BI 200 – Final Exam A
Spring 2002
Name
Lab Section. Seat#
Disclaimer
Consider each question, and answer each in the appropriate format (i.e., multiple choice).
You may qualify your answer if you have reservations. If your comments have merit, you may receive partial or full credit.
Multiple choice. 2 points each
1. Which of the following are made up of prokaryotic cells? a. Bacteria and Algae b. Archaea and Fungi c. Protozoa and Metazoa d. Bacteria and Archaea e. Protozoa and Viruses
2. The synthesis of RNA is carried out by ______________ and is referred to as
_______________. a. RNA polymerase; RNA Replication b. Ribosomes; Transcription c. Reverse Transcriptase; Translation d. RNA polymerase; Transcription e. Ribosomes; Translation
3. Who demonstrated that Anthrax is caused by a specific bacterium – Bacillus anthracis ? a. Robert Koch b. Louis Pasteur c. Courtney Love d. Sergei Winogradsky e. Joseph Lister
4. Phospholipids of archaea differ from those in bacterial membranes because archaean membranes have hydrophobic side chains made of ______________ called phytols rather than straight chain fatty acids, and these are attached by _________ linkages to glycerol. a. tetrapyrole; ester b. sterols; ester c. isoprene sub-units; ether d. hopanoids; ether e. none of the above, they have identical phospholipids

BI 200 – Final Exam B
Spring 2002
Name
Lab Section. Seat#
Disclaimer
Consider each question, and answer each in the appropriate format (i.e., multiple choice).
You may qualify your answer if you have reservations. If your comments have merit, you may receive partial or full credit.
Multiple choice. 2 points each
1. Which of the following are made up of prokaryotic cells? a. Bacteria and Protozoa b. Archaea and Fungi c. Protozoa and Metazoa d. Bacteria and Archaea e. Protozoa and Viruses
2. The synthesis of protein is carried out by ______________ and is referred to as
_______________. a. RNA polymerase; RNA Replication b. Ribosomes; Transcription c. Reverse Transcriptase; Translation d. RNA polymerase; Transcription e. Ribosomes; Translation
3. Who demonstrated that Anthrax is caused by a specific bacterium – Bacillus anthracis ? a. Robert Koch b. Louis Pasteur c. Courtney Love d. Sergei Winogradsky e. Joseph Lister
4. Phospholipids of eukaryotes differ from those in bacterial membranes because eukaryotic membranes have hydrophobic side chains which include ______________, but are similar in that these are attached by _________ linkages to glycerol. a. tetrapyrole; ester b. sterols; ester c. isoprene sub-units; ether d. hopanoids; ether e. none of the above, they have identical phospholipids

5. Maltose enters the cell with the help of three proteins: a periplasmic binding protein, a channel protein in the membrane, and an ATP kinase on the inside of the cell. This is an example of a. Passive diffusion b. Primary active transport c. Secondary active transport d. Group translocation e. “ABC” transport
6. Cell walls of fungi are made of a polymer called _________________ which is composed of _________________. a. cellulose;

1->4 linked glucose b. chitin;

1->4 linked N-acetylglucosamine c. peptidoglycan;

1->4 linked N-acetylglucosamine and muramic acid d. the S-layer; proteins e. none of the above, fungi don’t have cell walls.
7. In the gram-negative cell envelope, which is the correct order of constituents as you move from the inside of the cell (cytoplasm) to the outside? a. cytoplasmic membrane, peptidoglycan, lipoprotein, outer membrane, lipopolysaccharide b. cytoplasmic membrane, peptidoglycan, lipoprotein, outer membrane, periplasm c. cytoplasmic membrane, porin, peptidoglycan, lipoteichoic acid, outer membrane d. porin, peptidoglycan, lipoprotein, outer membrane, lipopolysaccharide e. porin, peptidoglycan, lipoprotein, outer membrane, periplasm
8. How many base pairs in the E. coli chromosome? a. 4 b. 4,000 c. 4.5 x 10
6 d. none, DNA is usually single stranded in prokaryotes e. none, prokaryotes have plasmids, but not chromosomes
9. Which of the following is not generally true about DNA in prokaryotes? a. DNA is supercoiled around histone proteins b. DNA is double stranded c. There is one copy of each chromosome d. Chromosomes are usually circular rather than linear e. There is usually just one chromosome

5. Maltose enters the cell with the help of three proteins: a periplasmic binding protein, a channel protein in the membrane, and an ATP kinase on the inside of the cell. This is an example of a. Passive diffusion b. Primary active transport c. Secondary active transport d. Group translocation e. “ABC” transport
6. Cell walls of bacteria are made of a polymer called _________________ which is composed of _________________. a. cellulose;

1->4 linked glucose b. chitin;

1->4 linked N-acetylglucosamine c. peptidoglycan;

1->4 linked N-acetylglucosamine and muramic acid d. the S-layer; proteins e. none of the above, bacteria don’t have cell walls.
7. In the gram-negative cell envelope, which is the correct order of constituents as you move from the inside of the cell (cytoplasm) to the outside? a. cytoplasmic membrane, peptidoglycan, lipoprotein, outer membrane, lipopolysaccharide b. cytoplasmic membrane, peptidoglycan, lipoprotein, outer membrane, periplasm c. cytoplasmic membrane, porin, peptidoglycan, lipoteichoic acid, outer membrane d. porin, peptidoglycan, lipoprotein, outer membrane, lipopolysaccharide e. porin, peptidoglycan, lipoprotein, outer membrane, periplasm
8. How many genes in the E. coli chromosome? a. 4 b. 4,000 c. 4.5 x 10
6 d. none, prokaryotes have codons, but not genes e. none, prokaryotes have plasmids, but not genes
9. Which of the following is not generally true about DNA in prokaryotes? a. DNA is supercoiled without histone proteins b. DNA is double stranded c. There are two copies of each chromosome d. Chromosomes are usually circular rather than linear e. There is usually just one chromosome

10. Endospores a. are bacterial reproductive structures b. are associated with the genus Escherichia c. contain diaminopimelic acid and Mg
2+
ions d. all of the above e. none of the above
11. Which of the following would not be a storage polymer that could provide carbon, energy, or other essential nutrient? a. glycogen b. poly-hydroxybutyrate c. polyphosphate d. magnetite e. sulfur granules
12. Which of the following would not be involved in attaching a bacterium to some target? The targets would be another cell for mating, a tooth, or epithelial cells. a. capsule b. fimbriae c. flagellum d. sex pilus
13. The progenote or universal ancestor would have which of the following traits a. be a virus b. be a eukaryote c. be a mesophile – preferring body temperature d. be an anaerobe, having no requirement for oxygen gas e. be a little green man with antennae
14. Appreciable amounts of oxygen gas (1%) first appeared _________ years ago.
Fossils resembling modern ___________ are abundant from that period. a. 3.5 billion; Martian bacillus b. 1.9 billion; cyanobacteria c. 1.4 billion; eukaryotes d. 600 million; land plants e. 6,000; humans

10. Endospores a. are bacterial reproductive structures b. are associated with the genus Escherichia c. contain dipicolinic acid and Ca
2+
ions d. all of the above e. none of the above
11. Which of the following would not be a storage polymer that could provide carbon, energy, or other essential nutrient? a. glycogen b. poly-hydroxybutyrate c. polyphosphate d. magnetite e. sulfur granules
12. Which of the following would not be involved in attaching a bacterium to some target? The targets would be another cell for mating, a tooth, epithelial cells. a. capsule b. fimbriae c. flagellum d. sex pilus
13. The progenote or universal ancestor would have which of the following traits? a. be a virus b. be a prokaryote c. be a mesophile – preferring body temperature d. be an aerobe, requiring oxygen gas e. be a little green man with antennae
14. Appreciable amounts of oxygen gas (1%) first appeared _________ years ago.
Fossils resembling modern ___________ are abundant from that period. a. 3.5 billion; Martian bacillus b. 1.9 billion; cyanobacteria c. 1.4 billion; eukaryotes d. 600 million; land plants e. 6,000; humans

15. Microtubules are part of the structure of all of the following, except: a. cilia b. eukaryotic flagella c. prokaryotic flagella d. cytoskeleton e. spindle apparatus
16. The chloroplast is organized into highly folded inner membranes called
_____________ and an internal space called the ____________. a. christae; matrix b. thylakoids; stroma c. chlorosomes; cytoplasm d. nitrosomonas; periplasm e. mitochondria; hydrogenosome
17. Which of the following is true about glycolysis? a. oxygen is consumed b. oxygen is produced c. ATP is produced by electron transport phosphorylation d. ATP is produced by substrate level phosphorylation e. none of the above is correct
18. Which of the following is true about the reduction of pyruvate to ethanol and CO
2
by yeast? a. oxygen is consumed b. oxygen is produced c. ATP is produced by electron transport phosphorylation d. ATP is produced by substrate level phosphorylation e. none of the above is correct
19. Which of the following is true about the Krebs (TCA) cycle? a. oxygen is consumed b. oxygen is produced c. ATP is produced by electron transport phosphorylation d. ATP is produced by substrate level phosphorylation e. none of the above is correct

20. Which of the following is not true about electron transport phosphorylation in aerobic respiration? a. oxygen is consumed b. a membrane is required c. ATP is produced by ATPase d. ATP is produced by substrate level phosphorylation e. a proton gradient,

H+
, is formed
21. Which enzyme would be unique in the fermentation of glucose to lactic acid? a.

-galactosidase b. lactase c. alcohol dehydrogenase d. aldolase e. lactate dehydrogenase
22. Which organism would carry out the fermentation of glucose to ethanol and CO
2
? a. Pseudomonas b. Lactobacillus c. Zymomonas d. Streptococcus e. Methanosarcina
23. Which of the following organisms grows by transferring electrons from acetic acid to
Fe
3+
(ferric iron)? It is an obligate anaerobe, and produces Fe
2+
(ferrous iron) as end product. a. Gallionella b. Thiobacillus ferrooxidans c. Rusticyanin d. Geobacter e. Leptothrix
24. The unique enzyme in substrate oxidation for the Iron-oxidizing bacterium
Thiobacillus ferrooxidans is a. APS b. nitrite oxidase c. ammonium monooxygenase d. rusticyanin e. aldolase

25. Methanogens a. grow rapidly b. fluoresce under ultraviolet light due to cofactor F420 c. are facultative anaerobes d. are not widely distributed in nature e. are not involved in decomposition
26. Denitrification a. is carried out by E. coli b. is an example of lithotrophy c. depletes nitrate from soil d. is associated with acid mine drainage
27. The purple pigment associated with halophillic photosynthetic archaea is a. phycobillin b. bacteriochlorophyll a c. bacteriorhodopsin d.

-carotene e. chlorophyll g
28. Anoxygenic photosynthesis a. is also called non-cyclic photosynthesis b. is carried out by purple and green sulfur bacteria (among others) c. involves central chlorophyll molecules P680 of photosystem II d. evolved after aerobic respiration and oxygenic photosynthesis e. requires the continuous input of electrons from H
2
O
29. Which of the following is an oxygenic phototrophic bacterium? a. Volvox b. Oscillatoria c. Halobacterium d. Rhodospirillum e. Clostridium

30. Carbon fixation occurs in the ______________ of lithoautotrophic and photoautotrophic bacteria, while nitrogen fixation occurs in special cyanobacterial cells called __________________. a. magnetosomes; akinetes b. endospores; phycobillisomes c. hydrogenosomes; auxotrophs d. chlorosomes; grana e. carboxysomes; heterocysts
31. Which statement describes the chromosomal content of a typical bacterium? a. Two copies of a single double-stranded, circular DNA molecule. a. Two copies of a single double-stranded, circular RNA molecule. a. One copy of a single double-stranded, circular DNA molecule. a. Two copies of multiple double-stranded, linear DNA molecules.
32. The inability to ferment lactose is an example of a. a visible phenotypic marker b. a differential phenotypic marker c. a selectable phenotypic marker d. a heterozygote
33. Resistance to the antibiotic penicillin is an example of a. a visible phenotypic marker b. a differential phenotypic marker c. a selectable phenotypic marker d. a homozygote
34. A mutant unable to synthesize the amino acid tryptophan is an example of a. wild type b. a prototroph c. an autotroph d. an auxotroph
35. Which of the following would be the phenotypic and genotypic designation for such a mutant? a. TRP
-
; trpA1 b. Trp + ; trpA1 c. Trp
-
; trpA1 d. Lac
+
; TrpA1

36. Which of the following is not a means of gene exchange among bacteria? a. transcription b. transformation c. conjugation d. transduction
37. Plasmids may be functionally involved in all of the following except: a. transduction b. transfer of chromosome c. synthesis of pili d. transfer of drug resistance e. conjugation
38. In conjugation genes on plasmids are transferred in matings between: a. two F
-
strains b. F
+
and F
-
cells c. two F
+
strains d. a and b e. b and c
39. Which of the following is not true about transformation? a. Viruses are involved. b. The process is sensitive to the enzyme DNase. c. DNA can be transferred between species. d. The donor cell must be lysed before transfer can take place.
40. A bacterium containing two copies of the hisA gene, a mutant gene on the chromosome, and a wild type gene on a plasmid is described as a a. haploid b. diploid c. merodiploid d. allele
41. Independent virus particles (virion) a. do not contain nucleic acids b. do not carry out metabolism c. do not contain ribosomes d. a, b, and c are all true e. only b and c are true

42. Viruses that infect bacteria are called a. retroviruses b. bacteriorhodopsin c. bacteriochlorophyll d. bacteriophage
43. Which of the following viruses does not have icosohedral symmetry: a. M13 b.

- Lambda
44. Viruses may be as small as c. T
4 d. HIV a. 0.02 nm b. 0.02
 m c. 0.02 mm d. 0.02 inches
45. The type of infection caused by the Ebola virus is best characterized as a. Lytic b. Tumerogenic c. Persistent d. Latent
46. The virus that poses the largest health threat to human beings, in terms of number of people that have died since the turn of the century, is a. HIV b. rhabdovirus c. orthomyxovirus d. Ebola virus e. T
4
47. The type of bacterial virus which is covalently inserted into its host’s DNA is called a. an Hfr strain b. temperate phage c. macrophage d. virulent phage

48. The last protein expressed during a lytic infection is a. sigma factor b. nuclease c. lysozyme d. DNA polymerase
49. Which of the following sequences is consistent with the order of events during a lytic infection? (Note: not all 7 steps are included) a. attachment, synthesis of protein coats, assembly, nucleic acid replication, lysis b. attachment, synthesis of protein coats, nucleic acid replication, assembly, lysis c. attachment, nucleic acid replication, synthesis of protein coats, assembly, lysis d. attachment, lysis, synthesis of protein coats, assembly, nucleic acid replication
50. 2 free points

BI 200 Final Exam Topics
1. 7 types of microbes – eukaryotes, prokaryotes, and viruses
2. Central dogma of biology – DNA replication, transcription, and translation
3. History of microbiology – Pasteur, Koch, and Winogradsky
4. Phospholipid structure – archaea, bacteria, and eukaryotes
5. Transport mechanisms – porters, group translocation, ABC transport, diffusion
6. Cell wall materials in microbes – cellulose, chitin, peptidoglycans, and S-layers
7. Gram-negative cell envelopes – organization of peptidoglycan, periplasm, LPS, etc.
8. DNA in prokaryotes – genome size in bases and genes
9. DNA in prokaryotes – chromosome structure
10. Endospores – function, chemical markers, and representative genera
11. Internal prokaryotic features – granules, “-somes”, vesicles, etc.
12. External prokaryotic features – pili, capsules, flagella, fimbriae
13. Early Earth’s conditions and the universal ancestor
14. Time of events in Earth’s history; oxygen atmosphere
15. Microtubules of eukaryotes
16. Structure of chloroplasts/mitochondria
17. Glycolysis; oxygen and ATP production (ETP, SLP)
18. Reduction of pyruvate to ethanol; oxygen and ATP production (ETP, SLP)
19. TCA cycle; oxygen and ATP production (ETP, SLP)
20. Aerobic respiration; oxygen and ATP production (ETP,
SLP)
21. Enzymes of lactic acid and ethanol fermentation
22. Organisms of lactic acid and ethanol fermentation
23. Iron reducing and iron oxidizing bacteria
24. Enzyme of chemolithotrophic substrate oxidation
25. Methanogens
26. Denitrification
27. Photosynthesis in archaea
28. Anoxygenic/Oxygenic photosynthesis - general properties
29. Anoxygenic/Oxygenic photosynthesis - organisms
30. Carbon and nitrogen fixation in photosynthetic bacteria
31. DNA content of bacteria
32. Phenotypes of bacteria – visible, selectable, differential
33. Phenotypes of bacteria – visible, selectable, differential
34. Wild type, prototroph, and auxotroph
35. Genotypic and phenotypic designations in prokaryotes
36. Mechanisms of gene exchange in prokaryotes
37. Role of plasmids in gene exchange
38. Mating types in bacteria
39. Properties of transformation
40. Bacteria with 2 or more copies of one or more genes
41. Structure and activity of virus particles
42. Host specificity of viruses
43. Virus shapes – icosohedral, helical, complex, enveloped
44. Size of virus particles
45. Effects of animal viruses – tumors, lytic, persistent, and lysogenic
46. Morbidity and mortality – HIV, Ebola, and the flu
47. Lytic and lysogenic bacteriophage
48. Order of expression of viral proteins
49. Order of 7 steps of viral infection
50. Good bye!