Choose among these bacteria obligate anaerobes.
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcacae
C. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
D. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
E. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini
ANSWER: E
Which of the following bacteria don’t contain cell wall?
A. Klebsiella
B. Ricketsia
C. Slaphylococcus
D. Treponema
E. Mycoplasma
ANSWER: E
Microorganisms capable of producing endospores include:
A. Escherichia species
B. Bacterium species
C. Leptospirae
D. Staphylococci
E. Clostridium species
ANSWER: E
Why tetanus is now a rare disease. Which factors below has been most important in preventing
it?
A. Vaccination of livestock, especially cattle, with a killed-organism vaccine
B. Antibiotic treatment of contacts of patients with C. tetani infections.
C. Eradication of the organism from the environment.
D. Sewage treatment and purification of water supplies.
E. Immunization of humans with a toxoid-containing vaccine.
ANSWER: E
Herpes simplex virus type 1 most commonly causes cold sores. The site of reactivation for this
virus is the
A. vagus nerve
B. B lymphocyte
C. epidermal cell
D. eighth cranial nerve
E. trigeminal nerve
ANSWER: E
Because the AIDS virus weakens the immune system:
A. people with AIDS are immune to all other diseases.
B. the AIDS virus is spread very easily.
C. the AIDS virus activates nonspecific resistance of organism
D. all answers are right
E. people with AIDS are more vulnerable to other diseases.
ANSWER: E
Which of the following arboviruses is/are not arthropod-borne?
A. JE virus
B. Yellow fever virus
C. Dengue virus
D. West Nile virus
E. Rubella
ANSWER: E
Which of the following arthropodes act/s as vector for Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. flea
B. fly
C. tick
D. lice
E. mosquito.
ANSWER: E
Which of the following act as hosts of Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. Water birds and man.
B. Pigs and man.
C. Cows and goats
D. Cats and dogs.
E. Water birds and pigs.
ANSWER: E
What is the shape of rabies virus?
A. Spherical
B. Polygonal
C. Tubular
D. Stick-like
E. Bullet-shaped.
ANSWER: E
Rabies can be acquired as a result of:
A. inhalation of aerosolized virus
B. a bite of a rabid animal
C. inoculation through mucous membranes
D. transplantation of infected tissue
E. all are correct
ANSWER: E
Negri bodies are found in cells infected with:
A. vaccinia virus
B. fowlpox virus.
C. paramyxoviruses.
D. measles virus
E. rabies virus.
ANSWER: E
An acute respiratory disease spread by the droplet aerosol route during winter is most compatible
with which of the following as an etiological agent?
A. Chicken pox
B. Mumps
C. Influenza C
D. Hepatitis B Virus
E. Influenza A
ANSWER: E
The vaccine for influenza has the following components:
A. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
B. Nucleoprotein and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
C. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B only
D. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B and C
E. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A and B
ANSWER: E
The following characterizes the genome of the orthomyxoviruses:
A. Nonsegmented RNA genome
B. Nonsegmented DNA genome
C. Segmented DNA genome
D. Supercoiled double stranded DNA genome
E. Segmented RNA genome
ANSWER: E
Influenza viruses are predominantly transmitted by:
A. The aerosol route during the summer
B. Close physical contact during the summer
C. The fecal-oral route during the winter
D. sexual route in winter
E. The aerosol route and close physical contact during the winter
ANSWER: E
By which protein the influenza virus can attach to mucous cells of the upper respiratory tract?
A. Neuraminidase
B. Matrix protein
C. Nucleoprotein
D. Fusion protein
E. Hemagglutinin
ANSWER: E
Which antiviral drug could be administered to other family members as a prophylactic measure if
an influenza infection has been diagnosed within a family?
A. Foscarnet
B. Ganciclovir
C. Cyclosporin A
D. Acyclovir
E. Amantadine
ANSWER: E
The syncytial-forming capability of the paramyxovirus is associated with:
A. thymidine kinase
B. polymerase
C. neuraminidase
D. hemagglutinin
E. fusion protein
ANSWER: E
An adenovirus contains:
A. a neuraminidase
B. fibrinolysisn
C. a double shelled capsid
D. an envelope
E. a DNA genome
ANSWER: E
For whom rubella infection causes long term dangerous complications?
A. Children who have received the interferon
B. Children who have received the attenuated vaccine
C. Children infected during the first grade (age 6-7 yrs)
D. Women of childbearing age
E. Children infected in the first trimester in utero
ANSWER: E
Choose in the listed the predominant route of transmission for Hepatitis B and C viruses.
A. fomites
B. contaminated food
C. fecal-oral
D. airborne
E. parenteral
ANSWER: E
Choose the true statement concerning the Sabin polio vaccine.
A. Induction of lifelong immunity is not possible.
B. Infectious progeny virus cannot be disseminated from the vaccinated individual.
C. It is administered parenterally.
D. It can be given to immunodeficient individuals without reservation.
E. The vaccine confers humoral and intestinal immunity.
ANSWER: E
Which herpesvirus among listed does cause Burkitt’s lymphoma?
A. VZV
B. polyovirus
C. HSV-2
D. HSV-1
E. EBV
ANSWER: E
The smallest known viruses are:
A. Adenovirus
B. Enterovirus
C. Orthomyxovirus
D. Paramyxovirus
E. Picornavirus
ANSWER: E
Viruses are
A. May divide by binary fission
B. Have their own metabolism
C. May contain plasmides
D. May have a peptidoglycan
E. Obligate intracellular parasites
ANSWER: E
Human body louse is responsible for transmission of which of the following diseases?
A. Murine typhus
B. Rickettsialpox.
C. Q fever.
D. Typhi fever
E. Epidemic typhus.
ANSWER: E
Which of the following bacteria can grow in alkaline pH?
A. Lactobacilli.
B. Salmonella.
C. Shigella.
D. Neisseria
E. Vibrio cholerae.
ANSWER: E
The causative agent/s of gas gangrene is/are:
A. Clostridium perfringens.
B. C. novyi.
C. С. septicum.
D. C. histolyticum
E. all answers are correct.
ANSWER: E
Which of the following properties is/are characteristic of tetanospasmin?
A. It is a heat-labile protein.
B. It is a neurotoxin.
C. It can be toxoided.
D. It is exotoxin
E. all answers are correct.
ANSWER: E
Which of the following bacteria most frequently cause tuberculosis in human?
A. M. bovis.
B. M. africanum.
C. M. kansasii
D. All answer are correct.
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
ANSWER: E
Which of the following bacteria is positive for fermentation of lactose?
A. S. Flexneri.
B. S. boydii.
C. S. sonnei.
D. Shigella dysenteriae.
E. E.coli
ANSWER: E
Which of the following specimens is/are most appropriate for culture of bacteria in first week of
enteric fever?
A. Urine.
B. Faeces.
C. CSF.
D. Bile
E. Blood.
ANSWER: E
Ascoly's thermoprecipitin test helps in confirming the laboratory diagnosis of:
A. tetanus.
B. typhoid.
C. cholera.
D. pertussis
E. anthrax.
ANSWER: E
A hard chancre is characteristic of:
A. secondary syphilis.
B. latent syphilis.
C. tertiary syphilis.
D. complication of syphilis
E. primary syphilis.
ANSWER: E
Which microbes can cause pus-inflamation process?
A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Neisseria
E. all are correct
ANSWER: E
Many clostridial diseases require a/an ______ conditions for their development.
A. aerobic
B. living tissue
C. low-pH
D. alkaline pH
E. anaerobic
ANSWER: E
Tuberculosis is spread by
A. contaminated fomites
B. food
C. vectors
D. urine
E. respiratory droplets
ANSWER: E
Which infectious agent cause pseudomembranous collitis?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Clostridium difficile
ANSWER: E
Which infection(s) would be categorized as a zoonosis?
A. gas gangrene
B. diphtheria
C. cholera
D. epidemic relapsing fever
E. anthrax
ANSWER: E
The classic symptom of pertussis is
A. labored breathing
B. convulsions
C. headache
D. redish of skin
E. paroxysmal coughing
ANSWER: E
Which of the following bacterium is causative agent of dysenteriae?
A. E. coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Proteus
D. Vibrio
E. Shigella
ANSWER: E
Shigella is transmitted by
A. flies
B. infected dust
C. air dropled
D. louse
E. infected food and water
ANSWER: E
The treatment of choice for syphilis is:
A. antiserum
B. aurum drug
C. sulfa drugs
D. tetracycline
E. penicillin
ANSWER: E
Epidemic Relapsing fever is spread by
A. ticks
B. flea
C. mosquites
D. animal urine
E. lice
ANSWER: E
Endemic Relapsing fever is spread by
A. lice
B. flea
C. mosquites
D. animal urine
E. ticks
ANSWER: E
Rickettsias and chlamydias are similar in being
A. carried by arthropod vectors
B. free of a cell wall
C. produce exotoxin
D. the cause of eye infections
E. obligate intracellular bacteria
ANSWER: E
Which of the following is/are an arthropod vector of rickettsioses?
A. flea
B. louse
C. tick
D. mosquito
E. all are correct
ANSWER: E
A mother is worried that the child may have contracted Lyme disease. Which finding would
most strongly suggest that she is correct?
A. A disseminated rash, with small papular erythematous lesions.
B. An ulcer and edema at the site of the tick bite.
C. A lesion at the site of the tick bite that develops a thick, black, crusted, scab.
D. A sparse red macular rash, on the palms and soles only.
E. A “bull’s-eye” lesion with erythematous periphery and central clearing.
ANSWER: E
An infant is admited to the emergency room with diplopia, aphonia, poor muscle tone.
A. Antibiotic-associated colitis.
B. Diphtheria.
C. Anthrax.
D. Tetanus.
E. Botulism.
ANSWER: E
Chancroid is caused by
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Treponema pertenua
C. Clostridium sp.
D. Mycoplasma
E. Hemophilus ducreyi
ANSWER: E
The symptom of secondary syphilis is
A. neurological problems
B. giant lesions affecting many internal organs
C. a hard-based, painless chancre
D. Meningitis
E. a rash covering all parts of the body
ANSWER: E
Which of the following statements about gonorrhea is true?
A. Men are frequently asymptomatic carriers.
B. Bacteremia is common.
C. Serologic diagnosis is more reliable than culture.
D. Penicillins are no longer recommended for treatment.
E. Gonococci are within leucocytes in a sample
ANSWER: E
Which of the following descriptions best fits a typical strain of Escherichia coli?
A. motile, aerogenic, non-lactose fermenting, H2S positive
B. non-motile, aerogenic, gram-positive
C. motile, anaerogenic, non-lactose fermenting, indole positive
D. motile, anaerogenic, lactose fermenting, sporulated
E. motile, aerogenic, lactose fermenting, indole positive
ANSWER: E
Which disease does Borellia burgdorferi cause?
A. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
B. Hanta
C. Rabies
D. Relapsing fever
E. Lyme Disease
ANSWER: E
How is leptospirosis, caused by Leptospira interrogans, transmitted?
A. Tick bite
B. Undercooked meat
C. Inhaled aerosol
D. louse feces
E. Contaminated urine in food or water
ANSWER: E
What is the cause of food toxic poisoning?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. chlamidia psittaci
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Clostridium tetani
E. Clostridium botulinum
ANSWER: E
Which of the following members of the Vibrio family cause severe dehydration?
A. Vibrio vulnificus
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticum
C. Vibrio alginolyticus
D. none of the listed
E. Virbrio cholera
ANSWER: E
Detection of which agglutinins is the most important to determine the Salmonella serotype in
Widal test?
A. H.
B. Fimbrial.
C. M.
D. Vi
E. O.
ANSWER: E
Bipolar staining is characteristic of:
A. Proteus mirabilis.
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Bacillus anthracis
E. Yersinia pestis.
ANSWER: E
Medusa head” appearance of the colonies is characteristic of:
A. Proteus mirabilis.
B. Clostridium tetani.
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D. Clostridium botulini
E. Bacillus anthracis.
ANSWER: E
Typical drumstick appearance of bacilli is observed in:
A. Clostridium perfringens.
B. C. diphtheriae
C. C. histolyticum.
D. C. difficilae
E. С. tetani
ANSWER: E
In enteric fever, Salmonella may be isolated from:
A. urine.
B. faeces.
C. blood.
D. bile
E. all are correct.
ANSWER: E
Which of the following Brucella spp. is most pathogenic for man?
A. B. abortus
B. B. suis.
C. B. canis.
D. B. ovis
E. B. melitensis.
ANSWER: E
The main carrier site on the human body for strains of potentially pathogenic Neisseria
meningitidis is the
A. nasal membranes
B. oral cavity
C. gastrointestinal tract
D. vagina
E. throat (posterior nasopharynx
ANSWER: E
What is the colonization site of Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the agent of diphtheria?
A. skin
B. urethra
C. eye
D. none of the above
E. throat
ANSWER: E
Passive immunity to tetanus in a susceptible host would be accomplished by
A. recovery from the disease tetanus
B. injection with tetanus toxin
C. injection with tetanus toxoid (as in the DPT vaccine
D. toxoid administration
E. administration of donor’s antitetanus immunoglobulin
ANSWER: E
In Europe human Tetanus is now a rare disease. Which measure below has been most important
in preventing it?
A. Vaccination of livestock, especially cattle, with a killed-organism vaccine
B. Eradication of the organism from the environment.
C. Sewage treatment and purification of water supplies.
D. Antibiotic treatment of contacts of patients with C. tetani infections.
E. Immunization of humans with a toxoid-containing vaccine.
ANSWER: E
Gram stain of CSF sediment from a patient with meningitis contains Gram-negative cocci, many
in pairs. Which organism below is most probable?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Escherichia coli
E. Neisseria meningitidis
ANSWER: E
A patient has a large carbuncles you suspect is caused by Bacillus anthracis. In this case, which
of the following would you expect to see in a Gram-stained smear of pus from the
carbuncles?
A. Slender spirochetes.
B. Small Gram-positive cocci, in pairs.
C. Gram-negative rods of variable length.
D. Gram-negative coccobacilli.
E. Large Gram-positive rods.
ANSWER: E
Morphology of Treponema pallidum is:
A. Mold
B. Vibrio
C. Rod
D. Yeast
E. Spiral-shaped
ANSWER: E
Therapy of Candida albicans is:
A. Antitoxin
B. Cefotetan
C. Ketoconazole
D. Penicillin
E. Nystatin
ANSWER: E
Morphology of Pneumococcus is:
A. Rod
B. Cocci in chains
C. Cyst
D. Spiral-shaped
E. Diplococci
ANSWER: E
BCG vaccine is used to prevent:
A. diphtheria
B. botulism
C. brucelosis
D. Q fever
E. tuberculosis
ANSWER: E
For serologic diagnosis of poliomyelitis neutralization test in cell culture is used. Show the
positive result of this test when we use paired patient’s sera?
A. Increase of antibodies titer in 2 times
B. Increase of antibodies titer in 4 times
C. Decrease of antibodies titer in 2 times
D. Decrease of antibodies titer in 4 times
E. No correct answer
ANSWER: B
Genom of influenza virus A consists of:
A. 2 segments
B. 4 segments
C. 6 segments
D. 8 segments
E. 10 segments
ANSWER: D
The vaccine for measles is best characterized as a
A. Bacterin
B. Killed virus vaccine
C. Inactivated virus vaccine
D. Live virus vaccine
E. Recombinant viral vaccine
ANSWER: D
Concerning what subpopulation of lymphocytes does HIV have a tropism?
A. Т-helpers
B. T-suppressors
C. T-killers
D. B-lymphocytes
E. NK-cells
ANSWER: A
A examination of air bacterial contamination includes an account the total number
microorganisms in a certain amount and qualitative composition of microflora. What
microorganisms are sanitary-indicated for indoor air?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Yeast fungi
E. mold fungi
ANSWER: A
A large numbers of medicina plant with mosaic leaf colorin have been found on plantations.
What is microorganism cause such damage of plants?
A. phytopathogenic viruses
B. phytopathogenic bacteria
C. is highly toxic substances
D. microscopic tisks
E. nematodes
ANSWER: A
Bacteriological control of non-sterile drugs involves the possible presence of a small number of
groups of microorganisms. What of following microbes is possible presence in non-sterile
drugs?
A. sarcina
B. E.coli
C. Ps. aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. hemolytic streptococcus
ANSWER: A
During a sanitary-microbiological research of pharmacy air sanitary-indicative microorganisms
were found . Name these microorganisms:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. coli
C. fecal enterococci
D. Salmonella
E. Citrobacter
ANSWER: A
During the bacteriological examination for check of bacterial carier amoung pharmacy workers
bacteria of the genus Staphylococcus were isolated from nasopharynx. What
morphological characteristic of this microbes?
A. grape like cluster
B. cells arranged in chain
C. cells arranged singles
D. location of cell pairs
E. group of four
ANSWER: A
For air sampling in a pharmacy, a bacteriologist used Krotov’s apparatus. What of the following
methods is used for investigation of the air?
A. aspiratoin
B. membrane filters
C. Termoprecipitation
D. Sedimentation
E. vacuum
ANSWER: A
For microbacteriological control of herbal raw materials was ranked at various differentialdiagnostic media. What are the microorganisms that cause plant diseases can not be
defined in such research?
A. Viruses
B. Bacteria
C. Mycoplasma
D. Fungi
E. actinomycetes
ANSWER: A
For sterilization of laboratory glassware in chemist shop __________ use:
A. heat dry
B. bacterial filters
C. Koch apparatus
D. disinfectants
E. bactericidal lamps
ANSWER: A
In a pharmacy drugs are sterilized mechanically. What was used for this method of sterilization?
A. Zeits’ filter
B. sterilizer
C. Autoclave
D. Dry heat
E. Water Bath
ANSWER: A
In the pharmacy made bottles with glucose solution for injection. What method should be used to
sterilize them?
A. in autoclave by fluid steam
B. in an autoclave under 2 atmosphere pressure
C. dry heat
D. X-ray irradiation
E. UV
ANSWER: A
Phytopathogenic bacteria cause diseases of plants, leading to deterioration of medical plants.
Name the main location in the environment phytopathogenic microbes?
A. Soil
B. Water
C. air
D. Animals
E. Insects
ANSWER: A
Plant material should be examined for the presence yeast. What meduim should be used for
cultivation of these microorganisms, but inhibit growth of concomitant microflora?
A. Saburo agar
B. Endo agar
C. meat pepton agar
D. Milk-salt agar
E. blood agar
ANSWER: A
The medicinal product for intenal using contains more than 1 billion living microbial cells in 1
ml. Nevertheless, the drug was found suitable for use. Which group of drugs its true for?
A. eubiotics
B. antibiotics
C. vitamins
D. sulfonamide
E. immunoglobulin
ANSWER: A
The pharmaceutical company received raw plants for the manufacture of medications. What
microbacteriological tests should be used for the quality of this raw material?
A. The total number of microorganisms in 1 g of raw
B. Coli -titre
C. Coli -index
D. antibacterial activity
E. Pyrogenecity
ANSWER: A
The pharmacy prescription ear drops prepared. What is the maximum number microbial cells is
allowed in 1 ml of drops in accordance with WHO and Pharmacopoeya?
A. No more than 100
B. 50 or
C. Not more than 1000
D. Less than 500
E. Not more than 150
ANSWER: A
The phytopathogenic microorganisms was selected from medicinal plants, forming colonies as
"fried eggs" on a nutrient medium. What are microbes?
A. Mycoplasma
B. yeast
C. Actinomycetes
D. Nokardia
E. Pseudomonas
ANSWER: A
The most commonly encountered bacteria are roughly spherical. The microbiological term
describing this shape is
A. coccus
B. bacillus
C. pleomorphic
D. vibrio
E.
spirochete
ANSWER: A
Quality of medicines includes some indicators. One of them is bacteriological purity. Which of
following drugs which contain more saprophytic bacteria compared to other forms of?
A. extract
B. Aerosols
C. suppository
D. Eye drops
E. solutions for injection
ANSWER: A
Results of microbacteriological examinations of black mint leaves extract is bad according to the
requirements of Pharmacopoeia because pathogenic microflora identified. Indicate this
pathogenic microflora:
A. Ps.aeruginosa
B. yeast
C. epidermal staphylococcus
D. mold fungi
E. micrococcus
ANSWER: A
Solutions made in the pharmacy inoculated on medium to detect of microbial contamination. On
Endo medium red colonies with metallic blisten grew . What it can be microbes?
A. Escherihia
B. Shigella
C. Staphylococcus
D. streptococci
E. Salmonella
ANSWER: A
Tablet medication after bacteriological examination was found unsuitable for use, although its
overall microbial contamination does not exceed the norm. Detecting of what microorganisms in
the sample allowed to make such a conclusion?
A. Enterobacteriaceae
B. mold
C. Actinomycetes
D. micrococcus
E. Sarcina
ANSWER: A
The child is six months doctor has ordered drug for oral administration. What is the maximum
number of bacteria and fungi is acceptable 1g of the drug according the requirements of WHO
and the Pharmacopoeya?
A. Not more than 50 total bacteria and fungi
B. is not more than 500 bacteria and fungi summarily
C. Not more than 1000 bacteria and fungi total
D. Not more than 1000 bacteria and 100 fungi
E. Not more than 500 bacteria and fungi
ANSWER: A