Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
1) The cell line committed to developing into a myeloblast is
2) Cells committed to differentiate as granulocytes are dependent on
__(A)__ and __(B)__ to differentiate further.
3) Arrange the cells in granulocytic series into the correct order of
maturation.
A) Promyelocyte
B) Myeloblast
C) Metamyelocyte
D) Myelocyte
E) Band neutrophil
F) Segmented polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN)
4) What is the length of time that myeloblasts reside in the bone
marrow?
5) What is the length of time that promyelocytes reside in the bone
marrow?
6) What is the length of time myelocytes spend maturing in the bone
marrow?
7) The predominant cell type found in the maturation storage
compartment is
CFU-GM
a. Colony-stimulating
factor (CSF)
b. Interleukins
B, A, D, C, E, F
15 hours
24 hours
4.3 hours
Segmented
polymorphonuclear
neutrophil (PMN)
7) 7–10 days
8) 2.5 days
9) 12 hours
10) No large reserve
The marrow reserve contains mature cells with variable life spans.
Match the cell type with the expected length of time in the marrow
reserve.
8) Polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs)
9) Eosinophils
10) Basophils
11) Monocytes
12) Match the proportion of cells to the concentration in the bone marrow.
Myeloblast
1%
Myelocyte
3%
Promyelocyte
12%
13) Match the relative proportion of leukocytes with the cell type.
Metamyelocytes
45%
Band neutrophils
35%
PMNs
20%
14) Once mature granulocytes migrate to the tissues, their life span is
Several days
considered to be
15) Eosinophilic granules differ from neutrophilic granules because
Lack lysozyme
they
16) Monocytes have an estimated half-life in the circulating blood of
8.5 hours
17) Eosinophils have a well-documented daily fluctuation; the quantity At night (when
of circulating eosinophils tends to be highest ____.
sleeping)
18) The total leukocyte count is highest and is at a peak at ____.
Early morning
In women, the number of circulating eosinophils __(18)__ at the
18. Drop
time of ovulation and __(19)__ at the time of menstruation.
19. Rise
1
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
20) The most frequent cause of a nonmalignant increase in total WBC
count is an increase in ____.
21) Eosinophilia is associated with
22) Neutropenia can result from ____
23) Basophilia can be observed in
24) Significant eosinophilia (20%–70%) can be seen in
25) Monocytosis can be associated with
26) Monocytopenia can be associated with
27) Döhle bodies may be seen in patients with ___.
28) Toxic granulation may
A) Represent metabolic toxicity in cells
B) Represent precipitation of ribosomal protein (RNA)
C) Be most frequently associated with infectious states
D) All of the above
29) In May-Hegglin anomaly, patients may demonstrate
30) Patients with Chediak-Higashi syndrome
31) Alder-Reilly inclusions are most commonly seen in patients with
32) True or false? H. capsulatum is a fungus.
33) True or false? H. capsulatum can be recovered from body fluids,
e.g., CSF.
34) True or false? H. capsulatum can be observed in phagocytic cells
35) Ehrlichia characteristics include
36) Patients with type I diabetes exhibit a defect in
37) CGD patients demonstrate a defect in
38) The absence of the enzyme myeloperoxidase is not manifested in
39) Qualitative disorders of monocytes-macrophages are manifested as
____ storage diseases.
40) Gaucher disease represents
41) Niemann-Pick disease is an abnormality of ____ metabolism.
42) Transient neutropenia can be caused by
43) True or false? Neutrophils are functionally defective in PelgerHuet anomaly.
44) Pseudohypersegmentation can be seen in
45) Eosinophilia is not a characteristic of a(n) ____ infection.
Neutrophils
Active allergies (hay
fever)
Entrapment of PMNs in
the spleen
Chronic sinusitis
Hookworm
Infections, e.g.,
tuberculosis
No known conditions
Burns and Viral
infections
D
Abnormal bleeding
tendencies
Demonstrate delayed
killing of ingested
bacteria by PMNS
Hurler syndrome
True
True
True
A Gram-negative
bacteria
Cellular response to
chemotaxis
Microbicidal activity
Eosinophils
Lipid
A deficiency of βglucocerebrosidase
Lipid
Viral infection
False
Old segmented
neutrophils
Protozoan
2
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
46) Myelokathexis is ____.
47) Grading of toxic granulation is dependent on the __ (1)__ and the
__(2)__ of granulation within the cellular cytoplasm.
48) A characteristic of lazy leukocyte syndrome is defective ____.
49) Lymphocyte life span disorder involving dysregulation of the
apoptotic pathway include
50) The lymphocyte pool is of crucial importance to
51) Antigen-specific T lymphocytes expand in a primary immune
response but ____ % survive in the memory pool.
52) After the peak of an immune response and the immune response
diminishes, it has been observed that ____.
53) Homeostatic proliferation refers to ____.
54) At any one time, approximately ____% of the total body
lymphocytes mass is present in the circulating blood.
55) The blood lymphocyte pool in adults is distributed with
approximately ____% of T lymphocytes.
56) The blood lymphocyte pool in adults is distributed with
approximately ____ % B lymphocytes.
57) The dominant type of leukocyte in a baby who is a few days old is
58) What is the correct definition of the term “absolute number of
lymphocytes?”
59) What is the correct definition of the term “relative number of
lymphocytes?”
60) What is the correct description for the lymphoblast stage of
development?
61) What is the correct description for the prolymphocyte stage of
development?
The ability to release
mature granulocytes
into the blood
1. Coarseness
2. Amount
Locomotion
Chronic lymphocytic
leukemia and
Autoimmune
lymphoproliferative
syndrome
Adaptive immunity
Less than 10
Antigen-presenting
cells decrease
Control of T
lymphocytes in
secondary lymphoid
organs and circulating
blood
5
80
20
Lymphocytes
Total number of
lymphocytes compared
with the total number of
leukocytes
Percentage of
lymphocytes in
relationship to the total
population of
leukocytes
Nucleoli may be
present; delicate
chromatin pattern.
Slightly condensed
cytoplasm chromatin
pattern; small amount
of medium blue color
cytoplasm with a thin,
darker blue rim
3
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
62) What is the correct description for the mature lymphocyte stage of
development?
63) The average lymphocyte values in peripheral blood are __(1)__%
at birth, __(2)__% at six months of age, and approximately
__(3)__% after the age of ten years.
64) Small, sensitized and committed lymphocytes are called
65) A smudge cell is produced because the cell is
66) A major category of functionally active lymphocytes is
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) NK lymphocytes
D) All of the above
67) True or false? Sensitized T lymphocytes protect humans against
viral infection.
68) True or false? T lymphocytes are responsible for chronic rejection
in organ transplantation.
69) True or false? B lymphocytes reorganize foreign antigens.
70) Monoclonal antibodies are produced by fusing __(Choice X)__
and __(Choice Y)__.
71) Match the antigen designation with the appropriate distribution
cluster.
1. CD4
2. CD10 (CALLA)
3. CD19
72) The cell membrane marker ____ is lost during early maturation of
T and B cells.
73) B cells are recognized by the cell surface (CD) molecules such as
A) CD19
B) CD20
C) CD22
D) All of the above
Dense, clumpedappearing chromatin;
light sky blue
cytoplasm, very scanty
1. 31
2. 61
3. 38
Memory cells
Old and fragile
D
True
True
False
X = A plasma cell
derived from a
malignant tumor
Y = A lymphocyte
activated by a specific
antigen
1. 35%–55% mature T
cells
2. 90% all common
ALLs
3. 5%–15% B cells
TDT
D
74) Calculate the absolute lymphocytes count using the following data: 11.36 × 109/L
Total leukocyte count = 16.0 × 109/L; relative number of
lymphocytes = 71%
4
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
75) What is the most common nonmalignant cause of lymphocytosis in
adolescence and adulthood?
76) Which particular leukocyte is affected in patients with infectious
mononucleosis?
77) During what stage of life do most people seroconvert after
exposure to Epstein-Barr virus?
78) The symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include all of the
following except
A) Extreme fatigue
B) Malaise
C) Trunk rash
D) Fever
79) In addition to hematological studies to determine an infection with
Epstein-Barr virus, what other definitive test can be performed?
80) The most common modes of transmission for cytomegalovirus
(CMV) include all of the following except
A) Close contact with infected secretions
B) Blood transfusions
C) Intact skin contact
D) Intimate sexual contact
Acute viral infection
81) When examining a peripheral blood smear of a patient suspected
of having a cytomegalovirus infection, what would be observed?
A slight lymphocytosis
with more than 20%
variant lymphocytes
IgM; IgG
82) The definitive diagnosis of cytomegalovirus infection is the
presence of CMV-specific ____ or increasing CMV-specific
_____.
83) Human infection with toxoplasmosis is prevalent because of the
definitive host. What is the host?
84) The clinical manifestations of an infection with toxoplasmosis
include all of the following except
A) Chills
B) Fever
C) Fatigue
D) Diarrhea
85) Infectious lymphocytosis is most common in what population?
86) A peripheral blood smear from a 6-year-old boy with a leukocyte
count of 49 x 109/L shows an increase in small, mature normallooking lymphocytes; an increase in eosinophils; and no
lymphoblasts. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
87) A child presents to the physician with a sputum producing cough
with pain over the trachea. The complete blood count indicates an
increased leukocyte count with a high absolute lymphocyte count.
On peripheral smear, small mature lymphocytes are seen. What is
this child’s condition?
B lymphocytes
Late adolescent
C
Epstein-Barr virus
(EBV) antibody testing
C
Cat
D
Children
Infectious
lymphocytosis
Bordetella pertussis
infection
5
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
88) All of the following conditions may cause lymphocytopenia,
except
A) Decreased production
B) Increased destruction
C) Blood donation
D) Cytotoxic drugs
89) Patients with diagnosed DiGeorge syndrome show a decrease in
which cell population?
90) The original designation for the human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV) was HTLV. What was the predominant cell line responsible
for the naming at the time of discovery?
91) Besides T lymphocytes, CD4 antigen is expressed on all of the
following except
A) Macrophages/monocytes
B) B lymphocytes
C) Granulocytes
D) Lymph nodes
92) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can remain dormant in
________until the late stage infection/disease manifestation?
93) What opportunistic infection is considered the hallmark of later
phase HIV infection?
94) Which subset of lymphocytes is decreased in a patient with HIV
infection?
95) What is the ratio of CD4+ to CD8+ cells in a non–HIV-infected
individual?
96) The progressive decline in CD4+ cells leads to what overall
condition for the patient?
97) When performing confirmatory testing for HIV infection, which
glycoprotein is detected consistently during the infection stages?
98) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is more common in females
than in males by what ratio?
99) Clinical symptoms for SLE include all of the following, except
A) Arthralgia
B) Arthritis
C) Erythematosus rash over the bridge of the nose
D) Trunk rash
100) What is the most common screening test for SLE?
101) High titers of __________ are seen in patients with SLE?
102) The presence of ANA titer of greater than _______ is
considered substantial in indicating an immune response.
103) Which lymphocyte subset is disturbed in patients with SLE?
104)
The difference between leukemia and lymphoma is
C
Total T lymphocytes
Lymphocytes
C
T lymphocytes
Pneumocystis carinii
pneumonia
T lymphocytes; CD4+
subset
2:1
Decrease in immune
function
Glycoprotein 41
8:1
D
Antinuclear antibodies
(ANA) test
Double-stranded DNA
1:32
T lymphocytes; helper
cells
Myeloma is tumor in
bone marrow
6
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
105) Chronic leukemias have ____ prognosis of survival than acute
leukemias.
Several months to
several years (treated)
106) Myelomas differ from both leukemias and lymphomas because
they involve the overproduction of __(1)__ with concurrent
production of __(2)__
107) The type of cell that is diagnostic of Hodgkin-type lymphoma
is
108) In lymphomas, malignant cells are confined to
1. Plasma cells
2. Antibodies
Reed-Sternberg
Organs with
mononuclear
phagocytes e.g., liver
109) The French-American-British classification separates ____ into D
one of the broad leukocyte groups.
A) Myelogenous
B) Monocytic
C) Lymphocytic
D) All of the above
110) The newest WHO lineage classification includes
Histiocytic/dendritic
111) Using the WHO 2008 classification, mature myeloid
Genetic features
neoplasms are stratified according to
112) The newest leukemia/lymphoma treatment is
Molecule level drugs
113) A predisposing factor for Fanconi anemia is
Genetic
114) Describe each genetic term.
1.Most common type of
1. Translocation
DNA change
2. Deletion
2. Part of a
3. Inversion
chromosome is lost
3.Part of a chromosome
is reversed
115) Protooncogenes
Are antecedents of
oncogenes
116) Oncogenes are
D
A) Central regulators of growth in normal cells
B) Genetic targets of carcinogens
C) Altered versions of normal genes
D) Both B and C
117) Tumor-suppressing genes
D
A) Are called antioncogenes
B) Appear to regulate the proliferation of cell growth in normal cells
C) Stimulate mitosis
D) Both A and B
118) Chemical exposure is more strongly linked to an increased risk 1. Acute myelogenous
of __(1)__ leukemia than __(2)__ leukemia.
2. Acute lymhoblastic
119) The most common genetic translocation in adults with chronic t(9;22)
myelogenous leukemia (CML) is
120) A ubiquitous virus associated with leukemia/lymphoma is
HBV
121) Secondary leukemia can emerge from
Platinum-based therapy
7
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
122) Leukemia, lymphomas, and multiple myeloma represent about
____% of cancer deaths in the United States.
123) The total annual number of newly diagnosed patients with
lymphoma in the United States is ____ compared to the total
number of patients with leukemia.
124) Among lymphoma patients, the prognosis is ____ for those
with non-Hodgkin’s compared to those with Hodgkin’s.
125) Among leukemia patients, the most programs are for those
with ____ leukemia.
126) Seventy five percent of leukemia in children (ages 0–14 years)
is diagnosed as
127) Of patients diagnosed with ALL, about ____ will be adults.
128) Persons older than 60 years of age are most likely to develop
____ leukemia.
129) The most dramatic adult gender difference is seen in ____
leukemia.
130) Nearly 70% of adult patients with acute leukemia die from
131) The median survival time of an untreated patient with AML is
132) The percent of children with AML achieving at least one
remission is __(1)__ compared to __(2)__ of adults achieving at
least one remission.
133) More than ____% of adults with AML can be expected to
survive 1 or more years, if treated early.
134) In AML prognosis, the laboratory factors that predict the
poorest prognosis are the presence of __(1)__ and __(2)__.
135) The World Health Organization (WHO) classification is based
on
A) Morphology and cytochemistry
B) Immunophenotype and genetics
C) Clinical features
D) All the above
136) In AML characterized by recurrent chromosome translocation,
such as ____, patients generally have a favorable prognosis.
137) AML is the ____ leukemia subtype.
138) The clonal disorder in AML is characterized by ____ in
hematopoietic progenitor cells.
A) Maturation block
B) Accumulation of acquired somatic genetic alternations
C) Accelerated WBC maturation
D) Both A and B
10
Greater
Poorer
Acute myeloid
Acute lymphoblastic
33%
Chronic lymphoblastic
Chronic lymphoblastic
Infection
3 months
1. 90%
2. 60%–70%
90
1. CO34
2. P-glycoprotein and
Internal tandem
duplication of FLT-3
D) All the above
t(5;17)
Most common
D)
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Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
139) In AML, alternations in normal mechanisms result in a clonal
disorder of
A) Self-removal
B) Proliferation
C) Differentiation
D) All of the above
140) In AML, alternations in normal mechanisms result in a clonal
disorder of
A) Self-removal
B) Proliferation
C) Differentiation
D) All of the above
141) The common feature(s) of myeloid neoplasm is(are)
142) Two major subgroups of AML have emerged when genetic
classification is considered. One of the groups is
143) The other subgroup is
144)
Micro-RNAs can ____.
145)
AML is always characterized by ____.
146) Match cell surface antigens with the cell lineage or
classification.
1. Myeloid lineage
2. T-cell lineage
3. B-cell lineage
4. Megakaryoblastic
147) The most common cancer in children younger than 15 years of
age is __(1)__ and represents __(2)__% of cancer diagnoses of the
age.
148) The peak ages for the epidemiology of AML in children and/or
adults are __(1)__ and __(2)__ respectively.
149) A cell surface marker of importance in ALL is
150) ____ is associated with inferior survival in adults with ALL.
151) Approximately ____% of adult ALL patients demonstrate Ph
chromosome.
152) ____ distinguishes MLL from classic ALL.
153) Clonal chromosomal abnormalities are found in ____ of those
diagnosed with AML or ALL.
154) A cell surface marker of importance in monitoring bone
marrow success is
155) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is classified as a ____
neoplasm by the World Health Organization (WHO).
D)
D) All of the above
Abnormal stem cell
fills marrow with
abnormal
hematopoiesis
FTL3 gene
Core-binding factor
(CBF) complex
Inhibit translation of
proteins
Increase in number of
immature WBCs
1. CD13/CD15
2. CD5/CD7
3. CD19/CD20
4. CD41/CD7
1. ALL
2. 23
1. 3–5 years
2. Greater than 65 years
TdT
CD20
25
D)
Two thirds
CD34
B-cell
9
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
156)
Malignant lymphoproliferative disorders are characterized by
Accumulation of
lymphocytes
157) The median age of onset of CLL is ____ years.
65
158) CLL is more prevalent in __(4)__ than in __(5)__.
1. Males
2. Females
159) Most CLL lymphocytes are __(1)__ and in the late phase(s) of
1. Nondividing
the ___(2)____cell cycle.
2. G0/G1
160) CLL cells are characterized by cell surface antigens ____.
CD19+
161) Increasing CLL cells in the peripheral blood result from ____. Decreased apoptosis
162) The BCL2 gene is over expressed in __(1)__ percent to
1. 65
__(2)__ percent of B-cell CLLS.
2. 70
163) The most consistent chromosomal abnormality in CLL is ____. Trisomy of
chromosome 7
164) Molecules genetic detection of genomic arrangements is useful D
in many ways including
A) Detection of minimal residual diseases
B) Diagnosis
C) Prognosis
D) All the above
165) Patients with CLL cells expressing a biologically significant
A benign course of
number of IgVH mutations more frequently have ____.
disease
166) CD 38+ B-CLL patients are characterized by
D
A) More advance disease stage
B) Poorer response to chemotherapy
C) Shorter survival times
D) All the above
167) MicroRNAs are
Major direct negative
regulators of BCL2
168) MicroRNAs can create an alteration in CLL such as
D
A) Invasion of apoptosis
B) Self-sufficiency in growth
C) Stimulation of angiogenesis
D) All of the above
169) Nondiffuse pattern of bone marrow infiltration on biopsy.
Low risk
170) Less than 30% CD38 expression.
Low risk
171) Unmutated IgVH gene.
High risk
172) β2-Microglobulin increase.
High risk
173) In CLL, high disease activity is defined as
Lymphocyte doubling
time less than 6 months
174) The newest treatment for CLL is
D
A) Anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody
B) Anti-CD25 monoclonal antibody
C) Alkylating agents
D) Both A and B
175) What is the most common treatment for patients who relapse
Anti-CD25 monoclonal
with CLL?
antibody
10
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
176) Hairy cell leukemia is more common in __(1)__ than in
__(2)__.
177) Hairy cell leukemia (HCL) is so named because ____.
178) vHCL is ____ aggressive compared to HCL.
179) The prognosis for patients with multiple myeloma is usually
180) The antibody in the serum of patients with Multiple Myeloma
(MM) is
181) What mutation was discovered and is now useful in the
classification of MPU?
182-186: Indicate if the characteristic is associated with MPW.
182) Cytogenetic abnormality
183) Hypocellular bone marrow
184) Thrombotic or hemorrhagic bleeding
185) Extramedullary hematopoiesis
186) Transformation to acute leukemia
187) MPNs include all of the following except
A) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C) Polycythemia rubra vera
D) Primary myelofibrosis
188) Peripheral blood characteristics of ____ has
RBC × 1012/L decreasing
WBC × 109/L increasing significantly
Platelets × 109/L moderately increasing
189) Peripheral blood characteristics of ____ has
RBC ×1012/L decreasing
WBC× 109/L variable
Platelets× 109/L variable
190) Peripheral blood characteristics of ____ has
RBC × 1012/L increasing significantly
WBC × 109/L increasing
Platelets × 109/L moderately increasing
191) Peripheral blood characteristics of ____ has
RBC × 1012/L normal
WBC × 109/L normal
Platelets × 109/L increasing significantly
192) The ABL gene product is
193) True or false? The fusion protein BCR-ABL produces
abnormal cell cycling.
194) True or false? The fusion protein BCR-ABL produces
inhibition of apoptosis.
195) True or false? The fusion protein BCR-ABL produces
accelerated mature cell lysis.
1. Males
2. Females
The cytoplasmic
membrane has a
“hairy” appearance.
More
1–3 years
IgG
Janus kinase 2 (JAK2)
Yes
No
Yes
Yes
Yes
B
Chronic myelogenous
leukemia
Primary myelofibrosis
Polycythemia
Essential
thrombocytosis
Tyrosine kinase
True
True
False
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Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
196) True or false? The fusion protein BCR-ABL produces
increased proliferation of leukocytes.
197) The most effective treatment with Imatinib (Gleevec) is at the
____ phase of CML.
198) A cytochemical stain to differentiate CML and a severe
infection or inflammation is
199) True or false? Detecting gene arrangements involving BCRABL is useful for confirmation of Ph1-positive of CML.
200) True or false? Detecting gene arrangements involving BCRABL is useful to diagnose Ph’-negative cases of CML.
201) True or false? Detecting gene arrangements involving BCRABL is useful for the detection of minimal residual disease.
202) True or false? Detecting gene arrangements involving BCRABL is useful for the prognosis of CML survival.
203) Patients with CML (Ph’+) relapse because of ____.
204) Stem cell transplantation is a treatment option in
approximately ____% of patients with CML.
205) The diagnostic test of choice for monitoring residual leukemia
is ____.
206) Polycythemia was first described in
207) Risk factors in the development of PV include exposure to all
of the following except
A) Radiation
B) Benzene
C) Chloramphenicol
D) Petroleum refineries
208) Is megakaryocytic proliferation with abnormal morphology a
major or minor criteria for primary myelofibrosis?
209) Is anemia a major or minor criteria for primary myelofibrosis?
210) Is TAK2V617F or other related mutations a major or minor
criteria for primary myelofibrosis?
211) Myelodysplastic syndromes are characterized by:
212)
The first step in MDS is
213) In MDS, hematopoiesis is dysplastic because of inefficient
maturation of
214) Refractory anemias with excess blasts are divided into ____
types in the 2008 WHO classification.
True
Chronic
Alkaline phosphatase
True
True
True
False
Leukemic subclones
with imatinib-resistant
BCR-ABL mutation
40
PCR
1910
C
Major
Minor
Major
Peripheral bold
cytopenia
Destabilization of
multipotential
progenitor cell
Blood cell precursors
Two
12
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
215) An increased risk of developing MDS because of genetic
predisposition is found in patients suffering from ____.
A) Fanconi anemia
B) Diamond-Blackfan anemia
C) Down syndrome
D) Both A and B
216) The risk of developing secondary MDS after alkylating therapy
peaks at ____ years.
217) Most patients who develop MDS are ____ years of age or
older.
218) The prognosis of patients with MDS is better for patients with
____.
219) Secondary MDS patients characteristically progress to acute
leukemia ____ than patients with primary (de novo) MDS.
220) The MDS subtype RA has peripheral blood anemia, bone
marrow unilineage dysplasia, and ____.
221) MDS subtype RAEB-1 has bone marrow with no Auer rods
and peripheral blood with ____.
222) MDS subtype RARS has peripheral blood with no blasts and
bone marrow with ____.
223) MDS subtype RAEB-2 has bone marrow with 10% –19%
blasts and peripheral blood with ____.
224) Children with primary MDS can have clinical and laboratory
features of
225) RBC changes in MDS reflect _1___ changes often similar to
_2___.
226) In MDS, erythroblasts (rubriblasts) may be
A) Multinucleated
B) Fragmented
C) Misshaped
D) All of the above
227) Abnormal nuclear shapes of erythroblasts include
228) In MDS, the cytoplasm of rubriblasts may display
229) In MDS, neutrophils are often
A) Hypergranular
B) Agranular
C) Hypogranular
D) Both B and C
230) In MDS, the ratio of CD4+ to CD8+ lymphocytes is
231) In MDS, an abnormality in immunity can include
232) The megakaryocyte population in MDS may be ____.
233) Unless associated with recent cytotoxic therapy, a value of
____% in cytopenic patients suggests a diagnosis of MDS.
D
Four
60
Normal chromosome
pattern
Faster
Less than 15% ring
sideroblasts
Less than 5% blasts
Erythroid dysplasia
Less than 1  109/L
monocytes
Juvenile chronic
myeloid leukemia
1. Megaloblastic
2. Nutritional
megaloblastic anemia
D
Lobes
Punctate basophilic
stippling
D
CD8 increased
Decreased cellmediated immunity
Large bizarre platelets
Greater than 1
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Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
234) The presence of internuclear bridging in MDS suggests
235) Intracellular alkaline phosphatase is ____ in MDS compared to
normal controls.
236) In chronic myelomonocytic leukemia, the blasts in the bone
marrow and peripheral blood are always ____.
237) A disorder that is provisionally included in the MDS/MPD
unclassifiable is
238) In CMML, one form is considered to be _1___ compared to the
other _2___.
239) Patients with some variety of MDS are at increased risk
of developing
240) What agents has not been supported
by scientific research as being associated with the development
of secondary MDS?
A. Alkylating agents
B. Organic solvents
C. Insecticides
D. Both B and C
241) An increased incidence of MDSs is seen in
An abnormality of
mitosis
Decreased
Less than 20%
Refractory anemia with
ring sideroblasts and
thrombocytosis
(RARS-T)
1. A reactive
monocytosis
2. Form that progresses
to AML
AML
D
males older than 55
years of age
242) The most frequently involved chromosomes in adults with MDS 5, 7, and 8
are
243) The most frequent chromosomal abnormalities in children with D
MDS include all of the following except
A. trisomy 8
B. monosomy 7
C. deletion of long arm of chromosome 20
D. all of the above
244) The incidence of chromosomal abnormality in adults with MDS 40% to 90%
is
245) The karyotype associated with a high probability of
D
transforming to AML is
A. monosomy 5
B. monosomy 7
C. trisomy 11
D. both A and B
246) Patients with MDSs commonly suffer from _____ initially
Anemia
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Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 3
247) Match the type of myelodysplastic syndrome with the appropriate description.
Refractory anemia (RA)
anemia, less than 1% blasts
Refractory anemia with ring sideroblasts (RARS)
anemia, no blasts
Refractory anemia with excess blasts, type 1 (RAEB-1)
cytopenia(s), less than 5% blasts,
no Auer rods
248) In young patients, the therapy of choice for MDSs
allogeneic bone marrow
involves
transplantation
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