1st Semester Exam in Advanced Placement Biology
1. A student designs an experiment that determines the
effectiveness of a particular enzyme. In the design, 4 types
of food products are used. The experimenter uses 5ml,
10ml, 15ml, and 20ml of enzyme with each of the 4 food
types. In addition, the experimenter places the 5ml and
10ml containers in the freezer. Which of the following
statements BEST describes this experimental design?
A. This experimental design will easily be supported by other
scientists.
B. This experimental design is flawed due to the lack of a
control variable and the presence of multiple experimental
variables.
C. This experimental design will produce multiple trials of
data.
D. This experimental design will show that an enzyme can
work in any temperature and any volume or concentration.
2. The enzymes that catalyze cellular reactions
are macromolecules made of
organiccompounds composed of carbon,
hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen. These types
of macromolecules are known as __________.
A. starches
B. sugars
C. proteins
D. fats
3. Which biomolecule's function is LEAST likely
to be affected by the order of its
singlemolecule units?
A. DNA
B. starch
C. RNA
D. protein
4. Many plants have waxy coatings on some
surfaces. This coating reduces water loss
because it is not waterpermeable.This waxy
coating is which of the following types of
organic molecule?
A. carbohydrate
B. lipid
C. nucleic acid
D. protein
5. Many land plants store energy in starch.
When energy is needed, the starch molecules
can be broken down quickly. This chemical
reaction produces which of the following?
A. amino acids
B. lipids
C. monosaccharides
D. RNA chains
6. Which of the following macromolecules are a
prominent part of animal tissues that function
in insulation, helping animals conserve heat?
A. carbohydrates
B. lipids
C. proteins
D. nucleic acids
7. Which is the MOST valid conclusion based on this
graph?
A. Enzymes are not affected greatly by temperature.
B. Enzymes work most effectively at low temperatures.
C. Raising the temperature always makes an enzyme work
better.
D. Enzyme function decreases after a certain favorable
temperature.
8. A student measured the time required for a
protein sample to be completely digested in
the presence of an enzyme under different pH
levels. At which pH is the enzyme LEAST
active?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.8
6.9
7.1
7.2
9. Which of the following are commonly found
in organic molecules?
Carbon
A. I, II
B. II, IV
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III, IV
I. Carbon
II. Nitrogen
III. Phosphorus
IV. Helium
Phosphorus
Nitrogen
10. Which of the following is a function of a
carbohydrate?
A. forms the cell wall
B. forms the cell membrane
C. gene expression
D. regulates enzymes
11. Which of the following is a function of a
protein?
A. forms the cell wall
B. forms the cell membrane
C. gene expression
D. regulates enzymes
12. What simple molecule reacts with itself to
form this disaccharide?
A. DNA
B. amino acids
C. glucose
D. lipids
13. Which structure can be found in both
eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
A. mitochondrion
B. nucleic acid
C. nucleus
D. chloroplast
14. Which structure does NOT belong in a
prokaryotic cell?
A. DNA
B. phosolipid membrane
C. cytoplasm
D. nuclear envelope
15. What kind of cells most likely result from
uncontrolled growth due to mutations in
genes that control the cell cycle?
A. nerve cells
B. bone cells
C. cancer cells
D. cardiac cells
16. What structure(s) allows chromosomes to
separate and move during mitosis?
A. spindle apparatus
B. nuclear envelope
C. chromatids
D. radiating fibers
17. In the Enzyme Substrate Complex, what is
represented by Y ?
A. enzyme
B. substrate
C. active site
D. product
18. What does Step III illustrate?
A. enzyme specificity
B. changes in enzymes after reaction
C. conversion of substrate into products
D. release of activation energy
Use the chart to help you answer the following 4
questions.
19. What BEST completes the chart at I?
A. enzyme
B. amino acids
C. monomer
D. polymer
20. Which statement BEST describes the function of
nucleic acids (IV)?
A. stores genetic information and helps to make proteins
B. increases the rate of chemical reactions
C. stimulates metabolism in all body cells
D. activates secretion of the body's hormones
21. What molecule is described in column III?
A. phosphates
B. lipids
C. polysaccharides
D. minerals
22. Complete the chart at II.
A. polysaccharides
B. biomolecules
C. amino acids
D. lipids
23. In guinea pigs, the allele for rough coat (R) is
dominant over the allele for smooth coat (r). A
heterozygous guinea pig and a homozygous
recessive guinea pig are mated. Which of the
following would be the phenotypes of the
offspring?
A. all rough coat
B. all smooth coat
C. 2 rough coat and 2 smooth coat
D. 3 rough coat and 1 smooth coat
24. Which of the following do plant cells have
that animal cells do not?
A. chloroplasts and cell walls
B. vacuoles and cell membranes
C. chloroplasts and mitochondria
D. cell walls and cell membranes
25. Four of the six kingdoms are comprised of
organisms that contain eukaryotic cells. Which
structures in a cell would give you the BEST
evidence that the cell is eukaryotic?
A. mitochondria
B. vacuoles
C. cell walls
D. internal membranes
26. Which of the following do plant cells have
that animal cells do not?
A. chloroplasts and cell walls
B. vacuoles and cell membranes
C. chloroplasts and mitochondria
D. cell walls and cell membranes
plant cells
animal cells
27. Which of the following is arranged in the
order of increasing levels of function?
A. atom, molecule, cell
B. molecule, atom, cell
C. cell, atom, molecule
D. cell, molecule, atom
molecule
atom
cell
28. In the Nested Venn diagram, what kinds of
cells are found in section III?
A. animal
B. plant
C. fungi
D. fungi and plant
29. Identify the Venn diagram section(s) which
includes prokaryotic cells.
A. I
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, III, IV
D. IV
30. Which sections do NOT include
characteristics of cells from this organism?
A. I
B. I, II
C. II, III
D. III, IV
31. Draw two cells, an animal cell and a plant cell. The animal cell will need at
least six organelles drawn and labeled. The plant cell will need at least
eight organelles drawn and labeled. Two of the plant organelles will need
to be ones not found in an animal cell.
Plant Cell
Animal Cell
Diagrams should have six of the same
structures, and 2 in the plant only
found there.
31. Draw two cells, an animal cell and a plant cell. The animal cell will need at
least six organelles drawn and labeled. The plant cell will need at least
eight organelles drawn and labeled. Two of the plant organelles will need
to be ones not found in an animal cell.
Animal Cell
Plant Cell
31. Draw two cells, an animal cell and a plant cell. The animal cell will need at
least six organelles drawn and labeled. The plant cell will need at least
eight organelles drawn and labeled. Two of the plant organelles will need
to be ones not found in an animal cell.
Animal Cell
Plant Cell
Use your diagrams above to answer the
following three questions.
32. Identify the two organelles in the diagrams
that are NOT found in the animal cell.
cell wall
Chloroplasts
large central vacuole
Use your diagrams above to answer the
following question.
33. What is the purpose of the two organelles?
cell wall that surrounds the cell membrane,
thereby making the cells in plants more sturdy.
chloroplasts which capture sunlight for
photosynthesis
large central vacuole for water storage.
Use your diagrams above to answer the
following question.
34. How do the two pictures relate to evidence
of the cell theory?
Answers will vary. All cells have similar parts.
Discuss the evidence for the cell
theory
The cell theory states that:
1. Cells are the smallest unit of life
2. All organisms are composed of one or more cells
3. All cells come from preexisting cells
• The cell theory can’t be ‘proven true’ because that would require us
to examine every single cell, which would be an impossible task.
However the theory would be ‘proven false’ if a scientist made a
discovery that violated the existing cell theory.
•
Evidence for the cell theory comes from observation and
experimentation. When observed with a light microscope, every
kind of cell - from every kind of organism – has so far upheld the
central tenets of the cell theory.
•
The statement that all living cells come from pre-existing cells does
not mean that life has always existed; biologists believe that selfreplicating molecules gradually evolved into the earliest cells.
• There is compelling evidence that
mitochondria and chloroplasts were once
primitive bacterial cells. This evidence is
described in the endosymbiotic theory.
Use the following diagram to answer the next three
questions.
35. During which part of the cell cycle does this process
occur?
A. M
B. S
Mitosis
C. G1
D. G2
36. Refer to the diagram. Arrange the stages in
order.
A. I,
B. VI,
C. III,
D. V,
II, III, IV, V, VI
II, I, IV, V, III
VI, I, IV, II, V
II, IV, I, II, VI
37. What is the name of this process?
A. metaphase
B. mitosis
C. meiosis
D. mucousis
38. Explain the process illustrated in the diagram.
A. passage of water molecules through a Semipermeable
membrane to equalize concentration
B. movement of molecules against a concentration gradient
expending energy
C. separation of suspended particles from a fluid environment
through a porous membrane
D. transport of molecules across a membrane from a high to
low concentration gradient by means of a carrier molecule
39. Which statement does NOT describe cell
cycle checkpoints?
A. Normal checkpoints assess damage to DNA.
B. Faulty checkpoints may lead to abnormal cell
growth.
C. Cell checkpoints can fail in mitosis and
meiosis.
D. Defective checkpoints result in the death of
the cell.
40. The compound synthesized during
photosynthesis is_________________ .
A. H2O
B. CO2
C. O2
D. C6H12O6
41. Refer to the diagram. Choose the terms that
complete the diagram at X and Y.
A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
oxygen, Y carbon dioxide
energy, Y energy
energy, Y carbon dioxide
water, Y energy
42. What equation BEST describes the process
occurring at A?
A. H2O + CO2
B. O2 + C6H12O6
C. H2O + CO2
D. H2O + O2
C6H1 2O6 + H2O
H2O + CO2
C6H1 2O6 + O2
C6H1 2O6 + CO2
43. What equation describes the process occurring
at B?
A. H2O + CO2
B. O2 + C6H1 2O6
C. H2O + CO2
D. H2O + O2
C6H1 2O6 + H2O
H2O + CO2
C6H1 2O6 + O2
C6H1 2O6 + CO2
44. Which statement applies to meiosis, but not
mitosis?
A. Daughter cells are genetically identical to parent
cells.
B. Daughter cells are genetically different from
parent cells.
C. The number of chromosomes in daughter cells is
the same as the number in the parent cell.
D. The number of chromosomes in daughter cells is
more than in parent cells.
45. What is the purpose of mitosis?
A. Guarantees that each daughter cell has half
the amount of DNA than parent cells.
B. It ensures that new nuclei have the correct
amount of DNA.
C. It ensure the reproduction of mitochondria
and chloroplasts.
D. It prevents the occurrence of cancer cells
46. Which of the following includes two
requirements that are needed for
photosynthesis AND aerobic respiration?
A. electron charge transport system and
regulating enzymes
B. oxygen and carbon dioxide
C. glucose and water
D. carbon dioxide and electron charge transport
system
47. Meiosis plays a more significant role in
reproduction than mitosis in which of the
following?
A. increasing the variability of genetic
information
B. more efficiently using energy in the cell
division process
C. more rapidly reproducing and growing
D. increasing the process of asexual
Reproduction
48. In both mitosis and meiosis a specific
process occurs the same number of times.
What is that process?
A. The cytoplasm is divided evenly between the
cells.
B. The DNA in the chromosomes is duplicated.
C. The cells divide into equally sized halves.
D. The chromosomes align themselves at
opposite ends of the cells.
49. Compared with mitosis, the process of
meiosis results in ___________________ .
A. greater number of cell chromosomes per cell
B. greater volume of cell cytoplasm per cell
C. greater number of daughter cells
D. greater amount of genetic material per cell
50. What is the purpose of ATP in both cellular
respiration and photosynthesis?
A. to breakdown glucose to release energy
B. to transfer energy from one molecule to
another
C. to work as an enzyme
D. to absorb electrons from water
51. During intense aerobic activity, the rate of respiration and
circulation increases. Which of the following BEST describes
why this occurs?
A. Muscle tissues deplete their oxygen supply at a faster rate
during exercise resulting in an increased level of carbon
dioxide.
B. Lung tissue requires more carbon dioxide to deliver the
increased amount of oxygen required by muscle tissue
during exercise.
C. Levels of carbon dioxide in muscle tissue decrease during
exercise due to the increased amount of oxygen being
used.
D. The amount of oxygen required during exercise decreases
due to the increase of production of carbon dioxide by
muscle tissues.
52. The body can respond to a drastic decrease in
skin temperature in a variety of ways in order to
conserve heat and to increase heat production.
Which of the following is NOT one such
response?
A. vasodialation to decrease the flow of heat to the
skin
B. cessation of sweating
C. shivering to increase heat production in the
muscles
D. erection of body hairs or fur to increase
Insulation
53. The body depends on feedback loops to
maintain a constant internal environment. Which
of the following is an example of a negative
feedback loop?
A. the generation of nerve signals by the release of
sodium ions
B. release of gastric fluids to maintain a consistent
pH level in the stomach
C. the release of oxytocin to stimulate contractions
during childbirth
D. the activation of platelets in the formation of a
blood clot
54. Organisms in both aquatic and terrestrial
environments must maintain the right amount of
water and proper concentration of solutes in
their body fluids. This balance of solutes and
water is known as osmoregulation. Which of the
following is NOT an example of osmoregulation?
A. fish retaining high concentrations of urea in their
blood
B. humans excreting sweat through the skin
C. increase in level of oxygen retention in body cells
D. regulation of the amount of water in urine waste
55. What conclusion can be drawn from the following
statements regarding adaptation of organisms?
1. Variation exists among individuals in a population.
2. Genes are passed from one generation to the next.
3. Speciation occurs when variation occurs over time in
geographic isolation.
A. Organisms adapt to changes in the environment on an
individual basis.
B. Adaptation leads to change in a species.
C. Variation is caused by a single factor.
D. Species only adapt when they make the decision to
adapt.
56. Likenesses in structure between parts of
different organisms which are evidence of
common ancestry are called—
A. phylogenies
B. analogies
C. genealogies
D. homologies
57. Speciation occurs when variation occurs over
time in geographic isolation.
A. Organisms adapt to changes in the
environment on an individual basis.
B. Adaptation leads to change in a species.
C. Variation is caused by a single factor.
D. Species only adapt when they make the
decision to adapt.
58. Likenesses in structure between parts of
different organisms which are evidence of
common ancestry are called—
A. phylogenies
B. analogies
C. genealogies
D. homologies
59. The ability of an organism to compete
successfully for environmental resources,
survive predation, resist disease, and live to
adulthood affects the organism’s
reproductive
differential
_______________
.
A. reproductive differential
B. genetic variability
C. genetic potential
D. physical fitness
60. Which of the following are homologous
structures?
A. bee wings and bird wings
bird wings and bat wings
B. legs on a beetle and legs on a cat
C. bird wings and bat wings
D. human eyebrows and ant antenna
61. The total number of different alleles present
in a population make up a ___________ .
A. genotype
B. phenotype
C. gene pool
D. gene flow
62. Which pair illustrates analogous structures?
A. butterfly wings and dolphin fins
B. fish fins and whale flippers
C. moth wings and butterfly wings
D. penguin wings and ostrich wings
63. Which statement does not accurately
describe natural selection?
A. Individual organisms change their genes to
adapt to their environment.
B. The genetic composition of a population
changes from one generation to the next.
C. More advantageous traits become more
common in populations.
D. Beneficial and useful traits are inheritable.
64. The occurrence of the same amino acid
sequence in digestive proteins in two
morphologically unrelated species provides
evidence that these two species
A. occupy the same niche
B. have homologous structures
C. descended from a common ancestor
D. have evolved convergently
human fetus
dolphin fetus
65. A human fetus, when compared to a dolphin
fetus, exhibits all
of thegill
following
similarities
pharyngeal
slits
during development EXCEPT:
A. pharyngeal gill slits
a bony tail
B. a bony tail
C. fins
a coat
D. a coat of fine
fur of fine fur
fins
66. In cats, the bones in the legs involved in walking
are very similar to the bones in whales’ flippers
that are involved in swimming. Although they
have different functions, these bones, called
homologous structures, lead us to the theory that
cats and whales:
cats leg bones
whales' flippers bone
A. lived in the same time period
B. have a common ancestor
C. are both great swimmers
D. have analogous structures to begin with
67. Which of the following is an example of a
heritable characteristic possessed by an
animal that will improve its reproductive
potential and survivability in its environment?
A. position of geese flying in V formation
B. color and shape camouflage of preying mantis
C. muscle atrophy in aging dogs
D. male dominance in a pack of wolves
68. Organisms with functionally similar
structures that come from different
taxonomic groups illustrate —
A. convergent evolution
B. divergent evolution
C. coevolution
D. parallel evolution
69. Which part of Darwin’s theory of natural selection can be used
to describe the following predator/prey relationship?
When an eagle preys on mice, some mice are
killed and some escape.
A. directional selection
B. vestigial structures
C. survival of the fittest
D. homologous structures
70. Geographical isolation as a barrier for groups
of organisms is determined by—
A. the ability of organisms to move freely
B. the fitness of the organism in its new
environment
C. the success of the population to compete for
resources
D. the size of the new habitats
71. Heritable structures or behaviors that an
organism possesses that allow it to more
efficiently use its environment are—
A. acclimations
B. adaptations
C. variations
D. mutations
72. What theory explains the origin of
chloroplasts and mitochondria in eukaryotic
cells?
A. theory of natural selection
B. cell theory
C. endosymbiotic theory
D. theory of evolution
73. Looking through the fossil record, there are times
when numerous fossils look to just appear all at the
same time, with similar characteristics. What is a good
explanation for this?
A. A change in the environment occurred, and animals
choose to express different traits.
B. New species are always just occurring, and there is no
reason for it.
C. Ancient man killed off all the animals, and they raised
new animals, which are then found in the fossil record.
D. A change in the environment caused different genetic
traits to allow for a greater chance of survival and the
fossil record shows this.
74. Which structures in figures 2 and 3 are
homologous to C in figure 1?
A. figure 2 – T & figure 3 – M
B. figure 2 – V & figure 3 – O
C. figure 2 – W & figure 3 – N
D. figure 2 – U & figure 3 – P
75. Some animals will lay thousands of eggs,
many more than could be supported by the
environmental resources in their area. How
does inherited variation allow for a population
with limited resources to adapt over time?
In any given generation, populations tend to create
more
offspring variation
than can survive
to reproductive
Inherited
allows
for the age.
As the population increases, and traits that made the
animals
with
the
better
traits
to
ancestor successful therefore also increase in
surviveNatural
to pass
along
their
geneticin
frequency.
selection
leads
to adaptation,
which
organism's
traitsgeneration.
conform to the
codeanto
the next
environment's conditions for existence.
76. A biologist is studying an environment that
contains many different types of finches.
Describe two methods the biologist could use
to determine how closely the different types
of finches are related. Explain how the
biologist will be able to interpret the results of
each method.
-The
The
You
biologist
can test
can
their
collect
geneticssamples
takeofaof
DNA
feather
orfrom
body
or blood
fluids
from
from
each
each
type.
finch.
Youwith
The
could
biologist
should
collect
samples
DNA
each
finch.
The
finches
thealso
finches
group
with
them
the
by
most
similar
similar
colors
DNA
or
sequence,
featuresmost
(such
or closely
whose
as type
body
of beak).
fluids
the
most
most
similar
DNA
sequences
are
probably
related.
Thecontain
biologist
can
also
similar
molecules,
are
probably
most
closely
related.
compare structural similarities. Finches with more similar structures are probably
-more
The biologist
can compare the adaptations or body structures of the finches. The
closely related.
finches with the most similar adaptations or structures are probably most closely
related.
- The biologist could try breeding the different finches. Finches that can successfully
interbreed are more closely related than those that cannot.
77. A good hypothesis _____________ .
A. can be tested by experiment
B. can be an educated guess predicting the
outcome of an experiment
C. can only be formed when you know
something about what is going to happen
D. may be described by all of the above
78. Unlike most substances, water is unusual
expands when it goes from the
because it _________
liquid to solid state.
A. contracts
B. melts
C. expands
D. diffuses
End of Exam