Ecology/Populations
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
Figure 2-1
1. Referring to Figure 2-1, the coyotes would be considered ____.
A. herbivores
C. second-level consumers
B. third-level consumers
D. decomposers
Figure 2-2
2. The group of animals in Figure 2-2 is an example of what?
F. community
H. population
ecosystem
G.
J. biosphere
3. What type of succession is most likely to happen in Figure 3-2?
Figure 3-2
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. climax
4. At which stage in Figure 3-3 are the most pioneer species found?
Figure 3-3
F. A
G. B
H. C
J. D
5. If the global warming trend continues and permafrost under the tundra melts, what biome would you predict
would replace it?
A. boreal forest
C. temperate grassland
B. temperate forest
D. desert
A team of ecologists measured the salinity of the water in an estuary at various distances from the river
mouth. They also sampled populations of two species of clam worm, Nereis occidentalis and Neanthes
succinea, at each point. The results are tabulated below.
Table 3-1
6. Which of the following hypotheses is most valuable in explaining the trends seen in the data?
F. Nereis occidentalis outcompetes Neanthes succinea at salinities under 14‰.
G. Neanthes succinea reproduces most rapidly in areas at least 20 meters from the river
mouth.
H. Both Neanthes succinea and Nereis occidentalis can survive at any salinity.
J. Nereis occidentalis is more resistant to salinity than Neanthes succinea.
7. If the ecologists were to take a population sample of Neanthes succinea in an area 65 meters from the river
mouth with 30‰ salinity, what do you infer that they would find?
A. 40–50 individuals
B. 10–20 individuals
C. fewer than 5 individuals
D. more than 50 individuals
8. Which of these species might be classified as a pioneer species?
F. ponderosa pine
H. aspen
G. choke cherry
J. lichen
9. Compare primary and secondary succession. What is the distinction between them?
A. Primary succession is the sequence of species that become established early in a newly
colonized area, and secondary succession is the sequence of species that move in later.
B. Primary succession is the establishment of a community in an area with no soil, while
secondary succession is the establishment of a new community in an existing ecosystem
that was disturbed.
C. Primary succession is the establishment of a new community in an existing ecosystem that
was disturbed, while secondary succession is the establishment of a community in an area
with no soil.
D. Primary succession is the sequence of plants that colonize a new area, while secondary
succession is the sequence of animals that move in later.
10. On ten acres of native forest there are eight white-tailed deer, seven coyotes, 45 armadillos, and 231 loblolly
pine trees. Which population has the highest density?
F. white-tailed deer
H. armadillos
G. coyotes
J. loblolly pine trees
11. A flowering plant has seeds that are carried by the wind. Infer the most likely dispersion pattern of the plants
that grow from these seeds.
A. uniform
C. random
B. clumped groups
D. spatial
12. Young adult male chimpanzees look for mates outside their own population. The males then take the females
back to their group. Which of the following occurs in females’ original population?
F. emigration
H. mortality
G. immigration
J. natality
13. A breeding pair of rabbits escaped from their cage behind a farmer’s barn. The farmer observed the rabbits
and kept data on their population size for ten years. During this time, the rabbits reproduced and their
offspring reproduced many times. The fenced, undisturbed two acres where the rabbits live support
populations of predators, such as hawks and snakes, as well as a limited supply of grass and water. At the end
of the ten years, the farmer graphed the data he collected. Which of the following best describes his graph?
A. The graph is generally J shaped showing exponential growth.
B. The graph is generally S shaped showing logistic growth.
C. The graph is a horizontal line showing the effects of predation.
D. The graph angles up in a straight line at 45° showing the effects of ample resources.
14. A fruit fly that has a short life span and produces many offspring can be classified into which reproductive
strategy?
F. r-strategist
H. a carrying-capacity strategist
G. k-strategist
J. a logistic strategist
15. Which characteristic is typical of a k-strategist?
A. short life span
B. generally a small organism
C. produces many offspring
D. lengthy parental care
16. Which country would most likely have a declining birthrate?
F. a primarily agricultural country
G. an industrially developed country
H. a country changing from an agricultural economy to an industrial economy
J. economy does not affect birthrate
17. Which event is correlated with the beginning of exponential growth in human population?
A. the start of the Industrial Revolution
B. the invention of agriculture
C. the bubonic plague epidemic
D. the end of the Second World War
18. A demographer is investigating various populations to find out how they use resources. She wants to select
the population that uses most resources per individual. Which population should she choose for her study?
F. the population of a industrially developed country
G. the population of a South American indigenous people
H. the population of a developing country with a high birthrate
J. the population of an agricultural society with a low death rate
19. Which kind of organism obtains energy only from producers?
A. decomposers
C. omnivores
B. herbivores
D. All of the above
20. What kind of natural disaster helps some forest communities by allowing some trees to release their seeds, by
clearing away deadwood, and by encouraging new growth?
F. fire
H. windstorm
G. flood
J. drought
21. Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?
A. breaking down of bare rock by fungi and mosses
B. pioneer plants begin to grow after glacial melting
C. growth of plants after a forest is destroyed by fire
D. appearance of weeds in cracks in a concrete surface
22. Which organism is likely to be in the bottom trophic level of a food chain?
F. leopard seal
H. krill
G. algae
J. killer whale
23. What term is used to refer to the many feeding relationships that are possible in an ecosystem?
A. food web
C. energy pyramid
B. food chain
D. energy transfer
24. What type of vegetation would you expect to find on an abandoned farm that has remained undisturbed for
150 years?
F. short grasses
H. young pine trees
G. shrubs
J. tall, mature oak trees
25. If you visited a savanna, you would likely see
A. large herds of grazing animals, such as rhinos, gazelles, and giraffes.
B. a dense forest.
C. snow and ice.
D. a coastal ecosystem.
26. Which of the following best describes a tropical rain forest?
F. dense, thick soil that supports a dense layer of plants on the forest floor
G. species of animals with specialized ways of surviving in order to avoid competition
H. very few species of trees, due to poor soil quality
J. plants and animals that are very similar due to year-round warmth and moisture
27. The tundra
A. has a layer of soil that is permanently frozen beneath the top soil.
B. is too cold to support insect life.
C. is resistant to environmental damage because it is usually frozen.
D. All of the above
28. Which of the following is not true about temperate deciduous forests?
F. Trees grow lush green leaves in the spring, but lose their leaves in late summer.
G. The soil is rich, and plants cover much of the forest floor.
H. Animals such as squirrels, bears, and deer find food in the form of nuts, berries, and
leaves.
J. Both (a) and (b)
29. As you travel from the North Pole toward the equator, you would expect to see
A. tropical rain forests, then deserts, then taiga.
B. temperate deciduous forests, then taiga, then tropical rain forests.
C. tundra, then grasslands, then tropical rain forests.
D. taiga, then desert, then tundra.
30. Adaptations of desert animals that help them survive in the hot, dry desert often include
F. searching for water at midday.
G. thin skin that readily absorbs water.
H. large, bulky size to retain body heat on cold nights.
J. searching for food at night.
31. An example of a population is
A. all trees in a forest.
B. all maple trees in a forest.
C. all plants in a forest.
D. all animals in a forest.
32. The density of a population is
F. the number of individuals born every year.
G. the proportion of males and females.
H. the number of individuals living in cities.
J. the number of individuals per unit area.
33. Which of the following organisms has the highest reproductive potential?
A. dogs
C. bacteria
B. elephants
D. humans
34. A species of plant has exponential growth after it is introduced into an area where it has never lived. Which
statement best describes exponential growth?
F. Each individual plant grows much larger than usual.
G. The population immediately decreases.
H. Within a few years the population increases dramatically.
J. The species’ reproductive potential declines.
35. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. An organism’s niche is only the part of its habitat that it eats.
B. An organism’s habitat is a location.
C. Habitat and niche are the same thing.
D. An organism’s niche is outside its habitat.
Ecology/Populations
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
B
H
B
F
A
J
C
J
B
J
C
F
B
F
D
G
A
F
B
F
C
G
A
J
A
G
A
F
C
J
B
J
C
H
B
Biomolecules
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. How does an enzyme influence a biological reaction?
a. It increases the net energy difference between reactants and products.
b. It decreases the activation energy necessary to initiate the chemical change.
c. It increases the kinetic energy of reactants, thereby increasing their tendency to collide.
d. It decreases the kinetic energy of reactants, enabling them to undergo chemical change
more easily.
____
2. A student set up four test tubes containing starch solution in which to perform starch digestion. Supplies
included amylase (enzyme that digests starch) and an incubator. In which tube listed would starch digestion
proceed most quickly?
a. Tube 1: No amylase, room temperature (25°C)
b. Tube 2: No amylase, body temperature (37°C)
c. Tube 3: Amylase present, room temperature (25°C)
d. Tube 4: Amylase present, body temperature (37°C)
____
3. ____ represents a formula for a chemical compound.
a. H
c. P
b. C
d. H2O
____
4. The total number of atoms in a molecule of sucrose, C12H22O11, is ____.
a. 11
c. 22
b. 12
d. 45
Figure 6-3
____
5. Consider the energy diagram for a chemical reaction in Figure 6-3. Overall, is energy released or absorbed?
a. absorbed, because the energy level increases during the reaction
b. absorbed, because the energy level of the products is greater than that of the reactants
c. released, because the reaction is initiated by the addition of heat
d. released because the energy level of the reactants is greater than that of the products
____
6. Which is the best description of activation energy?
a. Heat added to initiate a reaction.
b. Heat released as the reaction proceeds
c. Heat stored within the reactant molecules.
d. Heat stored within the product molecules.
____
7. A hydrogen bond can form between a hydrogen atom of one molecule and which atom of another molecule?
a. carbon
c. oxygen
b. hydrogen
d. sodium
____
8. A single carbon atom can form a maximum of how many single covalent bonds?
a. 2
c. 6
b. 4
d. 8
____
9. Which element is found in proteins but not carbohydrates or lipids?
a. C
c. N
b. H
d. O
____ 10. In humans and other multicelluar organisms, which substance plays a central role as an energy source?
a. carbohydrate
c. protein
b. fat
d. water
____ 11. Glycogen, used to store energy in the liver and muscle tissue, is an example of which type of molecule?
a. carbohydrate
c. saturated fatty acid
b. protein
d. steroid
____ 12. Amino acids are the building blocks of which macromolecule?
a. carbohydrate
c. lipid
b. DNA
d. protein
____ 13. An organism’s genetic information is stored in which type of macromolecule?
a. DNA
c. lipid
b. carbohydrate
d. protein
Biomolecules
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
B
D
D
D
D
A
C
B
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
C
A
A
D
A
Cells
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
Figure 7-4
1. Where are you least likely to find water in the structure shown in Figure 7-4?
a. A
c. C
b. B
d. E
2. Which of the following pictures in Figure 7-5 most likely approximate the motion phospholipids make in a
plasma membrane?
Figure 7-5
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
f. A
h. C
g. B
j. D
Which statement is a fundamental principle of the cell theory?
a. All cells have a plasma membrane.
b. Eukaryotic cells are larger than prokaryotic cells.
c. Living organisms are composed of cells.
d. The genetic material in cells is DNA.
Which statement is true about bacterial cells?
f. The cells are very large.
h. They are eukaryotes.
g. The cells have no nucleus.
j. They have organelles.
Which is present only in eukaryotic cells?
a. cell membrane
c. DNA
b. chromosomes
d. nucleus
Cholesterol is repelled by water and can be found between the layers of the phospholipids in the plasma
membrane. What can be concluded from this information?
f. A high cholesterol diet should be avoided.
g. Cholesterol is nonpolar.
h. Cholesterol is polar.
j. Cholesterol is repelled by the polar tails.
Which organelle converts sugars into energy?
a. lysosome
c. nucleus
b. mitochondrion
d. ribosome
A scientist at the polar ice cap was studying an ice sample from hundred of meters below the surface. While
examining the ice, the scientist found some cells from many years ago. Using an electron microscope, the
scientist identified these cell structures: a cytoskeleton, mitochondrion, nucleus, cell wall, and ribosomes.
What kind of organism did the scientist find?
f. animal
h. plant
g. bacteria
j. He did not have enough information.
Chloroplasts are organelles that convert light energy to sugars. These organelles are found only in plants.
Which organelles are found only in animals?
a. golgi apparatus
c. mitochondria
b. lysosomes
d. ribosomes
At what point in the process of diffusion is dynamic equilibrium reached?
f. when the movement of the molecules stops being random
g. when the molecules are mixed and stop moving
h. when the rate of change in the solution slows by one half
j. when there is continuous movement but no change
What is a major difference between facilitated diffusion and active transport?
a. Active transport moves substances against the concentration gradient.
b. Active transport uses proteins in the process.
c. Facilitated diffusion moves molecules through the plasma membrane.
d. Facilitated diffusion requires large amounts of energy.
A plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution. What will happen to the plant cell?
f. It will swell.
h. It will stay the same.
g. It will shrink.
j. It will wilt.
Algal cells are placed in an isotonic solution. Additional amounts of solutes are slowly added to the solution.
What happens to the cells?
a. They will begin to swell.
c. They will stay the same.
b. They will burst.
d. They will shrink.
14. Which of the following is an example of passive transport?
f. endocytosis
h. facilitated diffusion
g. exocytosis
j. Na+/K+ ATPase pump
15. Which of the following is the primary role of the
lysosome?
a. ATP synthesis
b. Intracellular digestion
16.
c. Lipid transport
d. Carbohydrate storage
Which of the following are characteristic of both
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
f.
Cytoplasm and a well-defined nucleus
h.
surrounded by a membrane
g. Membranous sites of ATP synthesis,
j.
Golgi complex, and ribosomes
17. The function of which of the following
organelles directly requires oxygen?
a. Ribosome
c.
b. Mitochondrion
d.
18. Which organelles help provide cells with energy?
f. mitochondria and chloroplasts
h.
g. Golgi apparatus and ribosome
j.
19. One of the most pronounced differences between
animal and plant cells is that
a. plant cells alone have relatively thick,
c.
rigid cell wall
Cell wall, several chromosomes, and
cytoplasm
Cell membrane, ribosomes, DNA, and
RNA
Nucleus
Centriole
rough endoplasmic reticulum
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
animal cells alone have their nuclear
chromatin attached to the spindle fibers
during mitosis
d. B) animal cells alone have a nucleolus
b. plant cells alone have rough endoplasmic
reticulum
20. In cells, which of the following can function to give
shape, enable movement, and anchor organelles?
f. Golgi apparatus and associated vesicles in h. Microtubules, microfilaments,
the cytoplasma
intermediate fibers, and microtrabeculae
g. The interconnected networks of the
j. Vacuoles filled with water and surrounded
endoplasmic reticulum
by a single membrane
21. If a potato slice were placed in a beaker of distilled water, which of the
following would be true of the potato slice?
a. It would gain mass.
c. It would absorb solutes from the
surrounding liquid.
b. It would neither gain or lose mass.
d. It would lose water until water potential of
the solutions were equal.
22. The cell membrane contains channels and pumps that help move materials from one side to the other. What
are these channels and pumps made of?
f. carbohydrates
h. bilipids
g. lipids
j. proteins
23. Which substance on the plasma membrane helps identify chemical signals from outside the cell?
a. carbohydrate chain
c. membrane protein
b. cholesterol
24. An organelle found in the nucleus is a
f. nucleolus.
g. microvillus.
d. transport protein
h. basal body
j. vacuole
Cells
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
D
H
C
G
D
G
B
H
B
J
A
F
D
H
B
J
B
F
A
H
D
J
A
F
Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. By the end of prophase, each of the following has occurred except ____.
a. tighter coiling of the chromosomes b. breaking down of the nuclear envelope c. disappearing of the
nucleolus d. lining up of chromosomes in the cell
2. The chromosomes shown in Figure 9-1 are in which state of mitosis?
Figure 9-1
a. prophase b. metaphase c. anaphase d. telophase
3. Why is the synthesis stage called this?
a. because protein synthesis is taking place b. because DNA synthesis is taking place c. because it combines
several smaller stages into one d. because the chromosomes come together
4. Which of these has occurred by the end of prophase?
a. Sister chromatids are separated. b. The spindle is beginning to form. c. The cell membrane has begun to
pinch inward. d. The nuclear membrane has disappeared.
Figure 9-4
5. Figure 9-4 illustrates which stage of mitosis?
a. anaphase b. metaphase c. prophase d. telophase
6. How is the alignment of chromosomes, shown in Figure 9-4, on the equatorial plate of the cell maintained?
a. They are always located there, since that is where the nucleus was. b. Tension between opposite spindle
fibers pulls them there. c. The pressure of the cytoplasm moves them there. d. The chromosomes are
attracted to each other and meet there.
7. Which of the following occurs in telophase?
a. chromosomes condense b. chromosomes line up c. chromosomes move to opposite poles
d. chromosomes relax
8. A cell has 12 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will each daughter cell have?
a. 4 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24
9. A cell that is undergoing mitosis is examined with a light microscope. An observation that would allow for
identification of the cell as an animal cell rather than a plant cell would be
a. the centrioles migrating. b. the chromosome pairs separating from each other. c. the chromosomes
twisting about each other. d. the nucleoli disappearing.
10. The cell cycle is regulated by
a. cyclins b. enzymes c. hormones d. sugars
11. Prokaryotes divide by binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction in which
a. the nucleus divides into two nuclei. b. the number of chromosomes in the cell is reduced. c. a cell divides
into two cells with identical genetic information. d. spindle fibers attach to the poles of the cell.
Figure 9-5
12. The cell in Figure 9-5 is undergoing mitosis. Which stage of mitosis will follow this one?
a. anaphase b. metaphase c. prophase d. telophase
13. Which checkpoint has this cell just passed?
a. near the end of gap 1, monitoring DNA damage b. during the S stage c. during the gap 2 stage d. during
mitosis, monitoring spindle formation
14. DNA replication occurs during
a. anaphase. b. interphase. c. metaphase. d. prophase.
15. Which of the phases of mitosis has the shortest duration?
a. anaphase b. cytokinesis c. metaphase d. prophase
16. A cell that undergoes repeated mitosis without cytokinesis would have
a. many daughter cells. b. fewer chromosomes. c. many nuclei. d. cancerous properties.
17. Why is it important for the chromosomes to condense during mitosis?
a. to facilitate DNA replication b. to facilitate chromosome movement c. to facilitate cytokinesis d. to
facilitate spindle formation
18. The typical growth period of a cell occurs during which stage of the cell cycle?
a. Gap 1 b. Gap 2 c. synthesis d. mitosis
19. The order of the phases in mitosis is:
a. metaphase, anaphase, telophase, prophase b. prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase c. anaphase,
metaphase, prophase, telophase d. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, teleophase
20. When plant cells divide,
a. their cells cleave like animal cells b. a cell membrane called the cell plate forms c. the cell wall forms
from existing wall d. the cell wall splits
Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
D
C
B
D
B
B
D
C
A
A
C
B
C
B
C
C
B
A
D
B
Biodiversity
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
Table 5-1 shows the population sizes for 6 different species in four different areas.
Area
Species U
Species V
Species W
Species X
Species Y
Species Z
A
3
7
2
2
2
4
B
0
6
8
0
6
6
C
0
0
2
0
0
2
D
4
3
11
1
6
0
Table 5-1
____
____
____
____
1. From Table 5-1, which species has the highest average population size?
a. Species W
c. Species Y
b. Species X
d. Species Z
2. If the four areas in Table 5-1 were the only places in the world to find these organisms, which species most
likely faces the greatest chance of extinction?
a. Species U
c. Species Y
b. Species X
d. Species Z
3. Which area in Table 5-1 has the greatest biodiversity?
a. Area A
c. Area C
b. Area B
d. Area D
4. If all four areas in Table 5-1 had identical climate and geology, which one would probably have the smallest
area?
a. Area A
c. Area C
b. Area B
d. Area D
For many years orchid collectors searched Exotic Islands for the beautiful Kimmarie Orchid, which is found
no place else in the world. After they found the orchid, they brought it back to their homes. In the last couple
of years the Kimmarie Orchid has not been found on the island. As a result, hobbyists are now sending the
Kimmarie Orchid to be replanted on the islands.
____
____
____
____
____
5. The Kimmarie Orchid became extinct in the wild due to ____.
a. habitat loss
c. habitat degradation
b. exotics
d. overcollection
6. The hobbyists are trying to correct the Kimmarie Orchid problem they caused by using ____.
a. exotic species
c. habitat corridors
b. a reintroduction program
d. habitat fragments
7. Island A has an area of 30 square kilometers. Island B has an area of 400 square kilometers. The islands are
near each other. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true?
a. Island A has greater biodiversity and a higher percentage of edge effect than Island B.
b. Island A has less biodiversity and a higher percentage of edge effect than Island B.
c. Island A has greater biodiversity and a lower percentage of edge effect than Island B.
d. Island A has less biodiversity and a lower percentage of edge effect than Island B.
8. Consider the following pairs of organisms: large predators and small predators; large herbivores and small
herbivores; and migratory animals and non-migratory animals. The two animals most likely to suffer the most
from habitat fragmentation are the ____.
a. large predators and migratory animals
b. large herbivores and large predators
c. non-migratory animals and small herbivores
d. migratory animals and large herbivores
9. If the communities in Figure 5-4 were put in order of least to most biological diversity, they would be ____.
Figure 5-1
a. ABCD
b. CADB
c. DBCA
d. BDAC
Figure 5-2
____ 10. What does the graph in Figure 5-2 tell you?
a. the farther from land, the more biodiversity
b. the larger the islet, the more biodiversity
c. islet size and biodiversity are not related
d. biodiversity decreases with islet size
____ 11. Using the graph in Figure 5-2, extrapolate what would happen to biodiversity on a large island or continent.
a. biodiversity would increase greatly
b. biodiversity would decrease greatly
c. biodiversity would first increase, then decrease
d. biodiversity would first decrease, then increase
____ 12. Using the information from the graph in Figure 5-2, predict what would happen to biodiversity if the ocean
level increased.
a. it would increase
c. it would decrease
b. it would remain the same
d. it would disappear
Figure 5-3
____ 13. What effect did the loss of species B have on species A and D in Figure 5-3?
a. it caused the populations of A and D to decrease
b. it caused the populations of A and D to increase
c. it caused the populations of A and D to become extinct
d. it had no effect on the populations of A and D
____ 14. Examine the graph in Figure 5-3. Which species were not affected by the loss of species B?
a. species A, C, and E
c. species C only
b. species C and E
d. species E only
____ 15. Which of the following actions would most likely restore the ecosystem represented in Figure 5-3?
a. Introduce a predator for species A.
b. Remove species A and E from the ecosystem.
c. Reintroduce species B and D to the ecosystem.
d. Start a bioremediation program in the ecosystem.
Island
Area (km2)
A
B
C
850,000
300,000
90,000
Initial No.
of Species
175
140
80
Extinctions
25
35
50
Table 5-2
____ 16. According to the data in Table 5-2, which factor has the greatest impact on species loss?
a. the original number of species
b. the distance from the mainland
c. the area of the island
d. the climate
____ 17. Which of the following resources can be considered renewable?
a. natural gas
c. uranium
b. quartz
d. wood
____ 18. The cheetah population was around 100,000 in 1900. Today, fewer than 12,000 cheetahs remain. What type
of natural resource are cheetahs considered to be?
a. nonrenewable
c. reusable
b. renewable
d. sustainable
____ 19. Which of the following is a direct benefit of biodiversity?
a. faster erosion rates
b. greater amounts of rainfall
c. improved soil fertility
d. decreased carbon dioxide emissions
Figure 5-4
____ 20. Examine the food web shown in Figure 5-4. What would most likely happen to the organisms in this food
web if the robin began to disappear?
a. The hawk would be forced to start eating the dragonfly.
b. Most of the organisms in the ecosystem would starve and die.
c. The terrestrial organisms would starve, but the aquatic organisms would survive.
d. There would be an overpopulation of caterpillars, which would kill many elm trees.
____ 21. Examine the food web shown in Figure 5-4. What would most likely happen to the organisms in this
ecosystem if the algae began to disappear?
a. The bass population would increase.
b. All of the aquatic organisms would become overpopulated.
c. The dragonfly population would likewise begin to disappear.
d. The fox would begin to starve and be forced to emigrate to another area.
____ 22. Examine the food web shown in Figure 5-4. Suppose an herbicide is used to kill some of the algae in this
ecosystem. The herbicide does not break down in the environment. Inside the cells of which organism would
you expect to find the highest amount of herbicide?
a. algae
c. elm tree
b. cougar
d. minnow
____ 23. Examine the food web shown in Figure 5-4. The disappearance of which of the following pair of species
would result in the total collapse of the food web?
a. algae and dragonflies
c. dragonflies and foxes
b. algae and elm trees
d. elm trees and bass
____ 24. Which of the following practices can help conserve an area’s biodiversity?
a. biological magnification
c. species introduction
____ 25.
____ 26.
____ 27.
____ 28.
____ 29.
b. habitat fragmentation
d. sustainable usage
The extinction rate of terrestrial and freshwater species is currently higher than the extinction rate of marine
species. What is the most likely reason for this?
a. Human activities have a greater impact on terrestrial and freshwater ecosystems.
b. There are no economic incentives for humans to use ocean resources.
c. Marine organisms have had a longer time to adapt to their environment.
d. The oceans have a greater area than land and freshwater ecosystems combined.
A biologist is searching for a new plant-based antibiotic. In which of the following types of ecosystems would
the biologist have the best chance of finding new kinds of plants to use in her research?
a. highland desert
c. temperate deciduous forest
b. polar tundra
d. tropical rain forest
If a disturbance were to occur in an ecosystem, which of the following ecosystems would be most vulnerable
to extinctions?
a. continental ecosystems
c. marine ecosystems
b. island ecosystems
d. tropical ecosystems
Why is sandstone classified as a nonrenewable resource?
a. Sandstone takes many thousands of years to form.
b. Sandstone is not composed of natural rock materials.
c. Sandstone is not a very useful resource to humans.
d. Sandstone is no longer being formed on Earth.
Which of the following groups of animals has suffered the largest percentage of known extinctions in the last
400 years?
a. amphibians
c. invertebrates
b. birds
d. mammals
Biodiversity
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
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25.
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27.
28.
29.
A
B
A
C
D
B
B
A
D
B
A
C
A
C
C
C
D
A
C
D
C
B
B
D
A
D
B
A
D