % of perpendicular
B. Isthmus is 50-60 % of perpendicular
C. * Isthmus is more than 60 % of perpendicular
D. Isthmus is less than 40 % of perpendicular
E. Isthmus is less than 30 % of perpendicular
1054.
Signs of flatness foot (by imprint)
A. Isthmus is less than 50 % of perpendicular
B. * Isthmus is 50-60 % of perpendicular
C. Isthmus is more than 60 % of perpendicular
D. Isthmus is less than 40 % of perpendicular
E. Isthmus is less than 40 % of perpendicular
1055.
Signs of homogeneous groups of children differing in terms of environment if
they expected the study of physical development
A. Standing and sitting height;
B.
C.
D.
E.
Body weight;
Hereditary disease of the parents;
Volume of the chest;
* Social and living conditions.
1056.
Signs of homogeneous groups of children differing in
they expected the study of physical development
A. * Gender, nationality;
B. Body weight;
C. Age parents;
D. Volume of the chest;
E. ~ Standing and sitting height.
1057.
Signs of homogeneous groups of children differing in
they expected the study of physical development
A. Hereditary disease of the parents;
B. Body weight;
C. * Age, climatic region;
D. Volume of the chest;
E. Standing and sitting height.
1058.
Signs of homogeneous groups of children differing in
they expected the study of physical development
A. Standing and sitting height;
B. Body weight;
C. * Race of children;
D. Volume of the chest;
E. Previous diseases of the previous year.
1059.
Signs of homogeneous groups of children differing in
they expected the study of physical development
A. Hereditary disease of the parents;
B. Body weight;
C. * Age, climatic region;
D. Volume of the chest;
E. Standing and sitting height.
1060.
Signs of homogeneous groups of children differing in
they expected the study of physical development
A. * Gender, nationality;
B. Body weight;
C. Age parents;
D. Volume of the chest;
E. Standing and sitting height.
1061.
Signs of normal feet
A. * Isthmus less than 50% of the length perpendicular
B. Isthmus is 50-60% of the length perpendicular
C. Isthmus is more than 60% of the length perpendicular
D. Isthmus is less than 40% of the length perpendicular
E. Isthmus is more than 60% of the length perpendicular
1062.
Signs of normal foot (by imprint)
A. * Isthmus is less than 50 % of perpendicular
B. Isthmus is 50-60 % of perpendicular
C. Isthmus is more than 60 % of perpendicular
D. Isthmus is less than 40 % of perpendicular
E. Isthmus is less than 30 % of perpendicular
terms of environment if
terms of environment if
terms of environment if
terms of environment if
terms of environment if
1063.
Specify the least value of luminosity in lx which answers the hygienic
requirements of lamplight for an educational room
A. * 300 lx
B. 350 lx
C. 400 lx
D. 450 lx
E. 500 lx
1064.
Such indexes of quality of seal of school textbook are subject a hygienic
estimation
A. Font, set, external registration
B. Clearness, bacterial contamination
C. Intensity, indexes of visual work, font
D. Paper quality, bacterial contamination, evenness, quality of set
E. * Clearness, intensity, evenness
1065.
Teaching and research area schools should be %
A. * 6 - 10;
B. 11 - 15;
C. 16-20;
D. 21 -25;
E. 26-30 .
1066.
That does not behave to principles of group isolation
A. Presence of isolated play room for each group of children
B. Presence of separate entrance for each group of children
C. * Presence of separate entrance for two groups of 6 year old children
D. Presence of separate wardrobe
E. Presence isolated playground for each group of children.
1067.
The 2nd health group consists of only children with the lowering resistance:
A. that's correct, becouse it suits to the methodical demands
B. that's correct- lowering intensity it's criteria for 2nd health group
C. that's incorrect, resistance is not taken into consideration
D. * incorrect, to the 2nd group we refer children with the premorbid conditions
E. incorrect, to the 2nd group we refer children with the chronical diseases
1068.
The basis of the day regime for children and adolescents should be assigned base
on the following basic parameters
A. * Duration of basic components, structure and management regime alternation of
different activities, content, organization and provided the main components of
the regime
B. Duration of basic components, structure and management regime alternation of
different activities
C. Content organization and provided the main mode components
D. The presence or absence of key components, the alternation of different activities,
provided the main components of the regime
E. The duration of the main components
1069.
The determination of somatometry
A. Standing height;
B. Sitting height;
C. * Width of chest;
D. Volume of the chest;
E. Weight.
1070.
The distance from building of pre-school institution to red line must be
A. 5 m
B. 10 m
C. 15 m;
D. 20 m
E. * 25 m*
1071.
The district building type on the first floor position in the school
A. Teaching
B. Teaching classrooms seniors
C. Junior classes
D. Teaching classrooms grades 5-7
E. * Physical training hall
1072.
The forest health resorts for children with the aim of training a different
procedure. Please specify which of the following procedures are better in the summer?
A. Bath with hydro massage
B. The morning exercises in the fresh air
C. * Hard shower
D. Hygienic shower
E. Walk in the fresh air
1073.
The health of children and adolescents affected biological factors
A. * Heredity, the level of sexual maturity, growth rates, maternal health
B. Heredity, physical development, health of parents
C. Physical activity, lifestyle
D. The growth rate, health of mother
E. Genetic factor, the level of sexual maturity
1074.
The high degree of development of child is characterized by the size of sigmal
deviation from middle arithmetic one in scopes:
A. * More than +2,1 sigma
B. Between + 1 ? and + 2 sigma
C. Between – 1? and + 1 sigma
D. Between –1,1 ? and -sigma
E. Less than –2,1sigma
1075.
The illuminometer determined by the level of artificial lighting, which are
fluorescent lamps in the classrooms. The total artificial lighting educational facilities
should be:
A. 75 lx
B. 200 lx
C. 150 lx
D. 100 lx
E. * 300 lx
1076.
The materials used in manufacturing toys for children, must meet hygiene
requirements as
A. * Shall not include harmful additives toxic substances for human
B. Must pass sanitary inspection
C. other technical specification
D. Have not been made in a dirty country like india or china
E. Take the bacteriological analysis
1077.
The members of group block of a kindergarten is not included a
A. * Isolation room;
B. WC;
C. Game room;
D. Cloakroom;
E. Bedroom;
1078.
The middle degree of development of child is characterized by the size of sigmal
deviation from middle arithmetic one in scopes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1079.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1080.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1081.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1082.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1083.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1084.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1085.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
More than +2,1 sigma
Between + 1 ? and + 2 sigma
* Between – 1? and + 1 sigma
Between –1,1 ? and -2sigma
Less than –2,1sigma
The most accurate indicator of biological age in preschoolers is
* Bone age
Neurological development
Annual growth, body length
Harmonious development
Educational characteristics
The most important principle of design school buildings
Creating optimal lighting conditions;
Creating optimal microclimate conditions;
* Separation of young, middle-and older students;
Creating optimal conditions for physical education;
Creating optimal languages daycare.
The purpose of studying the physical development of children and adolescents
Evaluation of the effectiveness of physical education;
* Assessment of the impact of environmental factors on health;
Proficiency rating of the child;
Mental status evaluation of the child;
Development of the hygienic requirements of the environment in children's
institutions.
The purpose of studying the physical development of children and adolescents,
Evaluation of the effectiveness of physical education;
* Assessment of the impact of environmental factors on health;
Proficiency rating of the child;
Mental status evaluation of the child;
Development of the hygienic requirements of the environment in children's
institutions.
The purpose of studying the physical development of children and adolescents,
Proficiency rating of the child;
* Assessment of physical development;
Mental status evaluation of the child;
school regime evaluation of the child;
Development of the hygienic requirements of the environment in children's
institutions.
The purpose of studying the physical development of children and adolescents
Proficiency rating of the child;
Evaluation of the effectiveness of physical education;
Mental status evaluation of the child;
* Health assessment of the child;
Development of the hygienic requirements of the environment in children's
institutions.
The purpose of studying the physical development of children and adolescents
Proficiency rating of the child;
* Assessment of physical development;
Mental status evaluation of the child;
school regime evaluation of the child;
Development of the hygienic requirements of the environment in children's
institutions.
1086.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1087.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1088.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1089.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1090.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1091.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The purpose of studying the physical development of children and adolescents
Proficiency rating of the child;
Evaluation of the effectiveness of physical education;
Mental status evaluation of the child;
* Health assessment of the child;
Development of the hygienic requirements of the environment in children's
institutions.
The purpose of studying the physical development of children and adolescents,
* Development of standards of physical development of children and adolescents;
school regime evaluation of the child;
Proficiency rating of the child;
Mental status evaluation of the child;
Development of the hygienic requirements of the environment in children's
institutions.
The purpose of studying the physical development of children and adolescents
* Development of standards of physical development of children and adolescents;
school regime evaluation of the child;
Proficiency rating of the child;
Mental status evaluation of the child;
Development of the hygienic requirements of the environment in children's
institutions.
The school furniture should be ergonomic, that means
* Accord to the height of the child
Accord to the weight of the child;
Accord to the age of the child
Accord to the sex of the child
Accord to the age and weight of the child.
The special measures include hardening
* Air baths, throat gargle, water treatments
Physical education, air baths
Create the optimum thermal conditions in areas where there are children, water
therapy, air bath
Throat Gargle, walking, physical education
Walking, sensible clothing, physical education
The volume of the thorax measured
Only at rest;
Only in a state of maximum inhalation;
Only in a state of maximum exhalation
In a prone position at rest;
* At rest, maximal inhalation and maximal exhalation.
There are the basic factors which must constitute the day regime for children and
1092.
teens:
A. * duration of basic components, structure of regime and rational rotation of
different kinds of activity, content, organization and conditions of execution the
basic components of regime
B. duration of basic components, regime structure and rational rotation of different
kinds of activity
C. content, organization and conditions of execution the basic components of regime
D. presence or absence of basic components, rotation of different kinds of activity,
content, organization and conditions of execution the basic components of regime
E. duration of basic components of regime
1093.
Thickness of fat deposites are defined based on
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fold thickness measurements on arm;
Measurement of body weight;
Fold thickness measurements on mid-line of the abdomen in the navel;
On the development of the shoulder girdle muscular system;
* Fold thickness measurement in the abdomen (navel level, 5-6 cm to the side of
it).
1094.
Thickness of fat deposits is defined by
A. Fold thickness measurements on a scapula;
B. Measurement of body weight;
C. Fold thickness measurements on mid-line of the abdomen in the navel;
D. On the development of the shoulder girdle muscular system;
E. * Fold thickness measurement in the abdomen (navel level, 5-6 cm to the side of
it).
1095.
Thickness of fat deposits is defined by
A. * Fold thickness measurements on a scapula;
B. Measurement of body weight;
C. Fold thickness measurements on mid-line of the abdomen in the navel;
D. On the development of the shoulder girdle muscular system;
E. Fold thickness measurement in the abdomen (under the costal arc).
1096.
To determine the biological maturation of the child, which of the following
indicators are used :
A. * Body length, the yearly increments of body length, tooth formula
B. Muscle strength palms of her hands, the shape of the chest
C. Nature fat deposits, the perimeter of the chest
D. the degree of sexual maturation
E. Vital capacity, form the spine
1097.
To prevent disturbances of conduct students are moved from the first row in the
third and back without changing the order of school furniture stature children, at least
A. * 2 times per year
B. 3 times a year
C. 4 times a year
D. 6 times a year
E. Not all transplanted
1098.
To study the physical development of children and adolescents using
anthropometric study. Which rate does not belong to anthropometric?
A. * Determination of vital capacity of lungs
B. Determination of the chest
C. Measuring growth
D. Determination of body weight
E. Determination of the spine
1099.
Types of deportment:
A. normal, cylindric, asthenic, conical, bended
B. physiological, asthenic, normosthenic, disproportional
C. proportional, disproportional, disharmonious, acute disharmonious
D. * normal, stooped, lordic, kyphotic, erectal
E. pathological, flattened, flat, unfit to the calendar age
1100.
Types of posture
A. Normal, cylindrical, asthenia, tapered, bent;
B. Physiological, asthenic, normostenic;
C. Proportionate, disproportionate, disharmonious, sharply disharmonious;
D. * Normal, hunched over, lordotic, kifotic, scoliotic;
E. Pathological, flattened, flat,
1101.
What is the ''back distance'' of school furniture:
A. distance from anterior edge of seat to its posterior edge
B. * distance in the horisontal flat from the posterior edge of table to the back of the
seat
C. distance in the vertical flat from the edge of the table to the flat of the seat
D. depth of seat
E. distance in the vertical flat from the anterior edge of table to the back of the seat
1102.
When assessing the hygiene schedule of classes out of the following provisions:
A. The lessons of physical education rationally put last.
B. * Determination of difficulty of lessons, the curve of efficiency, duty of varying
complexity
C. Determination of individual performance.
D. Between lessons should be a break.
E. Consideration of the need to switch activities
1103.
When negotiating timetable medical schools found that the 10 th class for 38
classes a week. Does the weekly load hygienic requirements?
A. Matches
B. Undervalued.
C. * Excessive for 1-2 hours.
D. Inflated by 3-4 hours.
E. inflated by 5-6 hours.
1104.
When the scheduling of lessons in schools should take into account the following
hygienic principles
A. Rationally constructed regime day, the degree of severity
B. * The dynamics of efficiency, management of duty, the degree of severity
C. Start in school management duty of activities, duration of lessons
D. The existence of the state and school component, the dynamics of efficiency,
E. The degree of severity on a scale Syvkova, rational duty of the various activities
within the educational day
1105.
Which maximal mass of toy for the children of junior age is to be?
A. 100 g;
B. 150 g
C. 250g
D. * 300 g
E. 500 g
1106.
Which maximal mass of toy for the children over 3 years old is to be?
A. * 400 g
B. 500g
C. 250g
D. 300 g
E. 600 g
1107.
Which not influencing the health of pupils?
A. The analysis of health and physical development of pupils and organization of
medical preventive measures
B. The organization of anti-epidemic measures for the prevention of infectious
diseases
C. Systematic control of the medical and hygienic conditions in schools and the
fulfillment of the daily routine
D. The involvement of teachers and parents into the active work connected with
health control of the children.
E. * The involvement of air
1108.
Which one of the following is a NOT pathological curvature of a backbone?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hyperkyphosis and hyperlordosis
* thoracal kyphosis
hyperlordosis
hyperkyphosis
Scoliosis
1109.
Which one of the following is cannot be the form of chest:
A. round
B. normal
C. conic
D. cylindrical
E. * rachitic
1110.
Which one of the following is NOT the anthroposcopic parameters
A. Estimate a constitution
B. Estimate habitus
C. * Measurement of a circle of the chest
D. Estimate backbone
E. Estimate degree of development of secondary sexual attributes
1111.
Which one of the following maximal mass of toy must be for the children of
junior age?
A. 100 g
B. 200g;
C. * 300 g
D. 400 g.
E. 500 g;
1112.
The formation of fat is define
A. * Fold thickness measurements below the scapula;
B. Measurement of body weight;
C. Fold thickness measurements on mid-line of the abdomen in the navel;
D. On the development of the shoulder girdle muscular system;
E. Fold thickness measurement in the abdomen (under the costal arc).
1113.
Characteristics of occupational cancers.
A. Appear after prolonged exposure (10-25 years)
B. Cancer may appear after cessation of exposure.
C. Cancer is highly specific in site, in any one occupation.
D. Average age incidence is earlier than that for cancer in general.
E. * All are correct
1114.
Control of occupational cancers.
A. Elimination / control of carcinogens.
B. Regular medical examination.
C. Inspection of factories.
D. Notification,pesonal hygiene
E. * All are correct
1115.
Caplan syndrome consists of the following:
A. Silicosis + tuberculosis
B. * Pneumoconiosis + Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Byssinosis + Rheumatoid arthritis
D. .Asbestosis + tuberculosis
E. Byssinosis + tuberculosis
1116.
Hearing loss among the workers because of in-plant noise is determined by
A. * audiometry method
B. noise method
C. noise and vibration dosimeter
D. vibration dosimeter
E. noise dosimeter
1117.
Parameter are use in Spectrograme
A. * noise frequency , Sound pressure levels (dB)
B. Sound pressure levels (dB)
C. noise frequency
D. noise levels
E. Area of room
1118.
The “dust formula” is
A. * the percentage of the dust particles of each size in the whole sample
B. dust concentration (mg/m3) may be calculated using
C. level dust in room
D. concentration dust
E. All are correct
1119.
The most common pigment to be deposited in the lungs is:
A. Iron
B. Silica
C. * Carbon
D. Dust
E. Oxiden
1120.
Children working at foundries are exposed to all of the following except
A. Noise
B. Heat
C. Carbon mono oxide
D. Silica dust
E. * Asbestos dust
1121.
. The most common lung tumor seen in non-smokers:
A. Small cell carcinoma
B. . Large cell carcinoma
C. * Adenocarcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
E. Middle cell carcinoma
1122.
Poisoning by what matter will have next symptoms: Headache,
Irritability,Fatigue,Vomiting, Impaired judgement,Ringing in car,Loss of motor-power,
Unconsciousness
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Benzene
D. * Carbon monoxide
E. Chlorine
1123.
19. What else but noise can this device measure?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Dust
C. Total microbe number
D. * Vibrate
E. Hearing loss
1124.
The usual size of the particle which causes pneumoconiosis is
A. < 0.5 micrometer
B. * 0.5 – 3 micrometer
C. 3-10 micrometer
D. 10-99 micrometer
E. more 100 micrometer
1125.
A granuloma defined as a group of activated epithelioid macrophages surrounded
by a cuff of lymphocytes can be seen in the lung in all conditions, EXCEPT:
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Berylliosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. * Asbestosis
E. Pneumonia
1126.
A mechanical milling machine shop is exposed to high noise levels that exceed
the GDR. After 7-8 years of specialty he may develop occupational illness Sensorineural Hearing Loss. Which preventive measures are most important?
A. * Nature of technological measures designed to reduce noise to the GDR
B. Planning arrangements
C. Health prevention measures
D. Personal protection measures
E. Technical measures
1127.
A middle aged man presents with paraesthesia of hands and feet, hyperkeratosis,
lines in the nails and rain drop pigmentation in the hands. The most likely causative toxin
for the above mentioned symptoms is:
A. Lead
B. * Arsenic
C. Thallium
D. Mercury
E. Plumbum
1128.
A most danger for development of dust pathology on lung is made dust by size,
micrometer
A. More than 20;
B. 20-10
C. 10-0,25
D. * 0,25-0,1;
E. less than 0,1;
1129.
A persone age 40. Who had been working as a labourer in grain market for the last
25 yeas presented with history of repeated attacks of respiratory infections in the last 1
year. X-ray showed pulmonary fibrosis.The likely diagnosis was:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Silicosis
C. Silicotuberculosis
D. Farmer`s lung
E. * Baggasosis
1130.
A woman working in an industry during night shifts is exposed to 750 lux of light.
She is most probably at risk of:
A. Keratomalacia
B. Breast cancer
C. Dermatitis
D. Conjuntival xerosis
E. * Night blindness
1131.
A worker who had been in the battery manufacturing unit for yhe last 20 years,
responted to you with complaints of lost appetite and abdominal colic of 2 weeks
duration.You would prefer to investigate him for:
A. Cholecyctitis
B. * Lead poisoning
C. Appendicitis
D. Ameobiasis
1132.
1133.
1134.
1135.
1136.
1137.
1138.
1139.
1140.
E. Stomach cancer
All of the aboveWorkers of dye indastry are predisposed to the development
A. * Bladder
B. Skin
C. Lung
D. Pancreas
E. Liver
All the following cancers r associated with occupational exposure except
A. liver
B. lung
C. * rectum
D. urinary bladder
E. hand
All the following form part of occupational health history exceptA. history of previous occupation
B. exposure of the dust
C. * childhood immunization
D. safty
E. adult immunization
Arrangements of noise control:
A. * Collective protection;
B. Noise insulation means;
C. Production Automation;
D. Change process;
E. Damping equipment.
Arrangements of noise control:
A. * Collective protective equipment
B. Noise reduction by means of sound insulation
C. Production Automation
D. Change process
E. Damping equipment
Asbestosis is
A. * It is directly related to intensity and duration of exposure
B. PFT shows a combination of obstructive and restrictive pattern
C. Chest x-ray reveals irregular or linear opacities greatest in lower lung fields
D. Pleural plaques are early signs of the disease
E. The risk of both lung cancer and mesothelioma is increased
Aspirator used ____ .
A. measure vibration
B. for measure level noise
C. * for measure concentration of dust
D. for measure hearing loss
E. for measure level UV ray
Bagassois is due to inhalation of
A. cotton dust
B. * sugarcane dust
C. silica dust
D. coal dus
E. metal dust
Bagassosis can be prevented by spraying bagase with
A. 10% acetic acid
B. 5% acetic acid
C. 1% propionic acid
D. * 2% prophionic acid
E. 12% prophionic acid
1141.
Bysinossis is common in
A. weavers
B. * spinners
C. growers
D. dyers
E. metal
1142.
Cancer of lung is more in indastry connected by
A. Metal grindihg
B. Pottery and ceramics
C. * Asbestos and nickel product
D. Rubber
E. Ferum
1143.
Carbon monoxide have affinity of hemoglobin than oxygen in next times
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 250
E. * 300
1144.
Carcinoma of the bronchus is associated with which one of the following
pneumoconiosis
A. Silicosis
B. Baggasosis
C. Byssinosis
D. * Asbestosis
E. Anthracosis
1145.
Causes of hypercapnia include all of the followings except:
A. * myasthenia gravis
B. central sleep apnea
C. ankylosing spondylitis
D. motor neuron disease
E. acute pneumonia
1146.
Cement industry worker reported to you with complaints of cough, dyspnoea on
exertion and chest pain. His X-ray chest showed `snow `storm appearance.The diagnosis
would be:
A. * Asbestosis
B. Siderisis
C. Silicosis
D. Aspergillosis
E. Byssinossis
1147.
Coal worker's pneumoconiosis is
A. * Asbestosis
B. Siderisis
C. Silicosis
D. Aspergillosis
E. Byssinossis
1148.
Compounds of which pollutant can cause the development of this pathology with
the central paralysis, newborns blindness, idiocy among the population that lives near to
pesticides production enterprise?
A. Cadmium
B.
C.
D.
E.
Chrome
Iron
* Mercury
Strontium
1149.
Cotton dust is:
A. Inorganic;
B. * Organic;
C. Mineral
D. Metal;
E. None of the about.
1150.
Crucial in the fight against noise (noise prevention of professional diseases) are :
A. * Engineering and technological activities;
B. Treatment and prevention;
C. Arrangements;
D. Means of collective protection;
E. Rationing noise.
1151.
Disease due to noise
A. Anthracosis
B. * Deafness
C. Cancer of lung
D. Dermatitis
E. Caisson disease
1152.
Disease due to noise:
A. Anthracosis;
B. * Deafness;
C. Cancer of lung;
D. Dermatitis
E. Caisson disease.
1153.
Disease due to pressure
A. Anthracosis
B. Byssionosis;
C. Cancer of lung
D. * Caisson disease
E. Eczema
1154.
Dust content of a foundry is 5 microns of 4.2 MAC. Development of which
disease may lead to ?
A. Angina
B. Acute respiratory disease.
C. Bronchitis.
D. Pneumonia.
E. * Pneumoconiosis.
1155.
Dust influences on:
A. specific illness
B. not specific illness
C. On skin
D. On eyes
E. * All are correct
1156.
Dustmeter used ____.
A. for measure vibration
B. for measure level noise
C. * for measure concentration of dust
D. for measure hearing loss
1157.
1158.
1159.
1160.
1161.
1162.
1163.
1164.
1165.
E. for measure level UV ray
Farmers lung is due to inhalation of
A. cotton fibre
B. sugarcane fibre
C. * hay dust
D. coal dust
E. metal dust
Fatal dose of acute copper sulphate poisoning is
A. 30 mgms
B. * 30 gms
C. 3 gms
D. 100 gms
E. 300 gms
For what is use gasanaliser UG-2?
A. For determination of the microbes content in the air
B. For determination of the dust content in the air
C. * For determination of the gas pollutants in the air
D. For determination of the microbes content in the water
E. For determination of the pollutants in the milk
For what use Audiometer?
A. for measure vibration
B. for measure level noise
C. for measure concentration of dust
D. * for measure hearing loss
E. for measure level UV ray
General effects noise influences include
A. Nausea,
B. vomiting,
C. giddiness
D. fatigue.sleep
E. * All are correct
How many stages of Silicosis do you know?
A. one (іnterstetial
B. two (diffusely sclerotic, fibrosis).
C. * Three (іnterstetial, diffusely sclerotic, knot).
D. Four (fibrosis, knot, sclerotic, pulmonary).
E. Five (pulmonary, lymfatic, sclerotic, diffuse, іnterstetial).
How we can determination of the dust content in the air by aspirator?
A. * A. Weighed filter mass before and after air aspiration
B. Weighed plastic allonge mass before and after air aspiration
C. Weighed filter mass only before air aspiration
D. Weighed filter mass only after air aspiration
E. Weighed plastic allonge mass only before air aspiration
Human ear perceives sound pressure in the range of ____ .
A. * 2-10-5 - 2-101,5 N/m2,
B. 1-10-5 - 2-101,5 N/m2
C. 2-10-2 - 2-104N/m2
D. 1-10-3 - 2-1013N/m2
E. 1-10-4 - 2-105 N/m2
Hygiene norm of frecency rate of air exchange in room is
A. 0-1 times;
B. * 2-3 times;
C. 4-5 times;
D. 6-8 times;
E. 9-10 times.
1166.
In foundry dust content of silicon the size of 5 microns of 4.2 MAC. What can
cause this disease?
A. Angina
B. Acute respiratory disease
C. Bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
E. * Pneumoconiosis
1167.
In preplacement examination of workers in dye industry, special consideration is
given to all except
A. pre canceres conditions
B. bladder disease
C. * anemia
D. asthma
E. silicosis
1168.
In the machine shop milling machine is exposed to high noise levels that exceed
the hygienical norm. After 7-8 years of specialty he may develop an occupational
disease- Sensorineural hearing loss. Which preventive measures are most important?
A. * Activities technological nature to reduce noise to the hygienical norm
B. Planning arrangements
C. Health prevention measures
D. Personal protection measures
E. Technical measures
1169.
In the Workplace registered for aircraft engine test aerodynamic noise is at 102
dBA. Which preventive measures are most effective in this case?
A. * Installing active silencers
B. Installation of engine noise foundation
C. Accurate fitting engine parts
D. Rationalization of work and rest regime
E. Individual protective measures
1170.
In what unit measure amplitude of vibration?
A. Vt/m2
B. Hz
C. dB
D. * m
E. m/sec
1171.
In what unit measure intensity of noise?
A. Vt/m2;
B. Hz;
C. * dB;
D. Pa;
E. m/sec.
1172.
In what unit measure intensity of noise?
A. Vt/m2
B. Hz
C. * dB
D. Pa
E. m/sec
1173.
In what unit measuring speed of air?
A. Meters;
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hours;
Centimeters;
* Meter per second;
m3/hour.
1174.
In what units measuring concentration of dust in air?
A. Miligram (mg)
B. Degree
C. Percent (%)
D. * Mg / m3
E. L / min
1175.
Inhalation of the cotton dust causesA. * byssianosis
B. bagassosis
C. anthracosis
D. mouldy lung
E. silicosis
1176.
Inhalation of the cotton dust causesA. * byssianosis
B. bagassosis
C. anthracosis
D. mouldy lung
E. silicosis
1177.
Lung cancer is an industrial hazord in
A. chimney sweepers
B. aniline industry
C. * gas industry
D. benzol industry
E. farmers
1178.
Main source of EMF work with RF induction in heating the metal settings are:
A. Processing detail
B. RF Generator Screen
C. * Inductor
D. A and correctly
E. Nothing correct
1179.
Maximum level noise in industry is
A. 25 Db
B. 65 Db
C. * 85 Db
D. 95 Db
E. 100 Db
1180.
Maximum possible concentrations of dust in air of the workings rooms at
presence of in it free dioxide of silica more than 70% in mg/m3 .
A. 0,5
B. * 1,0
C. 1,5
D. 2,0
E. 2,5
1181.
Measurement of tension and flux density of EMF in the workplace and where
possible finding of personnel related to exposure to EMF professionally, in order of
current sanitary surveillance should be conducted at least .
A. * Once a year
B. Once in six months
C. Quarterly
D. Once a month
E. Every week
1182.
Mode of entery of chlorine in human organism is:
A. * Inhalation
B. Gastrointestinal tract and skin
C. Skin
D. Inhalation and skin
E. Blood
1183.
Monday Fever is
A. Tuberculosis
B. Brucellosis
C. * Byssinosis
D. Malaria
E. Botulism
1184.
Most common cancer due to occupational hazards is that of:
A. * Skin
B. Lung;
C. Bladder;
D. Leukemias;
E. Liver.
1185.
Name pneumoconiosis related to the group silicatosis
A. * Caolinosis, asbestosis, talkosis
B. Baggasosis, alyuminoz, berylliosis
C. Byssinosis, Amylose, asbestosis
D. Siderosis, graphitosis, talkosis
E. Barytosis, berylliosis, caolinosis
1186.
Name pneumoconiosis, which belong to the groups silicatosis
A. * Asbestosis, talkosis
B. Bagasosis, aluminosis, berylliosis
C. Bisynosis, Amulosis, asbestosis
D. Siderosis, talkoz
E. Barytosis, berylliosis, caolinosis
1187.
Name the minimum level of sound pressure which violations of functions of
internal organs are at (in dB)
A. 40
B. 50
C. 60
D. 70
E. * 80
1188.
Name the parametrs, which not characterized microclimat
A. Humidity of air
B. Tempiture regime
C. Speed of air movement
D. * Dusty level of air
E. Radiative temperature
1189.
Name the parametrs, which not characterized microclimat:
A. Humidity of air;
B. Tempiture regime;
C. Speed of air movement;
D. * Dusty level of air;
E. Radiative temperature.
1190.
Named the minimum level of sound pressure which violations of functions of the
central nervous system are at (in dB):
A. 20
B. * 30
C. 40
D. 50
E. 60
1191.
Named the physiology systems of organism of man which is the most vulnerable
to the action of noise
A. Endocrine system, blood
B. * the Auditory analyzer, central nervous and cardio-vascula system
C. Visual and auditory analyzers
D. Lymphatic and endocrine systems
E. Muskula-bon and immunology systems
1192.
Noise meter used___.
A. for measure vibration
B. * for measure level noise
C. for measure concentration of dust
D. for measure hearing loss
E. for measure level UV ray
1193.
On character of changes of general intensity during time for a man the most
harmful noise:
A. * Impulsive
B. Continuous
C. Stable
D. Voice-frequency
E. Wide-line
1194.
One method of determining dust in air is drawing a volume of air through the
filter with aerosol device, shown in Figure .Name this device?
A. Pylemir
B. Anemometer
C. * Aspirator
D. Hygrometer
E. Audiometer
1195.
One of the following pneumoconiosis diseases occur in glass and ceramics
industry:
A. Anthracosis
B. * Silicosis
C. Bagassosis
D. Byssinosis:
E. None of the about
1196.
Plumbism is :
A. Chlorine poisoning
B. * Mercury poisoning
C. Arsenic poisoning
D. Lead poisoning
E. Manganese poisoning
1197.
Pneumoconiosis is caused by all but one of the following type of dust:
A. Inorganic;
B. Organic;
C. * Soluble;
D. Insoluble;
E. Mixed.
1198.
Poisoning by what chemical substance will have next sings and symptoms:
salivation, tremors of hand and tongue, ataxia, gingivitis.
A. Lead;
B. * Mercury;
C. Benzene;
D. Carbon monoxide;
E. Chlorine.
1199.
Poisoning by what chemical substance will have next sings and symptoms:
salivation, tremors of hand and tongue, ataxia, gingivitis.
A. Lead
B. * Mercury
C. Benzene
D. Carbon monoxide
E. Chlorine
1200.
Poisoning by what matter will have next symptoms: Salivation, Gingivitis, Loss
of teeth , Diarrea , Tremors of hand and tongue, Lerathism (morbid timidity & shyness),
Ataxia
A. Lead;
B. * Mercury
C. Benzene
D. Carbon monoxide
E. Chlorine
1201.
Poisoning by what matter will have next symptoms: Ulceration of skin,
Dermaatitis, Keratosis,Gastro-intestinal,Peripheral neuritis, Anaemia, Haematuria,
Jaundice
A. Mercury
B. Benzene
C. * Arsenic
D. Carbon monoxide
E. Chlorine
1202.
Poisoning by what matter will have next symptoms: anemia, colic, burtonian line
on gums, muscles weakness
A. * Lead;
B. Mercury
C. Benzene
D. Carbon monoxide
E. Chlorine
1203.
Reason of origin of silicosis is breathing in a dust which contains:
A. Anthracite coal;
B. Oxides of metals
C. Organic dust;
D. * Oxides of silica
E. Graphite
1204.
Silicosis arise up depending on the effect of action:
A. dust with maintenance of lead
B. dust with maintenance of mercury
C. dust with maintenance of manganese
D. dust with maintenance of oxide of carbon
E. * dust with maintenance of oxide of silica
1205.
Silicosis is:
A. * It occurs due to exposure to crystalline quartz in blasting and quarrying
B. High intensity exposure may lead to a rapidly fatal pulmonary fibrosis
C. Upper lobe fibrosis and hilar lymphadenopathy may occur > 15 years after
exposure
D. Chest x-ray usually shows reticular densities towards the lung periphery
E. Risk of pulmonary tuberculosis is increased
1206.
Student N the estimation level of noiseoin the work place in the cold punching.
What device does he use for this hygienical research ?
A. Analyzer of spectrum of noise
B. Audiotester
C. Aspirator
D. * Dustmeter
E. Piranometr
1207.
Tell the norms of speed air moving in the factory rooms
A. 0,6 - 0,8m/s
B. * 0,1 – 0,3 m/s
C. 0,5 – 0,7 m/s
D. 2 –3 m/s
E. 3 – 4 m/s
1208.
Tell the norms of speed air moving in the rooms
A. 0,6 - 0,8m/s
B. * 0,1 – 0,3 m/s
C. 0,5 – 0,7 m/s
D. 2 –3 m/s
E. 3 – 4 m/s
1209.
The agricultural health hazards
A. Zoonotic diseases
B. Mechanical accidents
C. Toxic hazards
D. Physical hazards,Respiratory diseases
E. * All are correct
1210.
The cancerogenic chemical that has a very long latent period is
A. benzopyrine
B. vinyl chloride
C. * asbesto
D. astrogens
E. silicosis
1211.
The clinical symptoms of lead toxicity r associated with blood levelsof
A. 30 micro gram/100ml blood
B. 40
C. 50
D. * 70
E. 20
1212.
The cup anemometer has measuring speed of the wind
A. From 0,05-0,1 m/sec;
B. From 0,1 – 1 m/sec;
C. From 1-10 m/sec;
D. From 0,1 – 15 m/sec
E. * From 1 to 50 m/sec.
1213.
The following statements are correct:
A. * Complicated coal worker’s pneumoconiosis is indicated by presence of nodules
> 1 cm in the upper lung fields on CXR
B. Byssinosis gives a histopathological picture that is indistinguishable form
sarcoidosis
C. Berylliosis occurs from exposure to cotton dust
D. Byssinosis is associated with moderately severe airflow obstruction
E. Farmer’s lung syndrome is a form of hypersensitivity pneumonitis
1214.
The hazardous effects of dusts on lungs not depends upon a
A. Chemical composition
B. Size of particle
C. Concentration of dust in air
D. Period of exposure
E. * Natural illumination
1215.
The hazardous effects of industrial noise not depends upon a…
A. Age;
B. Individual susceptibility;
C. Spectrum of noise;
D. Noise’s continuity or intermittence;
E. * Humidity of air;
1216.
The hazardous effects of industrial noise not depends upon a…..
A. Age
B. Individual susceptibility
C. Spectrum of noise
D. Noise’s continuity or intermittence
E. * Humidity of air
1217.
The ill-effects, which produced chemical agents not depend upon
A. the duration of exposure;
B. the quantum of exposure;
C. * natural illumination;
D. individual susceptibility;
E. age;
1218.
The industy,with the highest accidental death rate and long held to be the most
dangerous occupation is
A. agriculture
B. construction
C. * mining and quarrying
D. trade
E. service
1219.
The kind of ventilation, when fresh air is supplied into the room by the ventilator
and the polluted air is removed by natural way is
A. Extract ventolation;
B. Natural ventilation;
C. * Inflowing ventilation;
D. Inflowing-extract ventilation
E. Air conditioning
1220.
The maximum permitted hrs of the work /week/person under factory act isA. 42
B. * 48
C. 56
D. 60
E. 24
1221.
The most common industrial disease of the employ populatn is
A. emphysema
B. chronic bronchitis
C. * occupational dermatosis
D. silicosis
E. baga
1222.
The pneumoconiosis which predisposes to pulmonary tuberculosis is
A. Asbestosis
B. Bagassosis
C. * Silicosis
D. Bygasosis
E. All of the above
1223.
The respiratory system, in conjunction with the cardiovascular system, delivers
_____to the cells of the body.
A. * Oxygen
B. Nutrients
C. carbon dioxide
D. sodium
E. carbon monooxide
1224.
The science which deals with fitting the job to the worker is
A. Eugenics
B. Bionics
C. * Ergonomics
D. Euthanasia
E. Biology
1225.
The size of respirable dust isA. * 1-5 microns
B. 5-10 microns
C. 20 microns
D. 15 microns
E. 40 microns
1226.
The vibration is not characterised by
A. Amplitude
B. Vibrospeed
C. Frequency
D. * Length
E. Vibroacceleration
1227.
True combination is all except
A. cold trench foot
B. light miner’s nystagmus
C. pressure caisson disease
D. * cane fibre farmers lung
E. hot trench foot
1228.
Type of pneumoconiosis
A. Aktynomycosis
B. * Silicatosis
C. Aspergillosis
D. Bronchitis (tracheitis)
E. "Dusty" pneumonia
1229.
Type of pneumoconiosis associated with the action of dust bridge i.e.silica bound
substance?
A. Aluminosis
B. Anthracosis;
C. Siderosis;
D. Silicosis;
1230.
1231.
1232.
1233.
1234.
1235.
1236.
1237.
1238.
E. * Asbestosis.
Type of pneumoconiosis associated with the action of dust containing silica bound
A. Aluminosis
B. Anthracosis
C. Siderosis
D. Silicosis
E. * Asbestosis
Type of pneumoconiosis out of following?
A. Actinomycosis;
B. * Silicatosis
C. Aspergillosis;
D. Bronchitis (tracheitis)
E. "Widespread" pneumonia.
What basic method of determination of maintenance of dust do you know in air?
A. Microskopic method
B. Chemical method
C. * Weigt method
D. Physical method
E. Ultramicroskopic method
What can be measured using this device (ISHV)?
A. Dust air
B. Carbon dioxide
C. * Noise and vibration
D. Level ionizing radiation
E. The level of artificial lighting
What device use for determination of concentration of dust in air ?
A. Catatermometer
B. Psychromet
C. Anemometer
D. * Aspirator;
E. Luxmete
What device use for determination of concentration of dust in air?
A. Catatermometer;
B. Psychrometr;
C. * Anemometer;
D. Aspirator;
E. Luxmeter.
What does the degree of dispersion of production dust testify about?
A. degree of contamination
B. origin of dust
C. dustformation
D. About penetration of dust in an oral cavity
E. * Depth of penetration of dust in respiratory tracts.
What does this picture show?
A. * Allows you to identify the frequency at which faktychnyy noise at the real place
than the permitted maximum level
B. To identify the frequency at which the noise of the studied faktychnyy place over
pain threshold
C. To determine the level of hearing loss under the influence of industrial noise
D. Adapted to determine the workers' actual level of noise
E. To evaluate the functional status of auditory analyzer
What dust is most taken by phagocytes at the hit of it in respiratory tracts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Izon
Asbestos
Wooden
* Coal
Grain dust.
1239.
What form of anemia is characteristic for chronic arsenous intoxication ?
A. * Hemolytic anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Hyper sideric anemia
D. B12 - deficiency anemia
E. Aplastic anemia
1240.
What from the transferred matters in a considerable concentration can cause
asbestosis?
A. SO2 in air.
B. МgО in air
C. silicica acid in air
D. * Presence of salts of silica acid and magnesia in air.
E. NО2 in mid air
1241.
What individual method of protecting from a harmful dust is basic?
A. gauze bandage
B. * Respirator
C. Berushi.
D. Gas-mask
E. Headphones.
1242.
What is maximal weight of loads by women (Accouding the Legislation)?
A. less than 10 kg
B. * less than 20 kg
C. less than 25 kg
D. less than 30 kg
E. less than 40 kg
1243.
What is maximal weight of loads for boy (Accouding the Legislation)?
A. less than 10 kg
B. * less than 20 kg
C. less than 25 kg
D. less than 30 kg
E. less than 40 kg
1244.
What is maximal weight of loads for girl (Accouding the Legislation)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1245.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1246.
* less than 10 kg
less than 20 kg
less than 25 kg
less than 30 kg
less than 40 kg
What is not preventive measure from poisoning due chemical substances?
Good ventilation
Use of respirator mask
Health education
Protective clothing
* Provide hand washing before eating
What is pneumoconiosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Dust defeat of overhead respiratory tracts
pneumonia
* Pulmonary dust fibrosis
Pulmonary dust pneumonia
Dust bronchitis
1247.
What is the cause of the illness for worker of the chemical plant complains of
fatigue, insomnia, headache,tremor, asymmetry of reflexes, labile pulse, stable red
dermographism, gingivitis?
A. * Chronic mercury poisoning
B. Chronic cadmium poisoning
C. Chronic aniline poisoning
D. Chronic petrol poisoning
E. Chronic lead poisoning
1248.
What is the most probable diagnosis for the patient has worked 13 years as a
bulldozer driver?
A. Syringomyelia
B. * Vibration disease
C. Periarteritis nodosa
D. Raynaud's disease
E. Atherosclerosis obliterans
1249.
What is the unit measure frequency of noise?
A. Vt/m2;
B. * Hz
C. dB
D. Pa
E. m/sec
1250.
What kind of dust causes asbestos?
A. Free silica;
B. * Mixture of magnesium and iron silicates;
C. Hard coal;
D. Cane fibre
E. Iron.
1251.
What most frequent complication of Asbestosis?
A. Dust bronchitis
B. bronchitis.asthma
C. * Cancer of lung
D. Pulmonary heart.
E. tuberculosis
1252.
What parameter of the microclimate we can mark with the help of
katathermometer?
A. Air temperature
B. Point of dew
C. Relative moisture
D. * Speed of air moving
E. Resulting temperature
1253.
What pathological changes in human organism is a result of dust influences:
A. Fracture;
B. * Pneumoconiosis;
C. Sun strike;
D. Caries;
E. Rickets.
1254.
Which device using for determination of speed air moving
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hygrometer
Barometer
Weather-vane
Thermometer
* Anemometer
1255.
Which of the following compounds of Lead is the Least Toxic
A. Lead arsenate
B. Lead carconate
C. Lead oxide
D. * Lead sulphide
E. Lead chloride
1256.
Which of the following conditions is not a type of pneumoconiosis?
A. anthracosis
B. silicosis
C. * cyanosis
D. asbestosis
E. siderosis
1257.
Which one of the following dust is responsible for bagassosis ?
A. Cotton fibre dust
B. Silica dust
C. * Sugar cane dust
D. Grain dust
E. Coal dust
1258.
Which one of the following dust is responsible for byssinosis?
A. * Cotton fibre dust
B. Lung;
C. Bladder;
D. Leukemias;
E. Liver.
1259.
Which one of the following dust is responsible for byssinosis?
A. * Cotton fibre dust
B. Silica dust
C. Sugar cane dust
D. Grain dust
E. Coal dust
1260.
Which one of the following is cumulative poison?
A. * arsenic;
B. mercury;
C. lead;
D. benzene;
E. chlorine.
1261.
Which one of the following is not a clinical symptoms of Inorganic lead
poisoning?
A. Abdominal colic,
B. Loss of appetite,
C. Blue-line on the gums,
D. Anemia,
E. * Delirium.
1262.
Which one of the following is not a hazard of cold?
A. Cyanosis
B. Chilblains
C. Immersion foot;
1263.
1264.
1265.
1266.
1267.
1268.
1269.
1270.
1271.
D. * Nystagmus;
E. Frost bite
Which one of the following is not a hazard of cold?
A. Chilblains;
B. Cyanosis;
C. Immersion foot;
D. * Nystagmus;
E. Frost bite.
Which one of the following is not parameter of sound wave ?
A. Length;
B. Amplitude;
C. Force of sound;
D. * Vibrospeed;
E. Sound pressure.
Which one of the following is pneumoconiosis diseases?
A. Brucellosis;
B. Brittacosis;
C. * Anthracosis;
D. Tuberculosis;
E. Anthrax.
Which term means abnormal condition of lung dust?
A. * Pneumoconiosis
B. Pulmoconiosis
C. Pneumoanthracosis
D. anthracosis
E. siderosis
Which type of worker is commonly effected in bysinossisA. weavers
B. dyers
C. * spinners
D. growers
E. doctors
Why is this device used?
A. To determine the number of microorganisms in the air
B. To determine the amount of oxygen in the air
C. To determine the amount of carbon dioxide in the air
D. * For the selection of a certain volume of air
E. To determine the dust in indoor air
Worker's pneumoconiosis on building industry is
A. * Asbestosis
B. Siderisis
C. Silicosis
D. Baggasosis
E. Byssinossis
Worker's pneumoconiosis on cotton industry is
A. Asbestosis
B. Siderisis
C. Silicosis
D. Baggasosis
E. * Byssinossis
Worker's pneumoconiosis on Sugar - cane industry is
A. Asbestosis
B.
C.
D.
E.
Siderisis
Silicosis
* Baggasosis
Byssinossis
1272.
The usual sixe of the particle which causes pneumoconiosis is:
A. < 0.5 micrometer
B. * 0.5 – 3 micrometer
C. 3-10 micrometer
D. 10-99 micrometer
E. 100-199 micrometer
1273.
Characteristics of occupational cancers.
A. Appear after prolonged exposure (10-25 years)
B. Cancer may appear after cessation of exposure.
C. Cancer is highly specific in site, in any one occupation.
D. Average age incidence is earlier than that for cancer in general.
E. * All are correct
1274.
Control of occupational cancers.
A. Elimination / control of carcinogens.
B. Regular medical examination.
C. Inspection of factories.
D. Notification,pesonal hygiene
E. * All are correct
1275.
_____ occurs when the cerebral cortex interprets the nerve impulses from sense
organs.
A. Sensation
B. * Perception
C. Reception
D. Action
E. Reception and Sensation
1276.
_______ is when stimulation of internal pain receptors is felt as pain from the
skin, as well as the internal organs.
A. Kinetic pain
B. * Referred pain
C. Referred reception
D. Proprioreceptive pain
E. Referred pain
1277.
The wing anemometer has measuring speed of the wind
A. From 0,05-0,1 m/sec;
B. From 0,1 – 1 m/sec;
C. From 1-10 m/sec;
D. * From 0,5 – 15 m/sec
E. From 1 to 50 m/sec.
1278.
A conveyor line consists of assembling parts for a pen within seconds. The norm
of assembled pens during a shift is 18 000 to 20000, weight of parts is approximately 5g.
Determine the characteristic of work on this conveyor.
A. Frequent changes in attention
B. * Monotone
C. Significant physical load
D. Regeneration of various information
E. Neuro-emotional load
1279.
A direction and force of a wind is taken into account for need of
A. Illumination of room;
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ventilation of room;
* Construction and planning of cities
Heating of room;
None of above.
1280.
A direction and force of a wind is taken into account for need of
A. Illumination of room;
B. Ventilation of room;
C. * Construction and planning of cities
D. Color of wall;
E. None of above.
1281.
Absolute humidity is expressed as
A. * Mm.Mc colume
B. Degrees;
C. Grams per cubic metre of air
D. Kilogram
E. Watt.
1282.
Absolute humidity is measured by
A. Catatermometer.
B. Hygrometer.
C. Thermometer.
D. Barometer,
E. * Psychrometer
1283.
According to hygienic investigations in a working plant , the level of carcinogen
exceeded by 3 times from the norm. How may such working conditions be characterized?
A. Admissible
B. Harmful-1st degree
C. * Harmful-2nd degree
D. Harmful-3redegree
E. Harmful
1284.
According to rules and regulations of working conditions of builders in cold
climate, it was determined that the parameters of microclimatic factors were within
normal levels and were not harmful for the health of workers. Determine the type of
working conditions demonstrated in this case.
A. * Optimal
B. Admissible
C. Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
1285.
Acid is
A. * Toxic gases
B. Aerosols
C. Microorganisms
D. Meadow
E. Gases
1286.
Activities to increase performance and prevent fatigue:
A. Improving emotional labor processes
B. * Rational organization of work and rest regime *
C. The prolonged maintenance of high labor intensity and tension
D. Create hypokinesia due to low participation in the course of professional activities
E. Not correct
1287.
Air is dry when relative humidity is
A. * to 30 %
B.
C.
D.
E.
1288.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1289.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1290.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1291.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1292.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1293.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1294.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1295.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
to 45 %
to 55 %
to 70 %
to 85 %
Air is moist when relative humidity is
to 40 %
to 55 %
56 – 60 %
51 – 85 %
* more 60 %
Air is not dry when relative humidity is
to 30 %
to 25 %
25 – 30 %
25– 40 %
* 30-40 %
Air is not moist when relative humidity is
* 40 – 55 %
56 - 70 %
71 - 85 %
more than 85 %
more than 95 %
Amount of moisture being contained in 1m3 air with at the given temperature is
Relative humidity;
* Absolute humidity;
Maximum humidity;
A dew Point;
None of above.
Anemometer is used for measuring
* Air velocity
Air temperature
Humidity;
Cooling power of air;
Atmospheric pressure.
Anemometer is used for measuring
* Air velocity
Air temperature;
Humidity;
Cooling power of air;
Atmospheric pressure.
Asbestosis is
* It is directly related to intensity and duration of exposure
PFT shows a combination of obstructive and restrictive pattern
Chest x-ray reveals irregular or linear opacities greatest in lower lung fields
Pleural plaques are early signs of the disease
The risk of both lung cancer and mesothelioma is increased
?Biological harm to existing plants include:
Bacterial Aerosols
Gribkov microflora
Highly Biological Substances
Biologically active aerosols
* All together
1296.
Cement industry worker reported to you with complaints of cough, dyspnoea on
exertion and chest pain. His X-ray chest showed `snow `storm appearance.The diagnosis
would be:
A. * Asbestosis
B. Siderisis
C. Silicosis
D. Aspergillosis
E. Byssinossis
1297.
Determination of dust concentration in air of working area is:
A. Laboratory method.
B. Instrumental method.
C. * Laboratory-instrumental method.
D. Epidemiologic method.
E. Experimental method.
1298.
Determination of the number of colonies of microorganisms in the air by Krotov
apparatus is:
A. Laboratory method.
B. Instrumental method.
C. * Laboratory-instrumental method.
D. Epidemiologic method.
E. Experimental method.
1299.
Device for measuring of atmosphere pressure is
A. Sphygmomanometer
B. * Barometer- aneroid
C. Anemometer
D. Psychrometr.
E. Pyranometr.
1300.
Doctor in occupational health during the industrial plants of periodic medical
examinations perform such work :
A. * Coordinates list of occupations and nominal list of workers who are subject to
medical checkup
B. Introduces doctors medsanchastyny with working conditions in the enterprise;
C. Is a plan for medical checkup;
D. Takes part in medical checkup;
E. Give a conclusion on further profprydatnist workers.
1301.
Doctor in occupational health field for periodic medical examination conduct the
following activities :
A. Sends the hospital identified patients;
B. Sends a spa treatment identified patients;
C. involved in the employment of workers with disabilities in health;
D. * Is sanitary characteristics of the profession of the patient with suspected
occupational illness;
E. Provides recommendations for improvement of working conditions.
1302.
During cold weather, muscles maintain body temperature by_______
A. the dialation of smooth muscle in the blood vessels
B. the constriction of smooth muscles in the blood vessels
C. shivering
D. the dialation of smooth muscle in the blood vessels and shivering
E. * B) the constriction of smooth muscles in the blood vessels and shivering
1303.
Dust influences on:
A. specific illness
B. not specific illness
C. On skin
D. On eyes
E. * All are correct
1304.
Each part of the _____ , the organ that sends nerve impulses to the cerebrum, is
sensitive to different wave frequencies, or pitch
A. * Spiral organ (organ of corti)
B. ampulla
C. utricle
D. otoliths
E. All of these are correct
1305.
General effects noise influences include
A. Nausea,
B. vomiting,
C. giddiness
D. fatigue.sleep
E. * All are correct
1306.
Give the definition of fatigue:
A. * Temporary condition of the body, which comes as a result of intense or
prolonged labor and is characterized by lower levels of the body, decrease
efficiency, which is renewed after an appropriate rest *
B. Morbid condition in which there is a discrepancy between the different body
energy expenditure and their recruitment processes and physiological processes
decline comes after a rest before the next working day
C. Morbid lower body disability under physical or mental work
D. Morbid strain of organism homeostasis under prolonged or intensive
E. Stress reaction of the body, characterized by lower efficiency
1307.
Glasses are used for protection against:
A. Dust
B. Wind
C. To work with electric devices
D. * For protection from solar radiation
E. Gas
1308.
Graphical diagram, which characterizes number of a wind in the given district,
measured by long-term observations name
A. Wind direction;
B. * Rose of winds;
C. Air velocity;
D. Speed of the wind;
E. Cooling power of air.
1309.
Helmet used to protect against:
A. * Mechanical injury *
B. UV
C. Moisture
D. Dust
E. Gas
1310.
High altitude is good for one of following persons
A. Suffering from chronic bronchitis,
B. Suffering from diseases of heart,
C. Suffering from infections of kidneys,
D. * Suffering from anemia
E. Suffering from diseases of liver.
1311.
High altitude is good for one of following persons
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Suffering from anemia;
Suffering from chronic bronchitis,
Suffering from diseases of heart,
Suffering from infections of kidneys,
Suffering from emphysema.
1312.
How does high humidity of air influence on the ways of heat emission of man ?
A. Increases radiation
B. Decreases a convection
C. Increases a perspiration
D. * Decreases perspiration
E. Decreases a radiation
1313.
How does mark a calm in a wind rose ?
A. By a circle the diameter of which equals the number of calmsv
B. * By a circle the radius of which equals the number of calms
C. By a circle length of which equals the number of calms
D. circle, the area of which equals the number of calms
E. circle, the diameter of which equals the number of calms
1314.
How does the hair of hygrometer react on changing of humidity ?
A. At growth of humidity shortens
B. * At growth of humidity lengthens
C. At diminishing of humidity lengthens
D. At drying lengthens
E. At growth of humidity changes the diameter
1315.
How many scales on the clock-face of anemometer ?
A. One
B. Two
C. * Three
D. Four
E. Five
1316.
How much rhumbs must be in the “rose of wind”?
A. 4;
B. 6;
C. * 16;
D. 15;
E. 20.
1317.
Humidity of air influence on next kind of exchange in human body
A. Vitamins exchange;
B. * Heat exchange;
C. Protein exchange;
D. Fat exchange;
E. Gas exchange.
1318.
Hygrograph registers air humidity changes
A. for a day and a hour.
B. * for a day and a week
C. for a day and a month.
D. for a week and a month
E. for a hours and a month.
1319.
In a heated greenhouse, working conditions of the workers and the level of
harmful toxins from the production process have been evaluated and were found to be
within hygienical norms. Determine the type of working conditions in this greenhouse.
A. * Admissible
B. Optimal
C. Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
1320.
In a paint factory , it was determined that the level of harmful factors from the byproducts and working conditions of the employees were within hygienical norms.
Determine the type of working conditions demonstrated in this factory.
A. Optimal
B. * Admissible
C. Harmful
D. Exceptional
E. Extreme
1321.
In an operation room, the level of antibiotics in the air surpasses the norm. What
type of working conditions are created in the operating room?
A. * Admissible
B. Optimal
C. Harmless
D. Harmful
E. Dangerous
1322.
In bacterial laboratory work with Vibrio cholerae, in compliance with all
necessary preventive measures. Which class should include laboratory conditions?
A. * Grade 4
B. Grade 3
C. Grade 2
D. 1 rating
E. Grade 5
1323.
In evaluating working conditions at an epoxy resin production plant, it was
determined that the by-products made throughout the shift cause a high risk of acute
intoxication to the workers. Determine the type of working conditions in this plant.
A. Optimal
B. Admissible
C. Harmful
D. Exceptional
E. * Extreme
1324.
In evaluation of work of electrician mounting high voltage power line, it was
found that the level of by-products were high and created a great life risk for the
employee. Determine the type of working condition for this electrician.
A. Optimal
B. Admissible
C. Harmful
D. Exceptional
E. * Extreme
1325.
In sense of gravitational equilibrium, utilizing the utricle and the saccule, is
located in the ________
A. outer ear
B. middle ear
C. tympanic membrane
D. * vestibule of the cochlea
E. tympanic membrane, vestibule of the cochlea
1326.
In the retina, a nerve impulse travels from the ______
A. * rods and cones to bipolar cells to ganglionic cells
B. bipolar cells to rods and cones to ganglionic cells
C. rods and cones to ganglionic cells to bipolar cells
1327.
1328.
1329.
1330.
1331.
1332.
1333.
1334.
1335.
D. rods and cones to bipolar cells
E. All are correct.
In what unit measuring speed of air?
A. Meters
B. Hours;
C. Centimeters;
D. * Meter per second
E. m3/hour.
In what units does estimate speed and force of wind?
A. * In meters per second
B. In marks
C. In kilometers for a minute
D. In meters for a minute
E. In percents
In which one of the following conditions may development "Caisson's disease"?
A. Effects of decreased Atmospheric Pressure;
B. Effects of Increased temperature;
C. * Effects of Increased Atmospheric Pressure
D. Effects of decreased temperature;
E. None of the above.
Inside of capillary tube of maximal thermometer is
A. Alcohol;
B. * Mercury;
C. Iron;
D. Water;
E. Air.
Inside of capillary tube of minimal thermometer is
A. * Alcohol;
B. Mercury;
C. Iron;
D. Water;
E. Air.
Kata thermometer is used for measuring
A. Air temperature;
B. Humidity;
C. Radiation temperature;
D. * Cooling power of air
E. Atmospheric pressure.
Kata thermometer is used for measuring
A. Air temperature;
B. Humidity;
C. Atmospheric pressure;
D. * Cooling power of air
E. Air velocity.
Low temperature of air conduce to the increase of next ways of heat loses
A. Perspiration;
B. Radiation;
C. Convections and perspiration;
D. Conduction and radiation;
E. * Convections and conduction.
Mask is used to protect against:
A. Mechanical injury
B.
C.
D.
E.
1336.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1337.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1338.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1339.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1340.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1341.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1342.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1343.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dust
Acids, alkalis
* UV
Frostbite
Maximal humidity of air depend from
Atmospheric pressure;
* Temperature of air;
Relative humidity;
the deficit of satiation;
Temperature of body.
Name normal middle temperature in living room.
+16 - +180 C
+18 - +200C
+16 - + 190 C
* +20 - +220 C
+22 - +250 C
Name the main types of work on the degree of severity:
Less than average
* Hard
Too tight
Strained
Indifferent
Name the parameters, which not characterized microclimate:
Humidity of air;
Temperature;
* Chemical structure of air
Speed of air motion;
Radiation temperature
Name the parameters, which not characterized microclimate:
Humidity of air;
Temperature;
* Chemical structure of air
Speed of air motion;
Radiation temperature.
Natural ventilation is caused by
Difference of the temperature of outside and inside air;
Wind force;
* A and B both.
Color of wall;
None of above.
Natural ventilation is caused by
Difference of the temperature of outside and inside air;
Wind force;
* A and B both
Color of wall;
None of above.
Natural ventilation largely depends on the following natural for¬ces:
* Difference of temperatures inside an apartment and outside of the apartment and
increased pressure on the walls of external air at wind
B. Difference of temperatures and humidity inside an apartment and outside
C. Difference of speed of motion of air inside an apartment and outside
D. A presence of sources of radiation temperature inside of apartment
E. E. Difference of pressure of air inside an apartment and outside
1344.
Normal indices of air’s humidity is
A. 10-20 %;
B. 70-80 %;
C. 20-30 %;
D. * 30-60 %;
E. 80-100 %.
1345.
On how many parts is divided the temperature scale on Celsius?
A. 180
B. 80
C. * 100
D. 120
E. 50
1346.
One of the earliest temperature scales was that devised by
A. * Fahrenheit
B. Celsius;
C. Kelvin;
D. Reaumur;
E. None of the above.
1347.
One of the following is not effect of cold and dry air on the body.
A. All the body functions are more active;
B. Breathing is deeper and more frequent,
C. * Loss of appetite
D. The circulation of blood is increased;
E. A process of digestion is stimulated.
1348.
Pain receptors are a type of _____.
A. * Chemoreceptor
B. thermoreceptor
C. photoreceptor
D. protoreceptor
E. physioreceptor
1349.
Profile of the doctor headed by the periodic review of the workers?
A. * Always therapist;
B. Always pathologist;
C. Depending on sex, age and seniority worker's work;
D. Depends on the type of professional harm;
E. Depends on the specifics of the process.
1350.
Recalling facts for a final exam that you learned thoroughly at the beginning of
your hygiene class illustrates what type of memory?
A. short-term memory
B. * long-term memory
C. semantic memory
D. skill memory
E. midlle memory
1351.
Relative humidity is measured by
A. Catatermometer.
B. * Hygrometer
C. Thermometer.
D. Barometer
E. Psychrometer
1352.
Researchers are convinced that damaged central nervous system axons can
regenerate through__________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
special diets
proper rest
* exercise
surgery
special diets and proper rest
1353.
Sensory ________ occurs when a receptor becomes so accustomed to the
stimulation that it stops generating impulses
A. death
B. * adaptation
C. synergism
D. excitability
E. All of these are correct
1354.
Silicosis is:
A. * It occurs due to exposure to crystalline quartz in blasting and quarrying
B. High intensity exposure may lead to a rapidly fatal pulmonary fibrosis
C. Upper lobe fibrosis and hilar lymphadenopathy may occur > 15 years after
exposure
D. Chest x-ray usually shows reticular densities towards the lung periphery
E. Risk of pulmonary tuberculosis is increased
1355.
Study used for the physical characteristics of gravity work :
A. * Average heart rate during the working day
B. Number of simultaneous observation
C. Time focused observation
D. Characterization working postures
E. Dynamics of attention for change
1356.
The agricultural health hazards
A. Zoonotic diseases
B. Mechanical accidents
C. Toxic hazards
D. Physical hazards,Respiratory diseases
E. * All are correct
1357.
The aim of preliminary medical checkup of citizens:
A. Establish the presence (absence) of risk factors;
B. Determine the degree of resistance of the organism;
C. * Detect contraindications to work in this profession;
D. Show initial signs of any pathology;
E. Specify a group of health.
1358.
The aim of the periodic medical checkup of workers:
A. Detect the presence of chronic diseases;
B. Determine the level of physical development (deviations from average values);
C. * Determine the level of resistance, harmful production factors;
D. Specify a group of health workers;
E. Show initial signs of change due to health effects of industrial wastes.
1359.
The air changes in the room during 1 hour when all windows and doors are closed
may be not more
A. * 0,5
B. 1,5;
C. 2,5;
D. 5,0;
E. 25.
1360.
The area in the retina that is responsible for acute vision and that contains only
cones is called the __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
aqueous
* vitreous
optic
choroid
All of these are correct
1361.
The cells that transmit nerve impulses between parts of the nervous system are
called ________.
A. neuroglia
B. * neurons
C. motor cells
D. nervous tissue
E. motor tissue
1362.
The cup anemometer has measuring speed of the wind
A. From 0,05-0,1 m/sec;
B. From 0,1 – 1 m/sec;
C. From 1-10 m/sec;
D. From 0,1 – 15 m/sec
E. * From 1 to 50 m/sec
1363.
The end product of fermentation (anaerobic energy production in muscle) is
_____
A. glucose
B. oxygen
C. * lactate
D. water
E. nitrogen
1364.
The following statements are correct:
A. * Complicated coal worker’s pneumoconiosis is indicated by presence of nodules
> 1 cm in the upper lung fields on CXR
B. Byssinosis gives a histopathological picture that is indistinguishable form
sarcoidosis
C. Berylliosis occurs from exposure to cotton dust
D. Byssinosis is associated with moderately severe airflow obstruction
E. Farmer’s lung syndrome is a form of hypersensitivity pneumonitis
1365.
The function of the cerebellum is ______.
A. to maintain posture and balance
B. muscle coordination
C. to assist in learning new motor skills
D. muscle coordination and to maintain posture and balance
E. * coordination ,to maintain posture and balance,to assist in learning new motor
skills
1366.
The instrument that is used to study the nerve impulse is a (an)_____________
A. * oscilloscope
B. oscillato
C. oscillometer
D. oscillotron
E. oscillotrop
1367.
The integrating center within the brain that helps to maintain homeostasis is the
_____.
A. thalamus
B. * hypothalamus
C. pineal gland and cerebrum
D. pineal gland
E. cerebrum
1368.
The method of dynamometry is used to determine:
A. Max arbitrary power;
B. Number of taps per unit time;
C. Resistance to static pressure;
D. Number of movements for change;
E. * Capacity for development and maintenance of muscle tension.
1369.
The most fatal complication which can occur to divers (under high atmospheric
pressure)
A. Pulmonary oedema;
B. * Air embolism
C. Rupture of spleen;
D. Myocardial infarction;
E. None of above.
1370.
The peripheral nervous system consists of the ________
A. * cranial nerves and spinal nerves
B. muscles
C. skeleton
D. bones
E. spinal nerves
1371.
The portion of the brain responsible for higher thought processes is the _____
A. cerebellum
B. diencephalon
C. * cerebrum
D. none of these
E. All are correct.
1372.
The receptors for hearing and equilibrium are located in the ______
A. * inner ear
B. outer ear
C. middle ear
D. littel ear
E. All are correct.
1373.
The respiratory system, in conjunction with the cardiovascular system, delivers
_____to the cells of the body.
A. * Oxygen
B. Nutrients
C. carbon dioxide
D. sodium
E. carbon monooxide
1374.
The respiratory system, in conjunction with the cardiovascular system, delivers
_____to the cells of the body
A. * oxygen
B. nutrients
C. carbon dioxide
D. sodium
E. potasium
1375.
The type of sensory receptor that receives stimuli from inside the body is a(n)
____________.
A. Exteroceptor
B. Proprioceptor
C. Photoreceptor
D. * interoceptor
E. All of these are correct
1376.
There is a risk of lung cancer at
A. Serving accelerators, gamma settings;
B. Production of roofing felt, roofing material;
C. * Asbestos technical production;
D. Electrolytic aluminum production using anodes
E. Anilinofarbove production.
1377.
Thermograph registers air temperature changes
A. for a day and a hour.
B. * for a day and a week.
C. for a day and a month.
D. for a week and a month
E. for a hours and a month.
1378.
Thermograph usually used for
A. Measuring of temperature of air
B. * Registration of changes of temperature of air
C. Measuring and registration of changes of temperature of air
D. Measuring of amplitude of changes of temperature of air
E. Measuring and registration of temperature of body
1379.
This remedy is called:
A. Ear swab
B. Earpiece
C. Liner
D. * Earplug
E. mask
1380.
This tool is used for respiratory protection from:
A. Meadow
B. Acid
C. * Dust
D. Gas
E. Salts
1381.
This type of clothing is used:
A. * For protection from moisture
B. Anti-acids
C. Anti-alkali
D. For protection against dust
E. For protection against gases
1382.
To produce a small image on the retina, light rays must be ________ and brought
into focus
A. straight
B. unilateral
C. * bent
D. short
E. All are correct.
1383.
To the methods of ventilation intensification belong
A. Opening of windows,
B. Opening window leaves,
C. Transoms;
D. Ventilating channel;
E. * All are correct
1384.
To view distant objects, the lens remains relatively ________.
A. flat
B.
C.
D.
E.
1385.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1386.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1387.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1388.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1389.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1390.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1391.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1392.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
curved
rounded
* spherical
curved and rounded
Units of atmosphere pressure measuring
* Mm.Mc colume
Degrees;
Grams per cubic metre of air.
Kilogram;
Watt.
What are the adverse factors of production among weavers?
Dust
* Noise and Vibration
Increased Temperature
Humidity
Working out
What are the harmful factors in the driver?
The temperature
* Golgi emotional stress
Bad lighting shield devices
Air pollution by toxic gases
Working out
What are the main adverse factors at work on grinding machines ?
Working out
* Mixed-metal mineral dust, noise, vibration
Chemicals and Dust
Gravity and intensity of labor
Game day
What are the main professional harmfulness of spinning industry ?
Heavy physical work
* Dust, noise
Humidity
Increased Temperature
Vision tension
What basic indexes of hygienical estimation of temperature condition ?
Minimum temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines
Maximal temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines
* Middle temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines
Optimal temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines
Possible temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines
What compensate mechanisms do work at raising in mountains ?
Increase of Increase of blood pressure;
Decrease of Increase of blood pressure;
* An increase of amount of red corpuscles is in blood
Decrease of amount of red corpuscles is in bloodж
pain in joints and musclesю
What deficit of satiation ?
* A difference is between maximal and relative humidity
A difference is between maximal and absolute humidity
A difference is between absolute and relative humidity
Difference between maximal and by the point of dew
Difference between absolute and by the point of dew
What devise used for registration of body’s temperature?
A. Catatermometer.
B. * Maximal mercury thermometer
C. Minimal alcohol thermometer.
D. Minimal mercury thermometer.
E. Luxmeter.
1394.
What disease appears during influence of high air pressure?
A. Mountain’s disease.
B. Hypertension.
C. * Caisson disease
D. Stenocardia.
E. Goiter.
1395.
What functions of hygrograph ?
A. Measuring of absolute humidity
B. Measuring of relative humidity
C. Record of changes of absolute humidity
D. * Record of changes of relative humidity
E. Measuring and record of changes of relative humidity
1396.
What humidity measures by a hygrometer?
A. Absolute
B. * Relative
C. Maximal
D. Absolute and relative
E. Relative and maximal
1397.
What is the list of additional methods for body workers during periodic medical
examination?
A. By sex and age what works;
B. Of immune status of what works;
C. Of experience in this profession;
D. Of gender, age and experience in this profession;
E. * Professional harm affecting the body of workers.
1398.
What is wind direction?
A. is the direction where the wind is blowing;
B. * is the direction from which the wind is blowing;
C. is the direction of overwhelming amount of winds;
D. All are correct;
E. All are wrong.
1399.
What parameter of the microclimate we can measuring with the help of Kata
thermometer?
A. Air temperature;
B. Point of dew;
C. Relative moisture;
D. * Speed of air moving
E. Resulting temperature.
1400.
What setting of barograph ?
A. Measuring of atmospheric pressure
B. * Registration of vibrations of atmospheric pressure
C. Measuring of atmospheric pressure and temperature of air
D. Measuring of amplitude of vibrations of atmospheric pressure
E. Registration of vibrations of atmospheric pressure is for a month
1401.
What thermometer is used for fixing of the highest temperature for certain period
of time ?
1393.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Alcohol thermometer;
Minimal thermometer;
* Maximal thermometer;
Electric thermometer;
Mercury thermometer.
1402.
What thermometer is used for measuring of low temperatures ?
A. * Alcohol thermometer;
B. Minimal thermometer;
C. Maximal thermometer;
D. Electric thermometer;
E. Mercury thermometer.
1403.
What thermometer is used for measuring of high temperatures ?
A. Alcohol thermometer;
B. Minimal thermometer;
C. Maximal thermometer;
D. Electric thermometer;
E. * Mercury thermometer.
1404.
What thermometer is used for registration and fixing of the lowest temperature for
certain period of time ?
A. * Alcohol thermometer;
B. Minimal thermometer;
C. Maximal thermometer;
D. Electric thermometer;
E. Mercury thermometer.
1405.
What type of air’s humidity using for estimation microclimate condition?
A. Minimum humidity;
B. Middle humidity;
C. * Relative humidity
D. Maximum humidity;
E. General humidity
1406.
What type of air’s humidity using for estimation microclimate condition?
A. Minimum humidity;
B. Middle humidity;
C. * Relative humidity
D. Maximum humidity;
E. General humidity.
1407.
What unfavorable changes for human is caused by the warm moist air ?
A. Sunstroke;
B. * Heat Stroke;
C. Caison’s disease;
D. Asthmatic state;
E. Overcooling.
1408.
When a group of muscles moves a body part, the muscle that does the most work
is called the _____
A. antagonist
B. * prime mover
C. synergist
D. synergist and antagonist
E. All of these are correct
1409.
When the rate of evaporation from the body is greatly increased?
A. * When the air is dry and warm,
B. When the air is moist and warm,
C. When the air is dry and cold,
D. When the air is moist and cold,
E. None of above.
1410.
Which is the method of studying muscle strength?
A. Tonometry
B. Spirometry
C. * Dynamometry
D. Spirography
E. Proof test
1411.
Which of the following conditions is not a type of pneumoconiosis?
A. anthracosis
B. silicosis
C. * cyanosis
D. asbestosis
E. siderosis
1412.
Which of the following occur in the process of hearing?
A. Sound waves enter the auditory canal
B. Waves vibrate the tympanic membrane
C. The stapes vibrates the oval window of the cochlea
D. Sound waves enter the auditory canal and Waves vibrate the tympanic membrane
E. * All of these are correct
1413.
Which one of following indexes of air’s humidity is comfortable for human?
A. 10-20 %;
B. 70-80 %;
C. 20-30 %;
D. * 30-60 %;
E. 80-100 %.
1414.
Which one of the following apparatus use for measuring of the atmospheric
pressure?
A. Hygrometer;
B. * Barometer;
C. Thermograph
D. Thermometer;
E. Anemometer.
1415.
Which one of the following device not measure atmospheric pressure ?
A. Mercury-cupping barometer
B. Fortin 's Standard Barometer
C. Mercury siphon barometer
D. Barometer-aneroid
E. * Hygrograph.
1416.
Which one of the following is a specific method of hygiene researches?
A. Physical methods;
B. * Method sanitarian description;
C. Chemical methods;
D. Biological methods;
E. Experimental method;
1417.
Which one of the following is a specific method of hygiene researches?
A. Physical methods;
B. * Method sanitarian description
C. Chemical methods;
D. Biological methods;
E. Experimental method.
1418.
Which one of the following is normal indexes of relative humidity of air in
housings apartments?
A. * 30-60 %
B. 10-20 %
C. 100 %
D. 60-80 %
E. 80-100 %
1419.
Which one of the following is not effects of Cold and Dry Air on the Body.
A. the circulation of blood is increased;
B. processes of digestion and assimilation are stimulated.
C. * loss of appetite;
D. metabolism are stimulated.
E. the circulation of blood is decreased
1420.
Which one of the following is not the physiological effect of low pressure at high
altitudes?
A. Increased respiration;
B. Increased cardiac out put;
C. Increased Hb conc.
D. * Increased urine conc
E. All are correct.
1421.
Which one of the following place characterized temperature in respiratory zone of
people?
A. on 10 centimeters from floor;
B. * on 150 centimeters from floor
C. on 50 cm. from ceiling;
D. on 80-90 cm. from floor;
E. All are correct.
1422.
Which one of the following use for measures wind direction
A. * Wind vane
B. Kata thermometer;
C. Anemometer;
D. Hygrograph.
E. Barometer;
1423.
Which pathological changes in an organism are caused by the local action of high
temperature ?
A. Heat-prostration
B. Sunstroke;
C. * Guardian;
D. Hyperthermia;
E. Dysfunction of thermoregulation of organism
1424.
Which pathological changes in an organism are caused by the local overcooling ?
A. Cold diseases
B. Inflammatory diseases
C. Hypothermia
D. * frost-bite
E. Infectious diseases
1425.
Which periodicals of barograph work may be?
A. To the day's
B. To a week's
C. To month.
D. * To the day's and a week's
E. To a week's and month.
1426.
Which term means abnormal condition of lung dust?
A. * pneumoconiosis
B. pulmoconiosis
C. pneumoanthracosis
D. anthracosis
E. All are correct.
1427.
Which term means abnormal condition of lung dust?
A. * Pneumoconiosis
B. Pulmoconiosis
C. Pneumoanthracosis
D. anthracosis
E. siderosis
1428.
Which type of tissue moves the body and its parts
A. nervous
B. * muscle
C. connective
D. epithelia
E. All are correct.
1429.
Why is it possible for odors to initiate memories of times past?
A. because olfactory receptors never undergo sensory adaptation
B. because sensations never go away
C. because the route of olfactory nerve impulses runs through the reticular activating
system
D. * because the route of olfactory nerve impulses runs through the limbic system
E. All of these are correct
1430.
With the help of what device does estimate a temperature condition during hour?
A. Alcohol thermometer
B. Mercury thermometer
C. Minimal thermometer
D. Maximal thermometer
E. * Thermograph
1431.
Within the limbic system, the ________ is/are thought to be involved in learning
and memory
A. pineal gland
B. cerebrum
C. corpus callosum
D. * hippocampus and amygdala
E. pineal gland and cerebrum
1432.
Work on a conveyer includes assembling parts of a sewing machine, which
consist of assembling 3-4 elements in 24-40 seconds. Determine the characteristic of
work on the conveyor described above.
A. Frequent changes in attention
B. * Certain rhythm of work
C. Significant physical load
D. Neuro-emotional load
E. Perception and processing of various information
Situation tasks
1. Thyreotoxicosis patient is in the two-place hospital ward of therapeutic department. The
area of the ward is 18m2, height is 3 m, ventilation rate is 2,5/h. Air temperature is 20° C,
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
relative humidity is 45%, air movement velocity is 0,3 m/sec, light coefficient is 1/5,
noise level constitutes 30 dB. Make a hygienic assessment of these conditions.
A. All conditions are OK
B. Non-effective ventilation
C. High level of noise
D. * Discomfortable microclimate
E. Poor lighting
In course of observation of sanitary conditions of studying at the technical university it
was necessary to evaluate the visual regimen of students, who study from 9 a.m to 3 p.m.
What index of natural light will be the most informative?
A. Time of the room insolation
B. Light coefficient
C. Depth of study room
D. Presence of mixed (upper-lateral) light
E. * Natural light coefficient
In order to study impact of microclimate upon the human organism it is necessary to
make systematic observation of air temperature over 3 days. Choose a device that will
allow to make the most precise temperature records:
A. * Thermograph
B. Alcohol thermometer
C. August's psychrometer
D. Mercury thermometer
E. Assmann psychrometer
Thyreotoxicosis patient is in the two-place hospital ward of therapeutic department. The
area of the ward is 18m2, height is 3 m, ventilation rate is 2,5/h. Air temperature is 20°C,
relative humidity is 45%, air movement velocity is 0,3 m/sec, light coefficient is 1/5,
noise level constitutes 30 dB. Make a hygienic assessment of these conditions.
A. Poor lighting
B. All conditions are OK
C. High level of noise
D. Non-effective ventilation
E. * Discomfortable microclimate
The Transcarpathian region is characterized by constant high (over 80%) air moisture.
Population of this region feels an intense cold in winter when the temperature is
temperately low. What way of heat emission becomes more active?
A. Radiation
B. * Convection
C. Evaporation
D. Conduction
E. Irradiation
Patient with thyreotoxicosis is in the 2 beds hospital ward of therapeutic department. The
area of the ward is 18 m2, height 3 m, ventilation rate 2,5/hr. Air temperature - 200С,
relative humidity - 45%, air movement velocity - 0,3 m/s, light coefficient - 1/5, noise
level - 30 db. Do hygienic evaluation of the conditions meet the standards?
A. Non-effective ventilation
B. All conditions meet the requirements
C. High level of noise
D. Poor lighting
E. * Discomfortable microclimate
At the depth of 80 m repairing works were done. Because of the weather divers had to
float quickly. After coming to the surface they complained diplopia, nystagmus, nausea,
abdominal pain. What was the reason of those symptoms?
A. * Emboly with nitrogen
B. Vessel thrombosis
C. High pressure of the visceral organs
D. Toxic influence of nitrogen
E. Oxygen emboly
8. At the evaluation of temperature condition an apartment is set that on height of 10 cm
from a floor a temperature of air was 170 C, on height of 1m from a floor a temperature
of air was 190 C, on height of 1,5m from a floor a temperature of air was 200 C. What
difference of temperatures for vertical lines is possible?
A. * 2,50 C
B. 1,50 C
C. 0,50 C
D. 10 C
E. 40 C
9. At the northern part of the city a chemical factory is placed. During the year you may
observe next winds: northern 10%, eastern 20%, southern 50% and western 20%. Choose
the best place for a hospital
A. Southwards from the factory
B. Eastwards
C. * Northwards
D. Westwards
E. Near the factory
10. Choose possible ways of heat irradiation of the body in case if temperature is 2°C,
relative humidity is 98% and velocity of air is 1,8 m/s.
A. All ways are complicated
B. Only convection is possible
C. Only radiation is possible
D. * Radiation and convection prevail
E. Only perspiration is possible
11. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 37°C, relative humidity is 88% and
velocity of air is 0,05 m/sec.
A. Comfort
B. * Calefacient
C. Cooling
D. Intermitting
E. Irritating
12. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 32°C, relative humidity is 70% and
velocity of air is 0,2 m/s.
A. Comfort
B. Cooling
C. * Calefacient
D. Hardening
E. Irritating
13. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 20°C, relative humidity is 45% and
velocity of air is 0,15m/sec.
A. Intermitting
B. Calefacient
C. Cooling
D. * Optimal
E. Irritating
14. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 10°C, relative humidity is 88% and
velocity of air is 1,5 m/s.
A. Comfort
B. Calefacient
C. * Cooling
D. Stimulating
E. Hardening
15. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 18°C, relative humidity is 40% and
velocity of air is 0,1 m/sec.
A. Calefacient
B. Cooling
C. * Optimal
D. Malevolent
E. Hardening
16. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 19°C, relative humidity is 42% and
velocity of air is 0,12 m/sec.
A. Calefacient
B. Cooling
C. Hardening
D. Malevolent
E. * Optimal
17. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 8°C, relative humidity is 80% and
velocity of air is 10 m/sec.
A. Comfort
B. Calefacient
C. Hardening
D. * Cooling
E. Stimulating
18. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 10°C, relative humidity is 92% and
velocity of air is 0,5 m/s.
A. * Cooling
B. Calefacient
C. Irritating
D. Optimal
E. Overheating
19. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 40°C, relative humidity is 98% and
velocity of air is 1,5 m/sec.
A. Optimal
B. Overheating
C. Stimulating
D. * Calefacient
E. Cooling
20. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 40°C, relative humidity is 98% and
velocity of air is 0,01 m/sec.
A. * Calefacient
B. Cooling
C. Stimulating
D. Overheating
E. Optimal
21. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 40°C, relative humidity is 80% and
velocity of air is 0,1 m/sec.
A. Comfort
B. Optimal
C. Hardening
D. * Stimulating
E. Overheating
22. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 33°C, relative humidity is 78% and
velocity of air is 0,15 m/ sec.
A. Comfort
B. Optimal
C. Irritating
D. * Intermitting
E. Overheating
23. Describe the type of microclimate if: temperature of air is 520С, relative humidity is 70
%, a rate of air movement is 0,2 m/sec:
A. comfortable;
B. unfavourable;
C. Treatment.
D. * overheating;
E. cooling;
24. Describe the type of microclimate under the conditions: temperature of air is 370С,
relative humidity is 88%, a rate of movement of air is 0,05 m/ sec:
A. acute;
B. * overheating;
C. cooling;
D. comfort;
E. irritating.
25. Describe the type of microclimate, if temperature of air is 200С, relative humidity is 45
%, rate of movement of air is 0,15 m/sec:
A. acute;
B. overheating;
C. cooling;
D. * comfort;
E. irritating.
26. Describe the type of microclimate, if temperature of air is 40С, relative humidity is 88 %,
a rate of movement of air is 1,5 meter per second:
A. acute;
B. overheating;
C. * cooling;
D. comfort;
E. irritating.
27. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 180С, relative humidity is 40
%, a rate of air movement is 0,1 m/sec:
A. overheating;
B. cooling;
C. * comfortable;
D. unfavourable;
E. Treatment.
28. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 190С, relative humidity is 42
%, rate of air movement is 0,12 m/sec:
A. * comfortable;
B. overheating;
C. cooling;
D. unfavourable;
E. Treatment.
29. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 8 0С, relative humidity is 80
%, rate of air movement is 10 m/s.
A. comfortable;
B. overheating;
C. * cooling;
D. unfavourable;
E. Treatment.
30. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 100С, relative humidity is 92
%, a rate of air movement is 5,0 m/s:
A. comfortable;
B. overheating;
C. unfavourable;
D. Treatment.
E. * cooling;
31. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 40С, relative humidity is 78
%, rate of air movement is 2,5 m/s:
A. * cooling;
B. comfortable;
C. overheating;
D. unfavourable;
E. Treatment.
32. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 300С relative humidity is 98
%, a rate of air movement is 0,01 m/s:
A. comfortable;
B. * overheating;
C. unfavourable;
D. Treatment.
E. cooling;
33. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 400С, relative humidity is 80
%, a rate of air movement is 0,1 m/s:
A. comfortable;
B. unfavourable;
C. * overheating;
D. Treatment.
E. cooling;
34. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 450С, relative humidity is 78
%, rate of air movement is 0,15 m/s:
A. * overheating;
B. comfortable;
C. unfavourable;
D. Treatment.
E. cooling;
35. During the practical class student performed the evaluation of “humid”, “dry”
thermometers and absolute humidity with the help of Assman psychrometer. To evaluate
the relative humidity student should find in the table:
A. * Maximal humidity
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. Velocity of the air
D. Temperature ingredient
E. General humidity of the air
36. During the studying of the temperature of the room it was found, that: in the middle of
the room at the height of 10 cm temperature of air is 17°, on height of 1m temperature of
air is 19° and on height of 1,5 m temperature of air is 20°.Which vertical temperature
difference is allowable?
A. * 2,5°C
B. 1,5°C
C. 0,5°C
D. 1°C
E. 4°C
37. For a year there are such repetition of winds in town T.: north - 10 %, east - 20 %, south 50 %, western - 20 %. Name an optimum place for placing of hospital according to a
chemical combine.
A. On South from chemical combine
B. On east from chemical combine
C. * On North from chemical combine
D. On the west from chemical combine
E. On territory of chemical combine
38. For measurement of the air velocity warmed katatermometer was placed at a height of 1,5
m during 5 minutes. What mistakes were done?
A. Wrong device for measurement
B. Wrong time of measurement, it should last 10 minutes
C. * Time from 38 °C to 35°C in should be taken, not just 5 minutes
D. Cooling factor is not measured
E. Katatermometer should be cold, not warmed
39. For measurement of the temperature thermometry was conducted next way: during 5
minutes at a height of 2,5 m in the middle of the room temperature was measured by a
thermometer. What are the mistakes of such thermometry method?
A. Wrong device used: katatermometer should be chosen
B. Measurement should be performed near the window
C. The time of measurement is wrong
D. * The height should be not 2,5 m, but 1,5 m over the floor
E. Measurement should be performed near the doors
40. For measuring of air humidity catathermometer was moistened by the distilled water, led
a ventilator, hung up at the level of a 1,5 m from a floor in a centre a room and in 10
minutes took indexes of dry and moist thermometer. What is wrong?
A. Wrong chosen a level from a floor;
B. Research time is broken;
C. * For measuring air humidity is needed psychrometer;
D. For moistening of wet thermometer using the distilled water unright, needed
isotonic solution of NaCl;
E. Measuring conduct out of employment ventilator.
41. For research of rate of air movement was placed a heated catathermometer at the level of
a 1,5 m from a floor and in 5 minutes of cooling were taken off by results of researches.
What is wrong?
A. a device is wrong chosen for research;
B. Measuring time is not observed, 10 mines are needed;
C. * It is necessary to define time of cooling of device from 38 0С to 350С in
seconds, but not 5 mines;
D. a cooling factor is not measured;
E. For research cooling catathermometer is needed, but not heated.
42. In one of the following temperature scales boiling point is 100 degree.
A. * Celsius
B. Fahrenheit;
C. Kelvin;
D. Reaumur;
E. None of the above.
43. In one of the following temperature scales boiling point is 212 degree.
A. Celsius;
B. Kelvin;
C. * Fahrenhei
D. Reaumur;
E. None of the above.
44. In one of the following temperature scales freezing point is - 273 degree.
A. Celsius;
B. Fahrenheit;
C. * Kelvin
D. Reaumur;
E. None of the above.
45. In one of the following temperature scales freezing point is 32 degree.
A. Celsius;
B. * Fahrenheit
C. Kelvin;
D. Reaumur;
E. None of the above.
46. Kata thermometer is used for measuring
A. Air temperature;
B. Humidity;
C. Atmospheric pressure;
D. * Cooling power of air
E. Air velocity.
47. On a depth 80 m repair works of corps of submarine were conducted. In connection with
the worsening of weather terms were quickly heaved up divers on a surface. Divers
complained on pain in the ears, accompanied with disturbance in hearing, excruciating
pain in joints and muscles, vertigo, epigastric pain, changed sense of smell and taste and
vomiting. That is reason of such state.
A. * Embolism by nitrogen
B. Formation of blood clots is in vessels
C. Pressure is promoted in internal organs
D. Toxic action of nitrogen
E. Embolism by oxygen
48. On a depth 85 m repair works of corps of submarine were conducted. In connection with
the sharp worsening of weather terms were quickly heaved up divers on a surface. Divers
complained on pain in the ears, accompanied with disturbance in hearing, excruciating
pain in joints and muscles, vertigo, epigastric pain, changed sense of smell and taste and
vomiting. The effects known as
A. * Caisson's disease
B. Ulcer disease
C. Mountain disease
D. Toxic action of nitrogen
E. Embolism by oxygen
49. On a depth 90 m repair works of corps of submarine were conducted. In connection with
the worsening of weather workers were quickly heaved up on a surface. Divers
complained on pain in the ears, accompanied with disturbance in hearing, excruciating
pain in joints and muscles, vertigo, epigastric pain, changed sense of smell and taste and
vomiting. That is reason of such state.
A. * increased absorption of oxygen by blood
B. Formation of blood clots in vessels
C. Pressure is promoted in internal organs
D. Toxic action of nitrogen
E. Embolism by oxygen
50. To explore the influence of microclimate on the organism’s functional conditions of
children physiological indicators of tension in heat exchange were studied. Which
indicator shows objectively tension of the heat exchange?
A. * Body temperature
B. Pulse and BP
C. Breathing/ min
D. Perspiration/min
E. Speed of visual and auditory reaction
51. Doctor estimated biological dose for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation.Biological dose is 2 min. What is prophylactic doze of UV radiation?
A. 2 min
B. 1 min
C. 10 sec
D. 3 min
E. * 30 sec
52. Doctor estimated prophylactic doze for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation. Prophylactic doze is 0,5 min. What was biological doze of UV radiation?
A. 1 min
B. * 2 min
C. 4 min
D. 6 min
E. 8 min
53. Doctor estimated prophylactic doze for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation. Prophylactic doze is 1 min. What was biological doze of UV radiation?
A. 1 min
B. 2 min
C. * 4 min
D. 6 min
E. 8 min
54. Doctor estimated prophylactic doze for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation. Prophylactic doze is 2 min. What was biological doze of UV radiation?
A. 1 min
B. 2 min
C. 4 min
D. 6 min
E. * 8 min
55. Doctor must estimate biological dose for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation. Biodosimeter was fastening in lower part of abdomen. Continue of radiation in
the 1-st window was 1minute, in 2 was 2 min., in 3 was 3 min., in 4 was 4 min., in 5 was
5 min., in 6 was 6 min. 8 hour late after UV radiation nurse sow on the skin of lower part
of abdomen 4 red string. What is prophylactic (anti-rickety) doze of UV radiation?
A. 6 minutes
B. * 30 second
C. 1 minutes
D. 2,5 minute
E. 5 minute
56. Doctor must estimate biological dose for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation. Biodosimeter was fastening in lower part of abdomen. Continue of radiation in
the 1-st window was 1minute, in 2 was 2 min., in 3 was 3 min., in 4 was 4 min., in 5 was
5 min., in 6 was 6 min. 8 hour late after UV radiation nurse sow on the skin of lower part
of abdomen 6 red string. What is prophylactic (anti-rickety) doze of UV radiation?
A. * 6 minutes
B. 30 second
C. 10 minutes
D. 2,5 minute
E. 5 minute
57. Doctor must estimate biological dose for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation. Biodosimeter was fastening in lower part of abdomen. Continue of radiation in
the 1-st window was 1minute, in 2 was 2 min., in 3 was 3 min., in 4 was 4 min., in 5 was
5 min., in 6 was 6 min. 8 hour late after UV radiation nurse sow on the skin of lower part
of abdomen 2 red string. Which is physiological dose for this patient?
A. 2 minutes
B. * 1 minute
C. 30 second
D. 15 second
E. 25 second
58. Doctor must estimate biological dose for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation. Biodosimeter was fastening in lower part of abdomen. Continue of radiation in
the 1-st window was 1minute, in 2 was 2 min., in 3 was 3 min., in 4 was 4 min., in 5 was
5 min., in 6 was 6 min. 8 hour late after UV radiation nurse sow on the skin of lower part
of abdomen 2 red string. Which is prophylactic doze for this patient?
A. 6 minutes
B. 30 second
C. * 15 second
D. 2,5 second
E. 2 minute
59. Doctor must estimate biological dose for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation. Biodosimeter was fastening in lower part of abdomen. Continue of radiation in
the 1-th window was 2 minute, in 2 was 3 min., in 3 was 4 min., in 4 was 5 min., in 5 was
6 min., in 6 was 7 min. 8 hour late after UV iradiation nurse sow on the skin of lower part
of abdomen 3 red string. Which is prophylactic doze for this patient?
A. 10 min
B. 6 min
C. 5min
D. 3 min
E. * 30 sec
60. Doctor must estimate biological dose for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation. Biodosimeter was fastening in lower part of abdomen. Continue of radiation in
the 1-th window was 2 minute, in 2 was 3 min., in 3 was 4 min., in 4 was 5 min., in 5 was
6 min., in 6 was 7 min. 8 hour late after UV iradiation nurse sow on the skin of lower part
of abdomen 2 red string. What is biological (erytemic) doze of UV radiation?
A. 10 min
B. 6 min
C. 5min
D. * 3 min
E. 30 sec
61. Doctor must estimate biological dose for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation. Biodosimeter was fastening in lower part of abdomen. Continue of radiation in
the 1-st window was 1minute, in 2 was 2 min., in 3 was 3 min., in 4 was 4 min., in 5 was
5 min., in 6 was 6 min. 8 hour late after UV radiation nurse sow on the skin of lower part
of abdomen 4 red string. What is physiological dose of UV radiation for this patient?
A. * 1 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 30 second
D. 3 minute
E. 5 minute
62. Doctor must estimate biological dose for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation. Biodosimeter was fastening in lower part of abdomen. Continue of radiation in
the 1-th window - 2 minute, in 2 - 3 min., in 3 - 4 min., in 4 – 5 min., in 5 – 6 min., in 6 7 min. 8 hour late after UV radiation nurse sow on the skin of lower part of abdomen 2
red string. What is biological (erytemic) doze of UV radiation?
A. 10 min
B. 6 min
C. 5min.
D. * 3 min
E. 30 sec
63. Doctor must estimate biological dose for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation. Biodosimeter was fastening in lower part of abdomen. Time of irradiation in
the 1-th window - 1 minute, in 2 - 2min., in 3 – 3 min., in 4 – 4 min., in 5 – 5 min., in 6 6 min. 8 hour late after UV radiation nurse sow on the skin of lower part of abdomen 3
red string. What is biological (erytemic) doze of UV radiation?
A. 10 min.
B. 6 min.
C. 5min.
D. * 3 min
E. 30 sec.
64. Doctor must estimate biological dose for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation. Biodosimeter was fastening in lower part of abdomen. Continue of radiation in
the 1-st window-1minute, in 2-2 min., in 3- 3 min., in 4- 4 min., in 5 – 5 min., in 6 - 6
min. 8 hour late after UV radiation nurse sow on the skin of lower part of abdomen 6 red
string. What is prophylactic (anti-rickety) doze of UV radiation?
A. * 6 minutes
B. 30 second
C. 10 minutes
D. 2,5 minute
E. 5 minute
65. Doctor must estimate biological dose for providing maximal healthier effect of UV
radiation. Biodosimeter was fastening in lower part of abdomen. Continue of radiation in
the 1-th window - 2 minute, in 2-3 min., in 3-4 min., in 4 – 5 min., in 5 – 6 min., in 6 - 7
min. 8 hour late after UV radiation nurse sow on the skin of lower part of abdomen 5 red
string. What is biological (erytemic) doze of UV radiation?
A. 10 min
B. * 6 min
C. 5min
D. 3 min
E. 30 sec
66. During inspection of sanitary conditions of doctor’s room in the hospital were calculated
light coefficient, natural light coefficient, coefficient of the depth, time of the room
insolation. What index of natural light is more informative?
A. * Natural light coefficient
B. Time of the room insolation
C. Presence of mixed (superolateral) light
D. Depth of study room
E. Light coefficient
67. During inspection of sanitary conditions of studying at a technical university it was
necessary to evaluate the visual regimen of students, who study from 9 A.m to 3 p.m.
What index of natural light will be the most informative?
A. Time of the room insolation
B. Presence of mixed (superolateral) light
C. * Natural light coefficient
D. Depth of study room
E. Light coefficient
68. During inspection of sanitary conditions of studying at a technical university it was
necessary to evaluate the visual regimen of students, who study from 9 A.m to 3 p.m.
What index of natural light will be the most informative?
A. Time of the room insolation
B. Presence of mixed (superolateral) light
C. * Natural light coefficient
D. Depth of study room
E. Light coefficient
69. During inspection of sanitary conditions of studying at a medical university were
calculated light coefficient, natural light coefficient, coefficient of the depth, time of the
room insolation. What index of natural light is more informative?
A. * Natural light coefficient
B. Time of the room insolation
C. Presence of mixed (superolateral) light
D. Depth of study room
E. Light coefficient
70. In a classroom the light coefficient is 1: 5, coefficient of the depth 1, 5 coefficient of
natural illumination is 0,5 %, level of artificial illumination 150 lux. Which one of these
indexes is NOT hygienically?
A. * coefficient of natural illumination
B. level of artificial illumination
C. Depth of study room
D. Light coefficient
E. All are hygienically
71. In a classroom the light coefficient is 1: 5, coefficient of the depth 1, 5 coefficient of
natural illumination is 1,5 %, level of artificial illumination 150 lux. Which one of these
indexes is NOT hygienically?
A. coefficient of natural illumination
B. level of artificial illumination
C. Depth of study room
D. Light coefficient
E. * All are hygienically
72. In a classroom the light coefficient is 1: 5, coefficient of the depth 1, 5 coefficient of
natural illumination is 1,5 %, level of artificial illumination 100 lux. Which one of these
indexes is NOT hygienically?
A. coefficient of natural illumination
B. * level of artificial illumination
C. Depth of study room
D. Light coefficient
E. All are hygienically
73. In a classroom the light coefficient is 1: 5, coefficient of the depth 2, 5 coefficient of
natural illumination is 1,5 %, level of artificial illumination 150 lux. Which one of these
indexes is NOT hygienically?
A. coefficient of natural illumination
B. level of artificial illumination
C. * Depth of study room
D. Light coefficient
E. All are hygienically
74. In a classroom the light coefficient is 1: 8, coefficient of the depth 1, 5 coefficient of
natural illumination is 1,5 %, level of artificial illumination 150 lux. Which one of these
indexes is NOT hygienically?
A. coefficient of natural illumination
B. level of artificial illumination
C. Depth of study room
D. * Light coefficient
E. All are hygienically
75. In a classroom the light coefficient is 1: 8, coefficient of the depth 2, 1 coefficient of
natural illumination is 1,0 %, level of artificial illumination 100 lux. Which one of these
indexes is NOT hygienically?
A. coefficient of natural illumination
B. level of artificial illumination
C. Depth of study room
D. Light coefficient
E. * None of the above
76. In an classroom the temperature of air is 20 0С, relative humidity is 55 %, coefficient of
natural illumination is 1 %. Which one of this indexes is NOT correct?
A. Temperatura and humidity
B. Relative humidity
C. * Coefficient of natural illumination
D. Temperature
E. Coefficient of natural illumination and temperature
77. In an classroom the temperature of air is 20 0С, relative humidity is 50 %, coefficient of
natural illumination is 0,5 %. Which one of this indexes is NOT correct?
A. Temperatura and humidity
B. Relative humidity
C. * Coefficient of natural illumination
D. Temperature
E. Coefficient of natural illumination and temperature
78. In an operating-room the temperature of air is 180С, relative humidity is 50 %, coefficient
of natural illumination – 1 %. What from the stated below indexes does need correction?
A. Temperatura and humidity
B. Relative humidity
C. * Coefficient of natural illumination
D. Temperature
E. Coefficient of natural illumination and temperature
79. In an operating-room the temperature of air is 180С, relative humidity is 50 %, coefficient
of natural illumination – 1 %. What from the stated below indexes does need correction?
A. Temperatura and humidity
B. Relative humidity
C. * Coefficient of natural illumination
D. Temperature
E. Coefficient of natural illumination and temperature
80. In patient room the temperature of air is 250С, relative humidity is 50 %, coefficient of
natural illumination – 0,1 %. What from the stated below indexes does need correction?
A. Temperatura and humidity
B. Relative humidity
C. Coefficient of natural illumination
D. Temperature
E. * Coefficient of natural illumination and temperature
81. In patient room the temperature of air is 250С, relative humidity is 50 %, coefficient of
natural illumination – 0,1 %. What from the stated below indexes does need correction?
A. Temperatura and humidity
B. Relative humidity
C. Coefficient of natural illumination
D. Temperature
E. * Coefficient of natural illumination and temperature
82. On observation of sanitary conditions of studying at the technical university it was
necessary to evaluate the visual regimen of students, who study from 9a.m to 3p.m. What
index of natural light will be the most informative?
A. Light coefficient
B. Presence of mixed (upper-lateral) light
C. * Coefficient of daylight
D. Time of the room isolation
E. Depth of the study room
83. Policemen wear yellow jackets when on duty during the night. These jackets make them
easy to see. Which is the best explanation of this?
A. yellow is easy on the eyes at night
B. * the yellow material is made to reflect light well
C. yellow is their uniform colour
D. street lights are yellow, so other colours can’t be seen
E. None of the above
84. Put the following events in the correct order:
1. People used oil lamps for light.
2. People used fire for light.
3. People used the electric light bulb for light.
4. People used candles for light.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. * 2, 4, 1, 3
C. 4, 3, 2, 1
D. 1, 4, 3, 2
E. 3, 4, 2, 1
85. The area of classroom’s floor is 50 m2. There are 10 bulp lamps in it, each of lamps
have 100 Wt, height of hanging of the lamps is 3 m. Calculate proper power of lamps.
A. 200
B. 10
C. * 20
D. 500
E. 5
86. The square of bad room is 20 m2 . There are 4 bulb lamps in it, each of lamps have 100
Wt, height of hanging of the lamps is 3 m. Calculate proper power of lamps
A. * 20
B. 10
C. 40
D. 400
E. 800
87. The square of classroom is 50 m2. There are 10 bulp lamps in it, each of lamps have 100
Wt, height of hanging of the lamps is 3 m. Calculate proper power of lamps
A. 200
B. 10
C. * 20
D. 500
E. 5
88. The square of operation room is 30 m2, There are 4 luminescent lamps in it, each of
lamps have 120 Wt, height of hanging of the lamps is 3 m. Calculate proper power of
lamps
A. 180
B. 120
C. 18
D. * 16
E. 60
89. The square of patients`s room is 20 m2, There are 6 bulp lamps in it, each of lamps have
60 Wt, height of hanging of the lamps is 3 m. Proper power of lamps is 18 Wt/m2 What
is the ligting in patients`s room ?
A. 180 lx
B. 15 lx
C. 18 lx
D. 360lx
E. * 36 lx
90. The square of therapeutic cabinet is 20 m2, There are 2 luminescent lamps in it, each of
lamps have150 Wt, height of hanging of the lamps is 3 m. Calculate proper power of
lamps
A. 150 Wt/m2
B. * 15 Wt/m2
C. 25 Wt/m2
D. 300Wt/m2
E. 60 Wt/m2
91. The square of therapeutic cabinet is 25 m2, There are 4 luminescent lamps in it, each of
lamps have100 Wt, height of hanging of the lamps is 3 m. Calculate proper power of
lamps
A. * 16 Wt/m2
B. 26 Wt/m2
C. 66 Wt/m2
D. 20 Wt/m2
E. 160 Wt/m2
92. What from the following has (have) wavelengths that are shorter than visible light? I.
Gamma-rays; II. Ultraviolet light; III. Infrared radiation; IV.X-rays.
A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II, III, and IV
E. * I, II, and IV
93. What one of the following is absorbed by ozone in Earth's atmosphere that is located
between 20 km and 40 km above Earth's surface? Therefore, telescopes to observe this
radiation must be placed in space.
A. Infrared radiation
B. * Ultraviolet radiation
C. Radio wave radiation
D. X-ray radiation
E. Visible light
94. What one of the following is absorbed by water in Earth's atmosphere and requires that
telescopes for observing at these wavelengths be placed on mountain tops or in space.
A. * Infrared radiation
B. Ultraviolet radiation
C. Radio wave radiation
D. X-ray radiation
E. Visible light
95. What will be physiological dose of UV radiation for adult, if biodose is 1 minute?
A. 45 second.
B. * 30 second.
C. 1 minute.
D. 1,5 minute.
E. 2 minute.
96. What will be physiological dose of UV radiation for adult, if biodose is 3 minute?
A. 45 second.
B. 30 second.
C. 1 minute.
D. * 1,5 minute
E. 2 minute.
97. What will be physiological dose of UV radiation for adult, if biodose is 4minute?
A. 45 second.
B. 30 second.
C. 1 minute.
D. 1,5 minute
E. * 2 minute.
98. What will be prophylactic dose of UV radiation for adult, if biodose is 16 minute?
A. 45 second.
B. 30 second.
C. 1 minute.
D. 1,5 minute.
E. * 2 minute
99. What will be prophylactic dose of UV radiation for adult, if biodose is 6 minute?
A. 45 second.
B. 30 second.
C. 1 minute.
D. * 1,5 minute.
E. 2 minute.
100.
What will be prophylactic dose of UV radiation for adult, if biodose is 8 minute?
A. 45 second.
B. 30 second.
C. * 1 minute
D. 1,5 minute.
E. 2 minute.
101.
A 55 y.o. man to complain doctor about headache and tiredness. Lab tests:
carboxyhemoglobin in blood. Poisoning with which substance is most likely to cause
formation of carboxyhemoglobin in blood?
A. Mercury
B. Chlorine
C. Dust
D. Lead
E. * Carbon oxide
102.
A 60-year-old boiler-man to complain doctor about headache and tiredness. Lab
tests: carboxyhemoglobin in blood. Poisoning with which substance is most likely to
cause formation of carboxyhemoglobin in blood?
A. Mercury
B. Chlorine
C. Manganese
D. Lead
E. * Carbon oxide
103.
As a result of laboratory research of soil which was selected on lot land of school,
it is discovered that a value of Chlebnikov number is 1,0, colli-titer – over 1,0, anaerobe
titer – 0,1, Harmful chemical substances – lower then MAC. Give a hygienic estimation
of soil
A. * Clean
B. Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Strongly polluted
E. Indifferent
104.
As a result of laboratory research of soil which was selected on lot land of school,
it is discovered that a value of Chlebnikov number is 0,8, coli-titer – over 1,0, quantity of
acaridae eggs in 1kg of soil -7. Give a hygienic estimation of soil
A. Clean
B. * Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Strongly polluted
E. Indifferent
105.
As a result of laboratory research of soil which was selected on lot land of
children hospital, it is discovered that a value of Chlebnikov number is 0,55, coli-titer
less 0,0003, perfringens titer is 0,00001,quantity of acaridae eggs in 1kg of soil 35. Give
a hygienic estimation of soil.
A. Clean
B. Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. * Strongly polluted
E. Indifferent
106.
As a result of laboratory research of soil which was selected on lot land of
children’s sport games place, it is discovered that a value of Chlebnikov number is 0,7,
coli-titer over 0,01, perfringens titer is 0,0001, quantity of acaridae eggs in 1kg of soil 15.
Give a hygienic estimation soil.
A. Clean
B. Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. * Polluted
E. Indifferent
107.
As a result of laboratory research of soil which was selected on lot land of
children’s sport games place, it is discovered that a value of Chlebnikov number is 1,0,
coli-titer over 1,0, perfringens titer is 0,01, quantity of acaridae eggs in 1kg of soil 0.
Give a hygienic estimation soil.
A. * Clean
B. Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Polluted
E. High polluted
108.
As a result of laboratory research of soil which was selected on lot land of
hospital, it is discovered that a value of Chlebnikov number is 0,8, coli-titer over 1,0,
quantity of acaridae eggs in 1kg of soil is 7. Give a hygienic estimation of soil.
A. Clean
B. * Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Strongly polluted
E. Indifferent
109.
As a result of laboratory research of soil which was selected on lot land of
hospital, it is discovered that a value of Chlebnikov number is 0,99, coli-titer over 1,0,
titer anaerobial bacteries is 0,1, quantity of acaridae eggs in 1kg of soil is 0. Give a
hygienic estimation of soil
A. * Clean
B. Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Strongly polluted
E. Indifferent
110.
As a result of laboratory research of soil which was selected on lot land of sport
games place, it is discovered that a value of Chlebnikov number is 0,88, coli-titer over
0,3, perfringens titer is 0,01, quantity of acaridae eggs in 1kg of soil 5. Give a hygienic
estimation of soil.
A. Clean
B. * Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Strongly polluted
E. Indifferent
111.
As a result of laboratory research of soil which was selected on lot land of sport
games plase, it is discovered that a value of Chlebnikov number is 0,9, coli-titer – over
0,3, perfringens titer is 0,01,quantity of acaridae eggs in 1kg of soil 4. Give a hygienic
estimation soil.
A. Clean
B. * Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Strongly polluted
E. Indifferent
112.
By the results of laboratory researches of hospital ground plot level of soil
pollution is middle polluted. Which in this case was a sanitary-chemical numbers
(Chlebnikov number)?
A. * 0,74-0,50
B. 0,98-1.00
C. 0,86-0,97
D. 0,60-0,69
E. 0,50-0,59
113.
By the results of laboratory researches of hospital ground plot level of soil
pollution is strongly polluted. Which in this case was a sanitary-chemical numbers
(Chlebnikov number)?
A. More than 0,70
B. 0,98-1,00
C. 0,86-0,97
D. More than 0,60
E. * Less than 0,50
114.
By the results of laboratory researches of hospital ground plot level of soil
pollution is clean. Which in this case was a sanitary-chemical numbers (Chlebnikov
number)?
A. More than 0,70
B. * 0,98-1,0
C. 0,86-0,97
D. More than 0,60
E. Less than 0,50
115.
For hygienic estimation of air condition in hospital words were determined the
next indexes of concentration of carbon dioxide: 0,03 % in ward # 1; 0,1 % in ward # 2,
0,05 % in ward # 3, 0,2 % in ward # 4, and 0,09 % in ward #5. Where the concentrations
of Carbone dioxide more than normal?
A. In ward # 1
B. In ward # 2;
C. In ward # 3
D. * In ward # 4
E. In ward # 5
116.
For hygienic estimation of air condition in hospital words were determined the
next indexes of concentration of carbon dioxide: 0,03 % in ward # 1; 0,1 % in ward # 2,
0,17 % in ward # 3, 0,1 % in ward # 4, and 0,09 % in ward #5. Where the concentrations
of Carbone dioxide more than normal?
A. In ward # 1
B. * In ward # 2;
C. In ward # 3
D. In ward # 4
E. In ward # 5
117.
For hygienic estimation of air condition in hospital words were determined the
next indexes of concentration of carbon dioxide: in ward # 1 – 0, 1 %; in ward # 2 – 0,19
% , in ward # 3 – 0,25 %, in ward # 4 – 0,2 %, in ward # 5 - 0,4 %. In which ward the
concentrations of Carbone dioxide don’t need correction?
A. * In ward # 1
B. In ward # 2;
C. In ward # 3
D. In ward # 4
E. In ward # 5
118.
For hygienic estimation of air condition in hospital words were determined the
next indexes of concentration of carbon dioxide: in ward # 1 – 0, 3 %; in ward # 2 – 0,1
% , in ward # 3 – 0,25 %, in ward # 4 – 0,2 %, in ward # 5 - 0,4 %. In which ward the
concentrations of Carbone dioxide don’t need correction?
A. In ward # 1
B. In ward # 2;
C. In ward # 3
D. In ward # 4
E. * In ward # 5
119.
For hygienic estimation of air condition in hospital words were determined the
next indexes of concentration of carbon dioxide: in ward # 1 was 0,03 %; in ward # 2 was
0,1 % , in ward # 3 was 0,25 %, in ward # 4 was 0,07 %, in ward #5 was 0,09 %. In
which ward the concentrations of Carbone dioxide need correction?
A. In ward # 1
B. * In ward # 2;
C. In ward # 3
D. In ward # 4
E. In ward # 5
120.
For hygienic estimation of air condition in hospital words were determined the
next indexes of concentration of carbon dioxide: in ward # 1 – 0, 3 %; in ward # 2 – 0,29
% , in ward # 3 – 0,25 %, in ward # 4 – 0,2 %, in ward # 5 - 0,1 %. In which ward the
concentrations of Carbone dioxide don’t need correction?
A. In ward # 1
B. In ward # 2;
C. In ward # 3
D. In ward # 4
E. * In ward # 5
121.
For hygienic estimation of air condition in hostel were determined the next
indexes of coefficient of aeration: in room # 1 equal 1:20, in room # 2 equal 1:30, in
room # 3 equal 1:50, in room # 4 equal 1:15, in room # 5 equal 1:10. Were the ventilation
was effective?
A. In room # 1
B. In room # 2
C. * In room # 3
D. In room # 4
E. In room # 5
122.
In classroom were determined the next parameters of microclimate: air
temperature is +19 0C, relative humidity is 60 %, speed of air movement is 0,2 m/sec,
radiation temperature is +120C, concentration of carbon dioxide is 1,5 l/m3. Which one of
the following from the transferred indexes here not behaves to the parameters of
microclimate?
A. Temperature
B. Humidity of air
C. * Concentration of carbon dioxide
D. Speed of motion of air
E. Radiation temperature
123.
In dentist room are determine the next parameters of microclimate: temperature is
+21 0C, relative humidity is 56 %, speed of air movement is 0,1 m/sec, concentration of
carbon dioxide is 1,3 l/m3. Which one of the following from the transferred indexes here
not behave to the parameters of microclimate?
A. temperature
B. Humidity of air
C. * Concentration of carbon dioxide
D. Speed of motion of air
E. Radiation temperature
124.
In hostel are determine the next parameters of microclimate: air temperature is
0
+16 C, relative humidity is 60 %, speed of air movement is 0,2 m/sec, radiation
temperature is +120C, concentration of carbon dioxide is1,0 l/m3. Which one of the
following from the transferred indexes here not behave to the parameters of
microclimate?
A. Concentration of carbon dioxide
B.
C.
D.
E.
Humidity of air
* Temperature of air
Speed of motion of air
Radiation temperature
125.
In pediatric department was estimated air cleanness in the winter season. The
results of biological research: the content of microorganisms in air 1m - is 8000,
hemolytic streptococcus is 200. Assess the degree of air pollution
A. Clean
B. Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Strongly polluted
E. * Muddy
126.
In room were determined the next parameters of microclimate: temperature is
+20 0C, relative humidity is 49 %, speed of air movement is 0,2 m/sec, radiation
temperature is +120C, concentration of carbon dioxide is 1,5 l/m3. Which one of the
following from the transferred indexes here not behaves to the parameters of
microclimate?
A. Temperature
B. Humidity of air
C. Radiation temperature
D. Speed of motion of air
E. * Concentration of carbon dioxide
127.
In the children's ward assessment of air purity in terms of biological research in
the summer season. Results of analyses: content of microorganisms in 1m3 of air less
than 1500, hemolytic streptococcus less than 16. What is the degree of air pollution?
A. * Clean
B. Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Strongly polluted
E. Indifferent
128.
In the dull December days (calm and mist) the respiratory systems disease and
disease accompanied by signs of general intoxication in the region where thermoelectric
power station work on solid fuel increased. The mortality among persons over 60 also
increased. Which factor may probably cause toxic effects?
A. Carbon oxide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Low temperature
D. Air humidity
E. * Suspended substances (dust)
129.
Photochemical smog was first described in the 1950s. Photochemical smog is
characteristic of urban areas with many vehicles and a climate that is
A. Cool, wet, and cloudy
B. Cool, dry, and sunny
C. *Warm, dry, and sunny
D. Warm, wet, and cloudy
E. Warm, wet, and sunny
130.
A substance in the air that can cause harm to humans and the environment is
known as an air pollutant. Harmful chemicals emitted directly into the air from natural
processes and human activities are called
A. Secondary pollutants
B. Smog
C. Photochemical smog
D. Tertiary pollutants
E. *Primary pollutants
131. Photochemical smog was first described in the 1950s. Photochemical smog is formed
when primary pollutants interact with
A. *Sunlight
B. Water vapor
C. Sulfur dioxide
D. Oxygen
E. Carbon
132. Pollutants can be classified as primary or secondary. Usually, primary pollutants are
directly emitted from a process. Primary pollutants from burning coal include all of the
following, except
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Sulfur dioxide
C. Soot
D. *Ozone
E. Carbon dioxide
133. There are various air pollution control technologies and land use planning strategies
available to reduce air pollution. Which of the following would not be a factor that
reduces outdoor air pollution?
A. Particles that are heavier than air settle out of the atmosphere.
B. Rain and snow wash pollutants out of the atmosphere.
C. Winds sweep pollutants away.
D. Chemical reactions convert pollutants into benign chemicals.
E. *Radiation from the sun converts pollutants into benign chemicals.
134. Most people think of pollution as being an outdoor phenomenon. However, many things
can cause indoor air pollution. Experts rate indoor air pollution as a
A. *high-risk health problem for humans
B. medium-risk health problem for humans
C. low-risk health problem for humans
D. high-risk ecological problem
E. none of these
135. In therapeutic department assessment of purity of air in the summer season. The results
of biological research: The content of microorganisms in air 1m - less than 3500,
hemolytic streptococcus - less than 46. Assess the degree of air pollution.
A. Clean
B. Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Strongly polluted
E. * Muddy
136. In therapeutic department was estimated air cleanness in the winter season. The results
of biological research: The content of microorganisms in air 1m - less than 4500,
hemolytic streptococcus - less than 36. Assess the degree of air pollution
A. * Clean
B. Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Strongly polluted
E. Muddy
137. In therapeutic department was estimated air cleanness in the winter season. The results
of biological research: The content of microorganisms in air 1m - less than 4500,
hemolytic streptococcus - less than 36. Assess the degree of air pollution
A. * Clean
B. Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Strongly polluted
E. Hight polluted
138. In traumatology department was estimated air cleanness in the winter season. The
results of biological research: the content of microorganisms in air 1m 3 is 6000,
hemolytic streptococcus is 106. Assess the degree of air pollution
A. Clean
B. * Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Strongly polluted
E. Muddy
139. In ward assessment of purity of air in the summer season. The results of biological
research: The content of microorganisms in air 1m - less than 3500, hemolytic
streptococcus - less than 46. Assess the degree of air pollution.
A. Clean
B. Low pollution
C. Middle polluted
D. Strongly polluted
E. * Muddy
140. In ward were determined the next parameters of microclimate: temperature is +16 0C,
relative humidity is 60 %, speed of air movement is 0,2 m/sec, radiantion temperature is
+120C, concentration of carbon dioxide is 0,5 l/m3. Which one of the following from the
transferred indexes here not behave to the parameters of microclimate?
A. Humidity of air
B. Concentration of carbon dioxide
C. * Temperature of air
D. Speed of motion of air
E. Radiation temperature
141. There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: CNI (coefficient of
natural illumination) is 1,7 %, LC - 1: 5, temperature of air – 20 0С, relative humidity of
air – 58 %, concentration CO2 – 0,3 %. What diseases are possible for these students?
A. Negative factors for a health are absent.
B. Eyes pain;
C. * Head pain;
D. Scoliosis;
E. Influence
142. There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: CNI (coefficient of
natural illumination) is 1,7 %, LC - 1: 5, temperature of air – 20 0С, relative humidity of
air – 58 %, concentration CO2 – 0,3 %. What diseases are possible for these students?
A. Negative factors for a health are absent.
B. Eyes pain;
C. * Head pain;
D. Scoliosis;
E. Bagasosis
143. There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: CNI (coefficient of
natural illumination) is 1,7 %, LC = 1: 5, temperature of air + 20 0С, relative humidity of
air 58 %, concentration CO2 0,09 %. What diseases are possible for these students?
A. Bagasosis
B. Scoliosis;
C. Head pain
D. Eyes pain;
E. * Negative factors for a health is absent.
144. There are following data of hygienic inspection in hospital’s room: LC 1: 5, CNI
(coefficient of natural illumination) is 1,7 %, temperature of air + 20 0С, relative
humidity of air 58 %, concentration CO2 0,3 %. What diseases are possible for these
students?
A. Negative factors for a health are absent.
B. Eyes pain;
C. * Head pain;
D. Scoliosis;
E. Bagasosis.
145. The following are all sources of pollution: solid waste, pesticides, sewage, fertilisers.
Which of the following combinations contains sources of soil pollution?
A. Solid waste, pesticides;
B. Pesticides, sewage, fertilizers;
C. *Solid waste, pesticides, sewage, fertilisers;
D. Pesticides, sewage;
E. Sewage.
146. There are following data of hygienic inspection in ward: LC - 1: 6, CNI (coefficient of
natural illumination) is 1,9 %, temperature of air + 22 0С, relative humidity of air 58 %,
concentration CO2 0,5 %. What diseases are possible for these patients?
A. Negative factors for a health are absent.
B. Eyes pain;
C. * Head pain;
D. Scoliosis;
E. Bagasosis.
147. There are following data of hygienic inspection in ward: LC - 1: 6, CNI (coefficient of
natural illumination) is 2,0%, temperature of air – 21 0С, relative humidity of air – 48 %,
concentration CO2 – 0,5 %. What diseases are possible for these patients?
A. Negative factors for a health are absent.
B. * Head pain;
C. Eyes pain;
D. Scoliosis;
E. Bagasosis.
148. The air around us is a mixture of gases, such as nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and
very small amounts of other gases. The percentage of nitrogen in inhaled air is _____%
and exhaled air is _____%.
A. 21 and 21;
B. * 78 and 78;
C. 21 and 78;
D. 78 and 21;
E. 21 and 16.
149. The air around us is a mixture of gases, such as nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and
very small amounts of other gases. The percentage of carbon dioxide in the inhaled air is
_____% and exhaled air is ____%.
A. *0.04 and 4;
B. 4 and 0.04;
C. 0.04 and 0.04;
D. 21 and 16;
E. 78 and 4.
150. The air around us is a mixture of gases, such as nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and
very small amounts of other gases. Maximum carbon dioxide concentration will be in the
______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
inspired air.
* expired air;
dead space air;
in the lung;
all will be same.
151.
For a water-supply use water, which contains 100 mg/dm3 of chlorides, 150
mg/dm3 of sulfates, 0,3 mg/dm3 of iron. General hardness of water is 5,0 mEq/L, index
BGEC (Bacteria Group E. Coli) is 6. What method is expedient for an improvement its
quality?
A. Settling
B. * Disinfection
C. Desalinization
D. Deironation
E. Boiling
152.
According to the results of drinking water examination from the well, water is
hard. Hard water contains large amounts of __________ .
A. Lead
B. Sodium
C. *Calcium
D. Silicon
E. Iron
153.
A military unit stopped for 3-day's rest in inhabited locality after a long march.
The sanitary-epidemiological reconnaissance found several water sources. It is necessary
to choose the source complying with the hygienic standards for drinking water in the
field conditions.
A. Rain water
B. Spring water
C. Water from melted snow
D. * Artesian well water
E. River water
154.
A mineshaft is situated on the territory of homestead land; it is 20 m away from
the house, 10 m - from the toilet and 15 m - from the house. What is the smallest distance
that, according to the sanitary code, should be established between the well and the
source of probable water pollution?
A. * 30 m
B. 20 m
C. 25 m
D. 10 m
E. 15 m
155.
Peoples from village A. want examined water from their well. How many liters of
water essential for examination?
A. 0,5 litres of water
B. 1 litres of water
C. 1,5 litres of water
D. *2 litres of water
E. 3 litres of water
156.
Water which has been treated with chlorine is effective in preventing the spread of
waterborne disease. Chlorination is intended to protect drinking water from
A. Toxic organic chemicals
B. Suspended solids.
C. Toxic inorganic chemicals.
D. *Human pathogens
E. Toxic heavy metals.
157.
A student lives in the modern house in the flat with a complete set of sanitary
equipment (WC, bath, shower, local water heater). How much water consumption has he
got?
A. 500 -600 liters per day
B. * 160-200 liters per day
C. 300-400 liters per day
D. 50-100 liters per day
E. 10-15 liters per day
158.
Water is continually moving around, through, and above the Earth as water vapor,
liquid water, and ice. The majority of the water on Earth is found
A. In aquifers.
B. *Oceans.
C. Polar ice and glaciers
D. The atmosphere
E. Freshwater lakes and rivers.
159.
Water that is used for supply of the city, contains fluoride — 2,0 mg/dm3, nitrates
— mg/dm3, chlorides — 250 mg/dm3, iron — 0.2 mg/dm3, residual nitrogen — 0,5
mg/dm3. What medical condition is the most likely to occur among the inhabitants of this
city?
A. * Fluorosis
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Caries
D. Endemic goitre
E. Methemoglobinemia
160.
A military unit after long march stopped for 3-day's rest in the vicinity of an
inhabited locality. The sanitary-epidemiological reconnaissance found several water
sources. It is necessary to choose the source complying with the hygienic standards for
potable water in the field conditions.
A. Water from melted snow
B. * Artesian well water
C. Spring water
D. Rain water
E. River water
161.
Water is continually moving around, through, and above the Earth as water vapor,
liquid water, and ice. How much of Earth’s water is fresh water?
A. 97%
B. 50%
C. *3%
D. 1%
E. 0.3 %
162.
A student lives in the flat with complete set of sanitary equipment (WC, bath,
shower, local water heater). How much water (in liters) he need daily?
A. 10-15 L
B. 50-100 L
C. 500 L
D. * 160-200 L
E. 1.300-400 L
163.
Water that is used for supply of the city, contains fluoride 2,0 mg/dm3, nitrates 43
3
mg/dm , chlorides 250 mg/dm3, iron 0,2 mg/dm3, residual nitrogen 0,5 mg/dm3. What
diseases is the most likely to occur in citizens of this city?
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B.
C.
D.
E.
Methemoglobinemia
Caries
Endemic goitre
* Fluorosis
164.
In case of the unsuitableness drinking water due to the red water, the amount of Fe
is exceeding the permitted quality. What is the maximum desirable limit of iron in the
drinking water?
A. 0,1 mg/dm3
B. 0,2 mg/dm3
C. *0,3 mg/dm3
D. 0,4 mg/dm3
E. 0,5 mg/dm3
165.
According to the results of drinking water examination from the well, were find
high level of total hardness. What is unit of measured total hardness in water?
A. cm
B. points
C. mg/dm3
D. *mEq/L
E. CFU/dm3
166.
According to the results of drinking water examination from the well, were find
high level of nitrates. What is unit of measured nitrates in water?
A. cm
B. points
C. *mg/dm3
D. mEq/L
E. CFU/dm3
167.
Examination result of sulphates in water is 200 mg/dm3. What is the maximum
desirable limit of sulphates in the drinking water?
A. Less than 50 mg/dm3
B. Less than 100 mg/dm3
C. Less than 150 mg/dm3
D. *Less than 250 mg/dm3
E. Less than 1000 mg/dm3
168.
Examination result of Fluorine in water is 2.0 mg/dm3. What is the maximum
desirable limit of Fluorine in the drinking water?
A. Less than 0,1 mg/dm3
B. Less than 0,5 mg/dm3
C. Less than 0,7 mg/dm3
D. Less than 1,0 mg/dm3
E. *Less than 1,5 mg/dm3
169.
After rains and overflow of the rivers there was suspicion on human excreta
contamination of water. Which one of the following index is most informing for
confirmation or refutation of version?
A. Turbidity
B. Colourity
C. Smell of water
D. * Index BGEC (Bacteria Group E. Coli)
E. Transparency of water
170.
Biological laboratory examined water in Ternopil region. Which one of the
following is physical method of water disinfection?
A. Ultraviolet rays
B. Chlorine
C. Ozonization
D. Iodine-containing preparations
E. * Boiling
171.
Disinfection of well is required in normal days and during epidemics. Which one
of the following are indexes which testify to reliability of the disinfecting of water in the
case of the use of method of chlorination?
A. * "free" residual chlorine level is 0.5 mg/ dm3, GMN – 100 CFU/dm3
B. Transparence of water 30 cm
C. GMN – 100 CFU/ dm3, Index BGEC – 10 CFU/cm3
D. GMN – 110 CFU/ dm3, smell is 2 points
E. "free" residual chlorine level is 0.2 mg/ dm3, transparence of water 30 cm
172.
Laboratory assistant take a water samples for testing. What information must be
given with bottle (after taking sample)?
A. Source of water supply
B. Date, place and time of sampling
C. Geological formation of soil
D. In case of well, its depth
E. *All are correct
173.
During examination of water from well, inspector find low level of fluoride in
water. What is the maximum desirable limit of fluoride in the drinking water?
A. 0,1-0,2 mg/dm3
B. 0,5-0,7 mg/dm3
C. *0,7-1,5 mg/dm3
D. 1,5-2 mg/dm3
E. 2-3 mg/dm3
174.
For a water-supply of hospital use water, which contains 500 mg/dm3 of chlorides,
200 mg/dm3 of sulfates, 0,3 mg/dm3 of iron. General hardness of water is 5,0 mEq/L,
index BGEC is 2. What measures is expedient for an improvement its quality?
A. Settling
B. Coagulation
C. * Desalinization
D. Deironation
E. Boiling
175.
For a water-supply of pharmacies use water, which contains 200 mg/dm3 of
chlorides, 200 mg/dm3 of sulfates, 0,5 mg/dm3 of iron. General hardness of water is 3,0
mEq/L, index BGEC is 2. What measures is expedient for an improvement its quality?
A. Settling
B. Coagulation
C. Softening
D. * Deironation
E. Boiling
176.
For disinfection worker of laboratory used chloride lime. How correct to store
chloride lime?
A. In open barrels
B. In inhabit room
C. In warm places
D. * In dry, dark place
E. Under solar rays
177.
A water test for nitrate is highly recommended for households with infants,
pregnant women, nursing mothers, or elderly people. These groups are the most
susceptible to nitrate or nitrite contamination. What reactive used for determine nitrites
in water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Griss reactive
Nessler's reactive
Seignette salt
Barium chloride
Hydrochloric acid
178.
Group of people from sanitaric station disinfected water.Disinfecting of water is?
A. cleaning it from dirt
B. removal of unpleasant smell
C. removal of hangings up matters
D. removal of pathogenic microorganisms
E. * all are correct
179.
Group of student studied all about water. What disadvantages of overchlorination
over the chlorination?
A. Don't need to determination chlorine's need of water
B. Don't need calculate the dose of chloric lime
C. Time of water's disinfection is decreasing
D. * Need dechlorination of water
E. all are correct
180.
In a city N. for an improvement quality of drinking-water uses the new methods of
cleaning and disinfecting. Which one of the following can be use for disinfecting of water
on modern system of water supply?
A. * Ozonization
B. Filtration
C. Coagulation
D. Boiling
E. Decontamination
181.
In hygienic laboratory examined water. In what units measured smell of water?
A. *points
B. cm
C. mg/dm3
D. mEq/L
E. CFU/dm3
182.
In city N. there are many cases the caries of the children. What level of fluorine
must be in water for cause caries?
A. *0,6 mg/dm3
B. 1,5 mg/dm3
C. 2 mg/dm3
D. 2,5 mg/dm3
E. 3 mg/dm3
183.
In city A. there are many cases the dental fluorosis of the children. What level of
fluorine must be in water for cause fluorosis?
A. *1,5 mg/dm3
B. 0, 2 mg/dm3
C. 0,5 mg/dm3
D. 1,0 mg/dm3
E. 0,7 mg/dm3
184.
In the river near village M. find high level of ammonia in water. What reactive
used for determine ammonia in water?
A. Griss reactive
B. *Nessler's reactive
C. Seignette salt
D. Barium chloride
E. Hydrochloric acid
185.
Chlorine is often added to wastewater for disinfection before effluent discharge. A
potential problem with this procedure is
A. *Toxic chlorinated hydrocarbons may be formed
B. Chlorine is a nonrenewable resource and may soon be depleted
C. The chlorine promotes cultural eutrophication.
D. Chlorine gas is poisonous and may threaten nearby homes.
E. Chlorine contributes to depletion of the ozone layer.
186.
In the village D. in water were find chlorides. In what units measured chlorides in
water?
A. cm
B. points
C. *mg/dm3
D. mEg/L
E. CFU/dm3
187.
Disinfection is an important step in ensuring that water is safe to drink. Which one
of the following is physical method of water disinfection?
A. * Ultraviolet rays
B. Chlorine and its preparations
C. Ozone
D. Iodine-containing preparations
E. Chemical tablet methods
188.
Result of water examination are next: iron is 5 mg/dm3, dry residue is 600
mg/dm3, hardness of water is 6 mEq/dm3, maintenance of fluorine is 1,0 mg/dm3. Name
the method of treatment of this water.
A. Desalinating of water
B. Softening of water
C. Fluoridation of water
D. * Deironation
E. Deodorization
189.
Laboratory testing of the well water sample showed the following results: color 20
degrees; smell and test 2 points; transparency is 10 cm; nitrite nitrogen is absent; nitrate
nitrogen is 40 mg/dm3 ; microbial number is 2. Estimate the water quality.
A. The water conform hygienic requirements
B. The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements, necessary its decolorizing
C. The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements, necessary its filtration
D. * The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements, necessary its coagulation
E. The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements, necessary its disinfection
190.
Laboratory testing of the well water sample showed the following results: color 20
degrees; smell and test 2 points; transparency is 30 cm; nitrite nitrogen is absent; nitrate
nitrogen is 40 mg/dm3 ; microbial number is 100. Estimate the water quality.
A. The water conform hygienic requirements
B. The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements, necessary its decolorizing
C. The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements, necessary its filtration
D. The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements, necessary its coagulation
E. * The water doesn’t conform hygienic requirements, necessary its disinfection
191.
Waterborne diseases are caused by pathogenic microorganisms that most
commonly are transmitted in contaminated fresh water. Water borne diseases affect
mostly
A. Adolescents
B. *Children under 5 years of age
C. Adult men
D. Adult women
E. Elder person
192.
The term "waterborne disease" is reserved largely for infections that
predominantly are transmitted through contact with or consumption of infected water.
The maximum desirable limit of general microbes number in drinking water is
A. not more 1000 CFU/dm3
B. not more 200 CFU/dm3
C. not more 50 CFU/dm3
D. not more 10 CFU/dm3
E. *not more 100 CFU/dm3
193.
Students during lesson of hygiene studied all about water. What indexes belong to
organoleptic?
A. Transparency of water
B. Coloring of water
C. Smell of water
D. Taste of water
E. *All are correct
194.
Students examined water and determine chlorines need of water. What test they
used for determination of the chlorines need of water?
A. One-glass test
B. Two-glass test
C. * Three-glass test
D. Four-glass test
E. Five-glass test
195.
Disinfection is an important step in ensuring that water is safe to drink. Which of
the following physical method is used as germicidal in modern time for the treatment of
drinking water?
A. Chlorination
B. Treating with potassium permanganate
C. *UV radiation
D. Treating with bleaching powder
E. Treating with chloramine
196.
The bacteriological examination of water is performed routinely by water utilities
and many governmental agencies to ensure a safe supply of water for drinking, bathing,
swimming and other domestic and industrial uses. Coliform bacteria in water is an
indication of the presence of
A. Radioactive wastes
B. Excess fertilizer
C. Decaying animals and plants
D. *Human feces
E. Toxic substances
197.
Students study all about water. What disadvantages of UV-irradiation over the
chlorination?
A. Don't denaturate the water
B. Don't change smell of water
C. Don’t change taste of water
D. * Need lightening of water
E. all are correct
198.
The group of tourists went out into a hike. The unique source of water-supply is
the river. What method is the simplest and most effective method of disinfecting of
individual supplies led these terms
A. * Boiling
B.
C.
D.
E.
Coagulation
Irradiation by UV - rays
Ozonization
Filtration
199.
There is a lot of water in the world but at any one time, very little is available for
us to use. How much of Earth’s water is fresh water?
A. 97%
B. 50%
C. *3%
D. 1%
E. 0.3 %
200.
There is a lot of water in the world but at any one time, very little is available for
us to use. What percentage of the world's water occurs in rivers and lakes?
A. 97%
B. 50%
C. 3%
D. 1%
E. *0.3 %
201.
A 55-year-old patient complains of bloating and rumbling in the abdomen,
increased outgoing of gasesfoamy liquid stool of acid odor. Symptoms appear after eating
of milk products. What is the name of such symptom complex?
A. * Acid dyspepsia syndrome
B. Adipose dyspepsia syndrome
C. Dyskinesia syndrome
D. Decaying dyspepsia syndrome
E. Malabsorbtion syndrome
202.
A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue, weight and appetite loss, headache.
Suffered from acute glomerulonephritis as adolescent. Suffers from arterial hypertension
since age 25. Has not systematically undergone medical treatment, applied to doctor very
rarely. On laboratory investigation signs of chronic renal failure first degree were found,
(creatinine — 0,23 mmol/L). What nutrition recommendations are the most suitable for
this patient?
A. Ingestion with the increased content of the "alkaline"
B. Fluid amount increase
C. Adipose control
D. Carbohydrate control
E. * Protein control
203.
A 24-year-old patient felt sick in 16 hours after dried fish intake. There was
nausea, vomiting, weakness, flabbiness, double vision. On physical exam, there was
decrease of a muscle tone, anisocoria, flaccid swallowing and tendon reflex. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. Food toxicoinfection
B. * Botulism
C. Acute gastritis
D. Salmonellosis
E. Acute encephalitis
204.
A 37-year-old woman complains of generalized fatigue, irritability, dysphagia,
chalk hunger. On physical exam: t-36,5° C, respirations — 20/min, Ps — 96 bpm, BP —
110/70 mm Hg. Satisfactory nourishment. The skin and visible mucous membranes are
pale. Blood test: Hb —70g/L, erythrocytes 3,4*1012/L, CI — 0,7, reticulocytes — 2%,
leucocytes — 4,7*109/ L, eosinophilis. — 2%, band neutrophils — 3%, segmented
neutrophils — 64%, lymphocytes — 26%, monocytes - 5%, ESR — 15 mrn/min. Serum
ferrum —7,3/µmol/L, total protein — 70g/L. Deficit of what factor caused the
development of the disease?
A. Vitamin B12
B. * Ferrum
C. Protein
D. Folic acid
E. Vitamin B6
205.
On medical observation a doctor identified girl (162 cm tall and 59 kg weight)
who complained loss of ability to see surrounding objects clearly in the evening. On
examination: dry skin, hyperkeratosis. Her daily ration includes the following vitamines:
vitamine A — 0,5 mg, vit.B6 — 2,0 mg, vit.B2 — 2,5 mg, vit.B6 — 2 mg, vit.C — 70
mg. What is the hypovitaminosis type?
A. B2-hypovitaminosis
B. В6-hypovitaminosis
C. A-hypovitaminosis
D. C-hypovitaminosis
E. В1 -hypovitaminosis
206.
The physician must undertake measures for primary prophylaxis of iron
deficiency anemia. Which of the following categories of patient are subject to such
primary prophylactic measures?
A. * Pregnant women
B. Patients after 60
C. Workers of industrial enterprises
D. Patients after operation
E. All children
207.
A 35 y.o. male patient suffers from chronic glomerulohephritis and has been on
hemodialysis for the last 3 years. He has developed irregularities in the heart activity,
hypotension, progressive weakness, dyspnea. On ECG: bradycardia, 1st degree
atrioventicular block, high sharpened T-waves. Before he had severely disturbed the
drinking and diet regimen. What is the most likely cause of these changes?
A. * Hyperkaliemia
B. Hyperhydratation
C. Hypokaliemia
D. Hypocalcemia
E. Hypernatremia
208.
33 y.o. woman works as the secretary. Her diet contains 150 g of protein
(including 100 g of animal protein), 200 g of fat, and 600 g of carbohydrates. What
pathology can develop from this diet?
A. Common cold
B. Uterine fibromyoma
C. Schizophrenia
D. * Obesity
E. Paradontosis
209.
A 2,5 y.о. child presents with muscle hypotonia, sweating, alopecia of the back of
the head. The child is prescribed massage, curative gymnastics and vitamin D. What is
the dosage and frequency of vitamin D administration?
A. 1000IU every other day
B. 500 IU daily
C. С. 1000 IU daily
D. * 3000 IU daily
E. 500 IU every other day
210.
A pediatrician examines a healthy mature-breast-fed baby, aged 1 month.
Prevention of what condition should be recommended in the first place?
A. Paraophji
B. * Rachitis
C. Anaemia
D. Hypotrophy
E. Spasmophilia
211.
A 2,5-month-old child presents with muscle hypotonia, sweating, alopecia of the
back of the head. The child is prescribed massage, curative gymnastics and vitamin D.
What is the dosage and frequency of vitamin D administration?
A. 1000 IU every other day
B. 500 IU daily
C. * 3000 IU daily
D. 500 IU every other day
E. 1000 IU daily
212.
The adolescent of 15 years old was brought to the hospital with complaints of
poor night eyesight. On physical exam: increased darkness adaptation time, Bitot's spots
on conjunctiva. The patient skin is dry, scales off; folliculitis signs of the face skin are
present. What is a cause of this disease?
A. Thiamine deficit
B. Biotin deficit
C. * Retinole deficit
D. Folic acid deficit
E. Napthtochynones deficit
213.
Water that is used for supply of the city, contains fluoride — 2,0 mg/L, nitrates
— 43 mg/L, chlorides — 250 mg/L, ferrum — 0.2 mg/L, residual nitrogen — 0,5 mg/L.
What medical condition is the most likely to occur among the inhabitants of this city?
A. * Fluorosis
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Caries
D. Endemic goitre
E. Methemoglobinemia
214.
A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue, weight and appetite loss, headache.
Suffered from acute glomerulonephritis as adolescent. Suffers from arterial hypertension
since age 25. Has not systematically undergone medical treatment, consulted doctor very
rarely. On laboratory investigation signs of chronic renal failure first degree were found,
(creatinine — 0,23 µmol/L). What nutrition recommendations are the most suitable for
this patient?
A. * Protein control
B. Ingestion with the increased content of the" "alkaline" food
C. Carbohydrate control
D. Fluid volume increase
E. Adipose control
215.
A sample of milk was taken for testing from a 5 ton milk batch. Lab analysis
showed the following: fat content 2%, specific density — 1,04 g/cm3, acidity 21°C,
reductase probe — weak positive. What way the product is to be used in? What would
you advise?
A. Annihilate the product.
B. Write the product off for animal feeding
C. * Sell but inform customers about milk quality
D. Utilize technically
E. Sell without limitations
216.
A man, aged 28, power-supply system operator, was at his working place during
the breakdown on the nuclear power plant. In the result of the steam-air explosion there
was an emission of circa 30 kg radioactive iodine (I131). Which radioprotector is
expedient in this case?
A. Cystamine
B. * Potassium iodide
C. Thiourea
D. Leucine
E. Valine
217.
In laboratory a sample of milk is analysed. There determined the following:
colour - whitish, smell – without peculiarities, taste - specific for milk, density – 1.038,
acidity - 35° Turner, fats – 3.2%. What is the degree of milk quality?
A. * Milk of poor quality
B. Adulterated milk.
C. Milk of good quality
D. Milk conditionally usable
E. Milk of reduced quality
218.
The patient was admitted to the hospital on the 7-th day of the disease with
complaints of high temperature, headache, pain in the muscles, especially in calf muscles.
The dermal integuments and scleras are icteric. There is hemorrhagic rash on the skin.
Urine is bloody. The patient went fishing two weeks ago. What is the diagnosis?
A. Salmonellosis
B. * Leptospirosis
C. Brucellosis
D. Trichinellosis
E. Yersiniosis
219.
Medical examination of a 43 y.o. man revealed objectively pailness of skin and
mucous membranes, smoothness of lingual papillas, transverse striation of nails, fissures
in the mouth corners, tachycardia. Hemoglobin content amounts 90 g/l; there are
anisocytosis, poikilocytosis. The most probable causative agent of this condition is
deficiency of the following microelement:
A. Magnesium
B. * Iron
C. Copper
D. Selenium
E. Zinc
220.
The patient 25 y.o. was admitted on the 1st day of the disease with complaints of
double vision in the eyes, heavy breathing. The day before the patient ate home-made
mushrooms. On objective examination: paleness, widened pupils, disorder of swallowing,
bradycardia, constipation are marked. What is the diagnosis?
A. * Botulism
B. Leptospirosis
C. Yersiniosis
D. Lambliasis
E. Salmonellosis, gastrointestinal form
221.
Medical examination of a man revealed "geographic tongue". This
microsymptom is the evidence of the following vitamin deficiency:
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin PP
D. Vitamin A
E. * Vitamins of B group
222.
A child is 1 y.o. Within the last months after the begining of supplemental
feeding the child has appetite loss, diarrhea with massive defecation, sometimes
vomiting. Objectively: body temperature is normal. Body weight is 7 kg. Evident pallor
of skin, leg edemata, enlarged abdomen. Coprogram shows a lot of fatty acids and soaps.
The child was diagnosed with celiac disease and prescribed gluten-free diet. What shoul
be excluded from the dietary intake in this case?
A. Animal protein
B. Digestible carbohydrates
C. Milk and dairy produce
D. * Cereals - wheat, oats
E. Fruit
223.
A 33-year-old woman works as the secretary. Her diet contains 150 g of protein
(including 100 g of animal), 200 g of fat, 600 g of carbohydrates. What pathology this
diet can cause?
A. Paradontosis
B. Uterine fibromyoma
C. * Obesity
D. Schizophrenia
E. Common cold
224.
A 3 month old child has occiput alopecia, anxious sleep, excessive sweating.
What disease might be suspected?
A. Anemia
B. * Rachitis
C. Chondrodystrophy
D. Phosphate diabetes
E. Spasmophilia
225.
A 50 year old patient has been admitted to the clinics with atrophic gastritis.
Blood count: erythrocytes - 3,8*1012/l, Hb - 68 g/l, C.i. - 1, macroanisocytosis,
poikilocytosis. There is megaloblastic type of haemopoesis. A number of leukocytes,
reticulocytes and thrombocytes is lreduce D. Which pathology is suspected?
A. Irondeficiency anemia
B. Post-hemorrhagic anemia
C. Thalassaemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
E. * B12-deficiency anemia
226.
A severely traumatized patient who has been receiving prolonged parenteral
alimentation develops diarrhea, mental depression, alopecia and perioral and periorbital
dermatitis. Administration of which of the following trace elements is most likely to
reverse these complications?
A. Iodine
B. * Zinc
C. Copper
D. Silicon
E. Selenium
227.
A 5 month old boy was born prematurely, he didn't suffer from any disease at the
infant age and later on. Examination at an outpatient's hospital revealed paleness of skin,
sleepiness. Blood count: Hb - 95 g/l, erythrocytes - 3,5*1012/l, reticulocytes - 90/00,
colour index - 0,7, osmotic stability of erythrocytes - 0,44-0,33%, serum iron - 4,9
micromole/l. What is the most probable cause of anemia?
A. * Iron deficit
B. Hemogenesis immaturity
C. Erythrocyte hemolysis
D. B12 deficit
E. Infectious process
228.
Study of actual diet of an adult revealed the following: proteins make up 16% of
energy value of daily ration, fats - 25%, carbohydrates - 59%. Evaluate compliance of
protein, fat and carbohydrate share in the energy value of daily ration with the
recommended shares of these nutrients?
A. Carbohydrate share is insufficicent
B. * Nutrient content complies with the recommended shares of energy value
C. Carbohydrate share is excessive
D. Fat share is insufficient
E. Carbohydrate share is insufficient, there is excess of proteins
229.
A 25 year old patient was admitted on the 1st day of the disease with complaints
of double vision in the eyes, heavy breathing. The day before the patient ate home-made
mushrooms. On objective examination: paleness, mydriatic pupils, difficult diglutition,
bradycardia, constipation. What is the diagnosis?
A. Yersiniosis
B. Lambliasis
C. * Botulism
D. Leptospirosis
E. Salmonellosis, gastrointestinal form
230.
A 52-year-old male is under gastroenterologist supervision due to chronic
autoimmune gastritis for 10 years. He presents with some nausea, feeling of weight in
epigastrium after meal. Last exacerbation of disease was 6 month ago. He adheres to a
diet, smokes 10 cigarettes per day, and uses alcohol moderately. What measures to
prevent stomach cancer are necessary?
A. Taking antacids periodically
B. * Cancellation of smoking and alcohol use
C. Taking H2-blokers periodically
D. Taking antihelycobacter medications periodically
E. Taking gastrocepin periodically
231.
A 33-year-old woman works as secretary. Her diet contains 150 g of protein
(including 100 g of animal), 200 g of fat, and 600 g of carbohydrates. What pathology
can effect this diet?
A. Paradontosis
B. * Obesity
C. Common cold
D. Uterine fibromyoma
E. Schizophrenia
232.
A 25-year-old man is hospitalized with complaints of double vision, worsening of
eyesight, difficulty of breath, dryness in the mouth. He fell ill acutely 12 hours ago.
Before falling ill he ate mushrooms. Physical examination: skin is pale, pupils are wide
with weak reaction to light, swallowing is disturbed. Ps 55 bpm. Severe muscle
weakness. The stomach is bloated . What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Salmonella infection, gastrointestinal form
B. Yersiniosis
C. * Botulism
D. Leptospirosis
E. Lambliasis
233.
The sample from 5 tons milk batch was taken. In the lab analysis it was defined:
fat content 2%, specific density 1,04 g/cm3, acidity 21°T, reductase probe - weak
positive. How should the product be used?
A. Technical utilization
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Sell but inform customers about milk quality
Sell without limitations
Destroy product
Write off for animal feeding
234.
A 6-month-old infant was born with body mass of 3 kg and 50 cm length. He is
breast-fed. How many times per day should the infant is fed?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
E. * 5
235.
A 15-year-old teenager complains of poor night vision. Physical examination:
increased darkness adaptation time, Bitot's spots on conjunctiva. The patient skin is dry,
scales off; folliculitis signs of the face skin are present. What is the cause of the disease?
A. Napthtoquinone deficit
B. * Retinole deficit
C. Thiamine deficit
D. Folic acid deficit
E. Biotin deficit
236.
A 2,5-month-old child presents with muscle hypotonia, sweating, alopecia of the
back of the head. The child is prescribed massage, curative gymnastics and vitamin D.
What is the dosage and frequency of vitamin D administration?
A. 1000IU daily
B. 1000 IU every other day
C. * 3000IU daily
D. 500 IU every other day
E. 500 IU daily
237.
A 4-year-old child attends the kindergarten. Complaints of the bad appetite,
fatigue. Objective examination: skin and mucous membrane are pale, child is asthenic. In
the hemogram: hypochromatic anemia 1st., leucomoide reaction, of the eosinophile type.
What pathology must be excluded at first?
A. Lymphoprolipherative process
B. * Worm invasion
C. Duodenal ulcer
D. Hypoplastic anemia
E. Atrophic gastritis
238.
People who live in the radiation polluted regions are recommended to include
pectins into their dietary intake for the radioactive nuclides washout. What products are
the main source of pectins?
A. Meat
B. Bread
C. * Fruit and vegetebles
D. Milk
E. Macaroni
239.
A laboratory obtained a milk sample sent for analysis. Analysis gave the
following data: color - whitish, smell - has no pecularities, taste - typical for milk, density
- 1,038, acidity - Turner's 350, fat - 3,2%. What is the quality level of this milk?
A. The milk is falsificated
B. The milk is of high quality
C. The milk is nominally qualified
D. * The milk is of poor quality
E. The milk is of reduced quality
240.
A 5 tons milk batch was sampled. The lab analysis revealed: fat content 2%,
specific density - 1,04 g/cm3, acidity - 210Т, reductase probe - weak-positive. What way
is the product to be used in?
A. Do the product away
B. * Sell but inform customers about milk quality
C. Discard for animal feeding
D. Sell without limitations
E. Technical utilization
241.
A 15 year old adolescent was taken to the hospital with complaints of poor night
vision. Objectively: increased darkness adaptation time, Bitot's spots on conjuctiva. The
patient's skin is dry, scales off, folliculitis signs of the face skin are present. What is the
cause of this disease?
A. Biotin deficit
B. Folic acid deficit
C. Thiamine deficit
D. * Retinole deficit
E. Napthtochynones deficit
242.
A 33 y.o. patient, works as a secretary. Her diet contains 150 g of protein
(including 100 g of animal protein), 200 g of fat, 600 g of carbohydrates. What pathology
can result from this diet?
A. * Obesity
B. Uterine fibromyoma
C. Paradontosis
D. Schizophrenia
E. Common cold
243.
A patient was admitted to the hospital on the 7th day of the disease with
complaints of high temperature, headache, pain in the muscles, especially in calf muscles.
Dermal integuments and scleras are icteric. There is hemorrhagic rash on the skin. Urine
is bloody. The patient was fishing two weeks ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Brucellosis
B. Salmonellosis
C. Yersiniosis
D. Trichinellosis
E. * Leptospirosis
244.
A 36-year-old alcoholic patient has cirrhosis and pancreatic failure due to
recurrent pancreatitis. His complaints of nightblindness, decreased ability to taste food,
dry skin with hyperpigmentation. What deficiency does these symptoms show?
A. Copper
B. * Zinc
C. Chromium
D. Manganese
E. Selenium
245.
District pediatrician examines a healthy carried 1-month-old child. The child is
breast-fed. Prophylaxes of what disease will the doctor recommend to do first?
A. * Rachitis
B. Spasmophilia
C. Hypotrophia
D. Parathropy
E. Anemia
246.
A sample of milk was taken for testing from a 5 ton milk batch. Lab analysis
showed the following: fat content 2%, specific density — 1,04 g/cm3, acidity 21° C,
reductase probe — weak positive. What way the product is to be used in? What would
you advise?
A. Sell without limitations
B. Annihilate the product
C. Utilize technically
D. Write the product off for animal feeding
E. * Sell but inform customers about milk quality
247.
A patient undergoes inpatient treatment with the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis.
To spare pancreas as much as possible the doctor prescribed for him starvation for 1-3
days. What products is the patient allowed to eat during recovery period after cancelling
of starvation?
A. Boiled meat
B. Broth
C. * Potato and carrot mash
D. Milk
E. Grape juice
248.
To assess the nutritional status of children less than one year, the measurement of
circumference of head and chest is useful. If chest measurement is less than the
circumference of head, it indicates
A. Obesity
B. * Malnutrition
C. Normal development
D. Adequacy nutrition
E. Over nutrition
249.
What illness is characterized by next symptoms: tiredness, weakness, and dyspnea
on exertion, tachycardia, palpitations, and edema?
A. * Iron deficiency
B. Calcium deficiency
C. Kwashiorkor
D. Pellagra
E. Xerophthalmia
250.
What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 kg and height is 172 cmA. 27
B. * 30
C. 33
D. 36
E. 45
251.
(Beef first category) to 40 cm2 of muscle tissue found 5 finn. Defused meat in the
slaughterhouse by cooking for 3 hours and approved for implementation. Evaluate the
correctness of actions
A. Made of the faithful;
B. Made of incorrect: meat be destroyed;
C. * Held invalid action beef carcass disposal technical subject;
D. Made of incorrect \: meat may be admitted to the realization after neutralization of
salting for 25 days and;
E. Made of incorrect \: meat can be implemented after freezing (at -12 0 C) within
10 days
252.
A 25 year old patient was admitted on the 1st day of the disease with complaints of
double vision in the eyes, heavy breathing. The day before the patient ate homemade
mushrooms. On objective examination: paleness, mydriatic pupils, difficult deglutition,
bradycardia, constipation. What is the diagnosis?
A. Leptospirosis
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Botulism
Lambliasis
Yersiniosis
Salmonellosis, gastrointestinal form
253.
A 28-year-old patient felt sick in 16 hours after dried fish intake. There was
nausea, vomiting, weakness, flabbiness, double vision. On physical exam, there was
decrease of a muscle tone, anisocoria, flaccid swallowing and tendon reflex. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. Acute encephalitis
B. Salmonellosis
C. Acute gastritis
D. Food toxicoinfection
E. * Botulism
254.
A 33-year-old woman works as secretary. Her diet contains 150 g of protein
(including 100 g of animal), 200 g of fat, and 600 g of carbohydrates. What pathology
can effect this diet?
A. * Obesity
B. Paradontosis
C. Common cold
D. Uterine fibromyoma
E. Schizophrenia
255.
A 36 year old patient was admitted on the 1st day of the disease with complaints of
heavy breathing, double vision in the eyes, . The day before the patient ate homemade
mushrooms. On objective examination: paleness, mydriatic pupils, difficult deglutition,
bradycardia, constipation. What is the diagnosis?
A. Leptospirosis
B. * Botulism
C. Lambliasis
D. Yersiniosis
E. Salmonellosis, gastrointestinal form
256.
A 46 year old patient was admitted on the 2st day of the disease with complaints of
double vision in the eyes, heavy breathing. The day before the patient ate homemade
mushrooms. On objective examination: paleness, mydriatic pupils, difficult deglutition,
bradycardia, constipation. What is the diagnosis?
A. * Botulism
B. Leptospirosis
C. Lambliasis
D. Bagasosis
E. Salmonellosis, gastrointestinal form
257.
A 78-year-old man is hospitalized with complaints of double vision, worsening of
eyesight, difficulty of breath, dryness in the mouth. He fell ill acutely 10 hours ago.
Before falling ill he ate mushrooms. Physical examination: skin is pale, pupils are wide
with weak reaction to light, swallowing is disturbed. Ps 55 bpm. Severe muscle
weakness. The stomach is bloated . What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Lambliasis
B. Leptospirosis
C. Yersiniosis
D. * Botulism
E. gastrointestinal form
258.
A laboratory obtained a milk sample sent for analysis. Analysis gave the
following data : color- whitish, smell- has no pecularities, taste- typical for milk, density1,038, acidity- turner’s 350 T, fat-3,2 %. What is the quality of this milk?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* The milk is of poor quality
The milk is falsified
The milk is of high quality
The milk is reduced quality
The milk is nominally qualified
259.
Medical examination of a 43 y.o. man revealed objectively painless of skin and
mucous membranes, smoothness of lingual papillas, transverse striation of nails, fissure
in the mouth corners, tachycardia. Hemoglobin content amount 90 g/l; there are
anisocytosis, poikilocytosis. The most probable causative agent of this condition is
deficiency of the following micro elements:
A. Selenium
B. Magnesium
C. * Iron
D. Copper
E. Zinc
260.
On medical observation a doctor identified girl ( tall and weight) who complained
loss of ability to see surrounding objects clearly in the evening. On examination: dry
skin, hyperkeratosis. Her daily ration includes the following vitamines: vitamine A — 0,5
mg, vit.B6 — 2,0 mg, vit.B2 — 2,5 mg, vit.B6 — 2 mg, vit.C — 70 mg. What is the
hypovitaminosis type?
A. B2-hypovitaminosis
B. В6-hypovitaminosis
C. * A-hypovitaminosis
D. C-hypovitaminosis
E. В1 -hypovitaminosis
261.
People who live in the radiation polluted region are recommendation to include
pectins into their dietary intake for the radioactive nuclides washout. What products are
the main source of pectins?
A. Milk
B. Bread
C. Macaroni
D. * Fruit and vegetables
E. Meat
262.
Researched beef in meat first category.. organoleptic properties characteristic of
fresh meat, meat broth at cooking badly boiled soft, broth slight, smell - specific, but
slight, reaction - weak alkaline. Hygienic conclusion
A. Fresh meat, however, indicates the nature of the broth is ill-defined category of
meat;
B. Despite the favorable properties, meat - suspicious freshness (quality broth);
C. Fresh meat, but the broth cooked with violations of his cooking technology;
D. * Character broth indicates that the immature meat, broth cooked meat
immediately after slaughter;
E. Nature broth indicates that in the process of slaughter is conducted small of the
blood carcass quality and meat.
263.
Researched bread wheat. organoleptic parameters form is correct, the surface
smooth, without cracks, elastic pulp from the skin does not lag, no foreign matter, taste
and smell - specific; 4 0 acidity, porosity 58%. Hygienic evaluation
A. Bread has low acidity;
B. Bread on all parameters meet hygienic requirements;
C. * Bread has low porosity;
D. Bread, a higher porosity;
E. Bread, a higher acidity.
264.
Researched pork meat of first category. In a sample with reagents Nesslera set
After adding broth in 1 ml (after boiling test) and 5 drops of reagent, it immediately
becomes turbid and slightly yellow. Hygienic evaluation \:
A. Suspicious meat freshness
B. Meat is not fresh;
C. Fresh meat, standing;
D. * Evaluation of the results difficult samples \: broken methods for conducting this
test using filtrate water solution of meat, not broth;
E. Reagents as the reaction of Nesslera positive and shows the profound decay of
protein products (ammonia) - meat spoiled and unfit for consumption.
265.
Student, 19 years, with mass of body 60 kg get the feed with day's ration a 45 g
protein, a 55 g fat and insufficient quantity of calcium. What products must be foremost
plugged in a ration?
A. Fruits;
B. Honey
C. Carrot;
D. * Cheese
E. Meat
266.
Water that is used for supply of the city, contains fluoride 2,0 mg/L, nitrates 43
mg/L, chlorides 250 mg/L, ferrum 0,2 mg/L, residual nitrogen 0,5 mg/L. What medical
condition is the most likely to occur in inhabitants of this city?
A. Endemic goitre
B. Caries
C. Methemoglobinemia
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. * Fluorosis
267.
When helminthological study of 24 sections from different parts of pig carcasses
found an encapsulated tryhinela, destruction of the meat in the slaughterhouse (as
conditionally suitable) strong salting for 25 s days and allowed to implementation.
Evaluate the correctness of actions
A. Made of incorrect: tryhinelosis of meat and carcass as a whole shall be destroyed;
B. Made of incorrect : conditionally given suitable meat may be approved for
implementation after neutralization cooking for 3 hours;
C. * Held invalid action tryhinelosis of meat and animal carcass disposal technical
subject;
D. Made of the faithful;
E. Made of incorrect \: meat conditionally suitable and can be admitted to only after
neutralization of freezing temperature (-12) within 10 days.
268.
When helminthological study of 24 cuts of pork meat from different parts of the
carcass (leg diaphragm muscles of the tongue, larynx, abdominal and intercostals
muscles) revealed two encapsulated tryhynella. The meat in the slaughterhouse
decontamination for 3 hours and allowed to implementation. Evaluate the correctness of
actions:
A. Made of incorrect: meat and carcass shall be destroyed;
B. * Held invalid action carcass disposal technical subject;
C. Made of the faithful;
D. Made of incorrect \: meat suitable conditional and may be approved after
neutralization of strong salting for 25 days and;
E. Made of incorrect \: meat suitable conditional and may be approved for
implementation by neutralization of freezing temperature (-12) within 10 days.
269.
A pediatrician examines a healthy mature-breast-fed baby, aged 1 month.
Prevention of what condition should be recommended in the first place?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Paraophji
* Rachitis
Anaemia
Hypotrophy
Spasmophilia
270.
To study physical development of children and adolescents, anthropometric
investigations are widely used. Choose a physiometric method of investigation from the
below given.
A. Measurement of growth
B. Determination of vertebra form
C. Determination of thorax form
D. Determination of body weight
E. * Determination of vital capacity of lungs
271.
A 3 month old child has occiput alopecia, anxious sleep, excessive sweating.
What disease might be suspected?
A. Anemia
B. * Rachitis
C. Chondrodystrophy
D. Phosphate diabetes
E. Spasmophilia
272.
Maximum permissible concentration of carbon dioxide in the air is considered to
be a sanitary index of air purity in a classroom. What concentration of carbon dioxide in
the air is accepted as maximum permissible?
A. 0,15%
B. * 0,1%
C. 0,3%
D. 0,2%
E. 0,05%
273.
A 9-year-old child with diagnosis «chronic tonsillitis" stands dispanserization
control. For 1 year of observation there was one exacerbation of disease. Physical
condition is satisfactory. The general state is not infringed. Define group of health:
A. I
B. II
C. III (c)
D. III (b)
E. * III (a)
274.
To study physical development of children and adolescents, anthropometric
investigations are widely used. Choose a physiometric method of investigation from the
below given.
A. * Determination of vital capacity of lungs
B. Determination of vertebra form
C. Measurement of growth
D. Determination of thorax form
E. Determination of body weight
275.
In course of observation of sanitary conditions of studying at the technical
university it was necessary to evaluate the visual regimen of students, who study from 9
a.m to 3 p.m. What index of natural light will be the most informative?
A. Time of the room insolation
B. Presence of mixed (upper-lateral) light
C. Depth of study room
D. * Natural light coefficient
E. Light coefficient
276.
Twenty-five unorganized toddlers (2-3 years old) will be observed by district
pediatrician current year. What scheduled number of preventive observations is to be
made for this group of children?
A. 20
B. 100
C. * 200
D. 50
E. 40
277.
District pediatrician examines a healthy carried 1-month-old child. The child is
breast-fed. Prophylaxes of what disease will the doctor recommend to do first?
A. * Rachitis
B. Spasmophilia
C. Hypotrophia
D. Parathropy
E. Anemia
278.
Mother with an infant visited the pediatrician. Her baby was born with body mass
of 3,2 kg and 50 cm length. He is 1 year old now. How many teeth the baby should have?
A. * 8
B. 10
C. 20
D. 6
E. 12
279.
The district pediatrician is charged with the analysis of infant mortality. What is
taken for the unit of observation in infant mortality investigation?
A. * A baby dead at the age up to 12 months
B. A baby dead at birth
C. A baby dead at the age over 28 days
D. A baby dead at the age up to 6 days
E. A baby dead at the age up to 1 months
280.
A boy, aged 10, is under treatment in cardiological unit on account of rheumatic
fever. The first onset of the decease. Discharged in the satisfactory condition. What
medication is the most expedient for secondary rheumatism prevention?
A. * Bicillin-5
B. Erythromycin
C. Bicillin-1
D. Ampicillin
E. Oxacillin
281.
A bad-room of pre-school institution such parameters of microclimate were
exposed: 18 0С, relative humidity 50 %, and rate of movement of air 0,1 m/s. Which
from the parameters of microclimate is not to the hygienical norm?
A. * Temperature
B. Relative humidity
C. Rate of movement of air
D. Temperature and relative humidity
E. Temperature and rate of movement of air.
282.
A boy has length of body 130,1 see (+0,36 sigma) 8 years, mass of body 28,5
kg(+0,12 sigma), circumflex of thorax 63,0 see (+0,10 sigma). The biological level of
development answers a calendar age. Functional indexes are in scopes ±1 ? you will
estimate physical development of child a complex method.
A. Physical development of child above average, harmoniousvv
B. * Physical development of child is middle, harmonious
C. Physical development of child is high, disharmonious
D. Physical development of child is high, harmonious
E. Physical development of child is sharp disharmonious
283.
A size of length of body of boy 10 years is in scopes from М+1 sigma to М+2
sigma. Individual indexes of mass of body +1,33 sigma but to circumflex of thorax +1,12
sigma. Give the estimation of physical development of schoolboy after the scales of
regression.
A. * Physical development of child above average, disharmonious
B. Physical development of child is sharp disharmonious
C. Physical development of child is middle, harmonious
D. Physical development of child is high, harmonious
E. Physical development of child above average, harmonious
284.
After a thorough medical examination conducted by students of junior classes in
schools in the city received information of their physical development. On the basis of a
minimum list of indicators to assess the possible level of physical development of
children and adolescents?
A. * The length and weight
B. The mass of the body, the presence of secondary sex
C. The mass of the body, the presence of permanent teeth
D. Weight and chest circumference
E. Weight, chest circumference, and the presence of secondary sex
285.
After the grade scale of complication of objects the most sum of marks is in the 4
class on a Monday, in 5 class- on Tuesday, in 6 class - on Wednesday, in 7 class - even
distributing of loading on the days of week, in 8 class - on Friday. What class the
timetable of lessons is built in correctly?
A. 4
B. 5
C. * 6
D. 7
E. 8
286.
After the grade scale of complication of objects the most sum of marks is in the 5A class on a Monday, in 5-B class- on Tuesday, in 5-C class - on Wednesday, in 5 - D
class - even distributing of loading on the days of week, in 5-E class - on Friday. What
class the timetable of lessons is built in correctly?
A. 5-E
B. 5-D
C. * 5
D. 5-B
E. 5-A
287.
After the grade scale of complication of objects the most sum of marks is in the III
class on a Monday, in IV - on Tuesday, in V - on Wednesday, in VI - even distributing of
loading on the days of week, in VII - on Friday. What class the timetable of lessons is
built in correctly?
A. IV
B. VI
C. VII
D. ІІІ
E. * V
288.
After the medical examination of children of primary school doctor gave
conclusion about they physical development. What minimum list of indexes it is
necessary for estimate the level of physical development of children?
A. * Growth and mass of body
B. Mass of body, presence of the second sexual signs
C. Mass of body, presence of the second teeth
D. Mass of body and circumference of thorax
E. Mass of body, circumference of thorax, and also presence of the second sexual
signs
289.
There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: CNI (coefficient of
natural illumination) is 2,7 %, LC - 1: 5, temperature of air – 16 0С, relative humidity of
air – 78 %, concentration CO2 – 0,1 %. What diseases are possible at these students?
A. * Overcooling
B. Negative factors for a health is absent
C. Worsening of sight
D. Head pain
E. Illnesses of spine;
290.
There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: CNI (coefficient of
natural illumination) is 1,7 %, LC - 1: 5, temperature of air – 27 0С, relative humidity of
air – 78 %, concentration CO2 – 0,1 %. What diseases are possible at these students?
A. Negative factors for a health is absent
B. Worsening of sight
C. Head pain;
D. Illnesses of spine
E. * Overheating
291.
As a student of Class 4 has been found disharmonious physical development. The
boy suffers from chronic bronchitis in the process of compensation. During the year,
acute diseases are not sick. To which group of health concerns boy?
A. * III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
292.
At the analysis of the mode of employments at school it is set a doctor: beginning
of employments –8.30, are there two large interruptions by total duration 40 minutes and
three small (for 10 min.) the mode of employments Answers to the hygienic
requirements?
A. * Answer
B. Later beginning of employments
C. Increase amount of large interruptions
D. Increase duration of large interruption .
E. Increase duration of small interruptions.
293.
Boy 13 years: length of body is 147 see (-1,3sigma), mass of body is 38 kg (- 0,3
sigma), a circumference of thorax is 72 see (+0,2 sigma) you will estimate physical
development of child
A. Surplus
B. Disharmonious
C. Above average
D. Sharply disharmonious
E. * Below the average, harmonious
294.
During physical examination it is 14 years discovered for a schoolboy: chronic
cholecystitis in a state of sub-compensation, myopia of weak degree, decay of teeth of
middle activity, a capacity is reduced. It is necessary to define belonging of this
schoolboy to the proper group of health
A. III group of health
B. I group of health
C. II group of healthv
D. * IV group of health
E. V group of health
295.
During the test anthropometry of boy is 8 years old: visually - the head inclined
forward, shoulders are omitted; instrumental - indicators of cervical curve of the depth of
6 cm, lumbar - 3 cm Define the kind of posture.
A. Lordotychna
B. * Contused
C. Straight
D. Normal
E. Correct
296.
Female 13 years old, height 145 cm, weight 31 kg (-1,1 sigma), chest size 64 cm
(-1,2 sigma). Assess the physical development of girls.
A. harmonic
B. * disharmonious
C. sharp disharmonious
D. Do not proportional
E. Proportional.
297.
For a 6th class the doctor of school is set the following order of objects on
Tuesday: history, Ukrainian, mathematics, Ukrainian literature, history, physics. Does a
time-table the daily dynamics of capacity answer?
A. Answer
B. Not answers geography
C. Not answers mathematics
D. History does not answer
E. * Not answers physics
298.
For training schedule in the 8 th class of all 36 lessons per week. Break between
lessons to 10 minutes. After 2-second lesson - 30 min. On Wednesday 1 st lesson geography, 2-and - mathematics, 3-and - exercise. What is a violation of the scheduled
lesson?
A. * The number of lessons during the week
B. The duration of breaks
C. Place a lesson in geography expansion
D. Place a lesson in geography expansion
E. Place a lesson in physical education expansion
299.
Growth of boy 13 years old is 144 cm, mass of body is 30 kg (-1,1 sigma) and
circumference of thorax is 64 cm (-1,2 sigma). Estimate physical development of boy.
A. * Harmonious
B. Disharmonious
C. Middle
D. Not proportional
E. High
300.
Growth of girl 12 years old is 127 cm, mass of body is 24 kg (-1,7 sigma) and
circumference of thorax is 44 cm (-1,9 sigma). Estimate physical development of girl.
A. Harmonious
B. * Disharmonious
C. Middle
D. Not proportional
E. High
301.
Growth of girl l 0 years old is 127 cm, mass of body is 24 kg (-0,7 sigma) and
circumference of thorax is 44 cm (-1,9 sigma). Estimate physical development of girl.
A. Harmonious
B. * Disharmonious
C. Middle
D. Low
E. High
302.
In a playroom of pre-school institution such parameters of microclimate were
exposed: 22 0С, relative humidity 70 %, and rate of movement of air 0,1 m/s. Which
from the parameters of microclimate is not to the hygienical norm?
A. Temperature
B. * Relative humidity
C. Rate of movement of air
D. Temperature and relative humidity
E. Temperature and rate of movement of air
303.
In a playroom of pre-school institution such parameters of microclimate were
exposed: 20 0С, relative humidity 80 %, and rate of movement of air 0,1 m/s. Which
from the parameters of microclimate is not to the hygienical norm?
A. Temperature;
B. Relative humidity
C. Rate of movement of air;
D. * Temperature and relative humidity
E. Temperature and rate of movement of air.
304.
In an educational room on a 5-th lesson such parameters of microclimate were
exposed: 250С, relative humidity 40 %, and rate of movement of air 0,5 m/s. Which from
the parameters of microclimate are not to the hygienical norm?
A. Temperature;
B. Relative humidity;
C. Rate of movement of air;
D. Temperature and relative humidity
E. * temperature and rate of movement of air
305.
In an educational room on a 5-th lesson such parameters of microclimate were
exposed: 250С, relative humidity 40 %, and rate of movement of air 0,2 m/s. Which from
the parameters of microclimate are not to the hygienical norm?
A. * Temperature
B. Relative humidity
C. Rate of movement of air
D. Temperature and relative humidity
E. temperature and rate of movement of air
306.
In an educational room on a 5-th lesson such parameters of microclimate were
exposed: 250С, relative humidity 79 %, and rate of movement of air 0,1m/s. Which from
the parameters of microclimate are not to the hygienically norm?
A. Temperature;
B. Relative humidity
C. Rate of movement of air;
D. * Temperature and relative humidity
E. Temperature and rate of movement of air.
307.
In an educational room on a 8-th lesson such parameters of microclimate were
exposed: 200С, relative humidity 40 %, and rate of movement of air 0,5 m/s. Which from
the parameters of microclimate are not to the hygienical norm?
A. Temperature
B. Relative humidity
C. * Rate of movement of air
D. Temperature and relative humidity
E. temperature and rate of movement of air.
308.
In classroom thre are 2 windows with size 2.5 m2. Area of the floor 8 x 6 m. What
will be light cofficient?
A. 1 : 4;
B. 1: 6;
C. * 1: 10;
D. 1: 15
E. 1 : 18.
309.
In the girls 13 years sigma deviation value for the length of the body +2,17 sigma,
for weight +2,08 sigma, for chest circumference +2,11 sigma. Profile of physical activity
fit into one sigma. Estimate the physical development of students.
A. * Physical development in length, weight and chest circumference high
proportional
B. Physical development in length, weight and chest circumference average,
discordant.
C. Physical development for these signs above average, harmonious.
D. Physical development in length, weight and chest circumference above average
proportion
E. Physical development for these symptoms is high disharmonic
310.
In the girls 7 years individual body mass indexes +0,57 sigma stroke and chest
+0,43 sigma.Estimate the physical development of students on the scale of regression.
A. * The physical development of girls harmonic
B. The physical development of girls disharmonious.
C. The physical development of the average girl.
D. The physical development of girls high
E. The physical development of girls above average
311.
Sum of all lessons is the greatest in the 5-C class on a Monday, in 5-B class- on
Tuesday, in 5-A class - on Wednesday, in 5 - D class - even distributing of loading on the
days of week, in 5-E class - on Friday. What class the timetable of lessons is built in
correctly?
A. 5-E
B. 5-D
C. 5-C
D. 5-B
E. * 5-A
312.
Teen doctor at the control of the educational process for the 11 th class of the
Lyceum set the following schedule of teaching load: Monday - 19% Tuesday - 22%
Wednesday - 24% Thursday - 19%, Friday - 16%. Does the distribution of teaching load
week dynamics of mental efficiency?
A. The enlarged on Wednesday.
B. Enlarged on Tuesday.
C. * Meets
D. Increased on Thursday
E. Increased on Friday.
313.
The computer class into 25 workings places by is an area 150 m2 located on the
third floor of general school. The windows of classes are oriented to the north.
Coefficient of natural illumination - 1,5 %, artificial illumination – 200 lx on the screen
of displays and 400 lx on a keyboard. Whatever index from transferred does not answer
hygienic requirements?
A. * Filled of class
B. Area on one student
C. Orientation of windows
D. Natural illumination
E. Artificial illumination
314.
The following: PAC - 1.7%, SC - 1:4, air temperature - 19 0 C, relative humidity 58%, the concentration of CO2 - 0.1% in the second class of the gymnasium. Classes are
held on the first shift, weekly load - 21 hours. What are the most probable deviation in
the state of health of any of these students?
A. Violation posture
B. Violation of view.
C. Headaches
D. * Risk factors for health are not available.
E. cold phenomenon.
315.
. There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: Coefficient of
natural illumination is 1,7 %, LC - 1: 5, temperature of air – 20 0С, relative humidity of
air – 58 %, concentration CO2 – 0,1 %. What diseases are possible at these students?
A. * Negative factors for a health is absent
B. Worsening of sight
C. Head pain
D. Illnesses of spine;
E. Cold.
316.
There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: Coefficient of
natural illumination is 0,7 %, LC - 1: 10, temperature of air – 20 0С, relative humidity of
air – 58 %, concentration CO2 – 0,1 %. What diseases are possible at these students?
A. Negative factors for a health is absent
B. * Worsening of sight
C. Head pain
D. Illnesses of spine
E. Cold.
317.
There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: Coefficient of
natural illumination is 1,7 %, LC - 1: 5, temperature of air – 20 0С, relative humidity of
air – 58 %, concentration CO2 – 0,3 %. What diseases are possible at these students?
A. Negative factors for a health is absent.
B. Worsening of sight;
C. * Head pain
D. Illnesses of spine
E. Cold
318.
There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: Coefficient of
natural illumination is 1,7 %, LC - 1: 5, temperature of air – 17 0С, relative humidity of
air – 58 %, concentration CO2 – 0,1 %. What diseases are possible at these students?
A. Negative factors for a health is absent.
B. Worsening of sight
C. Head pain
D. Illnesses of spine
E. * Cold
319.
Define the basic registration document on the profound study of rate of cases with
temporary loss of ability to work on the industrial enterprise.
A. * A card of the personal account of rate of cases
B. An ambulatory medical card
C. Sick-leave
D. Report of temporary loss of ability to work
E. An inpatient medical card
320.
What information gathering method is preferable to study housing conditions of
medical students during training period?
A. Materials selection
B.
C.
D.
E.
Statistical
Directed selection method
Interviewing
* Questionnaire
321.
A worker (battery attendant) the end of the working day complains of intensive
pains in the epigastric area, diarrhea, subfebrility, BP — 170/110 mm Hg, skin and
scleras are yellow. At the lunch have drunk 250 ml of vodka. What diagnosis is the most
likely?
A. Acute hemolysis
B. Fatty degeneration of liver
C. * Acute lead intoxication
D. Acute pancreatitis
E. Acute alcohol intoxication
322.
A worker of the chemical plant complains of fatigue, insomnia, headache. Works
at the amalgam production. On examination: tremor, asymmetry of reflexes, labile pulse,
stable red dermographism. Excretory gingivitis. What is the cause of the illness?
A. Chronic cadmium poisoning
B. Chronic aniline poisoning
C. Chronic petrol poisoning
D. * Chronic mercury poisoning
E. Chronic lead poisoning
323.
A. diagnosis of chronic arsenous intoxication was set to patient who is working as
a nightman. What form of anemia is characteristic for this disease?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. B12 - deficiency anemia
C. * Hemolytic anemia
D. Hyper sideric anemia
E. Aplastic anemia
324.
A 60-year-old boiler-house worker presents to factory's sectarian doctor with
headache and tiredness. Lab tests: carboxyhemoglobin in blood. Poisoning with which
substance is the most likely to cause formation of carboxyhemoglobin in blood?
A. Mercury
B. Chlorine
C. C Manganese
D. Lead
E. * Carbon oxide
325.
A worker, aged 38, working in the slate production during 15 years, complains of
expiratory exertional dyspnea, dry cough. On examination: deafening of the percutory
sounds in interscapular region, rough breath sounds, and dry disseminated rales. On
fingers' skin — greyish warts. Factory's sectorial doctor suspects asbestosis. Which
method is the most informative for diagnosis verification?
A. * Thorax roentgenography
B. Blood gases examination
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Spirography
E. Bronchoalveolar lavage
326.
A man, aged 28, power-supply system operator, was at his working place during
the breakdown on the nuclear power plant. In the result of the steam-air explosion there
was an emission of circa 30 kg radioactive iodine (I131). Which radioprotector is
expedient in this case?
A. Cystamine
B. * Potassium iodide
C. Thiourea
D. Leucine
E. Valine
327.
An aircraft factory processes materials with use of lasers. It is determined that the
device radiates in the light spectrum and that levels of laser radiation at the workplaces
exceed the alarm level. Specify, what organs will be affected in the first place?
A. Kidneys
B. * Eyes
C. Liver
D. Spleen
E. Skin
328.
At a machine-building plant the casts are cleaned by means of abrasion machines
that are a source of local vibration. What are the most efficient preventive measures for
preventing harmful effect of vibration on workers' organisms?
A. Giving sanitary instructions to the workers
B. Preliminary and periodical medical examinations
C. Hand massaging
D. Warm hand baths
E. * Use of gloves that reduce vibration
329.
A worker at a porcelain factory who has been in service for 10 years complains of
cough, dyspnea, ache in his chest. What occupational disease are these complaints most
typical for?
A. Occupational bronchial asthma
B. Multiple bronchiectasis
C. Chronic dust bronchitis
D. Chronic cor pulmonale
E. * Silicosis
330.
Atmospheric air of an industrial centre is polluted with the following wastes of
metallurgical plants: sulphuric, nitric, metal, carbon oxides that have negative influence
upon the inhabitants' health. The effct of these hazards can be characterized as:
A. Adjacent
B. Associated
C. Complex
D. Mixed
E. * Combined
331.
By the end of the 1st period of physiological labor clear amniotic fluid came off.
Contractions lasted 35-40 sec every 4-5min. Heartbeat of the fetus was 100 bpm. The BP
was 140/90 mm Hg. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Hydramnion
B. Premature detachment of normally posed placenta
C. * Acute hypoxia of the fetus
D. Back occipital presentation
E. Premature labor
332.
A 74 y.o. patient complains of abdomen pain and sweling, nausea. She suffers
from ischemic heart disease, postinfarction and atherosclerotic cardiosclerosis.
Objectively: the patient is in grave condition, abdomen is swollen, abdominal wall
doesn't take active part in respiration. Laparoscopy revealed a small amount of muddy
effusion in abdominal cavity, one of the loops of small intestine is dark-cyan. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. * Thrombosis of mesenteric vessels
B. Twisted bowels
C. Ischemic abdominal syndrome
D. Acute intestinal obstruction
E. Erysipelas
333.
A patient complained about problems with pain and tactile sensitivity, pain in the
nail bones at the end of the working day. He works at a plant with mechanical devices.
What pathology can be suspected?
A. Hypovitaminosis of B1
B. Noise disease
C. * Vibration disease
D. Caisson disease
E. Overwork symptoms
334.
A fitter of a metallurgic factory with occupational exposure to high
concentrations of mercury fumes for 16 years presents instability of pulse and blood
pressure, general hyperhydrosis, asymmetric innervations of facial muscles and tongue,
positive subcortical reflexes, hand tremor on physical examination. A dentist revealed
paradontosis and chronic stomatitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Neuroinfection
B. Parkinson syndrome
C. Mercury encephalopathy
D. Acute mercury intoxication
E. * Chronic mercury intoxication
335.
A severely traumatized patient who has been receiving prolonged parenteral
alimentation develops diarrhea, mental depression, alopecia and perioral and periorbital
dermatitis. Administration of which of the following trace elements is most likely to
reverse these complications?
A. Iodine
B. * Zinc
C. Copper
D. Silicon
E. Selenium
336.
A 56 year old patient has worked at the aluminium plant over 20 years. Within 3
last years he has been experiencing loosening of teeth, bone and joint pains, piercing
pains in heart region, vomiting. The provisional diagnosis is:
A. Manganese intoxication
B. * Fluorine intoxication
C. Mercury intoxication
D. Phosphorus intoxication
E. Lead intoxication
337.
Periodical survey of a worker of a chemicals plant revealed a malignant neoplasm
on the urinary bladder. This occupational disease was the most probably caused by
contact with the following industrial poison:
A. Vinyl chloride
B. Nickel carbonyl
C. Asbestos
D. Arsenic
E. * Benzidine
338.
A 42 year old metalworker has been working at the turning machine for
production of heavy large-size parts for 5 years. His work requires using of hand and
pedal levers that involves considerable physical forc E. What means for osteoarthrosis
prevention should be recommended?
A. To administer protein-and-vitamin diet
B. To go in for weightlifting
C. To administer protein-and-carbohydrate diet
D. * To limit physical work
E. To improve health at the Black sea coast
339.
A 48 y.o. farmer was admitted to the hospital with complaints of headache,
nausea, vomiting, cough with sputum, breath shortage, weak sight, sweating, salivation.
He was cultivated the garden with phosphoorganic pesticides. Blood count: RBC4,1*1012/L, Нb- 136 g/L, C.I.- 0,9, leukocytes - 13,0*109/L, ESR- 17 mm/h. His
diagnosis is acute intoxication with phosphoorganic pesticides. What is the most
important diagnostic criterion for this pathology?
A. Leukocytosis
B. * Low level of choline esterase
C. Anemia
D. Reticulocytosis
E. Thrombocytopenia
340.
Maximum permissible concentration of carbon dioxide in the air is considered to
be a sanitary index of air purity in a classroom. What concentration of carbon dioxide in
the air is accepted as maximum permissible?
A. 0,15%
B. * 0,1%
C. 0,3%
D. 0,2%
E. 0,05%
341.
28. A worker is taken on the staff and undergoes medical preventive inspection,
results of which have allowed him to work in this industry. What is the type of medical
preventive inspection that is use in this case?
A. Special
B. Preliminary
C. Routine
D. Periodic
E. Systematic
342.
A 33-year-old woman works as secretary. Her diet contains 150 g of protein
(including 100 g of animal), 200 g of fat, and 600 g of carbohydrates. What pathology
can effect this diet?
A. Paradontosis
B. * Obesity
C. Common cold
D. Uterine fibromyoma
E. Schizophrenia
343.
A 58-year-old woman complains of osteoarthrosis of knee-joint. For 2 weeks she
had been receiving an in-patient medical treatment. She was discharged from the hospital
in satisfactory condition with complaints of minor pain after prolonged static work. Local
hyperemia and exudative effects in the area of joints are absent. What further tactics is
the most expedient?
A. Orthopedist consultation
B. Refferral to MSEC
C. * Outpatient treatment
D. Repeated in-patient treatment
E. Conducting arthroscopy
344.
Workers of fishery are subjected to low temperatures of the air (from —5°C till —
15°C). Diseases of what organs and systems are the most frequent among workers of
such enterprises?
A. Liver
B. Gastrointestinal tract
C. Cardiovascular system
D. * Respiratory system
E. Blood
345.
A 60-year-old boiler-man presents to factory's sectorial doctor with headache and
tiredness. Lab tests: carboxyhemoglobin in blood. Poisoning with which substance is the
most likely to cause formation of carboxyhemoglobin in blood?
A. * Carbon oxide
B. Lead
C. Manganese
D. Chlorine
E. Mercury
346.
40-year-old woman who has worked in weaving branch for 10 years complains of
frequent headache, sleeplessness, irritability, fatigue, tiredness. Physical examination
reveals instability of blood pressure, internal organs are without changes. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. Encephalopathy
B. Hypertension
C. Noise-induced disease
D. Asteno-vegetative syndrome
E. Atopic bronchial asthma
347.
The patient has worked 13 years as a bulldozer driver. He complains of dizziness,
headache, finger dumbness and pain at night. On exam, tactile sensivity of peripheral
type disturbes him, ankle muscles are painful, and pulsation on a.dorsalis pedis is weak.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Vibration disease
B. Syringomyelia
C. Periarteritis nodosa
D. Raynaud's disease
E. Atherosclerosis obliterans
348.
A 56 y.o. patient has worked at the aluminium plant over 20 years. Within 3 last
years he has got loosening of teeth, bone and joint pains, piercing pains in heart area,
vomiting. The preliminary diagnosis is:
A. Mercury intoxication
B. Manganese intoxication
C. * Fluorine intoxication
D. Lead intoxication
E. Phosphorus intoxication
349.
During the medical examination a port crane operator complained of dizziness,
nausea, sense of pressure against tympanic membranes, tremor, dyspnoea, cough. He
works aloft, the work is connected with emotional stress. Workers are affected by
vibration (general and local), noise, ultrasound, microclimate that warms in summer and
cools in winter. What factor are the worker's complaints connected with?
A. Intensity of work
B. Noise
C. Vibration
D. * Infrasound
E. Altitude work
350.
A 33 y.o. patient, works as a secretary. Her diet contains 150 g of protein
(including 100 g of animal protein), 200 g of fat, 600 g of carbohydrates. What pathology
can result from this diet?
A. * Obesity
B. Uterine fibromyoma
C. Paradontosis
D. Schizophrenia
E. Common cold
351.
Chest X-ray of the miner (with 24-year-length of service; dust concentration on
working place is 260—280 mg/m3,15% of which is free silicon dioxide) showed the
signs that are typical of pneumoconiosis. What kind of pneumoconiosis is this?
A. Silicosis
B. Carboconiosis
C. * Anthraco-silicosis
D. Silicatosis
E. Anthraco-silicatosis
352.
Workers of fishery are subjected to low temperatures of the air (from 5 till 15°C).
Diseases of what organs and systems are the most frequent among workers of such
enterprises?
A. Blood
B. Cardiovascular system
C. Gastrointestinal tract
D. * Respiratory system
E. Liver
353.
A 36-year-old alcoholic patient has cirrhosis and pancreatic failure due to
recurrent pancreatitis. His complaints of nightblindness, decreased ability to taste food,
dry skin with hyperpigmentation. What deficiency does these symptoms show?
A. Copper
B. * Zinc
C. Chromium
D. Manganese
E. Selenium
354.
A 52 y.o. hard smoker patient complains of persistent cough with purulent sputum
discharge especially in mornings, dyspnea provoked even by slight physical exertion,
wheezing chest, tahypnoe, general weakness. He considers himself to be ill during 12
years. The overwritten conditions appear 3-4 times per year usually after common cold
and have tendency to progress. What disease do you think about first of all?
A. Aspergillosis
B. Mucoviscidosis (cystic fibrosis)
C. Bronchoectatic disease
D. * Chronic obstructive lung disease
E. Bronchial asthma
355.
The 56 y.o. patient has worked at the aluminium plant more than 20 years. Within
3 last years he has developed loosening of teeth, bone and joint pains, piercing pains in
heart area, vomiting. The preliminary diagnosis is:
A. * Fluorine intoxication
B. Mercury intoxication
C. Manganese intoxication
D. Phosphorus intoxication
E. Lead intoxication
356.
A patient, aged 58, was fishing in the winter. On return home after some time felt
some pain in the feet. Consulted a doctor. On examination: feet skin was pale, then after
rewarming became red, warm to the touch. Edema is not significant, limited to the toes.
All types of sensitivity are preserved. No blisters. What degree of frostbite is observed?
A. III degree
B. * I degree
C. IV degree
D. II degree
E. V degree
357.
A conveyor line consists of assembling parts for a pen within seconds. The norm
of assembled pens during a shift is 18 000 to 20000, weight of parts is approximately 5g.
Determine the characteristic of work on this conveyor.
A. Frequent changes in attention
B. * Monotone
C. Significant physical load
D. Regeneration of various information
E. Neuro-emotional load
358.
A factory worker lifts and moves from the floor a total of 300 kg throughout the
shift. Determine the type of working conditions.
A. Optimal
B. * Admissible
C. Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
359.
A factory worker lifts and moves from the floor a total of 600 kg throughout the
shift. Determine the type of working conditions.
A. Optimal
B. Admissible
C. * Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
360.
A factory worker lifts and moves from the floor a total of 100 kg throughout the
shift. Determine the type of working conditions.
A. Optimal
B. * Admissible
C. Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
361.
A factory worker lifts and moves from the floor a total of 400 kg throughout the
shift. Determine the type of working conditions.
A. Optimal
B. * Admissible
C. Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
362.
A factory worker lifts and moves from the floor a total of 300 kg throughout the
shift. Determine the type of working conditions.
A. Optimal
B. * Admissible
C. Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
363.
A factory worker lifts and moves from the floor a total of 600 kg throughout the
shift. Determine the type of working conditions.
A. Optimal
B. Admissible
C. * Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
364.
A factory worker lifts and moves from the floor a total of 100 kg throughout the
shift. Determine the type of working conditions.
A. Optimal
B. * Admissible
C. Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
365.
A factory worker lifts and moves from the floor a total of 400 kg throughout the
shift. Determine the type of working conditions.
A. Optimal
B. * Admissible
C. Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
366.
A lumberjack, cuts trees with holding a chainsaw weighing 80 000kg. What type
of muscle supports this type of work.
A. Positive work dynamics
B. Negative work dynamics
C. * Stationary work
D. Mechanical work
E. Physical work
367.
A lumberjack, cuts trees with holding a chainsaw weighing 80 000kg. What type
of muscle supports this type of work.
A. Positive work dynamics
B. Negative work dynamics
C. * Stationary work
D. Mechanical work
E. Physical work
368.
A persone age 40. Who had been working as a labourer in grain market for the last
25 yeas presented with history of repeated attacks of respiratory infections in the last 1
year. X-ray showed pulmonary fibrosis.The likely diagnosis was:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Silicosis
C. Silicotuberculosis
D. Farmer`s lung
E. * Baggasosis
369.
A quantity of an air that comes into the room during 1 hour is
A. * The volume of ventilation
B. The ratio of ventilation;
C. Kind of ventilation;
D. Amount of oxygen;
E. Amount of carbonic dioxide.
370.
A surgeon performs a 3 hour surgery. His stance is as follows he stands still in and
bent position 30-60% of time. General concentration time is up to 90%. During the
surgery the surgeon has to make quick decisions dealing with life and death situations
and outcomes. Which of the following characteristics demonstrates this type difficulty in
this working process?
A. Concentration time
B. Level of responsibility
C. Lack of time
D. * Working stance
E. Duration of surgery
371.
A surgeon performs a 3 hour surgery. His stance is as follows he stands still in and
bent position 30-60% of time. General concentration time is up to 90%. During the
surgery the surgeon has to make quick decisions dealing with life and death situations
and outcomes. Which of the following characteristics demonstrates this type difficulty in
this working process?
A. Concentration time
B. Level of responsibility
C. Lack of time
D. * Working stance
E. Duration of surgery
372.
A woman working in an industry during night shifts is exposed to 750 lux of light.
She is most probably at risk of:
A. Keratomalacia
B. Breast cancer
C. Dermatitis
D. Conjuntival xerosis
E. * Night blindness
373.
A worker at a factory in a shift lifts and moves on a counter 500 kg in total.
Determine the type of working conditions.
A. Optimal
B. * Admissible
C. Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
374.
A worker at a factory in a shift lifts and moves on a counter 200kg in total.
Determine the type of working conditions.
A. Optimal
B. * Admissible
C. Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
375.
A worker at a factory in a shift lifts and moves on a counter 900kg in total.
Determine the type of working conditions.
A. Optimal
B. Admissible
C. * Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
376.
A worker at a factory in a shift lifts and moves on a counter 980kg in total.
Determine the type of working conditions.
A. Optimal
B. Admissible
C. * Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
377.
A worker at a factory in a shift lifts and moves on a counter 200kg in total.
Determine the type of working conditions.
A. Optimal
B. * Admissible
C. Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
378.
A worker at a factory in a shift lifts and moves on a counter 500 kg in total.
Determine the type of working conditions.
A. Optimal
B. * Admissible
C. Harmful
D. Dangerous
E. Extreme
Test questions to figures
1 Which device is presented on the Fig. 27 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Dosimeter-radiometer. *
Luxmeter.
Vibrometer.
Radiometer.
Hygrometer.
2 What dose of radiation measures the device represented on the Fig. 27?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Equivalent dose of gamma radiation. *
Exposure doses of radiation.
Absorbed dose of radiation.
The output radiation exposure dose.
Power absorbed radiation dose.
3 What dose of radiation measures the device represented on the Fig. 27?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Power equivalent dose of gamma radiation. *
Integral doses of radiation.
Power exposure doses of radiation.
Power absorbed radiation dose.
Exposure doses of radiation.
4 What dose of radiation measures the device represented on the Fig. 27?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
To assess surface contamination β-radionuclides.*
Activity for nuclides in radioactive sources.
Exposure doses of radiation.
Power exposure doses of radiation
Power absorbed radiation dose.
5 What the device represented on the Fig. 27 is used for in the household ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
For radiation safety premises, buildings and structures, objects, etc. *
To determine the effective dose.
To determine the radiation exposure dose.
For the determination of absorbed dose of radiation.
To determine the integral dose of radiation.
6 What the device represented on the Fig. 27 is used for in the household ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
To estimate the radioactive contamination of forest berries and mushrooms. *
Determination of activity of the pollution source.
To determine the radiation exposure dose.
For the determination of absorbed dose of radiation.
Power absorbed radiation dose.
7 Under what number on Fig. 28 α-particles are represented?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1*
2
3
4
3-4
8 Under what number on Fig. 28 β-particles are represented?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2*
3
4
3-4
9 Under what number on Fig. 28 gamma-rays are represented?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3*
4
3-4
10 Under what number on Fig. 28 a neutron flux is represented?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
2-3
4*
11 What radiation is represented by number 1 in Fig. 29?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The flow of α-particles *
The flow of electrons
Gamma-rays
X-ray radiation
Neutron flux
12 What radiation is represented by number 2 in Fig. 29?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The flow of mesons
The flow of β-particles *
Gamma-rays
X-ray radiation
E. Neutron flux
13 What radiation is represented by number 3 in Fig. 29?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Neutron flux
The flow of β-particles
β-positron emission
The flow of α-particles
Gamma-rays *
14 What is represented on Fig.30?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Situation plan of hospital*
General plan of hospital
Plan residential quarter
Plan of kindergarten
The plan of the school
15 What is represented on Fig.31?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
General plan of hospital*
Situation plan of hospital
Plan of policlinic
Plan residential quarter
Landscaping plan hospital
16 Under what number the hospital policlinic is shown on Fig.31 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2*
3
4
5
17 Under what number the main hospital building is shown on Fig.31 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1*
2
3
6
7
18 Under what number the maternity department is shown on Fig.31 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
2
3*
4
5
6
19 Under which number the infection department is shown on Fig.31 ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4 *
D. 5
E. 6
20 What is represented on Fig.72?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
General plan of hospital*
Situation plan of hospital
Plan of policlinic
Plan residential quarter
Landscaping plan hospital
21 What hospital department is represented on Fig.33?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fragment of a typical plan of operating block *
Fragment of a typical plan of the Internal Medicine Department
Typical ward section in Pediatric department
Typical ward section of infectious department
Typical ward section tuberculosis department.
22 What hospital department is represented on Fig.34?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fragment of a typical plan of the surgical department
Fragment of a typical plan of the Internal Medicine Department*
Typical ward section of infectious department
Typical ward section in pediatric department
Receiving wards
23 What hospital department is represented on Fig.35?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fragment of a typical plan of the surgical department
Fragment of a typical plan of the Internal Medicine Department
Typical ward section of infectious department
Typical ward section in pediatric department*
Receiving wards
24 What hospital department is represented on Fig.36?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fragment of a typical plan of the surgical department
Fragment of a typical plan of the Internal Medicine Department
Typical ward section of infectious department*
Typical ward section in pediatric department
Receiving wards
25 What hospital department is represented on Fig.37?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fragment of a typical plan of the radiological department
Fragment of a typical plan of the Internal Medicine Department*
Typical ward section of infectious department
Typical ward section in pediatric department
Receiving wards
26 What is represented on Fig.38?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
General plan *
Situation plan
Plan of policlinic
Plan residential quarter
Landscaping plan hospital
27 What is represented on Fig. 39?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Plan of isolator in infection hospital *
Receiving wards
Plan of ward in radiology department
Plan of ward in pediatric department
Plan of ward in Internal Medicine Department
28 Does the plan isolator (boxing) infectious hospital meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements
on Fig. 39?
A. Improper placement of beds in the ward. In wards the longer part of the bed is situated in
parallel to the wall with the window *
B. Isolator plan meet sanitary requirements
C. Isolator plan does not meet sanitary requirements
D. Insufficient distance from the bed to the window
E. North orientation isolator
29 Does the plan of hospital`s ward meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 40?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Plan of hospital`s ward does not meet sanitary requirements *
Plan of hospital`s ward meet sanitary requirements
Insufficient distance from the bed to the window
Insufficient area of hospital`s ward
Improper placement of beds in the ward
30 Does the plan of hospital`s ward meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 41?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Plan of ward does not meet sanitary requirements *
Plan of ward meet sanitary requirements
Insufficient distance from the bed to the window
Improper placement of beds in the ward
Insufficient area of ward
31 Does the plan of hospital`s ward meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 42?
A. Improper placement of beds in the ward. In wards the longer part of the bed is situated in
parallel to the wall with the window *
B. Plan of ward meets sanitary requirements
C. Insufficient distance from the bed to the window
D. Insufficient area of ward
E. Soruth orientation window in ward
32 Does the plan of hospital`s ward meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 43?
A. According to the sanitary-hygienic requirements there can`t be more than 4 beds in
patient`s room *
B. Plan of ward meets sanitary requirements
C. Insufficient distance from the bed to the window
D. Improper placement of beds in the ward
E. Insufficient area of ward
33 Does the plan of hospital`s ward meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 44?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Plan of patient`s room for one bed meets sanitary requirements *
Insufficient distance from the bed to the window
Improper placement of beds in the ward
Insufficient area of ward
Plan of ward does not meet sanitary requirements
34 Does the plan of ward’s section meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 37?
A. Plan of ward’s section does not meet sanitary requirements because there is a six-bed
patient’s room *
B. Plan of ward meets sanitary requirements
C. Insufficient area of two-beds patient`s room
D. Improper placement of beds in the ward
E. Insufficient distance from the bed to the window
35 Does the plan of isolator in infection department meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on
Fig. 46?
A. Improper placement of beds in the isolator. In wards the longer part of the bed is situated
in parallel to the wall with the window *
B. Plan of isolator in infection department meet sanitary requirements
C. Insufficient distance from the bed to the window
D. Soruth orientation window in isolator
E. Insufficient area of isolator
36 What is represented on Fig. 47?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Tornado
Movement of air masses
Cyclone *
Anticyclone
"Eye” of the cyclone
37 What is represented on Fig. 48?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Scheme of the atmospheric vortex*
Scheme of the resistance movement of cyclone
"Eye” of the cyclone
Front cyclone
Scheme impulse cyclone motion
38 Under what number Anticyclone is shown on Fig. 48?
A. 1 *
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
39 Under what number cyclone is shown on Fig. 48?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3*
4
5
40 Under what number "Eye” of the cyclone is shown on Fig. 48?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2*
3
4
5
41 Under what number Front cyclone is shown on Fig. 48?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4*
5
42 What is represented on Fig. 49?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Weather Map*
Map of seismic waves
Map of climate zones
Map of temperature changes
Wind map
43 How many climate zones on the map of Ukraine are shown on the Fig.50?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
4
2
3
5*
6
44 What facilities for biological cleaning of waste water are shown on the Fig. 51?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Biological rates
Aeration tank *
Secondary treatment
Metantenky
Sludge drying bed
45 What is represented on Fig. 52?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Scheme of formation of cyclones *
Scheme of formation of anticyclone
Plan of air masses
Scheme of winds’ motion
Scheme of Impulse of cyclone motion
46 What is represented on Fig. 53?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Scheme of formation of cyclones
Scheme of formation of anticyclone*
Scheme of movement of air masses
Scheme of winds’ motion
Scheme of Impulse of cyclone motion
47 What is represented on Fig. 54?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cosmic, galactic vortex
The movement of air masses
cyclones
anticyclone*
"Eye” of the cyclone
48 What is represented on Fig. 55?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Scheme of formation of cyclones *
Scheme of formation of anticyclone
Scheme of winds’ motion
Scheme of movement of air masses
"Eye” of the cyclone
49 What is represented on Fig. 56?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Scheme of formation of cyclones
Scheme of formation of anticyclone*
Scheme of winds’ motion
Scheme of movement of air masses
"Eye” of the cyclone
50 What facilities for purification of waste water are shown on the Fig. 57?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Metatank for activation of sludge
Sludge drying bed
Primary treatment *
Sludge return
Pipe to remove sand from Grit chamber
51 What facilities for biological purification of waste water are shown on the Fig. 58?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aeration tank *
Secondary treatment
Sludge seltihg tank
Sludge drying bed
E. Sludge return
52 What facilities for mechanical purification of waste water are shown on the Fig. 59?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Thick grate *
Grit chamber
Primary treatment
Sludge seltihg tank
Sludge return
53 What facilities for biological purification of waste water are shown on the Fig. 60?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Secondary treatment*
Aeration tank
Grate
Air compressor
Sludge return
54 Under which number the correct distribution of load on the foot is shown on Fig. 61?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Under № 1 *
Under № 2
Both correct
No correct answer
Under № 1and № 2
55 What is shown undet number 1 on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Grate *
Grit chamber
Primary treatment
Secondary treatment
Aeration tank
56 What is shown undet number 2 on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Grate
Grit chamber *
Primary treatment
Secondary treatment
Aeration tank
57 What is shown undet number 3 on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Pipe to remove sand from Grit chamber *
Grit chamber
Primary treatment
Secondary treatment
Aeration tank
58 What is shown undet number 4 on the Fig. 62?
A. Grate
B. The compressor station for air supply in aeration tank *
C. Primary treatment
D. Secondary treatment
E. Aeration tank
59 What is shown undet number 5 on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Sludge drying bed *
Grit chamber
Primary treatment
Secondary treatment
Aeration tank
60 What is shown undet number 6 on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Grate
Grit chamber
Primary treatment *
Secondary treatment
Aeration tank
61 What is shown undet number 7 on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The process of water entering into aeration tank from primary treatment *
Grit chamber
Primary treatment
Secondary treatment
Aeration tank
62 What is shown undet number 9 on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Grate
Grit chamber
Primary treatment
Secondary treatment
Aeration tank *
63 What is shown undet number 10 on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The process of water entering into Secondary treatment *
Grit chamber
Primary treatment
Secondary treatment
Aeration tank
64 What is shown undet number 11 on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Metatank for activation of sludge*
Grit chamber
Primary treatment
Secondary treatment
Aeration tank
65 What is shown undet number 12 on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Grate
Grit chamber
Primary treatment
Secondary treatment*
Aeration tank
66 What is shown undet number 13 on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Chlorine contakt tank *
Grit chamber
Primary treatment
Secondary treatment
Aeration tank
67 What is shown undet number 14 on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Chlorinator*
Grit chamber
Primary treatment
Secondary treatment
Aeration tank
68 What is shown undet number 15 on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Grate
Grit chamber
Discharge effluent to lake, stream* Спуск води у відкриту водойму
Secondary treatment
Aeration tank
69 Under what number the grate is shown on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1*
2
3
4
5
70 Under what number the Grit chamber is shown on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2*
3
4
5
71 Under what number the pipe to remove sand from Grit chamber is shown on the Fig. 62 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
3*
6
7
E. 5
72 Under which number the compressor station for air supply in aeration tank is shown on the
Fig. 62 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4*
5
73 Under what number the Sludge drying bed is shown on the Fig. 62 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4
5*
74 Under what number the Primary treatment is shown on the Fig. 62 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4
6*
75 Under what number the process of water serving into aeration tank from primary treatment
is shown on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4
7*
76 Under what number the Aeration tank is shown on the Fig. 62 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
6
9*
77 Under what number the process of water serving into Secondary treatment is shown on the
Fig. 62 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
7
10 *
78 Under what number the metatank for activation of sludge is shown on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
6
4
11 *
79 Under what number the Secondary treatment is shown on the Fig. 62 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
12 *
7
4
5
80 Under what number the Chlorine contakt tank is shown on the Fig. 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
13 *
14
15
81 Under what number the chlorineator is showen in the fig 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
14 *
15
82 Under what number the Discharge effluent to lake, stream is showen in the fig 62?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
13
14
15 *
83 What material can protect a radio-active α-particles presented on Fig. 63?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Aluminium
Paper *
Iron
Concrete block
Glass
84 What material from presented on Fig. 63 is not protecting a radio-active α-particles ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aluminium
Paper*
Iron
Concrete block
E. Glass
85 What material is used for proection from γ- rays practice on Fig. 63?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Aluminium
Paper
Iron
Concrete block*
Glass
86 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 28 under a number 1?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
α-particles *
β-particles
γ-ray
X-ray
UV-ray
87 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 28 under a number 2?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
α-particles
β-particles *
γ-ray
X-ray
UV-ray
88 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 28 under a number 3?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
α-particles
β-particles
γ-ray*
X-ray
UV-ray
89 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 28 under a number 4?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
α-particles
β-particles
γ-ray
X-ray*
UV-ray
90 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 28 under a number 1?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
α-particles *
β-particles
γ-ray
X-ray
UV-ray*
91 What material,a screen is made up of under 1 which represented on Fig. 65?
A. Aluminium
B. Paper *
C. Iron
D. Concrete block
E. Glass
92 What material,a screen is made up of under 4 which represented on Fig. 65?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Aluminium
Paper
Iron
Concrete block *
Glass
93 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 65 marked a number 1 if a screen is made from a
paper?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
α-particles*
β-particles
γ-ray
X-ray
UV-ray
94 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 65 marked a number 2 if a screen is made from a
paper?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
α-particles
β-particles*
γ-ray
X-ray
UV-ray
95 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 65 marked a number 3 if a screen is made from a
paper?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
α-particles
β-particles
γ-ray *
X-ray
UV-ray
96 What does the marked number 7 on Fig. 46 indicates?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Sanitary room
Washing room
Special room *
Send
Post of nursing
97 What does the marked number 8 on Fig. 46 indicates?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sanitary room
Washing room
Special room
Send*
E. Post of nursing
98 What radio-isotope accumulates in an organ represented on Fig. 66 under a number 1?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Radio-activety Kalium
Radio-activety Polonium
Radio-activety Phosphorus
Radio-activety Iodide*
Radio-activety Stroncium
99 What radio-isotope accumulates in an organ represented on Fig. 66 under a number 2?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Radio-activety Kalium
Radio-activety Polonium*
Radio-activety Phosphorus
Radio-activety Iodide
Radio-activety Stroncium
100What radio-isotope accumulates in an organ represented on Fig. 66 under a number 5?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Radio-activety Kalium*
Radio-activety Polonium
Radio-activety Phosphorus
Radio-activety Iodide
Radio-activety Stroncium
101What radio-isotope accumulates in an organ represented on Fig. 66 under a number 4?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Radio-activety Potassium
Radio-activety Polonium
Radio-activety Phosphorus
Radio-activety Iodide
Radio-activety Stroncium*
102What number on Fig. 66 is most markly accumulated in organ for radio-active Kalium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4
5*
103What number on Fig. 66 is most markly accumulated in organ for radio-active Polonium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2*
3
4
5
104What number on Fig. 66 is most markly accumulated in organ for radio-active Phosphorus?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4 *
E. 5
105What number on Fig. 66 is most markly accumulated in organ for radio-active Iodide?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1*
2
3
4
5
106What number on Fig. 66 is most markly accumulated in organ for radio-active Stroncium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4*
5
107What number on Fig. 67 represents the principles of protecting for an external gammaradiation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
1,2,3 *
1,2
108Which type of temperament describes the characteristic of number 1 on Fig 71?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Choleric*
Sanguine
Phlegmatic
Melancholic
Not correct
109Which type of temperament describes the characteristic of number 2 on Fig 71?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Choleric
Sanguine *
Phlegmatic
Melancholic
Not correct
110Which type of temperament describes the characteristic of number 3 on Fig 71?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Choleric
Sanguine
Phlegmatic*
Melancholic
Not correct
111Which type of temperament describes the characteristic of number 4 on Fig 71?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Choleric
Sanguine
Phlegmatic
Melancholic *
Not correct
112What number describes the choleric type of temperament that characteristic on Fig 71?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1*
2
3
4
Not correct
113What number describes the sanguine type of temperament that characteristic on Fig 71?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2*
3
4
Not correct
114What number describes the phlegmatic type of temperament that characteristic on Fig 71?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3*
4
Not correct
115What number describes the melancholic type of temperament that characteristic on Fig 71?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4*
Not correct
116What characteristic belongs to the temperament which represented on Fig. 73 under a
number 1?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Unsteady, excitative, aggressive, impulsive, optimistic *
Pin, talkative, accessible
Passive, peaceful, serious, reliable
Touchy, irritable, anxious,
Not correct
117What characteristic belongs to the temperament which represented on Fig. 73 under a
number 2?
A. Unsteady, excitative, aggressive, impulsive, optimistic
B. Pin, talkative, accessible *
C. Passive, peaceful, serious, reliable
D. Touchy, irritable, anxious,
E. Not correct
118What characteristic belongs to the temperament which represented on Fig. 73 under a
number 3?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Unsteady, excitative, aggressive, impulsive, optimistic
Pin, talkative, accessible
Passive, peaceful, serious, reliable*
Touchy, irritable, anxious,
Not correct
119What characteristic belongs to the temperament which represented on Fig. 73 under a
number 4?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Unsteady, excitative, aggressive, impulsive, optimistic
Pin, talkative, accessible
Passive, peaceful, serious, reliable
Touchy, irritable, anxious, *
Not correct
120What number on Fig. 73 shows the followings descriptions of characteristic for the
temperament: Unsteady, excitative, aggressive, impulsive, optimistic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1*
2
3
4
Not correct
121What number on Fig. 73 shows the followings descriptions of characteristic for the
temperament: Pin, talkative, accessible?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2*
3
4
Not correct
122What number on Fig. 73 shows the followings descriptions of characteristic for the
temperament : passive, peaceful, serious, reliable, ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3*
4
Not correct
123What number on Fig. 73 shows the followings descriptions of characteristic for the
temperament: Touchy, irritable, anxious?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4 *
E. Not correct
124What component part of projects is represented on Fig.72?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Situetion plan
General plan*
Plan of the living part
Plan of the kindergarden
Plan of the school
125What component part of projects of the hospital is represented on Fig.30?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Plan of the living part
Floor plan
Situetion plan *
General plan
Explanatory nottate
126What area to ward meets hygienical standards is represented on Fig. 39?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
18 m2
20 m2
22 m2 *
10 m2
21 m2
127What minimum area for one bed, for adult is needed to represented on Fig. 44 in the
therapeutic separation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
6 m2
7 m2
8 m2
9 m2 *
10 m2
128Does the plan of hospital`s ward meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 40?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Plan of hospital`s ward does not meet sanitary requirements *
Plan of hospital`s ward meet sanitary requirements
Insufficient distance from the bed to the window
Insufficient area of hospital`s ward
Improper placement of beds in the ward
129Does the distance from the bed to the window meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on
Fig. 44?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Yes
No, distance from a bed to the window is 0,3m
No, distance from a bed to the window is 0,4 m
No, distance from a bed to the window is 0,5m
No, distance from a bed to the window is 0,6m
130What ward of hospitals in plan is represented on Fig. 39
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Theraputic department
Sugery department
Infection department*
Pediatric department
Neurology department
131What number shows the properties which described the printed cotton on Fig. 75 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1*
2
3
4
Not correct
132What number shows the properties which described the printed linen on Fig. 75 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2*
3
4
Not correct
133What number shows the properties which described the printed wool on Fig. 75?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3*
4
Not correct
134What number shows the properties which described the printed silk on Fig. 75 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4*
Not correct
135What type of fabrics is charisterized by number 1 descriptions on Fig. 75?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
cotton *
linen
wool
silk
Not correct
136What type of fabrics is charisterized by number 2 descriptions on Fig. 75?
A.
B.
C.
D.
cotton
linen *
wool
silk
E. Not correct
137What type of fabrics is charisterized by number 3 descriptions on Fig. 75?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
cotton
linen
wool *
silk
Not correct
138What type of fabrics is charisterized by number 4descriptions on Fig. 75?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
cotton
linen
wool
silk *
Not correct
139Which ward shows hygenic norm for theraputic department on fig. 37?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Yes
No,not correct the 2 bed ward and enough light on the walls near the bed.
No, not enough space square for two beds.
No, the ward should not have more than 4 beds.*
No,absence of patient in theraputic department.
140What number is the type of fabric from which it is expedient to make an bed sheet on Fig.75
?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1*
2
3
4
Not correct
141What number is the type of fabric from which it is expedient to make an outerwear on Fig.75
?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3*
4
Not correct
142What number the type of fabric is represented wich it is not used to utillize for under clothes
on Fig.75 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4*
Not correct
143Under what number Kwashiorkor is shown on Fig. 76?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1*
2
3
4
5
144Under what number Marasmus is shown on Fig. 76?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2*
3
4
5
145Under what number Goitre is shown on Fig. 76?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3*
4
5
146Under what number Caries is shown on Fig. 76?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4*
5
147Under what number Rickets is shown on Fig. 76?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4
5*
148Under wich number of illness is characterized by next symptoms: failure to gain weight,
wasting of muscles and of subcutaneous fat on Fig. 76?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Caries
Marasmus*
Rickets
Goitre
Kwashiorkor
149Under wich number of illness is characterized by next symptoms: pitting oedema, anemia,
retarded growth, loss of appetite, diarrhea, scanty hair growth on Fig. 76?
A. Caries
B. Marasmus
C. Rickets
D. Goitre
E. Kwashiorkor *
150Under what number xerophthalmia, shown on Fig. 76?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4
Not correct *
Test questions to figures
1 What representation on figure 1 under 4:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
thermometer;
clock;
vessel with a mercury;
bimetallic plate;
*cylinder with a clock mechanism.
2 For what use device represented on figure 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*registrations of fluctuations in the temperature of air;
registrations of fluctuations of humidity;
registrations of air speed motion;
registrations of atmospheric pressure fluctuations;
registrations of changes of humidity.
3 How is named device on figure 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
barograph;
hygrograph;
anemometer;
thermometer;
*thermograph.
4 What representation on figure 1 under 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
bunch of fat free hairs;
clock;
vessel with a mercury;
*bimetallic plate;
cylinder with a clock mechanism.
5 What representation on figure 1 under 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*self-recording feather;
clock;
a vessel with a mercury;
bimetallic plate;
cylinder is with a clock mechanism.
6 What representation on figure 1 under 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*system of levers
bunch of fat free hairs;
a vessel is with a mercury;
bimetallic plate;
cylinder with a clock mechanism.
7 How is named device on figure 2 under a number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
barograph;
hygrograph;
anemometer;
psychrometer of Assmana;
*psychrometer of Avgusta.
8 How is named device on figure 2 under a number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
barograph;
hygrograph;
anemometer;
*psychrometer of Assmana;
psychrometer of Avgusta.
9 How is named device on figure 2 under a number 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
barograph;
*hygrometer;
anemometer;
psychrometer of Assmana;
psychrometer of Avgusta.
10 How is named device on figure 2 under a number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
barograph;
hygrograph;
anemometer;
psychrometer of Assmana;
*psychrometer of Avgusta.
11 What it is marked under number 1 on figure 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*humidity of air;
cooling ability of air;
atmospheric pressure;
speed of air movement;
temperature of air.
12 How is named device on figure 2 under a number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
*humidity of air;
cooling ability of air;
atmospheric pressure;
speed of air movement;
E. temperature of air.
13 How is named device on figure 2 under a number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*humidity of air;
cooling ability of air;
atmospheric pressure;
speed of air movement;
temperature of air.
14 What number has device that measures relative humidityon figure 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*3;
2;
1;
1, 2, 3;
none.
15 What number has device, that measures absolute humidity on figure 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*1;
3;
1, 3;
2, 3;
none.
16 What number has apparatus that measures absolute humidity on figure 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*2;
3;
2, 3;
1, 3;
none.
17 What representation on figure 3 under 5:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
dry thermometer;
*ventilator;
vessel with a mercury;
bimetallic plate;
moist thermometer.
18 What representation on figure 3 under 4:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
dry thermometer;
ventilator;
*metallic shells;
bimetallic plate;
moist thermometer.
19 What representation on figure 3 under 3:
A. *thermometer;
B. ventilator;
C. metallic shells;
D. dry thermometer;
E. moist thermometer.
20 How is named device on figure 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
barograph;
hygrograph;
anemometer;
*psychrometer of Assmana;
psychrometer of Avgusta.
21 What microclimate parameter by device represented on figure 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*absolute humidity of air;
overfill of temperature;
relative humidity of air;
rate of movement of air;
radiation temperature of air.
22 What representation on figure 5:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*wind of rose;
directions of wind;
rose of contamination;
spectrograph;
audiogram.
23 What is better situating to this «wind rose» in the marked point on figure 5:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*pharmaceutical factory;
school;
pharmacy;
preschool;
policlinic.
24 How is named device on figure 4:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*barograph;
hygrograph;
anemometer;
thermometer;
thermograph.
25 For what use device represented on figure 4:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
registrations of fluctuations in the temperature;
registrations of fluctuations of humidity;
registrations of air speed motion;
*registrations of atmospheric pressure;
registrations of changes of humidity.
26 What representation on figure 4 under 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*a cylinder with a clock mechanism;
box;
aneroid mechanism;
metallic aneroid;
self-recording feather.
27 What representation on figure 4 under 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a cylinder with a clock mechanism;
box;
aneroid mechanism;
*metallic aneroid;
self-recording feather.
28 What representation on figure 4 under 4:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a cylinder is with a clock mechanism;
box;
aneroid mechanism;
metallic aneroid;
*self-recording feather.
29 How is named device on figure 7:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*bowl-shaped anemometer;
wing anemometer;
weather vane;
cathathermometer;
electro-thermo anemometer.
30 For what use device represented on figure 7:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
determination of temperature;
determination of humidity;
*determination of speed air movement;
determination of atmospheric pressure;
direction finding motion of air.
31 What representation on figure 7 under 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*hollow metallic hemispheres (cups);
clock-face;
metallic plates;
corps;
account mechanism.
32 What representation on figure 7 under 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
hollow metallic hemispheres (cups);
clock-face;
metallic plates;
*corps;
E. account mechanism.
33 What representation on figure 7 under 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
hollow metallic hemispheres (cups);
clock-face;
metallic plates;
corps;
*account mechanism.
34 What representation on figure 7 under 4:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
hollow metallic hemispheres (cups);
clock-face;
metallic plates;
corps;
*switch of meter of turns of pointers.
35 How is named device on figure 8:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
bowl-shaped anemometer;
*revolving-vane;
weather vane;
cat thermometer;
electro-thermo anemometer.
36 For what use device represented on figure 8:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
determination of temperature;
determination of humidity;
*determination of rate of movement in vent openings;
determination of atmospheric pressure;
direction finding motion of air.
37 What representation on figure 8 under 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
aluminum covered;
account mechanism with a clock-face;
ax;
clock-face;
*switch of turns of pointers.
38 What representation on figure 8 under 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
aluminum covered;
*account mechanism with a clock-face;
ax;
clock-face;
button.
39 What representation on figure 8 under 3:
A. aluminum covered;
B. account mechanism with a clock-face;
C. *ax;
D. clock-face;
E. button.
40 What representation on figure 8 under 4:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*bimetallic covered;
account mechanism with a clock-face;
bimetallic plate;
metallic aneroid;
button.
41 What is perceiving part of device represented on figure 8:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*aluminum covered;
account mechanism with a clock-face;
bimetallic plate;
metallic aneroid;
button.
42 What is perceiving part of device represented on figure 7:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
aluminum covered;
bimetallic plate;
*hollow metallic hemispheres (cups);
metallic aneroid;
button.
43 What is perceiving part of device represented on figure 4:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
aluminum covered;
account mechanism with a clock-face;
hollow metallic hemispheres (cups);
*metallic aneroid;
bimetallic plate.
44 What is perceiving part of device represented on figure 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
aluminum covered;
account mechanism with a clock-face;
hollow metallic hemispheres (cups);
metallic aneroid;
*bimetallic plate.
45 How is named device on figure 9:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*barograph;
hygrograph;
anemometer;
thermometer;
thermograph.
46 For what use device represented on figure 9:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
registrations of changes of temperature;
*registrations of changes of relative humidity;
registrations of changes of speed air movement;
registrations of changes of atmospheric pressure;
registrations of changes of absolute humidity.
47 What is perceiving part of device represented on figure 9:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*bunch of fat free hairs;
bimetallic plate;
aneroid box;
biological tape;
metallic aneroid.
48 What representation on figure 9 under 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
self-recording feather;
clock;
a vessel with a mercury;
bimetallic plate;
*a cylinder with a clock mechanism.
49 What representation on figure 9 under 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*self-recording feather;
clock;
a vessel is with a mercury;
bimetallic plate;
cylinder with a clock mechanism.
50 What representation on figure 9 under 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
self-recording feather;
*bunch of fat free hairs;
a vessel mercury;
bimetallic plate;
cylinder with a clock mechanism.
51 How is named device on figure 10:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*barometer-aneroid;
hygrograph;
anemometer;
thermometer;
thermograph.
52 For what use device represented on figure 10:
A.
B.
C.
D.
measuring of temperature of air;
measuring of humidity;
measuring of speed air movement;
*measuring of atmospheric pressure;
E. measuring of changes of humidity.
53 What is perceiving part of device represented on figure 10:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*a metallic reservoir with spring corrugated hollow surfaces;
bimetallic plate;
aneroid box;
biological tape;
metallic aneroid.
54 What representation on figure 10 under 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
self-recording feather;
*corps;
a vessel with mercury;
bimetallic plate;
cylinder with a clock mechanism.
55 What representation on figure 10 under 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
self-recording feather;
corps;
*metallic reservoir;
bimetallic plate;
cylinder with a clock mechanism.
56 What representation on figure 10 under 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* the pointer related to the aneroid reservoir;
corps;
metallic reservoir;
bimetallic plate;
cylinder with a clock mechanism.
57 What representation on figure 10 under 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
the pointer is related to the aneroid reservoir;
corps;
metallic reservoir;
*clock-face;
cylinder with a clock mechanism.
58 How is named device on figure 11:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
barometric aneroid;
hygrographs;
anemometers;
thermometers;
*cat thermometer.
59 How is named device on figure 11 under a number 1:
A. barometer-aneroid;
B. hygrograph;
C. anemometer;
D. thermometer;
E. *cylinder cat thermometer.
60 How is named device on figure 11under a number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
barometer-aneroid;
hygrograph;
anemometer;
hermometer;
*bullet cat thermometer.
61 For what use device represented on figure 11 under a number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
determination of temperature;
determination of humidity;
*determination of speed air movement in apartments;
determination of atmospheric pressure;
determination of changes of humidity.
62 For what use device represented on figure 11under a number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
determination of temperature of air;
determination of humidity;
*determination of speed air movement in apartments;
determination of atmospheric pressure;
determination of changes of humidity.
63 What limits a scale of cat thermometer on figure 11 under a number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*35-380;
30-350;
38-400;
33-380;
33-400.
64 What measure of cat thermometer scale on figure 11 under a number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*34-400;
30-350;
38-400;
33-380;
33-400.
65 The estimation a method of physical development of child represented on figure 6 is named
:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*plantograhy;
somatography;
somatometery;
spirometery;
physiometery.
66 What is possible to estimate a method represented on figure 6:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*degree of flattened foot;
degree of development of musculature;
size of foot;
form of foot;
configuration of foot.
67 What type of carriage represented on figure 12 under a number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*lorded;
kyphotic;
correct;
stooping;
erect.
68 What type of carriage represented on figure 12 under a number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
lordotic;
*kyphotic;
correct;
stooping;
erect.
69 What type of carriage represented on figure 12 under a number 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
lordotic;
kyphotic;
*correct;
stooping;
erect.
70 What type of carriage represented on figure 12 under a number 4:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
lordotic;
kyphotic;
correct;
*stooping;
erect.
71 What type of carriage represented on figure 12 under a number 5:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
lordosis;
kifosis;
correct;
stooping;
*erect.
72 What number has lordos carriage represented on figure 12:
A.
B.
C.
D.
*1;
2;
3;
4;
E. 5.
73 What number has kifos carriage represented on figure 12:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1;
*2;
3;
4;
5.
74 What number has correct carriage represented on figure 12:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1;
2;
*3;
4;
5.
75 What number has сутулувату carriage represented on figure 12:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1;
2;
3;
*4;
5.
76 What number has випрямлену carriage represented on figure 12:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1;
2;
3;
4;
*5.
77 What is represented on figure 13:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*types of scoliosis;
kinds of posture;
types of spine;
forms of human trunk;
forms of thorax.
78 What type of scoliosis is represented on figure 13 under number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*pectoral right-sided;
pectoral left-sided;
s-shaped;
t-shaped;
kyphotic.
79 What type of scoliosis is represented on figure 13 under number 2:
A. pectoral right-sided;
B. *general left-side;
C. s-shaped;
D. t-shaped;
E. kyphotic.
80 What type of scoliosis is represented on figure 13 under number 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
pectoral right-sided;
pectoral left-side;
*s-shaped;
t-shaped;
kyphotic.
81 How is a hygienical estimation of basic sizes of educational furnitures called, (represented on
figure 14):
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*dyferentsiya;
height of seat;
height of a back edge of table;
distance of seat;
distance of the back of seat.
82 What type of dyferentsiya is represented on figure 14 under number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*small dyferentsiya ;
large dyferentsiya;
middle dyferentsiya;
normal dyferentsiya;
correct dyferentsiya.
83 What type of dyferentsiya is represented on figure 14 under number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
small dyferentsiya;
*large dyferentsiya;
middle dyferentsiya;
normal dyferentsiya;
correct dyferentsiya
84 What type of dyferentsiya is represented on figure 14 under number 1, 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*small and large dyferentsiya;
large and incorrect dyferentsiya;
small and middle dyferentsiya;
large and normal dyferentsiya;
correct and incorrect dyferentsiya.
85 What is represented on figure 15:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*distance of seat;
height of seat;
height of back edge of the talbe;
height of seat;
distance of the back of seat.
86 What type of distance of seat is represented on figure 15 under number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*negative;
zero;
positive;
middle;
normal.
87 What type of distance of seat is represented on figure 15 under number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
negative;
*zero;
positive;
middle;
normal.
88 What type of distance of seat is represented on figure 15 under number 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
negative;
zero;
*positive;
middle;
normal.
89 What it is marked on figure 16 under number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*height of cutting edge of the table;
depth of seat;
height of the back edge of the table;
distance of seat;
dyferentsiya.
90 What is marked on figure 16 under number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
height of cutting edge of the table;
depth of seat;
*height of back edge of the table;
distance of seat;
dyferentsiya.
91 What is marked on figure 16 under number 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*width of horizontal lid of the table;
depth of seat;
height of back edge of the table;
distance of seat;
dyferentsiya.
92 What is marked on figure 16 under number 4:
A.
B.
C.
D.
width of horizontal lid of the table;
*width of sloping part of lid;
height of back edge of the table;
distance of seat;
E. dyferentsiya.
93 What is marked on figure 16 under number 5:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
width of horizontal lid of the table;
width of sloping part of lid;
height of back edge of the table;
*height of seat;
dyferentsiya.
94 What is marked on figure 16 under number 6:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
width of horizontal lid of the table;
width of sloping part of lid;
height of back edge of the table;
*depth of seat;
dyferentsiya.
95 What is marked on figure 16 under number 7:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
width of horizontal lid of the table;
width of sloping part of lid;
height of back edge of the table ;
*width of seat;
dyferentsiya.
96 What is represented on figure 16 under number 8:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
width of horizontal lid of the table;
width of sloping part of lid;
height of back edge of the table;
*distance of the back;
dyferentsiya.
97 What is marked on figure 16 under number 9:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
width of horizontal lid of the table;
width of sloping part of lid;
height of back edge of the table;
*distance of seat;
dyferentsiya.
98 What is represented on figure 16 under number 10:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
width of horizontal lid of the table;
width of sloping part of lid;
height of back edge of the table;
distance of the back;
*dyferentsiya.
99 Under what number on figure 16 the height of cutting edge of the table is indicated:
A. *1;
B. 2;
C. 3;
D. 4;
E. 5.
100Under what number on figure 16 the height of back edge of the table is indicated:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1;
*2;
3;
4;
5.
101Under what number on figure 16 the width of horizontal part of lid of the table is indicated:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1;
2;
*3;
4;
5.
102Under what number on figure 16 the width of sloping part of lid of the table is indicated:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1;
2;
3;
*4;
5.
103Under what number on figure 16 the height of a seat is indicated:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
7;
8;
9;
4;
*5.
104Under what number on figure 16 the depth of a seat is indicated:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
7;
8;
9;
4;
*6.
105Under what number on figure 16 the width of a seat is indicated:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
10;
8;
9;
4;
*7.
106Under what number on figure 16 distance of the back of the seat is indicated:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
7;
9;
10;
4;
*8.
107Under what number on figure 16 distance of seat of the seat is indicated:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
7;
5;
10;
4;
*9.
108Under what number on figure 16 dyferentsiya is indicated:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
7;
9;
1;
4;
*10.
109Which device is presented on figure 17 under number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*psychrometer of August;
aspiration psychrometer of Assmana;
luxmeter;
hygrometer;
barometer-aneroid.
110How is a device represented on figure 17 under number 2 called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
psychrometer of August;
*aspiration psychrometer of Assmana;
luxmeter;
hygrometer;
barometer-aneroid.
111How is a device represented on figure 17 under number 3 called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
psychrometer of August;
aspiration psychrometer of Assmana;
luxmeter;
*hygrometer;
barometer-aneroid.
112How is a device represented on figure 17 under number 4 called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
psychrometer of August;
aspiration psychrometer of Assmana;
*luxmeter;
hygrometer;
E. barometer-aneroid.
113How is a device represented on figure 17 under number 5 called :
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
psychrometer of August;
aspiration psychrometer of Assmana;
luxmeter;
hygrometer;
*barometer-aneroid.
114Under what number on figure 17 psychrometer of August is represented:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*1;
2;
3;
4;
5.
115Under what number on figure 17a psychrometerof Assmana is represented:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1;
*2;
3;
4;
5.
116Under what number on figure 17 a hygrometer is represented:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1;
2;
*3;
4;
5.
117Under what number on figure 17 a luxmeter is represented:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1;
2;
3;
*4;
5.
118Under what number on figure 17 a barometer-aneroid is represented:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1;
2;
3;
4;
*5.
119Name the number of the device represented on figure 17 by which it is possible to define
absolute humidity:
A. *1;
B.
C.
D.
E.
all;
3;
4;
5.
120Name the number of the device represented on figure 17 by which it is possible to define
absolute humidity:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*2;
all;
3;
4;
5.
121Name the number of the device represented on figure 17 by which it is possible to measure
relative humidity:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1;
2;
*3;
4;
5.
122Name the number of the device represented on figure 17 by which it is possible to measure
atmospheric pressure:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1;
2;
3;
4;
*5.
123Name the number of the device represented on figure 17 by which it is possible to measure
external and internal lightening:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1;
2;
3;
*4;
5.
124What is represented on figure 18:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
types of luminaire*
types of direct light
types of the diffused light
types of even light
types of the diffused-directed light
125How is the type of luminaire represented on figure 18 under number 1 called?
A. reflected light
B. direct light *
C. diffused light
D. even light
E. indirect light
126How is the type of luminaire represented on figure 18 under number 2 called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
reflected light
direct light
diffused light
even light
directionally diffused light *
127How is the type of luminaire represented on figure 18 under number 3 called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
reflected light
direct light
diffused light
evenly diffused light *
directionally diffused light
128How is the type of luminaire represented on figure 18 under number 4 called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
reflected light
direct light
diffused light
evenly diffused light *
directionally diffused light
129How is the type of luminaire represented on figure 18 under number 5 called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
reflected light
direct light
diffused light
evenly diffused light
reflected-diffused light *
130How is the type of luminaire represented on figure 18 under number 6 called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
reflected light
direct light
diffused light
evenly diffused light
directionally diffused light *
131Under what number the luminaire of direct light is represented on figure 18:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1*
2
3
4
5
132Under what number the luminaire of the directionally diffused light is represented on figure
18:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2*
3
4
5
133Under what number the luminaire of the directionally diffused light is represented on figure
18:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
6*
2
3
4
5
134Under what number the luminaire of the evenly diffused light is represented on figure 18:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3*
4
5
135Under what number the luminaire of the evenly diffused light is represented on figure 18:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
6
2
3
4*
5
136Under what number the luminaire of the reflected-diffused light is represented on figure 18:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4
5*
137What device is represented on figure 19 under number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a hand dynamometer*
a body`s dynamometer
a device is for measuring of volume of brush
a device is for measuring of volume of thorax
a muscle dynamometer
138What device is represented on figure 19 under number 2:
A. a dynamometer is hand
B. a body`s dynamometer *
C. a device is for measuring of volume of brush
D. a device is for measuring of volume of thorax
E. a muscle dynamometer
139For what purpose is the device represented on figure 19 under a number 1 used:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
determination of muscular force of hand *
determination of muscular force of leg
determination of muscular force of body
determination of static force of body
determination of endurance of body
140For what purpose is the device represented on figure 19 under a number 2 used:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
determination of muscular force of total-body *
determination of muscular force of leg
determination of muscular force of body
determination of static force of body
determination of endurance of body
141What process of water treatment is represented on figure 21:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
chlorinating
ozonization
coagulation *
deodorization
nitriphycation
142For what purpose a process is utillized represented on figure 21:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
disinfection
defuzing
cleaning is from hangings up particles *
adsorption
softening
143What reagent is utillized for the process of cleaning water, represented on figure 21:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
chloride of sodium
sulfate of aluminium *
chloride of calcium
iodide to potassium
sulfate of calcium
144What reagent is utillized for the process of cleaning water, represented on figure 21:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
chloride of sodium
chloride of iron *
chloride of calcium
sulfate to potassium
sulfate of calcium
145What device is represented on figure 22 under number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
lactodensymeter *
lactobutyrometer
fat-measurement
bathometer
каthаthermometr
146What device is represented on figure 22 under number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
lactodensymeter
lactobutyrometer*
aerometer
bathometer
каthаthermometr
147For what utillize a device, represented on figure 22 under number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
measuring of density in milk *
determination of fat in milk
determination of milk temperature
determination of starch in milk
determination of formaldehyde in milk
148For what utillize a device, represented on figure 22 under number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
measuring of density in milk
determination of fat in milk *
determination of milk temperature
determination of starch in milk
determination of formaldehyde in milk
149What device is represented on figure 20 under number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
psychrometer
universal gasanaliser of UG-2
electro-aspirator
chronorefleksometer
каthаthermometr *
150What device is represented on figure 20 under number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
psychrometer
universal gasanaliser of UG-2
electro-aspirator
chronorefleksometer *
каthаthermometr
151What device is represented on figure 20 under number 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
psychrometer
universal gasanalise of UG-2 *
electro-aspirator
chronorefleksometer
E. каthаthermometr
152What device is represented on figure 20 under number 4:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
psychrometer
universal gasanaliser of UG-2
electro-aspirator *
chronorefleksometer
каthаthermometr
153For what utillize a device represented on figure 20 under number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
determination of motion of air in an apartment *
determination of gas- and vaporous matters in air
to sampling air
determination of speed of simple visile agile reaction
determination of ionization of air
154For what use device represented on figure 20 under a number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
determination of motion of air in an apartment
determination of maintenance of gas and vaporous matters in mid air
for sampling air
determination of speed of simple visible agile reaction *
determination of ionization of air
155For what use device represented on figure 20 under a number 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
determination of motion of air in an apartment
determination of maintenance of gas and vaporous matters in mid air *
for sampling air
determination of speed of simple visible agile reaction
determination of ionization of air
156For what use device represented on figure 20 under a number 4:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
determination of motion of air in an apartment
determination of maintenance of gas and vaporous matters in mid air
for sampling air *
determination of speed of simple visible agile reaction
determination of ionization of air
157What number has catthermometer on figure 20:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1*
2
3
4
none of the above
158What number has universal gasanaliser UG-2 on figure 20:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3 *
D. 4
E. none of the above
159What number has chronoreflecsometer on figure 20:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2*
3
4
none of the above
160What number has on figure 20 an electro-aspirator:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4*
none of the above
161How is named device on figure 23:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
luxmeter *
psychrometer
ultravioletmeter
noisemeter
lightmeter
162Component part of device represented on figure 23 under a number 2 is named :
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
galvanometer
light receiver*
changing light filters
porcelain choke
meter
163Component part of device represented on figure 23 under a number 3 is named :
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
galvanometer
light receiver
changing light filters*
porcelain choke
meter
164. What number has recording part of Luxmeter on figure 23 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1*
2
3
1, 2
1, 2, 3
165. What number has sensitive part of Luxmeter on figure 23 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1.
2*
3
1, 3
1, 2, 3
166For what can use device on figure 23.:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
measuring of lightening*
measuring of light stream
measuring of infrared
measuring of ultraviolet
measuring of x-ray photography radiation
167Device, which use for sampling of water and represented on figure 24 named:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
bathometer*
anemometer
aerometer
anemometers
aspirators
168For what use devices represented on figure 24?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
For the sampling of water *
For the sampling of air
For the sampling dust of air
For the sampling of heavy metals
For the sampling of milk
169What device represented on figure 25?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cylindrical Zhuravlova’s knife for bread sampling*
scoops from different sites
a device for soil sampling
bathometer for water sampling
aspirator for air sampling
170For what use devices represented on fig. 25:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
For sampling bread *
For sampling of soil
For sampling water
For sampling flour
For sampling air
171Component part of device represented on figure 25 under a number 1 is named
A.
B.
C.
D.
metallic cylinder *
wooden hob
wooden tray
wooden ball
E. metallic plate
172Component part of device represented on figure 25 under a number 2 is named
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
metallic cylinder
wooden hob *
wooden tray
wooden ball
metallic plate
173Component part of device represented on figure 25 under a number 3 is named
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
metallic cylinder
wooden hob
wooden tray *
wooden ball
metallic plate
174What estimation by device, represented on fig. 25:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
porosity of bread *
homogeneity of bread
acidity of bread
humidity of bread
callousness of bread
175Which one of the following worm eggs are affected meats represented on fig. 26:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Taenia solium*
Pin Worms
Ancylostoma duodenale
Strongyloides stercoralis
Trichinella spiralis
176What one of the following represented on the cut of meat on fig. 26 under a number 1?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
cysticercus *
eggs of ascarids
Trichinella spiralis
Ancylostoma duodenale
Strongyloides stercoralis
177Cysticercus from uncooked meat represented on fig. 26 couse one of the next diseases
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ascariasis
Taeniasis*
Ancylostomasis
enterobiasis
Strongyloidiasis
178Compressorium is determined of the trichina grubs in the pork (see fig.26). What do with this
meet?
A. Smoking meat,
B.
C.
D.
E.
Salting meat
drying meat
Freezing meat
No eat never *
179What is represented on the cut of pork meat under a number 1 on fig. 27?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Trichina grubs *
ascarids eggs
cysticercus
eggs of threadworms
pinworms grubs
180How is named diseases caused the presence of larvae represented on figure 27 under a
number 1?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
trichinosis *
Ascariasis
enterobiasis
Ancylostomasis
enterobiasis
181How is named device on figure 28:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Compressorium *
butyrometer
lactodensitometer
ovoscop
Microscope
182For what use device represented on fig. 28:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
exposure of pinworms grubs
exposure of ascarids eggs
exposure of cysticercus
exposure of Trichina grubs *
exposure of eggs of bovine solitaire
183What type of worms can be finding with the help of device represented on figure 28:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
exposure of ascarids eggs
exposure of cysticercus
exposure of trichina grubs *
exposure of eggs of bovine solitaire
exposure of pinworms grubs
184How is named device on fig. 29?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Gorbachov’s biodosimeter *
Assmann psychrometer
Yanishevskiy’s pyranometer
Radiometer
Luxmeter
185What measure with the help of a Gorbachov’s biodosimeter, which represented on figure 29?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
erythemal dose *
Intensity of light
Maximal admissible level
Number of microbes in 1 m3 of the air
Efficiency of the air sanitation
186How is named method for determination of erythemal dose using the Gorbachov’s
biodosimeter, which represented on fig. 29?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Chemical methods
Biological method *
Photochemical method
Calculation methods
Total method
187When use a device represented on figure 29?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
to determine the x-rays dose
to determine the photochemiscal dose
to determine the biodose*
to determine the radiological dose
to determine the total dose
188Where dispose a Gorbachov’s biodosimeter, which represented on fig. 29 for measuring of
biological dose:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
On the shin
On the shoulder
On the forearm *
On a leg
On the back
189For what use photarium, which is represented on fig. 30?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
For preventive irradiation by X-rays
For preventive irradiation by visible rays
For preventive irradiation by UV-rays*
For sanitation of air
For heating of body
190For what use devices which are represented on fig. 31:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
For the water sampling
For the air sampling *
For the soil sampling
For the milk sampling
None of above.
191For what is use allonge with filter represented on fig. 31?
A. For determination of the microbes content in the air
B. For determination of the dust content in the air *
C. For determination of the gas pollutants in the air
D. For determination of the microbes content in the water
E. For determination of the pollutants in the milk
192What name has devices on fig. 20 under number 1?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
catthermometer*
thermometer1
chronoreflecsometer
electro-aspirator
gasanaliser UG-2
193What name has devices on fig. 20 under number 2?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
catthermometer
thermometer1
chronoreflecsometer*
electro-aspirator
gasanaliser UG-2
194What name has devices on fig. 20 under number 3?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
catthermometer
thermometer1
chronoreflecsometer
electro-aspirator
gasanaliser UG-2 *
195What name has devices on fig. 20 under number 4?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
catthermometer
thermometer
chronoreflecsometer
electro-aspirator*
gasanaliser UG-2
196Component part of device represented on figure 23 under a number 1 is named
A. light receiver
B. changing light filters
C. porcelain choke
D. meter
E. galvanometer *
197Which number on figure 31 has filter with fabric?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1*
2
3
4
5
198What is represented on figure 31 under a number 1?
A. Aspirator
B.
C.
D.
E.
plastic allonge
filter with fabric *
cassette case
metallic allonge
199What is represented on figure 31 under a number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Aspirator
plastic allonge *
filters
corps of cassette
metallic ring
200Which number on figure 31 has plastic allong?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2*
4
5
6
201Component part of device represented on figure 23 under a number 1 is named :
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
light receiver
changing light filters
porcelain choke
galvanometer *
meter
202What it is represented on figure 31 under a number 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Aspirator
metallic allonge*
filters
corps of cassette
metallic ring
203What index of natural illumination we can calculate with the help of devices represented on
figure 23 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Light coefficient
Coefficient of depth
Coefficient of natural illumination*
Uniformity of light
Coefficient of effectiveness
204Which number has tool that is represented on figure 31 and should be weighed before and
after air aspiration for determination of the dust content in the air
A.
B.
C.
D.
1*
2
3
4
E. 5
205How we can determination of the dust content in the air with the help of tools, which
represented on fig. 31?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Weighed filter mass before and after air aspiration *
Weighed plastic allonge mass before and after air aspiration
Weighed filter mass only before air aspiration
Weighed filter mass only after air aspiration
Weighed plastic allonge mass only before air aspiration
206What is represented on figure 32 under a number 1:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Atmospheric water*
Superficial water
Ground water
Interlayer without pressure water
Interlayer with pressure (artesian) water
207That it is represented on figure 32 under a number 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Atmospheric water
Superficial water*
Ground water
Interlayer without pressure water
Interlayer with pressure (artesian) water
208That it is represented on figure 32 under a number 4:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Atmospheric water
Superficial water
Ground water *
Interlayer without pressure water
Interlayer with pressure (artesian) water
209That it is represented on figure 32 under a number 5:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Atmospheric water
Superficial water
Ground water
Interlayer without pressure water
Interlayer with pressure (artesian) water*
210That it is represented on figure 32 under a number 6:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Atmospheric water
Superficial water
Ground water *
Interlayer without pressure water
Interlayer with pressure (artesian) water
211That it is represented on figure 32 under a number 7:
A. Atmospheric water
B.
C.
D.
E.
Superficial water
Ground water
Interlayer without pressure water
Interlayer with pressure (artesian) water *
212That it is represented on figure 32 under a number 8:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Atmospheric water
Superficial water *
Ground water
Interlayer without pressure water
Interlayer with pressure (artesian) water
213What number on figure 32 has the superficial water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
3*
4
5
6
7
214What number on figure 32 has the superficial water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
8*
4
5
6
7
215What number on figure 32 has the atmospheric water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1*
4
5
6
7
216What number on figure 32 has the ground water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
4*
1
5
3
7
217What number on figure 32 has the ground water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
6*
1
5
3
7
218What number on figure 32 has interlayer pressure (artesian) water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
5*
1
4
3
7
219What number on figure 32 has interlayer pressure (artesian) water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
8*
1
4
3
7
220What is represented on figure 33?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mine well*
Tube well
Artesian mining hole
Pound
Spring
221What is on figure 33 under a number 1?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Water pump *
Puddled clay
Cemented brick work
Platform of well
Iron water pipe
222What is on figure 33 under a number 2:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Water pump
Puddled clay *
Cemented brick work
Platform of well
Iron water pipe
223What is on figure 33 under a number 3:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Water pump
Puddled clay
Cemented brick work*
Cover of well
Iron water pipe
224What is on figure 33 under a number 4:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Water pump
Puddled clay
Cemented brick work
Cover of well *
E. Iron water pipe
225What is on figure 33 under a number 5:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Water pump
Puddled clay
Cemented brick work
Cover of well
Iron water pipe *
226What is on figure 33 under a number 6:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Water layer*
Water pump
Puddled clay
Cemented brick work
Cover of well
227What is on figure 33 under a number 7:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Water pump
Puddled clay
Cemented brick work
Cover of well
Platform *
228What is on figure 33 under a number 8:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Water pump
Puddled clay
Cemented brick work
3-layer filter *
Platform