PORT & TRAUMA “QUEST” RTEC 124 – 2009
NAME __________________
1. Name the two types of mobile radiographic units:
2. Which type of mobile radiographic unit is heavier – and WHY
______________________________
why: ____________________________________
4. A gunshot victim had a Portable Chest RADIOGRAPH was taken semi-upright in the emergency
room at 90kvp – 3 mas – 72” screen (no grid). The image was optimal for contrast and density.
A repeat radiograph is ordered after the placement of a CVP line. You now can only obtain a
distance of 40” - what technique will you know use to obtain a diagnostic image?
_________________ kVp
40 “ SID
_________________mAs
5. One hour later, the patient is placed in the Radiographic room on the x-ray table for additional
exams. The patient began moving about, and possibly pulled out his CVP line. The ER Doctor wants
another AP chest immediately to check the line position. The grid ratio for the table is 16:1 and the
maximum SID is 40”. You have placed the cassette in the bucky for this exposure. What technique
will you use for this image of an AP Chest?
_________________ kVp
_________________mAs
6. What are the 3 cardinal rules of radiation protection?
_______________
_______________________
40 “ SID
_______________
7. Which of the above rules apply the MOST to portable radiography? _______________________
8. What is the minimum thickness of lead shielding required for lead aprons? __________________
9. A patient enters the ER with multiple injuries due to an MVA. Patient has a c-collar in place and is
on a backboard.
a) What is the FIRST projection that should be taken – and why
______________________________
why: ____________________________________
b) An AP Shoulder shows the patient has a fx /dislocation of the proximal humerus – what other
projection is needed to check for anterior/posterior dislocation.
__________________________________________________________
10. . What should the radiographer do before bringing mobile equipment into a patient’s room?
11. Why is it important to measure distance (SID) for all mobile procedures?
12.What type of grids are preferred for mobile procedures?
PORT & TRAUMA “QUEST” RTEC 124 – 2008
NAME __________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE – Answer of Scantron
1. Which of the following are appropriate technique for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic
spine injury?
A)
instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts
B)
maneuver the xray tube instead of moving the patient
2. Mobile radiography produces some of the highest occupational radiation exposures for
radiographers.
A) True
B) False
3. An advantage of using a capacitor-discharge mobile unit would be:
1) small size
2) long battery life 3) ease of movement around the hospital
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
4. Most grids used for mobile radiography have ratios of:
A. 6:1 or 8:1
B. 8:1 or 10:1
C. 10:1 or 12:1
D. 12:1 or 16:1
5. Other than Chest - to keep exposure times to a minimum during mobile radiography, the
recommended SID should be:
A. 30 inches B. 36 inches C. 40 inches D. 48 inches
6. Which of the following must be available on every mobile radiography machine?
1) lead apron
2) AEC
3) measuring caliper
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 ONLY
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
7. During a mobile exposure, the radiographer should be how far from the object being radiographed?
A. 4 feet
B. 5 feet
C. 6 feet
D. 10 feet
8. During mobile radiography, the radiographer ideally should be standing at what degree of angle
from the primary beam?
A. 0º
B. 45º
C. 90º
D. 45º-90º
9. During mobile radiography, the least amount of scattered radiation will occur at what angle to the
object being radiographed?
A. 45º
B. 50º
C. 70º
D. 90º
10. The single most effective means of radiation protection during mobile radiography is:
A. distance
B. exposure time
C. choice of kVp D. use of a non-grid technique
11. During mobile radiography, shielding should be used on:
1) children
2) only women of reproductive age (not men)
3) patients of reproductive age
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
12. According to federal regulations, the source-to-skin (SSD) distance during mobile radiography
may not be less than: A. 10 inches
B. 12 inches
C. 15 inches
D. 24 inches
13. Which of the following attire is worn by the radiographer when entering a strict isolation room for
a mobile radiography exam? 1) mask
2) gown
3) gloves
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
14 . How long should the patient lie in the decubitus position before making the exposure during a
mobile decubitus chest exam?
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 3 minutes D. 5 minutes
15. Which of the following terms best describes a partial dislocation of a joint?
A. Subluxation B. Greenstick C. Angulation D. Fracture
16. Which of the following preliminary steps should the radiographer perform before beginning a
mobile x-ray examination?
1) invite family members to remain in the room
2) introduce oneself to the patient and family
3) determine that the correct patient is in the room
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
17. Which of the following would be considered a trauma radiography guideline?
1) removed all splints
2) do not move the patient unless necessary
3) obtain a minimum of two radiographs of each body part
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
18. Which type of fracture is defined as being crushed at the site of impact, producing two or more
fragments?
A. Comminuted B. Compound C. Complete D. Torus
19. Which of the following fractures is described as an incomplete fracture with the cortex broken on
one side of the bone?
A. Bayonet B. Torus C. Avulsion
D. Greenstick
20. Which of the following fractures is often called a “reverse Colles’” with anterior displacement of
distal radius?
A. Pott's B. Trimalleolar
C. Tripod D. Smith’s
21. Which of the following fractures involves the distal fifth metacarpal?
A. Boxer’s B. Bartons C. Pott’s D. Smiths
22. Which of the following fractures usually involves the spine?
A. Depressed B. Comminuted C. Stellate D. Compression
23. Which of the following fractures involves the 1st Cervical spine?
A. Johnson’s B. Jefferson’s C. Jacob’s D. Judet’s
24. Which of the following factors can lead to grid cutoff?
A. Off-centering of CR from the center line
B. Angling perpendicular, rather than parallel, to the grid lines
C. Exceeding grid focal range
D. All of the above
25.. Which of the following is an example of blunt trauma?
a. Frostbite
b. Gunshot wound
c. Impalement injury
d. Motor vehicle accident
26 . Which of the following symptoms is associated with stroke injuries?
a. Slurred speech b. Cool, clammy skin
c. Excessive sweating
d. Increased drowsiness
27. Which procedure should be performed when taking radiographs to localize a penetrating foreign
object?
a. Reduce kVp to produce short-scale contrast.
b. Mark entrance and/or exit wounds with a radiopaque marker.
c. Provide a written description of the location of the en trance wound.
d. Use twice the usual source-to-image distance (SID) to increase detail of structures.
28. Which procedure should a radiographer perform if a trauma patient begins to experience a
seizure ?
a. Provide a drink of water.
b. Roll the patient onto the side.
c. Inform the attending physician.
d. Cover the patient with a blanket.
29. Which of the following statements is not an appropriate rule for trauma radiographers?
a. Always make at least three radiographs for each area of injury.
b. Never leave a trauma patient unattended during imaging procedures.
c. Never remove any immobilization device without physician’s orders.
d. Always ask the attending physician before giving a trauma patient anything to eat or drink.
30. Which of the following projections should be the first one performed for a multiple-trauma patient?
a. AP lumbar spine
b. Lateral lumbar spine, dorsal decubitus position
c. AP cervical spine
d. Lateral cervical spine, dorsal decubitus position
31 . When performing the AP projection of the abdomen on a trauma patient, what should be
obtained before moving the patient to the radiographic table?
a. Vital signs
b. Written consent from the patient
c. Permission from the attending physician d. Lateral cervical vertebrae, dorsal decubitus position
32. Why should the left lateral decubitus position be used for demonstrating free air within the
abdominal cavity?
a. Free air will collect under the left hemidiaphragm.
b. Fluid levels will collect under the right hemidiaphragm.
c. The density of the liver provides good contrast for free air.
d. The density of the stomach provides good contrast for free air.
33 . Which projection of the abdomen should be performed to demonstrate air or fluid levels when a
trauma patient is un able to be positioned either upright or in the lateral recum bent position?
a. AP
b. Left AP oblique
c. Right AP oblique d. Lateral, dorsal decubitus position
34. When performing the AP projection for the pelvis with a trauma patient, which of the following
procedures should not be performed?
a. Use a grid IR directly under the patient.
b. Rotate the femurs 15 degrees medially.
c. Transfer the patient to a rad table.
d. Center the IR to a level of 2 inches inf to the (ASIS).
35. Which action should a radiographer perform if a semiconscious head trauma patient begins
vomiting during radio graphic procedures?
a. Obtain vital signs.
b. Give the patient a plastic bag.
c. Move the patient to a sitting position. d. Logroll the patient to the lateral recumbent position.
36. Which of the following general rules should be followed when radiographing upper and lower
limbs on trauma patients?
a. Always obtain two radiographs, 90 degrees apart.
b. Always position for true AP and lateral projections.
c. When demonstrating long bones, always remove immo bilization devices.
d. When demonstrating long bones, always transfer the patient to the radiographic table.
end of multiple choice