Multiple Choice. Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. a.
NaOH
Which of the following is an alcohol? d.
b.
e.
c.
____ 2. a.
4 b.
3 c.
2
How many actual double bonds does the benzene ring possess? d.
1 e.
0
____ 3. a.
Alkane b.
carboxylic acid c.
Aldehyde
The compound above is classified as a(n) d.
ketone e.
alkene
____ 4. a.
Which of the following is a secondary alcohol? d.
CH
3
OH c b.
e.
CH
3
CH
2
OH
____ 5. What is the correct name for the compound at right? a.
2-methyl-3-butanol d.
3-methyl-2-butanol b.
2-pentanol c.
Isobutanol e.
none of these
____ 6. a.
a ketone b.
an amine c.
an aldehyde
What results when a secondary alcohol is oxidized? d.
an acid e.
no reaction
____ 7. Which statement is incorrect concerning these two molecules with the same formula, C
2
H
6
O?
I.
II.
a.
compound (II) will more likely be soluble in water than compound (I) b.
compound (I) will have a lower boiling point than compound (II) c.
hydrogen bonding will be the most likely for compound (II) d.
the vapour pressure of compound (II) will be lower than that of compound (I) at a given temperature e.
compound (I) would be a better solvent

____ 8. a.
CnHn b.
CnH2n+2
The general formula for a cycloalkane can be represented by which of the following? c.
CnH2n d.
CnH2n-2
____ 9. The correct name for the compound at right is which of the following? a.
3-amino-3-hexanone c.
N-propylpropanamide b.
ethyl ethanamide d.
N-ethylethanamide
____ 10. The correct name for the compound at right is which of the following? a.
1-amino-3-ethoxyhexane c.
1-amino-3-methoxycyclohexane b.
1-methoxy-3-amidecyclohexane d.
1-amino-3-methoxyhexane
____ 11. Markonikov’s Rule states that when an alkene or alkyne reacts with either a hydrohalide or with water that: a.
the carbon that already had the most H atoms receives the H atom b.
the H atoms are lost as H
2
gas c.
Markovnikov’s Rule does not apply to this situation d.
e.
the carbon that has the fewest H atoms receives the
H atom the H atoms combine with O to form water
____ 12. The correct IUPAC name for the compound at right is which of the following? a.
1,1-diiodo-2-fluoro-3-cycloproplycyclobutane b.
1-cyclopropyl-2-fluoro-3,3-diiodocyclobutane c.
1,1-diiodo-3-cyclopropyl-4-fluorocyclobutane d.
1-fluoro-2,2-diiodo-4-cyclopropylcyclobutane
____ 13. The arrangement of electrons around the nucleus of an atom is known as a.
the Bohr model d.
the diagonal rule b.
the ground state c.
the principal quantum number e.
the electron configuration
____ 14. The 3p atomic orbital has the shape of a.
a sphere d.
two perpendicular dumb-bells b.
a torus c.
a dumb-bell e.
an egg
____ 15. Energy released when "excited" electrons return to lower energy levels produce... a.
line spectra d.
all of the above b.
ionization energies c.
electron affinities e.
none of the above
____ 16. The lines in the line spectrum of an atom results from a.
energy absorbed by electrons dropping back down to a lower energy level b.
energy absorbed by electrons jumping to a higher energy level c.
energy released by electrons jumping to a higher energy level d.
energy released by electrons dropping back down to a lower energy level e.
none of the above
____ 17. What was Planck's contribution to the quantum mechanical model of the atom? a.
the uncertainty principle b.
the concept of quanta of energy c.
the idea that every mass has a wave with which it is associated d.
the wave equation e.
a relationship between energy and mass

____ 18. What was de Broglie's contribution to the quantum mechanical model of the atom? a.
the uncertainty principle b.
concept of quanta of energy c.
the idea that every mass has a wave with which is it associated d.
the wave equation e.
a relationship between energy and mass
____ 19. What did Schrodinger contribute to the quantum mechanical model of the atom? a.
the uncertainty principle b.
concept of quanta of energy c.
the idea that every mass has a wave with which it is associated d.
the wave equation e.
a relationship between energy and mass
____ 20. Which of the following is the electron configuration for neon? a.
1s 2 2s 2 2p 4 3s 2 d.
1s 3 2s 3 2p 4 b.
1s 1 2s 1 2p 6 3s 2 c.
1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 e.
1s 2 2s 2 2p 8
____ 21. What made scientists believe that atoms contain equal numbers of protons and neutrons? a.
most alpha particles went straight through the gold foil b.
some alpha particles were deflected by the gold foil c.
the line spectra of excited atoms d.
atoms are electrically neutral e.
none of the above
____ 22. How was Bohr able to discover the energies of each energy level in the hydrogen atom? a.
using the fact that most alpha particles went straight through the gold foil b.
using the fact that some alpha particles were deflected by the gold foil c.
using the line spectrum of hydrogen when it is excited d.
using the fact that atoms are electrically neutral e.
none of the above
____ 23. Why is the first ionization energy of arsenic higher than the first ionization energy of selenium? a.
arsenic wants to be iso-electronic with a noble gas b.
arsenic is larger than selenium c.
arsenic's 4p orbitals are half full d.
selenium needs only two electrons to be iso-electronic with a noble gas e.
none of the above
____ 24. Why is phosphorus able to have a valence of 5+? a.
it is in group 5 b.
it has five valence electrons c.
its most easily removed electron is in a p orbital d.
it has empty d orbitals e.
none of the above
____ 25. Which is true of all p-block elements? a.
they are all metals b.
they have relatively low electron affinities c.
they are all non-metals d.
they have relatively high electronegativities e.
none of the above

____ 26. Which of the following is the electron configuration for fluoride, F 1? a.
1s 2 2s 2 2p 4 d.
1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 b.
1s 2 1p 6 c.
1s 2 2s 2 2p 5 e.
1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 1
____ 27. A substance is a brittle crystal that conducts electricity in molten liquid state only. Which type of
substance is it? a.
metallic crystal b.
ionic crystal c.
covalent crystal d.
e.
molecular crystal frozen gas
____ 28. A substance is a solid that is ductile and malleable and conducts electricity and heat in the solid state.
Which type of substance is it? a.
metallic solid d.
molecular solid b.
ionic solid c.
covalent solid e.
perfect crystal
____ 29. A solid is soft and has a low melting point. It does not conduct electricity. What type of solid is it? a.
metallic solid d.
molecular crystal b.
ionic crystal c.
covalent solid e.
plasma
____ 30. What is the basis of metallic bonding? a.
the attraction of metal ions for delocalized electrons b.
the attraction between neutral metal ions c.
the neutralization of protons by electrons d.
the attraction of oppositely charged ions e.
the sharing of two valence electrons between two atoms
____ 31. Polar covalent bonds occur between a.
atoms which both have equally high electronegativities b.
atoms which have high but unequal electronegativities c.
atoms which both have equally low electronegativities d.
atoms which both have equally low ionization energies e.
atoms which have low but unequal ionization energies
____ 32. Which of the following bonds is likely to exhibit the greatest ionic character? a.
H-F d.
Cl-Cl b.
F-F c.
H-Cl e.
Cl-F
____ 33. Diamond and graphite differ in that a.
only graphite is composed of carbon atoms b.
only graphite conducts electricity c.
only graphite burns in oxygen to give carbon dioxide gas d.
diamond is less dense than graphite e.
diamond is a compound
____ 34. Which of the molecules, CO
2
, H
2
O, NH
3
, and BF
3
, will be polar? a.
CO
2
, NH
3
and BF
3 d.
CO
2
, H
2
O and NH
3 b.
H
2
O and NH c.
H
2
O and BF
3
3 e.
CO
2
and BF
3

____ 35. A molecule consisting of a central atom surrounded by two bonding pairs and two non-bonding (lone) pairs of electrons will be a.
linear b.
tetrahedral c.
bent d.
trigonal pyramidal e.
trigonal planar
____ 36. The shape of a BF
3
will be a.
trigonal pyramidal b.
trigonal planar c.
trigonal bipyramidal d.
e.
octahedral tetrahedral
____ 37. The attractive forces that exist between all covalent molecules are known as a.
dipole-dipole forces d.
hydrogen bonds b.
intramolecular forces c.
covalent bonds e.
dispersion forces
____ 38. Why does a central atom surrounded by 4 atoms have a tetrahedral shape instead of a square planar shape? a.
orbitals are never at right angles to each other b.
the lone pairs around the central atom push the 4 atoms into this configuration c.
the angle in a tetrahedron is larger than in a square planar arrangement d.
the 4 atoms want to be as close together as possible e.
none of the above
____ 39. What would be the shape of a molecule containing a central atom attached to two other atoms with one lone pair of electrons? a.
linear b.
bent c.
trigonal planar d.
e.
tetrahedral trigonal bipyramidal
____ 40. What would be the shape of a molecule containing a central atom attached to two other atoms with no lone pairs of electrons? a.
linear b.
bent c.
trigonal pyramidal d.
e.
trigonal planar see-saw
____ 41. What would be the shape of a molecule containing a central atom attached to six other atoms? a.
trigonal planar d.
square pyramidal b.
trigonal pyramidal c.
square planar e.
octahedral
____ 42. Which of the following are properties of alkali metals?
I. They have one valence electron.
II. They have high first ionization energies.
III. They are very reactive.
IV. Their most easily removed electron is in an s orbital. a.
I and II only d.
III only b.
I and IV only c.
I, III and IV only e.
I only
____ 43. Which of the following substances would not be polar? a.
hydrogen chloride d.
sulfur dioxide b.
ammonia c.
water e.
carbon dioxide

____ 44. Which of the following is not a property of ionic solids. a.
conduct electricity in solution d.
contain positive and negative ions b.
brittle c.
form a lattice e.
ductile
____ 45. Which forces exist between ammonia, NH
3
, particles?
I. Van der Waals
II. metallic bonding
III. hydrogen bonding
IV. dipole a.
I only b.
I and IV only c.
I and II only d.
e.
I, III and IV only
I, II and III only
____ 46. Which forces exist between hydrogen chloride, HCl, particles?
I. Van der Waals
II. metallic bonding
III. hydrogen bonding
IV. dipole a.
I only b.
I and IV only c.
I and II only d.
e.
I, III and IV only
I, II and II only
____ 47. An exothermic reaction is one where a.
heat is transferred from the surroundings into a system b.
heat is transferred from a system into the surroundings c.
kinetic energy is transformed into potential energy d.
there is no transfer of heat e.
none of the above
____ 48. An endothermic reaction is one where a.
heat is transferred from the surroundings into a system b.
heat is transferred from a system into the surroundings c.
kinetic energy is transformed into potential energy d.
there is no transfer of heat e.
none of the above
____ 49. In an exothermic reaction, the temperature of the surroundings increases because the molecules in the surrounding have a.
a lower kinetic energy b.
a lower potential energy c.
a greater kinetic energy d.
a greater potential energy e.
not changed in either kinetic or potential energy
____ 50. A chemical system in which neither energy nor matter can flow into or out of a system is described as a.
a closed system d.
a chemical system b.
an open system c.
an isolated system e.
none of the above

____ 51. The specific heat capacity of a substance is a.
the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one mole of a substance by one degree Celsius or Kelvin b.
the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of a substance by one degree Celsius or Kelvin c.
the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one molecule of a substance by one degree Celsius or
Kelvin d.
the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by one degree Celsius or Kelvin e.
none of the above
____ 52. An enthalpy change is a.
the difference in the kinetic energy of the reactants and the products in a chemical change b.
the difference in the potential energy of the reactants and the products in a chemical change c.
the difference in enthalpies of the reactants and the products in a chemical change d.
the sum of the potential and kinetic energies of the products e.
the sum of the potential and kinetic energies of the reactants
____ 53. Which statement concerning the Law of Conservation of Energy is not true? a.
it applies to all chemical changes b.
it involves all different forms of energy c.
it applies to nuclear reactions d.
it includes potential energy e.
it involves heat content of substances
____ 54. The molar heat of vaporization of water is 42 kJ/mol. How much energy is released by the
condensation of 3.0 g of water? a.
0.88 kJ b.
7.0 kJ c.
130 kJ d.
e.
250 kJ
0.07 kJ
____ 55. In a calorimeter, a 1.0 g sample of magnesium is burned to form MgO. In doing so, 25.5 kJ of energy a.
306.2
b.
1.54 x 10 25 c.
0.0392
are released. What is the Heat of Combustion in kJ/mol of magnesium? d.
e.
25.5
620
____ 56. When a 'target' reaction can be expressed as the sum of other reactions, the heat of the 'target' reaction is the sum of the enthalpy changes of the other reactions. This statement is referred to as a.
Law of Constant Composition d.
Priestly's Law b.
Law of Conservation of Energy c.
Hess's Law e.
Boyle's Law
____ 57. Given the following thermochemical data:
1. C
2
H
2
(g) + 5 /
2
O
2
(g) → 2CO
2
(g) + H
2
O(l) ΔH = –1.30 x 10 3 kJ
2.
3.
C
2
H
6
(g) + 7 /
2
O
2
(g) → 2CO
2
(g) + 3H
2
O(l) ΔH = –1.56 x10 3 kJ
H
2
(g) + 1 /
2
O
2
(g) → H
2
O (l) ΔH = –2.86 x 10 2 kJ
What is

H for the following reaction?
C
2
H
2
(g) + 2H
2
(g) → C
2
H
6
(g) a.
–2.60 x10 1 kJ b.
–3.12 x 10 2 kJ c.
–5.72 x 10 2 kJ d.
–5.46 x 10 e.
2.60 x 10 1
3 kJ
kJ

____ 58. A rate of reaction is usually obtained by measuring a.
the rate at which products are consumed b.
the rate at which reactants are produced c.
the rate at which reactants are consumed d.
the temperature of the solution e.
the mass and volume of the products
____ 59. What is the overall rate of change in the combustion reaction of propane if the initial volume of a.
7.0 x 10 -2 propane is 5.0 L and after 20 minutes of burning is 3.6 L?
L/min d.
22.2 L/min b.
14.3 L/min c.
4.5 x 10 -2 L/min e.
none of the above
____ 60. What is the average rate of production of carbon dioxide for the system between 2.0 and 4.0 minutes,
, if the concentration of carbon dioxide is 2.5 mol/L after 2.0 minutes and 7.2 mol/L after 4.0 minutes? a.
0.426 mol/(L·min) d.
2.35 mol/(L·min) b.
1.18 mol/(L·min) c.
0.952 mol/(L·min) e.
42.6 mol/(L·min)
____ 61. The following property can be measured to determine the rate of the reaction a.
change in mass b.
change in colour c.
change in volume d.
change in pressure e.
all of the above depending on the reaction
____ 62. Which of the following is not a factor that controls the rate of the reaction a.
b.
chemical nature of the reactants concentration of the reactants c.
the number of products formed d.
surface area e.
temperature
____ 63. Generally, temperature affects the rate of a reaction in which of the following ways? a.
increasing the temperature reduces the rate of the reaction b.
decreasing the temperature decreases the rate of the reaction c.
increasing the temperature increases the rate of the reaction d.
both a and b are correct e.
both b and c are correct
____ 64. The presence of a catalyst is thought to increase the rate of a reaction by a.
changing the products that are formed in the reaction b.
decreasing the enthalpy change of the reaction c.
increasing the enthalpy change of the reaction d.
decreasing the activation energy of the reaction e.
increasing the activation energy of the reaction
____ 65. According to the Rate Law, the rate (r) for the reaction a.
[X] d.
must be proportional to e.
b.
[Y] c.
[products]

____ 66. The exponents determined for the overall rate law equation a.
must be the same as the coefficients of the reaction b.
can be multiplied together to determine the rate of the reaction c.
can be added together to determine the rate of the reaction d.
can be added together to determine the order of the reaction e.
are independent of each other
____ 67. Rates of reaction can be explained by a.
atomic theory d.
rate theory b.
collision theory c.
kinetic molecular theory e.
all of the above
____ 68. The activated complex a.
is an unstable molecule b.
has the maximum potential energy possible c.
may continue on to produce products d.
may revert to reactants e.
all of the above
____ 69. In a saturated solution of silver phosphate, the concentration of silver ion is 4.5 10 -4 mol/L. The Ksp a.
6.8 x 10 b.
1.4 x 10
-8
-14 c.
1.5 x 10 -15 of silver phosphate would be which of the following? d.
1.0 x 10 -11 e.
none of the above
____ 70. In a saturated solution of aluminum hydroxide, the concentration of aluminum ion is 2.4 10 -8 mol/L. a.
1.7 x 10 b.
4.2 x 10
-15
-23 c.
1.0 x 10 -30
The Ksp of aluminum hydroxide would be which of the following? d.
9.0 x 10 -30 e.
none of the above
____ 71. For the equilibrium system below, which of the following would result in a decrease in the quantity of
PCl
5
(g)?
PCl
3
(g) + Cl
2
(g) <=====> PCl
5
(g) + 45 kJ a.
increasing temperature b.
adding some Cl
2
(g) c.
decreasing temperature d.
e.
decreasing the size of the container injecting some He gas
____ 72. For the equilibrium system below, which of the following would result in an increase in the quantity of H
2
(g)?
H
2
(g) + I
2
(g) <=====> 2HI(g) + 65 kJ a.
removing some I
2
(g) b.
removing some HI(g) c.
decreasing temperature d.
e.
both b and c both a and b
____ 73. 1.6 mol of CH
3
OH(g) are injected into a 4.0 L container and the following equilibrium becomes established.
2H
2
(g) + CO(g) <=====> CH
3
OH(g) + 92 kJ
If at equilibrium 0.80 mol of CH
3
OH is still in the container the Ke must be which of the following? a.
0.78
d.
0.16
b.
25 c.
5.0
e.
6.25

____ 74. 4.5 mol of HI(g) are injected into a 5.0 L container and the following equilibrium was established.
H
2
(g) + I
2
(g) <=====> 2HI(g) + 65 kJ
If the Ke = 64 the concentration, in mol/L, of HI left in the container is which of the following? a.
0.72
d.
0.82
b.
0.09
c.
0.90
e.
0.041
____ 75. If a pH meter was placed in a 1.4 mol/L solution of nitric acid the reading would be which of the following? a.
1.4
b.
14.15
c.
–0.15
b.
3.4 c.
0.29
d.
e.
0.15
0.0
____ 76. The pH of a solution of HClO
4
was found to be 3.4. The concentration of this solution in mol/L is which of the following? a.
4.0 x 10 -4 d.
2.5 x 10 -11 e.
none of the above
____ 77. A concentrated weak acid is best described as which of the following? a.
a solution with a low pH b.
a solution where the concentration of undissociated acid particles is low compared to the concentration of hydronium ions c.
a solution where the concentration of hydronium ions is large compared to the concentration of undissociated acid particles d.
a solution with a high pH e.
a solution where the concentration of undissociated acid particles is high and the relative quantity of hydronium ions is small
____ 78. For phosphoric acid, H
3
PO
4
, the Ka
1
= a.
[PO
4
3][H 1+ ] 3 / [H
3
PO
4
] d.
[H
3
PO
4
] / [H
2
PO
4
1][H 1+ ] b.
[HPO
4
2][H 1+ ] / [H
3
PO
4
] e.
[H
3
PO
4
] / [PO
4
3][H 1+ ] 3 c.
[H
2
PO
4
1][H 1+ ] / [H
3
PO
4
]
____ 79. For cyanide ion (CN 1) the K b
= a.
[OH 1][HCN] / [CN 1] b.
[CN 1] / [OH 1c.
[OH 1-
][HCN]
][HCN 1] / [CN] d.
[C 4][N 3+ ] / [CN 1] e.
none of the above
+ + ____ 80. In the reaction + + a.
b.
Which of the following statements is correct?
is the reducing agent, and is the oxidizing agent
is the reducing agent, and is the oxidizing agent c.
is the reducing agent, and is the oxidizing agent d.
is the reducing agent, and is the oxidizing agent e.
is the reducing agent, and is the oxidizing agent

____ 81. Manganese (Mn) has an oxidation number of +6 in a.
d.
b.
c.
e.
____ 82. In which of the following compounds does nitrogen have the highest oxidation number? a.
d.
b.
e.
c.
____ 83. The oxidation number of in is a. +1 b. +2 c. +3 d. +4 e. 0
, is
-3 e. -1
____ 84. The oxidation number of nitrogen , , in the nitrite ion, a. +1 b. +2 c. +3 d.
____ 85. In the reaction + +
Which of the following statements is correct? a.
hydrogen is oxidized and is the oxidizing agent b.
hydrogen is oxidized and is the oxidizing agent c.
carbon is oxidized and is the oxidizing agent d.
manganese is oxidized and is the oxidizing agent e.
carbon is oxidized and is the oxidizing agent
____ 86. Given the following unbalanced redox equation:
+ +
+ + + + d.
e.
the coefficient of in the balanced equation with lowest whole-number coefficients is a.
2 b.
3 c.
4 d.
e.
5
6
____ 87. Which of the following equations does not represent an oxidation-reduction reaction? a.
+ + b.
c.
+
+
+
+ +
+
____ 88. Consider the following unbalanced redox reaction: +
The coefficients in the balanced equation are, from left to right a.
1, 1, 6, 1, 1, 3 d.
1, 6, 6, 1, 6, 3 b.
1, 2, 6, 1, 2, 3 c.
2, 3, 12, 2, 3, 6 e.
2, 1, 12, 2, 1, 6
+ + +

1 D
2 E
26 D
27 B
51 B
52 C
76 A
77 E
14 C
15 A
16 D
17 B
18 C
19 D
20 C
21 E
22 C
23 C
24 B
25 D
3 C
4 C
5 D
6 A
7 D
8 C
9 C
10 C
11 A
12 A
13 E
39 B
40 A
41 E
42 C
43 E
44 E
45 D
46 B
47 B
48 A
49 C
50 A
28 A
29 D
30 A
31 B
32 A
33 B
34 B
35 C
36 B
37 E
38 C
64 D
65 E
66 D
67 B
68 E
69 B
70 D
71 A
72 A
73 E
74 B
75 C
53 E
54 B
55 E
56 C
57 B
58 C
59 A
60 D
61 E
62 C
63 E
78 C
79 A
80 D
81 A
82 D
83 B
84 C
85 E
86 D
87 C
88 D