CYTOLOGY
1.
While examining the amniotic fluid
collected with the help of amniocentesis (puncture
of amniotic membrane) cells with sex chromatin
containing nuclei (Barr's bodies) were detected.
What does this fact indicate?
*A. Development of a female fetus.
B. Development of a male fetus.
C. Genetic disorders in embryonic development.
D. Trisomy.
E. Polyploidy.
A. Endoplasmic reticulum.
B. Mitochondria.
C. Polysomes.
*D.Lysosome.
E. Centrosome.
7.
There is a large quantity of
carbohydrates in the dietary intake of a human.
What structures will be seen in the cytoplasm of
hepatocytes?
A. Fat drops.
*B. Glycogen granules.
C. One large fat drop.
D. Increase of free ribosomes quantity.
E. Lipofuscin inclusions.
2.
In a cell the synthesis of histone
proteins was artificially blocked. What cell
structure will be damaged?
A. Nucleolus.
*B. Nuclear chromatin.
C. Golgi apparatus.
D. Cell membrane.
E. Nuclear envelope.
8.
In the course of a scientific
experiment a researcher destroyed a structure of one
of cell parts, which broke cell division capacity.
Which structure has been affected?
A. Microfibrilles.
B. Glycocalix.
C. Golgi apparatus.
*D. Centrosome.
E. Mitochondria.
3.
A chemical agent influenced cell
plasmolemma. Consequently, the cell changed its
form. Which layer of plas- molemmma takes part in
this process?
A. Glycocalyx.
*B. Cortical.
C. Bilipid.
D.Hydrophilic.
E. Hydrophobic.
9.
Tumor cells culture was acted on
with colchicine that blocks the synthesis of tubulinproteins, which form spindle apparatus. What stage
of cellular cycle will be affected?
A. Go period.
B. G1 phase.
C. S phase.
D.G2 phase.
*E. Mitosis.
4.
In a histological specimen is
observed a human somatic cell in the metaphase of
mitotic cell division. How many chromosomes form
the metaphase plate, taking into account that every
chromosome contains two sisterly chromatids?
A. 48.
B. 92.
C. 23.
*D.46.
E. 24.
10.
Prolonged influence of toxic
substances on the organism led to considerable
protein synthesis decrease in hepatocytes. Which
organelles have suffered of intoxication most of all?
*A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.
B. Mitochondria.
C. Microtubules.
D.Lysosomes.
E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
5.
A patient with poisoning has been
hospitalized. It is detected that hepatic
detoxification mechanisms are disordered. Which
hepatocytes organelles has primarily caused the
process?
A. Mitochondria.
*B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.
D. Golgi apparatus.
E. Ribosomes.
11.
A ribosomal structure has been
affected in a cell. What processes will suffer first of
all?
*A. Synthesis of protein.
B. Synthesis of nucleic acids.
C. Synthesis of carbohydrates.
D. Synthesis of lipides.
E. Synthesis of mineral substances.
6.
. Cytochemical investigation has
shown high concentration of hydrolytic enzymes in
the cytoplasm of cells. The activity of which
organelles does this fact indicate?
1
12.
If you could mark and count all
PMNs (neutrophils) released from the
hematopoietic marrow of a normal, healthy
individual in one day and then immediately
inventory the marked cells free in the blood and in
connective tissue, you'd find a deficit: more cells
are released than show up in your inventory. The
chief explanation for this is:
A. Margination.
*B. Apoptosis.
C. Endomitosis.
D. Hemostasis.
E. Differentiation.
syndrome is characterized by the absence of
motions of cellular cilia and flagella. What is
molecular mechanisms of this pathology?
A. Absence of dynein
*B. Excess of dynein
C. Absence of tubulin
D. Deficiency of spectrins
E. Deficiency of hyaluronidase
18.
Rheumatic patient has observable
symptom such as destruction and disorder of the
functions of the cartilage cells. Which of cellular
organelles takes active participation in this
pathological process?
A. Microtubules
B. Cytocenter
C. Golgi complex
D. Ribosomes
*E. Lysosomes
13.
Experimentally (by action of
mutagenic factors) the formation of cellular
ribosomal subunits is disturbed. Which metabolic
process is spoiled?
A. Synthesis of ATP
B. Biologic oxidation
C. Photosynthesis
*D. Biosynthesis of protein
E. Biosynthesis of carbohydrates
19.
During electron microscopy of the
cell spherical vesicles limited by membrane and
comprise various hydrolytic enzymes are
discovered. It is known, that these organelles
provide intracellular digestion and the defense
reactions of the cell. Name them.
14.
In mitotically dividing cell sister
chromatids are at opposite poles of the cell. What
stage of mitosis is it?
A. Interphase
B. Telophase
*C. Anaphase
D. Metaphase
E. Prophase
A. Mitochondria
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Ribosomes
D. Cell centers
*E. Lysosomes
15.
For determining of the human sex
sometimes is necessary to research the somatic
cells. Which structure of the cell nucleus can
provide information about human sex?
A. Uncoiled chromatin
B. Euchromatin
C. Peripheric chromatin
*D. Barr bodies
E. Facultative chromatin
20.
For laboratory investigations a
smear of the oral cavity epithelium is taken by
spatula. What is the probable method of the cell
division in this tissue:
*A. Only by mitosis
B. Only by amitosis
C. Mitosis and amitosis
D. Mitosis and endomitosis
E. Meiosis and amitosis
16.
Mucopolysaccharidosis is the
diseases of accumulation in the cell. Due to the
absence of enzymes disintegration of
mucopolysaccharids is impaired and their
accumulation in cell takes place. Pathology of what
organelles does occur?
A. Mitochondria
B. Cough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Cell center
D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
*E. Lysosomes
21.
Wound surface is formed after
extraction of a tooth, where active regeneration has
begun. Analyzing functions of cell organelles,
determine what of them provide the initial stage of
regeneration - wound cleansing from damaged and
dead tissues:
*A. Cell centers
B. Lysosomes
C. Mitochondria
D. Peroxisomes
E. Golgi complex
17.
. Patient with genetic Kartagener's
syndrome had been hospitalized. Kartagener's
22.
. The low level of proteins albumin and fibrinogen is discovered in patient's
2
blood. The activity of what organelle of hepatocyte
is diminished?
A. Mitochondria
B. Lysosomes
C. Golgi Complex
*D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E.Mesenchyme
28.
In the slides of all organs there are
different types of connective tissue. What is the
origin of embryonal development of connective
tissues?
A.Splanchnotome
B.*Mesenchyme
C.Ectoderm
D.Entoderm
E.Intermediate mesoderm
23.
. Cells of the laboratory animal are
irradiated by X-rays. As a result fragments of
albumin appeared in the cytoplasm. What cell
organelle utilizes them?
A. Golgi complex
B. Cell center
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Ribosomes
E. Lysosomes
29.
During microscopic examination of
embryonic somite is revealed damaged
ventromedial portion of it. The disturbance of
which embryonic structures may happen?
A.Skeletal muscles
B.*Skeletal tissues
C.Cardiac muscle
D.Fibrous connective tissue
E.Urogenital tract
24.
. Electron microscopy reveals the
cell in which nucleolus and nuclear envelope are
absent. Chromosomes are freely disposed in
cytoplasm, centrioles migrate to poles of the cell.
What phase of cell cycle is it?
A. Anaphase
*B. Prophase
C. Metaphase
D. Telophase
E. Interphase
30.
Which is in direct contact with
maternal blood in lacunae of the placenta?
A.Cells of the cytotrophoblast
B.Extraembryonic mesoderni
C.Fetal blood vessels
D.*Cells of the Syncytiotrophoblast
E.Amnioiic cells
25.
Patient has the disease of
accumulation - galactosemia. Disorder of what
cellular structures appeared at this disease?
*A. Lysosomes
B. Cell center
C. Nucleus
D. Cell center
E. Mitochondria
31.
Monozygotic twins arise by
A.Fusion of the embryonic blastomeres from two
zygotes
B.Fertilization of two oocytes by two sperm
C.Fertilization of one oocyte by two sperm
D.*Division of the inner cell mass (embryoblast)
into two embryonic primordia
E.Extra cleavage divisions of the zygote induced by
die presence of a double chorion
EMBRYOLOGY
26.
During early gastrulation of embryo
somite myotomes were damaged. The subsequent
development of which tissue is not possible?
A.*Skeletal muscle
B.Smooth muscle
C.Cartilage
D.Lamellar bone
E.Cardiac muscle
32.
In the developing embryo, the edge
of the ectoderm is continuous with the
A.Chorion
B.*Amnioiic membrane
C.Yolk sac lining
D.Extraembryonic mesoderm
E.Adventitia of the umbilical vessels
33.
The capacitation
A.takes place after fertilisation
B.occurs during ejaculation
C.just occurs in few sperm
D.*makes the sperm readily to release acrosomal
enzymes
E.makes the nucleus of the sperm to expand
27.
Myocardio-dystrophy is followed
by disturbance of cardiomyocytes metabolism.
Pathology of what embryonic source does it
connect to?
A.Endoderm
B.Myotome
C.*Splanchnopleura
D.Ectoderm
3
34.
Where and when does fertilization
normally occur?
A.Ovary, immediately after ovulation
B.Vagina, within 12 hours after ovulation
C.Internal os of the uterus, within 1 day after
ovulation
D.*Ampulla of the oviduct, within 1 day after
ovulation
E.Anterior wall of the uterine body, within 2 days
after ovulation
38.
A lady of 32 becomes pregnant.
The ovum, which was fertilized, was probably
derived from an oogonium
A.2 weeks ago
B.2 months ago
C.20 years ago
D.*more than 30 years ago
E.at any time since puberty
39.
Damages of a coroid are revealed in
a micropreparation of an eyeball of a fetus. What
embryonic material possibly has been damaged
during development of an eye?
Ectoderm.
B.*Mesenchime.
C. Entoderm.
D. An external layer of an eye glass.
E. An internal layer of an eye glass.
35.
The most characteristic event that
occurs during the third week is
A.appearance of endodermal cells
B.*formation of the primitive streak
C.appearance of the amniotic cavity
D.formation of the primitive yolk sac
E.all of the above
36.
A female patient in the late first
trimester of pregnancy exhibits hypertension,
vaginal bleeding and edema. A conceptus
characterized by multiple fluid-filled vesicles and
the absence of a fetus is spontaneously aborted a
week later. Chromosome analysis reveals a 46, XX
karyotype but all of the chromosomes are of
paternal origin. Which of the following tissues
failed to develop in this conceptus?
A.Cytotrophoblast
B.Outer cell mass
C.*Epiblast
D.Primary villi
E.Syncytiotrophoblast
40.
Blue asphyxia of a newborn child
has been diagnosed. What vessel carrying
oxygenated maternal blood to the fetus has been
pinched during delivery?
A. Chorionic artery.
B. Umbilical artery.
C. Chorionic vein.
D. Umbilical vein.
*E. Uterine artery.
41.
Two sacs contacting with each
other (amniotic and yolk) can be seen in a 10-day
embryo specimen. What is the structure in the place
of their contact called?
A. Amniotic crus.
B. Bottom of the amniotic sac.
C. Roof of the yolk sac.
*D. Embryonic plate.
E. Extraembryonic mesoderm.
37.
While alcohol may affect many
developmental processes (including intrauterine
growth retardation) and thus should be avoided
throughout pregnancy, the most severe effects
appear to be related to its disruption of development
of the forebrain. However, women may not be
aware of their pregnancy until they have missed the
menstrual phase of their next cycle (2-4 weeks after
fertilization). This fact along with an understanding
of the sensitive period for the mechanism by which
alcohol-mediated holoprosencephaly (including
fetal alcohol syndrome) occurs, which of the
following groups of women should be most
strenuously targeted with recommendations to
curtail their ingestion of alcohol?
A.*Not pregnant; planning a pregnancy or at risk
for pregnancy
B.Pregnant; (8-12 weeks)
C.Pregnant; (12 - 16 weeks)
D.Pregnant; (16 - 20 weeks)
E.Pregnant; (20 - 24 weeks)
42.
. In a histological specimen is
observed an extraembryonic organ that represents a
bladder connected with intestinal tube. Its wall is
covered with epithelium on the inside, on the
outside it is formed of embryonic connective tissue.
At early stages of embryogenesis it functions as a
hematopoietic organ. What organ is this?
A. Amnion.
B. Allantois.
*C. Yolk sac.
D. Umbilical cord.
E. Uterine artery.
43.
At early stages of human
embryogenesis there arises a digitiform outgrowth
of the ventral wall of the primitive gut rooting itself
4
in the amniotic crus. What is the name of this
extraembryonic organ?
A. Yolk sac.
*B. Allantois.
C. Amnion.
D. Placenta.
E. Umbilical cord.
B. Progenesis.
C. Neurulation.
D. Histogenesis.
E. Organogenesis.
49.
During the process of a human
embryo formation one can observe the rise of a
cavity, light little blastomeres at the periphery, and
dark big blastomeres at one of the poles. How is the
embryo called at this stage of development?
*A. Blastocyst.
B. Morula.
C. Zygote.
D.Gastrula.
E. Embryonic disk.
44.
. In the histological specimen of a
human fetus there can be seen one of
extraembryonic organs - a bladder linked with
intestinal tube. In its wall there are primary germ
cells and primary erythrocytes (megaloblasts).
Define what this organ is.
*A. Yolk sac.
B. Allantois.
C. Placenta.
D. Umbilical cord.
E. Amnion.
50.
Gonoblasts, sex stem cells, are
detected in a 2-3-week-old embryo. Where do these
cells differentiate?
A. In embryonic endoderm.
B. In mesenchyme.
C. In embryonic ectoderm.
D.In dermatome.
*E. In yolk sac.
45.
In the course of the experiment on a
frog embryo the external embryonic layer ectoderm - has been destroyed. Which of the
following morphological structures has not
developed henceforth?
*A. Epidermis.
B. Somites.
C. Nephrotome.
D. Splanchnotome.
E. Myotome.
51.
Embryonic implantation into
endometrium (uterine mucosa) consists of two
phases - adhesion and invasion. The first phase is
accompanied by:
A. Activation of uterine glands secretion.
B. Destruction of endometrium connective tissue.
C. Destruction of endometrium epithelial cells.
*D. Blastocyst attachment to endometrium surface.
E. Suppression of uterine glands secretion.
46.
Zygote cell-division finishes after
blastula formation. What type of blastula is specific
of a human being?
A. Discoblastula.
B. Celoblastula.
*C. Blastocyst.
D.Amphiblastula.
E. Morula.
52.
In a histological specimen there is a
hen embryo in the stage of mesoderm
differentiation to somites, nephrotomes, and
splanchnotome. Of which material will the axial
skeleton develop?
A. Myotome.
B. Dermatome.
C. Nephrotome.
D. Splanchnotome.
*E. Sclerotome.
47.
During the third week of
embryogenesis the central part of epiblast cells
(ectoderm) sags and neurulation process begins. In
which direction will the remaining ectodermal cells
differentiate?
A. Gut.
*B. Skin.
C. Somites.
D. Chord.
E. Yolk sac.
53.
A histological specimen shows a
transverse section of an organ, whose basis is
formed of mucous connective tissue, two arteries,
and a vein. What organ is it?
A. Yolk sac.
B. Allantois.
*C. Umbilical cord.
D. Amnion.
48.
In a microscopic specimen of a
human embryo, taken after involuntary miscarriage,
an embryonic plate has been detected with two
cellular layers: endo- and ectoderm. At what stage
of embryonal development is this embryo?
*A. Gastrulation.
5
E. Placenta.
54.
In a specimen an ovocyte at the
moment of its fertilization by spermatozoon can be
seen. What is the main result of fertilization?
*A. Formation of zygote.
B. Determining the child's sex.
C. Meiosis completion with ovocyte.
D. Penetration of ovolemma by spermatozoon.
E. Cortical reaction.
60.
Monozygotic twins resulting from a
complete separation of the ICM into two, noncontiguous cell masses would be expected to have
A. separate placentae and amniotic cavities
*B. a shared placenta and a common amniotic
cavity
C. a shared placenta and separate amniotic cavities
D. separate placentae but a common amniotic cavity
E. a shared umbilical cord
55.
An anlage of an organ performing
endocrine function is formed of a trophoblast
during embryogenesis. What organ is this?
*A. Villous chorion (fetal part of placenta).
B. Amnion.
C. Yolk sac.
D.Allantois.
E. Umbilical cord.
61.
. In embryonic material disorder of
endoderm differentiation is detected.
Development of what organ is changed?
A. Aorta
B. Heart
C. Kidney
*D. Stomach
E. Salivary glands
56.
A human embryo is comprised of
two blastomeres. Name its location under the
condition of normal genesis.
A. Ovary.
B. Cavity of uterus.
C. Abdominal cavity.
D. Endometrium.
*E. Uterine tube.
62.
Known, what on 2nd week of
human embryogenesis process of gastruiation
begins. Which mechanism of gastruiation does
human embryo have?
A. Epiboly
B. Invagination
*C. Delamination and immigration
D. Immigration and invagination
E. Epiboly and invagination
57.
Some microorganisms being the
reason of infectious diseases can pass through the
placental barrier. What structures does it consist of?
*A. All the components of tertiary villi.
B. Chorion and amnion.
C. All the components of secondary villi.
D.Allantois, yolk sac.
E. Basal lamina of endometrium with
decidual cells.
63.
Which is in direct contact with
maternal blood in lacunae of the placenta?
a. Cells of the cytotrophoblast
b. Extraembryonic mesoderni
c. Fetal blood vessels
*d. Cells of the Syncytiotrophoblast
e. Amnioiic cells
58.
A fetus' umbilical cord is
compressed, but blood circulation between the
mother and child is preserved. What structures
provided this primarily?
*A. Mucous connective tissue.
B. Residue of allantois.
C. Arteries sheath.
D. Veins sheath.
E. Residue of yolk pedicel.
64.
Child inherits from father and
mothers antigens of tissue compatibility. Known,
that parental antigens expression begins at very
early in embryogenesis, but immune system of
mother not reject the embryo. Which provisional
(temporary) organ the first baffles the abruption of
embryo from mother's organism?
A. Placenta
B. Cytotrophoblast
C. Allantois
D. Yolk sac
*E. Chorion
59.
"To be born with a silver spoon in
one's mouth" corresponds to Russian "to be born in
a shirt". What "shirt" is meant?
A. Serous.
B. Yolk.
*C. Amniotic.
D. Chorionic.
E. Trophoblastic.
65.
In blastocyst, covered by membrane
of fertilization, the synthesis of lytic enzymes by
the tropoblast cells is genetically inhibited. Which
process of embryogenesis can be held up or will not
occur?
6
*A: Implantation
B. Delamination
C. Immigration
D. Gastrulation
E. Epiboly
71.
. Inside female sexual ways
spermatozoa move to ovum against fluid current
(distant stage of fertilization). What is the name of
this directed movement?
*A. Chemotaxis
B. Termotaxis
C. Reotaxis
D. Capacitation
E. Acrosomal reaction
66.
In embryonic material from biopsy
the disordered zone of somite, which is situated
near endoderm and notochord is discovered. The
disorder of the development of which embryonic
structures can be awaited in case of continuation of
pregnancy?
*A. Skeletal striated muscle
B. Urinary system
C. Skeletal tissues
D. Cardiac striated muscle
E. Connective tissue of the skin
72.
. In slide is presented transverse
section of organ which consists of mucous
connective tissue, two arteries and vein. What is
this ?
*A. Umbilical cord
B. Allantois
C. Yolk-sac
D. Amnion
E. Placenta
67.
In embryonic material disorder of
endoderm differentiation is detected.
Development of what organ is changed?
A. Aorta
B. Heart
C. Kidney
*D. Stomach
E. Salivary glands
73.
. Placental villi are derived from
which one of the following tissues?
A Epithelium of endometrial glands
B Inner cell mass of the blastocyst
C Spiral artries of the endometrium
*D Trophoblast of the blastocyst
68.
. During the forensic medicine
expertise of woman the embryo at early gastrulation
stage was found. Name the place of its normal
localization.
A. Abdominal cavity
B. Ampullar segment of the oviduct
C. Uterine segment of the oviduct
D. Uterine cavity
*E. Uterine wall
74.
Capacitation of sperm is best
described by which one of the following
characteristics?
(A) It occurs entirely in the epididymis
(B) It is not necessary for fertilization to occur
*(C) It includes removal of some sperm surface
oligosaccharides while in the female reproductive
tract
(D) It is completed in the vas deferens and seminal
vesicle prior to ejaculation
(E) It includes removal of some sperm surface
oligosaccharides by secretions of the1 prostate
gland
69.
Gastrulation, or development of
germinal layers of embryo, arises by different
modes. What is the mode of the human ecto- and
endoderm development?
*A. Delamination
B. Invagination
C. Epiboly
D. Migration
E. Invagination and epiboly
75.
In the slides of all organs there are
different types of connective tissue. What is the
origin of embryonal development of connective
tissues?
A. Splanchnotome
*B. Mesenchyme
C. Ectoderm
D. Entoderm
E. Intermediate mesoderm
70.
Myocardiodystrophy is
accompanied by disorder of cardiomyocyte
metabolism. The disorder of development of which
source is connected with this pathology?
A. Myotomes
*B. Myoepieardiac plate
C. Endoderm
D Ectoderm
E. Mesenchyme
76.
During microscopic examination of
embryonic somite is revealed damaged
ventromedial portion of it. The disturbance of
which embryonic structures may happen?
*A. Skeletal muscles
7
B. Skeletal tissues
C.Cardiac muscle
D. Fibrous connective tissue
E. Urogenital tract
82.
. Pleural fiction rub of a patient
with dry pleuritis is being auscultated. What
epithelium is damaged?
A. Simple columnar.
B. Simple cuboidal.
*C. Simple squamous.
D. Transitional.
E. Stratified.
EPITHELIAL TISSUES
77.
Somatostatin secreted by δ cells of
the islets of Langerhans affects the activity of the
insulin and glucagon-secreting cells of the islets.
This type of secretion is called
A.* endocrine
B. paracrine
C. apocrine
D. holocrine
E. merocrine
83.
Diphtheritic croup arises in
consequence of thickening on true vocal folds of
fibrin films closely connected with epithelium.
With what epithelium is vocal folds mucosa lined?
A. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated.
B. Stratified squamous keratinized.
*C. Stratified squamous non-keratinized.
D. Simple squamous.
E. Simple cuboidal.
78.
After a long inflammation of a
nasal cavity mucosa the changes of an epithehum
are observed. What epithelium has undergone to
changes?
A.*Simple pseudostratified
B.Stratified cuboidal
C.Stratified squamous
D.Simple squamous
E.Stratified columnar
84.
A benign epithelial tumor of
trachea of a 56-year-old man is diagnosed. What
epithelium is a source of this tumor development?
A. Simple pseudostratified transitional.
B. Stratified non-keratinized.
C. Stratified keratinized.
*D. Simple pseudostratified ciliated.
E. Simple columnar.
79.
Secretory cell has well developed
organelles, complex Golgi contains many vacuoles
and vesicles. Plasmolemma is without damage.
Which type of secretion has this cell?
A.Microapocrine
B.Macroapocrine
C.Holocrine
D.Endocrine
E.*Merocrine
85.
A benign epithelial tumor of
visceral pleura of the right lung superior lobe of a
48-year-old man is diagnosed. What epithelium is a
source of this tumor development?
*A. Simple squamous.
B. Stratified non-keratinized.
C. Simple pseudostratified ciliated.
D. Transitional.
E. Stratified keratinized.
80.
Under investigation of stomach's
mucosa are found many exocrine simple tubular
glands. Which exocrine glands are simple?
A.*With unbranched excretory ducts
B.Unicellular endoepithelial
C.With branched excretory ducts
D.With branched secretory portion
E.With unbranched secretory portion
86.
A 15-year-old girl has a chemical
burn of the superior surface of tongue. What
epithelium is damaged?
A. Simple pseudostratified ciliated.
B. Simple low columnar.
*C. Stratified non-keratinized.
D. Transitional.
E. Simple squamous.
81.
Under examination of biopsy are
found exocrine gland with branched excretory duct
with several tubular secretory portions. What is the
type of the gland?
A.*Compound branched tubular
B.Simple tubular
C.compound branched alveolar
D.Simple alveolar
E.Compound unbranched tubular
87.
A malignant epithelial tumor of the
pericardium of a 53-year-old man has been
diagnosed. What epithelium is a source of its
development?
A. Transitional.
B. Pseudostratified.
*C. Simple squamous.
D. Stratified keratinized.
E. Stratified non-keratinized.
8
93.
Although all histology texts classify
endothelial and mesothelial cells as epithelia, many
pathologists say these cells are not epithelial.
Besides the derivation of these cells from
mesoderm, what other reason could pathologists
cite to support their view?
A. These cells do not border a free surface.
B. These cells do not sit on a basal lamina.
C. These cells lack intercellular junctions.
D. These cells express mostly vimentin rather than
keratin intermediate filaments.
*E. These cells are arranged as monolayers not
multilayers.
88.
A patient has changes of epithelium
observed after prolonged inflammation of nasal
cavity mucosa. What epithelium has changed?
A. Stratified squamous.
B. Simple squamous.
*C. Pseudostratified.
D. Stratified cuboidal.
E. Stratified columnar.
89.
Pleural fiction rub of a patient with
dry pleuritis is being auscultated. What epithelium
is damaged?
A. Simple columnar.
B. Simple cuboidal.
*C. Simple squamous.
D. Transitional.
E. Stratified.
94.
Many internal epithelia provide an
important protective function for the body by
producing and exporting:
A. Antibodies.
B. Extensive extracellular matrix between cells.
*C. Mucous.
D. Heat shock proteins.
E. Microvilli.
90.
A 66-year-old man has a malignant
epithelial tumor originating from a bronchus of
medium calibre diagnosed. What epithelium is a
source of this tumor development?
A. Stratified keratinized.
B. Stratified non-keratinized.
*C. Simple pseudostratified ciliated.
D.Simple pseudostratified transitional.
E. Simple columnar.
95.
After long inflammation of a nasal
mucosa changes in epithelium are observed in the
patient. What type of epithelium is changed?
A. Stratified squamous
B. Simple squamous
*C. Simple pseudostratified
D. Stratified cuboidal
Э. Stratified columnar
96.
The cells purchase morphological,
biochemical and functional peculiarities as a result
of blocking of the separate components of cellular
genome. What is the name this process?
A. Capacitation
*B. Differentiation
C. Reception
D. Determination
E. Adhesion
91.
Experimentally the structures of
tight contact between epithelial cells have been
disturbed. What function of epithelium will be
damaged?
A. Secretory.
B. Suction.
C. Vitamin D producing.
*D. Mechanical.
E. Excretory.
92.
You have seen a section of the
epiglottis in lab to study its cartilage. The
epithelium on the lingual surface of the epiglottis is
stratified squamous. On the laryngeal surface this
epithelium normally becomes pseudostratified
columnar towards its base at the inlet of the larynx.
In some individuals, such as politicians running for
office, the epithelium in this basal area is stratified
squamous not pseudostratified columnar. The
process responsible for the transformation of this
epithelium is called:
*A. Metaplasia.
B. Hyperplasia.
C. Adenocarcinoma.
D. Epidermolysis.
E. Dystrophia.
97.
Under examination of biopsy are
found exocrine gland with branched excretory duct
with several tubular secretory portions. What is the
type of the gland?
*A Compound branched tubular
B. Simple tubular
C. compound branched alveolar
D. Simple alveolar
D. Compound unbranched tubular
CONNECTIVE TISSUES
98.
A 42-year-old male patient arrives
in the emergency room with a rash over much of his
face, hands, and arms. He states that he was
9
gardening and pulled out a number of weeds. On
questioning the patient, the physician realized that
the patient inadvertently came in contact with
poison ivy. Which of the following cells is
responsible for the release of the pharmacologic
agents that caused the rash?
A.* Mast cells
B. Myofibroblasts
C. Difluse neuroendocrine system (DNES) cells
D. Pericytes
E. Plasma cells
103.
During the trainings at the
sportsman the lag was injuret. The doctortraumotologist diagnosad break of a tendon. What
type of a connective tissue forms this structore?
A.Reticular
В.Cartilage
С.Dense irregular
D.Loose fibrous connective
E.*Dense regular
104.
In the experiment T-lymphocytes of
blood were marked. Foreign protein were injected a
under a skin of the animal. What cells in connective
tissue will contain this mark?
A.Macrophages.
B.T-helpers
C.*Plasmocytes.
D.T-killers
E.Fibroblasts.
99.
A histologic section of connective
tissue shows numerous cells containing large
numbers of uniformly sized basophilic granules.
The cells are ovoid, with a centrally located
nucleus, and are aligned along blood vessels. The
cells are most likely
A.* mast cell
B. fibroblasts
C. macrophages
D. eosinophils
E. plasma cells
105.
Plasma cell produces specific
antibodies to the certain antigen. What blood cells
take a part in the increase of plasmocvtes" amount
during immune response?
A. T-lymphocytes.
B.*B-lymphocytes.
C. Monocytes.
D. Basophils.
E. Eosinophils
100.
On a tissue specimen in a
connective tissue the large cells filled with
basophilic metachromatic granules are found out;
they contain heparin and histamine. What cells are
found out in a preparation?
A.*Tissue basophils (mast cells)
B. Adipocytes
C. lasmocytes
D. Fibroblasts
E. Macrophages
106.
During spinal puncture a
neurologist punctuates dura mater. Which tissue
forms it?
A. Smooth muscle tissue.
B. Loose connective tissue.
C. *Dense connective tissue.
D. Mucous connective tissue.
E. Cartilaginous tissue.
101.
In a blood smear among leukocytes
the spherical cells with segmented nuclei prevail.
The line granules in their cytoplasm are stained
both acidic and basic dyes. How are these cells
called?
A.*Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Juvenile neutrophils
E. Monocytes
107.
A patient's blood stem cells were
destructed after radiation exposure. Regeneration of
what loose connective tissue cells will be affected?
A. Adipocytes.
B. Pigment cells.
C. *Macrophages.
D. Pericytes.
E. Fibroblasts.
102.
One of the reason of hypoxia
lessens of the organ's blood supply. Hypoxia
activates functions of the fibroblasts. Volume of
which elements increase?
A.Lymphatic vessels
B. Parenchymatous elements
C. *Intercellular substance
D.Nervous elements
E. Microcirculatory blood vessels
108.
Histamine has a leading role in the
development of the clinical presentations of allergy.
Which cells produce histamine?
A. B-lymphocytes.
B. T-lymphocytes.
C: Macrophages.
D.*Mast cells.
E. Plasma cells.
10
109.
With age human skin undergoes
changes, which may declare themselves by
reduction of skin elasticity. What structures of
connective tissue provide skin elasticity most of all?
A. Cells of epidermis.
B. Ground substance.
C. *Collagen and elastic fibers.
D. Connective tissue cells.
E. Reticular fibers.
114.
In experiment one of blood cells
was selectively stimulated. As a result the
permeability of vessels was considerably improved,
an edema and increased coagulation of a blood
appeared. What cells were stimulated?
A.*Basophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Erythrocytes
D. Thrombocytes
E. Eosinophils
110.
One of the rules of surgery is
performing sections along the so-called lines of
Langer (lines of skin tension). What tissue forms
the reticular (the strongest) layer of derma?
A. Reticular connective tissue.
B. *Dense irregular connective tissue.
C. Loose connective tissue.
D. Epithelial tissue.
E. Dense regular connective tissue.
115.
During examination of a blood
smear of the patient the cells are found out which
make 0,5 % from total of leukocytes, have the Sshaped nucleus, and basophilic granules in
cytoplasm. Name these cells.
A. Neutrophils
B.*Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
E. Lymphocytes
BLOOD AND LYMPH
111.
A scientist spent a summer in a
remote region of Africa, where he studied exotic
plants. On returning to the United States, he
developed a cough and fever that would not go
away. Laboratory tests revealed that he had
contracted a roundworm, Ascaris lumbricoides.
Which of the following cells would be expected to
be significantly elevated in a differential count of
his blood?
A.* Eosinophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Erythrocytes
E. Neutrophils
116.
By results of study of blood
maculae on a place of a crime the crime-medical
expert has found out, that it is a blood of the
woman. To what attributes is it fixed?
A. Amount of erythrocytes
B. Phenomenon of a poikilocytosis
C. Presence of microcytes and macrocytes
D. Presence of specific granules in eosinophils
E.*Presence of nuclear satellites in neutrophils
117.
At research of a tissue specimen of
a connective tissue the neutrophils are defined.
What function do these cells execute, entering from
a blood into a tissue?
A.Adjust reductions of smooth myocytes
B. Nutritive
C. Trophyc
D. *Phagocytosis of microorganisms
E. Dilate blood vessels
112.
Examination of the blood smear of
a young patient reveals misshapen red blood cells,
and the pathology report indicates hereditary
spherocytosis. Defects in which one of the
following proteins causes this condition?
A.* Spectrin
B. Signaling molecules
C. G proteins
D. Hemoglobin
E. Ankyrin
118.
The reduced haemoglobin content
in a blood is revealed. What function of a blood will
be disturbed?
A.*Transport of gases
B. Transport of hormones
C. Maintenance of immunity
D. Clotting
E. Transport of nutritive substances
113.
At the patient with pneumonia the
increase of leukocytes in the blood test is revealed.
How is this phenomenon called?
A.*Leukocytosis
B. Anemia
C. Leukopenia
D. Anisocytosis
E. Poikilocytosis
119.
In a blood of the patient 14,5% of
erythrocytes with diameter more than 8 µm, 15,5%
of erythrocytes up to 6 µm, other erythrocytes with
diameter 7,1 - 7,9 µm are revealed. How is such
phenomenon called?
A.Erythropenia
11
B. Erythrocytosis
C.*Anisocytosis
D. Physiological poikilocytosis
E. Pathological poikilocytosis
B. Fibroblasts
C. B-lymphocytes
D. T-lymphocytes
E. O-lymphocytes
120.
In a blood smear of the patient after
influenza 10 % of spherical cells are revealed,
which have the large ball-shaped nucleus,
basophilic cytoplasm in the form of thin rim around
of a nucleus. What condition of a blood is revealed?
A.Leukopenia
B. Thrombopenia
C.*Lymphocytopenia
D. Lymphocytosis
E. Monocytopenia
125.
Patient with third-degree burn was
transplanted donor's skin. At 8-th day after
transplantation the transplantate became swollen
and changed colour. At 11- th day begun
destruction. Which cells took place in this process?
A.Eosinophils
B.*T-lymphocytes
C. Basophils
D. B-lymphocytes
E. Erythrocytes
121.
In a blood smear the large (diameter
20 microns) spherical cells with pale basophilic
cytoplasm, bean-shaped nucleus are observed, they
constitute 20% of a total amount of leukocytes.
How is this clinical phenomenon called?
A.*Monocytosis
B.Reticulocytosis
C.Lymphocytosis
D.Leukopenia
E.Neutrocytosis
126.
It is known that plasma cells
produce specific antibodies to the antigen. At the
injection of antigen the amount of plasmocytes
increases. Due to what from the following blood
cells the amount of plasmocytes increases?
A.*B-lymphocytes
B. T-lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Eosinophils
E. Basophils
122.
Al tin-child around of a scratch on a
skin the attributes of an inflammation have
appeared: a pain, reddening, edema as attributes of
immediate hypersensitivity. What blood cells cause
these changes?
A.*Basophils
B.Lymphocytes
C.Eosinophils
D.Neutrophils
E.Monocytes
127.
At inspection of the patient the
insufficient amount of immunoglobulins was
revealed. What cells of immune system produce
them?
A.*Plasma cells
B. T-helper
C. Plasmablasts
D. T-supressor
E. T-killer
128.
At the repeated penetration of
antigen antibodies are produced in an organism. To
the function of what immunocompetent cells is this
phenomenon related?
A.*Lymphocytes of memory
B.T-killers.
C.T-suppressors
D.Macrophages.
E.Dendritic cells.
123.
A patient who was given penicillin
has an adverse reaction to the antibiotic. Although
the reaction is due to the actions of mast cells, the
response occurred because mast cells have
immunoglobulin E (IgE) receptors in their cell
membranes. Which of the following cells produced
the IgE decorating the plasma cell's surface?
A.* Plasma cells
B. T memory cells
C. B memory cells
D. T helper cells
E. T cytotoxic cells
129.
In the conditions of experiment in
the organism of experimental animal antibodies to
tymosins was entered. Differentiation of what cells
will be violated first of all?
A.*T-lymphocytes
B. Monocytes
C. B-lymphocytes
D. Macrophages
E. Plasmocytes.
124.
At the patient with primary
immunodeficiency the dysfunction of
antigenpresentation to immuno-competent cells is
revealed. The damaged function of what cells can
cause it?
A.*Macrophages, monocytes
12
130.
In the blood of girl of 16 years,
suffering by autoimmune inflammation of thyroid
gland, numerous plasma cells are identified. To
proliferation and differentiation of what blood cells
is the increase of amount of plasmacytes related?
A.Mast cells
B. T-helpers
C.*B-lymphocytes
D. T-killers
E. T-suppressors
B. Basophils.
C. Eosinophils.
D.Young neutrophils.
E. Monocytes.
136.
During an experiment one of blood
cell populations was selectively stimulated. As a
result, vascular permeability considerably
increased, which caused perivascular tissue edema
and blood coagulation slowing-down. Which cells
were stimulated?
*A. Basophils.
B. Erythrocytes.
C. Thrombocytes.
D. Eosinophils.
E. Lymphocytes.
131.
In a blood smear among leukocytes
the spherical cells with segmented nuclei prevail.
The line granules in their cytoplasm are stained
both acidic and basic dyes. How are these cells
called?
A.
*Neutrophils
B.
Basophils
C.
Eosinophils
D.
Juvenile neutrophils
E.
Monocytes
132.
Hemoglobin quantity has decreased
in blood. Which function of blood, is disordered in
this case?
A. Hormones transport.
B. *Gases transport.
C. Providing immunity.
D. Coagulation.
E. Nutritive materials transport
133.
20% of spherical, flat, plane, and
branched erythrocytes have been detected in the
blood of a 26-year-old man. The other erythrocytes
are of biconcave
discoid shape. How is such phenomenon called?
A. Physiological poikilocytosis.
*B. Pathological poikilocytosis.
C Physiological anisocytosis.
D. Pathological anisocytosis.
E. Erythrocytosis.
137.
10% of spherical cells of 4.5-7
micrometers size with large spherical nuclei and
basophile colored cytoplasm in the form of a
narrow thin edge around the nucleus have been
detected in the blood smear of a patient who had
had
, flu. What condition of blood do the cells
characterize?
A. Thrombopenia.
*B. Lymphocytopenia.
C. Leukopenia.
D. Lymphocytosis.
E. Monocytopenia.
138.
A patient, a nurse by profession,
complains of increasing hands' skin itching and
appearance of vesicles filled with liquid after a
watch in hospital, namely after injecting
streptomycin to patients. During the leave disease
signs disappear. The increased quantity of which
cells can be detected by means of blood analysis?
*A. Neutrophilic leukocytes.
B. Basophilic leukocytes.
C. Monocytes.
D.Eosinophilic leukocytes.
E. Lymphocytes.
134.
A large cell with low-basophilic
cytoplasm and bean-like nucleus is observed in a
peripheral blood smear. The cell is the largest
among other ones in this specimen. What is this
cell?
A. Plasma cell.
B. Macrophage.
*C. Monocyte.
D.Middle lymphocyte.
E. Small lymphocyte.
139.
Helminthic invasion of a 6-year-old
child is diagnosed. What changes of the leukocytic
formula should be expected?
A. Increase of lymphocytes quantity.
B. Increase of neutrophiles quantity.
C. Decrease of eosinophils quantity.
D. Increase of monocytes quantity.
E. * Increase of eosinophils quantity.
135.
In a peripheral blood smear some
round cells with segmented nuclei prevail among
leukocytes. Minute granulosity in their cytoplasm is
dyed both with acid and basic coloring agents. How
are these cells called?
*A. Segmentonuclear neutrophils.
140.
After conducting analysis a
laboratory doctor came to an additional conclusion
that the blood belongs to a woman. Features of what
blood elements ground such conclusion?
13
A. Erythrocytes.
B. *Neutrophilic leukocytes.
C. Lymphocytes.
D. Monocytes.
E. Basophilic leukocytes.
146.
It is known that plasma cells
produce specific antibodies to this antigen. After
antigen introduction the quantity of plasma cells is
increasing. What cells differentiate into plasma
cells?
*A. B-lymphocytes.
B. T-lymphocytes.
C. Neutrophils.
D. Eosinophils.
E. Basophils.
141.
By the results of the analysis of
blood spots in the site of a crime a medical expert
has detected that it was woman's blood. By what
signs is it established?
A. Poikilocytosis.
B. Microcytes and macrocytes.
C. *Satellites of nuclei in neutrophiles.
D. Specific granules in eosinophils.
E. Erythrocytes quantity.
147.
Histological examination of a 35year-old man's red bone marrow punctuate has
shown considerable decrease of megakaryocytes
quantity. What changes of peripheral blood
accompany this?
A. Leukocytosis.
*B. Thrombocytopenia.
C. Thrombocytosis.
D. Granulocytopenia.
E. Leukopenia.
142.
A child has signs of inflammation
around a scratch on the skin: pain, reddening,
edema - as a manifestation of immediate
hypersensitivity reaction. What blood cells
predetermine these changes?
A. Lymphocytes.
B. Eosinophils.
C. Neutrophiles.
D.*Basophiles.
E. Monocytes.
148.
NADPH oxidase catalyzes the
formation of superoxide radicals, reactive
molecules that are also substrates for the synthesis
of hydrogen peroxide. People born with inherited
defects in NADPH oxidase activity suffer from
numerous, long lasting bacterial infections. This is
likely due to reduced effectiveness of their:
A. Monocytes.
B. B cells.
C. *Neutrophils.
D. Eosinophils.
E. Basophils.
143.
The research of a specimen of
connective tissue has detected neutrophiles. How do
these cells function penetrating from blood into
tissues?
A. Of support.
B. Trophic.
C. *Phagocytosis of microorganisms.
D. Regulate contraction of smooth myocytes.
E. Dilate blood vessels.
149.
Eosinophils kill the larval forms of
parasites, such as schistosomes, by:
A. Phagocytosis and internal destruction.
B. Release of histamine.
C. *Release of major basic protein.
D. Release of antibodies.
E. Release of complement factors.
144.
Megalocytes may appear in human
peripheral blood. When is their quantity in blood
normal?
*A. During embryonic period.
B. Up to 1 year old.
C. From 1 year to 30 years.
D. During elderly period.
E. During pregnancy.
150.
The orthochromatophilic
erythroblast is so-named for its "normal," "correct,"
or mature eosinophilically stained cytoplasm.
However, as you saw in the lab, the cytoplasm of
these cells is usually darker, more basophilic than
that of mature RBCs. The reason for this that the
"orthos" contain:
A. Spectrin.
B. Lysosomes.
C. *Polysomes.
D. Oxyhemoglobin.
E. Granules loaded with histamine and heparin.
145.
In a peripheral blood smear some
round cells with segmented nuclei prevail among
leukocytes. Minute granulosity in their cytoplasm is
dyed both with acid and basic coloring agents. How
are these cells called?
*A. Segmentonuclear neutrophils.
B. Basophils.
C. Eosinophils.
D.Young neutrophils.
E. Monocytes.
14
151.
One function of the thymus is to
remove potentially self-reactive T cells early in life,
but autoimmune diseases are occasionally seen in
older individuals. The process of clonal anergy
could logically account for some of this
autoimmunity because:
A. *T cells with receptors to self-antigens are still
present by this process.
B. Clonal anergy occurs outside the thymus.
C. The involution of the thymus renders it
inoperative in later life.
D. T cells have short life spans.
E. Hassall's corpuscles increase in size in older
individuals.
B. Lymphocytopoiesis
C. Neutrophilocytopoiesis
D. Eosinophilocytopoiesis
E. Basophilocytopoiesis
156.
Histological research of punctate of
red bone marrow took place at the examination of
patient of 35 years. The considerable decrease of
amount of megacaryocytes was exposed. What
changes of peripheral blood are it accompanied?
A. Increase of amount of leucocytes
B.*Decrease of amount of thrombocytes
C. Increase of amount of thrombocytes
D. Decrease of amount of granulocytes.
E. Decrease of amount of leucocytes.
152.
. Preparations of two smearses are
given out to the student. In one smears all field of
view show erythrocytes, in the second – blood cells
of different degree of maturation. What are these
smearses?
A. Frog blood and human blood.
B. Blood and lymph.
C. *Blood and smears of human red bone marrow.
D. Blood and smears of yellow bone marrow.
E. Smears of yellow and red bone marrow
153.
Plasma cell produces specific
antibodies to the certain antigen. What blood cells
take a part in the increase of plasmocytes’ amount
during immune response?
A. T-lymphocytes.
B.* B-lymphocytes.
C. Monocytes.
D. Basophils.
E. Eosinophils
157.
Accumulations of the giant cells,
located in the close connection with sinusoidal
capillaries, are found in micropreparation of red
bone marrow of man. What blood cells appear from
these cells?
A. Erythrocytes
B.*Thrombocytes
C. Leucocytes
D. Monocytes
E. Lymphocytes
158.
In the red bone marrow during
postembryonal hemopoiesis in the cells of a diferon
cytoplasmic basophilia gradually decreases,
oxyphilia increases, nucleus is pushed out. What
type of hemopoiesis has these morphologic
changes?
*A. Erythropoiesis.
B. Lymphopoiesis.
C. Neutrophilopoiesis.
D. Eosinophilopoiesis.
E. Basophilopoiesis.
HAEMOPOIESIS
154.
In a smear of normal red bone
marrow, a cells is observed to be obviously larger
than an erythrocyte; to have a relatively large,
unintended, euchromatic nucleus; and to have a
scattering of purple-staining granules in the
cytoplasm. The cell is a
A.* promyelocyte
B. Basophilic erythroblast
C. neutrophilic metamyelocyte
D. normoblast
E. eosinophilic myelocyte
159.
Responding to the same antigen on
recurring exposure specific antibodies are produced
by lymphatic system cells. With the function of
what cells is this phenomenon connected?
*A. B-memory cells.
B. T-killers.
C. T-suppressors.
D. Macrophages.
E. Dendritic cells.
155.
In red bone marrow during post
embryonic hemopoiesis in the cells of one of
differones basophilia of cytoplasm gradually
decreases and acidophilia increases, a nucleus is
pushed out. What type of hemopoiesis these
morphological changes characterize?
160.
A mutation produces a unique DNA
sequence that is detected in a patient's eosinophils.
This sequence is not detected in fibroblasts or
epidermal cells taken from the patient, indicating
that the mutation was not inherited from the
parents, but arose sometime after fertilization. You
want to test the hypothesis that this mutation
occurred in a CFU-S cell. Verification of the
A.*Erithrocytopoiesis
15
hypothesis would be provided by observing the
mutation in what other cell?
A. *PMNs.
B. Proerythroblasts.
C. Megakaryocytes.
D. Monoblasts.
E. T cells.
C. *Increase of quantity of thrombocytes
D. Decrease of quantity of granulocytes
E. Decrease of quantity of leucocytes
SKELETAL CONNECTIVE TISSUES
165.
Synovial fluids of normal joints are
usually devoid of collagen. It has been
demonstrated that patients suffering from
rheumatoid diseases will have different types of
collagen in their synovial fluid, depending on the
tissue being damaged. If a patient has type II
collagen in his synovial joint, which of the
following tissues is being eroded?
A.* Articular cartilage
B. Vascular endothelium
C. Compact bone
D. Vascular smooth muscle
E. Synovial membrane
161.
The GEMM hematopoietic stem
cell can give rise to three different, more restricted
stem cells in hematopoietic marrow. The relative
frequencies with which the three are produced are
influenced most directly by:
A. The cytokines present in the marrow.
B. The relative balance of mature cells in the
marrow.
C. *The relative balance of mature cells in the
blood.
D. Random genetic events.
E. Adventitial veticular cells.
166.
On a tissue specimen of a cartilage
the isogenic groups of cells are taped. What cells
are initial in formation of these groups?
A.*Chondrocytes
B. Prechondroblasts
C. Chondroblasts
D. Fibroblast
E. Osteoblasts
162.
Occasionally, reticulocytes are
produced containing small chromatin fragments due
to incomplete extrusion of the nucleus from the
orthochromatophilic erythroblast. These dense
lumps (called Howell-Jolly bodies) will impede the
flexibility of the resulting RBC's and such cells
could plug up capillaries. This situation is thought
to be corrected by:
*A. Digestion of the fragments by DNase in the
cytoplasm of RBC's.
B. Destruction of the RBCs by NK cells due to
binding of anti-DNA antibodies.
C. Destruction of the RBCs by macrophages as the
RBC's reenter splenic sinuses from splenic cords.
D. Removal of the nuclear fragment by
macrophages as the RBC's reenter splenic sinuses
from splenic cords.
E. Removal of the fragments by adventitial reticular
cells in the bone marrow.
167.
During electron-microscopic
examination of a hyaline cartilage the cells with
well advanced rough ER, Golgi apparatus are found
out. What function do these cells execute?
A.Destruction of intercellular substance of a
cartilage
B. Deposition of a glycogen
C. Nutrition of a tissue
D. Deposition of lipid
E.*Formation of intercellular substance
168.
Which tissue will have damaged
underarthritis, when interfacial slip of the joint are
broken state?
A.Reticular tissue
B. Fibrocartilage
C. Bone tissue
D. Lose connective tissue
E.*Hyaline cartilage
169.
X-ray examination shows that child
has a fracture of long bone diaphysis What tissue is
damaged at that case?
A.Cancellous bone
B. Woven bone
C. Spongy bone
D.*Compact bone
Dense regular connective tissue
163.
The newborn child has
underdeveloped thymus. What type of hemopoiesis
is affected?
A. Granulocytopoiesis
B. Monocytopoiesis
C. Erythropoiesis
D*. Lymphopoiesis
Е. Megakaryocytopoiesis
164.
75. Significant decrease of quantity
of megakaryocytes is revealed during histological
research of red bone marrow puncate of the patient,
35 years. By what changes of peripheral blood is
this accompanied ?
A. Increase of quantity of leucocytes
B. Decrease of quantity of thrombocytes
16
170.
Articular cartilage, as is known, has
no perichondrium. What type of cartilage growth is
used during its regeneration?
A.Appositional and interstitial
B.Appositional
C.By sheath formation
D.*Interstitial
E.Does not regenerate
176.
Isogeneic groups of cells are being
detected in a histological specimen of cartilaginous
tissue. Which cells are initial in the organization of
these groups?
A. Chondroblasts.
*B. Chondrocytes of the I type.
C. Prechondroblasts.
D. Chondrocytes of the II type.
E. Chondrocytes of the III type.
171.
In the slide was found tissue with
isogenous groups of cells. In the intercellular
substance we can't see fibrillar structures. What is
the name of this tissue?
A.Epithelial tissue
B.Smooth muscle tissue
C.Fibrocatilage
D.*Hyaline cartilage
E.Bone tissue
177.
Articular cartilages are known not
to have perichondrium. What growth of these
cartilages is observed during regeneration?
*A. Interstitial.
B. Appositional.
C. By imposition.
D. Appositional and interstitial.
E. Does not regenerate.
172.
Structure of hyaline cartilage is
changed under chondrodysthrophy. What is the
function of chondroblasts and chondrocytes?
A.*Synthesis of intercellular substance
B.Deposition of glycogen
C.Nourishment of tissue
D.Deposition of fat
E.Destruction of intercellular substance
178.
A patient has excessive resorption
of bones detected. With the increased activity of
what osteal tissue cells is it connected?
A. Osteoblasts.
B. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
C. Osteocytes and osteoblasts.
*D. Osteoclasts.
E. Osteocytes.
173.
A child has bone abnormalities like
softness and distortion of long bones. What basic
step in bone formation is disturbed?
A.Perichondral ossification0
B.Mesenchymal condensation
C.Synthesis of matrix
D.Replacement by lamellar bone
E.*Ossification
179.
During the direct histogenesis of
tubular bones osteal tissue a plate, which further
will provide the growth of bones lengthwise, is
formed between epiphysial and diaphyseal centres
of ossification. How is this structure called?
A. Osseous cuff.
*B. Metaepyphysial plate.
C. Bone lamella.
D. Osteon.
E. A layer of internal general plates.
174.
Isogeneic groups of cells are being
detected in a histological specimen of cartilaginous
tissue. Which cells are initial in the organization of
these groups?
A. Chondroblasts.
B. *Chondrocytes of the I type.
C. Prechondroblasts.
D. Chondrocytes of the II type.
E. Chondrocytes of the III type.
180.
On your most recent visit to the
local piercing parlor, you have several new holes
pierced along the auricle of your ear. Arrange in
order the constituents encountered by the needle as
it passes through your skin and into the cartilage in
your ear.
175.
A doctor paid attention to the
reinforced resorption of osteal tissue in separate
parts when analysing a patient's roentgenogram.
What cells' increased activity can this phenomenon
be connected with?
A. Osteoclasts.
B. Chondroblasts.
C. Osteocytes.
D. Osteoblasts.
E. Chondrocytes.
1: Chrondroblasts
2: Chrondocytes
3: Chondrogenic layer of the perichondrium
4: Fibrous layer of the perichondrium
5: Interterritorial matrix
6: Territorial matrix
A. 4 - 3 - 1 - 5 - 6 - 2
B. 4 - 1 - 3 - 6 - 5 - 2
C. 4 - 6 - 5 - 1 - 3 - 2
17
D. 4 - 3 - 1 - 6 - 5 - 2
*E. 4 - 3 - 5 - 1 - 6 - 2
micropreparation of the heart. What is a function of
these cells?
A.Regenerative
B. Conducting of nervous impulses
C. Endocrine
D. Protective
E.*Contraction of the heart
181.
As a pin passes into an epiphyseal
plate from the diaphysis to the epiphysis the
following regions or zones will be encountered in
which sequence:
1 = zone of resting cartilage
2 = zone of hypertrophied cartilage
3 = zone of calcified cartilage
4 = zone of proliferating cartilage
5 = zone of osteoid deposition (zone of
ossification).
A. 1-2-3-4-5
B. 5-4-3-2-1
C. 5-3-2-4-1
D. 4-5-1-3-2
E. 3-2-4-5-1
*F. 1-4-2-3-5
186.
The regeneration of skeletal
muscles after injury is possible. What cells from
listed below are responsible for their regeneration?
A.*Satellite cells
B.Myoblasts
C.Myofibroblasts
D.Fibroblasts
E.Myoepithelial cells
187.
A patient with injuries of legs
muscles has been admitted to a traumatology center.
What cells make muscular fibers reparative
regeneration possible?
A. *Satellite cells.
B. Myoblasts.
C. Myofibroblasts.
D. Fibroblasts.
E. Myoepithelial cells.
182.
You have generated a new mutant
mouse. The embryos of this mouse look normal but
as the pups mature you notice that the bones in its
limbs are short, but have normal diameter.
Interestingly, the cranium matures normally. What
process appears to be defective in this mutant?
A. Appositional growth of cartilage
*B. Intramembranous growth of cartilage
C. Intramembranous ossification
D. Endochondral ossification
E. Intralamellar ossification
188.
The main structural unit of the
tissue on histological specimen is fibers consisting
of simplast and satellitocytes covered with common
basic membrane. Which tissue is this structure
characteristic of?
A. *Skeletal striated muscle tissue.
B. Smooth muscle tissue.
C. Cardiac muscle tissue.
D. Loose connective tissue.
E. Reticular connective tissue.
183.
In result of chondrodysplasia the
fibrous cartilage is damaged. Where is it located?
A. In an auricle
B. In trachea
*C. In intervertebral disks
D. In a larynx
E. In bronchus
189.
Destruction of thin myofilaments is
observed during the research of a striated muscle
fiber after the action of hydrolytic ferments. Which
structures have been damaged?
A. *Actin myofilaments.
B. Tonofibrils.
C. T-systems.
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum.
E. Myosin myofilaments.
MUSCULAR TISSUES
184.
A herpetologist is bitten by a
poisonous snake and is brought into the emergency
room with progressive muscle paralysis. The venom
is probably incapacitating his
A.* acetylcholine receptors
B. Na+ channels
C. Ca2+ channels
D. phospholipids
E. spectrin
190.
In a figure a structural unit of
striated muscles myofibrils - sarcomere, which is
placed between two neighboring Z lines, is
schematically represented. How will the H-zone of
the sarcomere change at maximum reduction?
A. Does not change.
B.* Disappears.
C. Increases by 2 times.
185.
Cells of rectangular shape by a size
50-120 urn with the centrally located nucleus, well
developed myofibrils, connected with one another
by intercalated disk are defined in the
18
D. Decreases by 2 times.
E. Takes up all sarcomere.
spreading of a nerve impulse along the nerve cell.
What frame does this function execute?
A.Chromophilic substance
B.Neurofibril
C.Synapse
D.Mitochondrion
E.*Nerve cell membrane
191.
You have gone to the gym to
relieve the stress of studying for your Histology
exam. In your workout you tear a muscle, but you
are not concerned because you know the muscle
will heal. What cells are most directly responsible
for repair of your injured muscle?
A. *Satellite cells
B. Schwann cells
C. Fibroblasts
D. Macrophages
E. Endomysial cells
196.
During injury of a brain neuroglial
cells are damaged. What type of neuroglial cells is
predominantly arranged in the grey matter of the
brain?
A.Oligodendrocytes
B.Microglia
C.*Protoplasmic astrocytes
D.Fibrous astrocytes
E.Schwann cells
192.
You have just received your free flu
shot in a skeletal muscle of your arm. Arrange in
order the structures that the needle passed through
as it penetrated your muscle.
1 = epimysium
2 = myofibril
3 = perimysium
4 = sarcoplasmic reticulum
5 = endomysium
6 = sarcolemma
197.
During a conditional experiment the
action of a toxic substance enhances the mechanism
of nerve impulse transfer. What structure provides
this function?
A. Neurofibril.
B.* Neurolemma.
C. Synapse.
D. Mitochondrion.
E. Nissl's substance.
A. 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - 5 - 6
B. 1 - 6 - 3 - 2 - 4 - 5
C. 1 - 5 - 3 - 6 - 4 - 2
*D. 1 - 3 - 5 - 6 - 4 - 2
E. 1 - 3 - 5 - 4 - 6 - 2
198.
. Some degenerative diseases of
nervous system are followed by pathology of cells,
which provide myelinisation of nerve fibers in
peripheral nervous system. What is the name of
these cells?
A. Microglia
B. *Oligodendroglia
C. Protoplasmic astrocytes
D. Ependima
E. Bipolar neurons
193.
The regeneration of skeletal
muscles after injury is possible. What cells from
listed below are responsible for their regeneration?
A. Satellite cells
B. Myoblasts
C. Myofibroblasts
D. Fibroblasts
E. Myoepithelial cells
199.
At a patient, which suffers by the
poliomyelitis with defeat of a spinal cord the
function of skeletal muscles is disturbed. With
destruction of what neurons it is possible to explain
it?
A. Interneurons.
B. Pseudounipolar.
C. *Motorneurons.
D. Pseudounipolar and interneurons.
E. Interneurons and motorneurons.
NERVOUS TISSUES
194.
The patient has degenerative
pathology of the spinal cord during which the
neurons with 4-5 processes are damaged. What type
of neurons do they belong to?
A.Unipolar
B. Monopolar
C. Bipolar
D. Pseudounipolar
E.*Multipolar
NERVOUS SYSTEM
1.
In time of a spinocerebral puncture
the neuropathologist punctures dura mater. What
tissue forms it?
A.Mucous
B. Smooth muscular
195.
In conditional experiment the action
of toxic substance breaks the mechanism of
19
C. Loose connective
D.*Dence connective
E. Cartilage
7.
At a patient, which suffers by the
poliomyelitis with defeat of a spinal cord the
function of skeletal muscles is disturbed. With
destruction of what neurons it is possible to explain
it?
A.Interneurons.
B. Pseudounipolar.
C.*Motorneurons.
D. Pseudounipolar and interneurons.
E. Interneurons and motorneurons.
2.
During biopsy examination of
material with degenerative pathology of nervous
system, the cells are from neural crest origin were
studied. What are they?
A.Astrocytes
B. Brain cortex neufons
C. Cerebellum neurons
D. Neurons of spinal cord
E.*Neurons of sympathetic ganglion
8.
The organ of nervous system which
consists of grey and white matter is presented in a
histologic preparation. The grey matter is located on
periphery. Neurons in it form three layers:
molecular, ganglionar and granular. What is this
organ?
A. Spinal cord.
B.*Cerebellum.
C. Midbrain.
D. Cerebrum.
E. Medulla.
3.
Some degenerative diseases of
nervous system are followed by pathology of cells,
which provide myelinisation of nerve fibers in
peripheral nervous system. What is the name of
these cells?
A. Microglia
B.*Oligodendroglia
C. Protoplasmic astrocytes
D. Ependima
E. Bipolar neurons
9.
The alcoholic intoxication, as a
rule, is accompanied by infringement of
coordination of movement and balance owing to
damage of structural elements of a cerebellum.
What function of cells of a cerebellum is disturbed
first of all?
A. Basket cells.
B.*Cells of Purkinje.
C. Piramidal cells.
D. Star-shaped cells.
E. Granular cells.
4.
In a histologic section of spinal
cord, rows of nuclei are seen aligned between
myelinated axons in the white matter. The observed
nuclei are evidence of which cell type?
A.* Oligodendrocytes
B. Astrocytes
C. Satellite cells
D. Schwann cells
E. Microglia
5.
Epilepsy may be a result of
pathologic growth of neuroglia cells of the brain
temporal lobe. What cells from listed bellow belong
to neuroglia?
A.Neurocytes
B.Multipolar
C.Unopolar
D.*Oligodendrocytes
E.Betz cells (Pyramidal neurons)
10.
A specimen, dyed by the method of
silver impregnation, is being investigated.
Pyramidal cells of different size are seen in this
specimen. Short processes come off their tips and
lateral surfaces; one long process comes off the
base of the cells. Name the specimen.
A. Cortex of the cerebellum.
B. Spiral organ of inner ear.
C. Retina of the eye.
*D. Cerebral cortex.
E. Spinal ganglion.
6.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
of a patient with ataxia (disruption of coordination)
reveals reductions in the size of cervical dorsal root
ganglia (DRG) in addition to apparent cerebellar
anomalies. Disruption of development of which of
the following tissues would most likely explain the
abnormal DRGs in this patient?
A.Marginal layer
B.Ventricular layer
C.*Neural crest cells
D.Ependymal cells
E.Somatic motor columns
11.
A patient with poliomyelitis has the
damage of the spinal cord and the dysfunction of
skeletal muscles. It may be explained by the
destruction of some neurons. Name these neurons.
A. Associative.
B. Pseudouni polar.
*C. Motor.
D.Pseudouni polar and associative.
E. Associative and motor.
20
ear cavity
E. Ossicles in the middle ear
12.
A traumatic injury of nerve fibers is
accompanied by axons damage, lysis of myelin.
What nerve structures
take part in myelin reconstruction during
regeneration?
A. Perineurium.
B. Ependimocytes.
*C. Neurolemmocytes.
D.Endoneurium.
E. Astrocytes.
16.
The girl, 15 years, has a corrosive
burn of the surface of tongue. What epithelium thus
is damaged?
A.Transitional
B.Pseudostratified ciliated
C.Simple columnar
D.*Stratified nonkeratinized
E.Simple squamous
17.
The structure, which has biconvex
shape, connected with ciliary body by means of
zonular fibres and is covered by a transparent
capsule, is visible in a histological preparation of an
eyeball. What is this structure?
A.Sclera.
B. Vitreous body.
C. Ciliary body.
D. Cornea.
E.*Lens.
13.
During injury of a brain neuroglial
cells are damaged. What type of neuroglial cells is
predominantly arranged in the grey matter of the
brain?
A. Oligodendrocytes
B. Microglia
C. *Protoplasmic astrocytes
D. Fibrous astrocytes
E. Schwann cells
18.
Damages of a coroid are revealed in
a micropreparation of an eyeball of a fetus What
embryonic material possibly has been damaged
during development of an eye?
A. Ectoderm.
B.*Mesenchime
C. Entoderm
D. An external layer of an eye glass
E. An internal layer of an eye glass
SENSE ORGANS
14.
Michael experienced visual
problems within 1 day after being hit in the head
with a ball during a soccer game. He saw large
floaters and noticed that a dark film was blocking
part of the vision in his right eye. An examination
by an ophthalmologist revealed that he had a
detached retina, and emergency surgery was done to
save the vision in that eye. Which of the following
retinal layers were separated from one another to
cause Michael's condition?
A.* Layer 2 from layer 3
B. Layer 1 from layer 2
C. Layer 3 from layer 4
D. Layer 5 from layer 6
E. Layer 6 from layer 7
19.
Damages of vascular membrane are
detected in the histological specimen of a fetus'
eyeball. What embryonic material was probably
damaged during the development of the eye?
A. Ectoderm.
*B. Mesenchyme.
C. Entoderm.
D. Outer layer of the eyeball.
E. Internal layer of the eyeball.
15.
A 45-year-old musician who played
guitar for 26 years in a rock band noticed he was
having difficulty hearing. An otolaryngologist
confirmed his loss of hearing and associated it with
prolonged exposure to loud sounds. Which of the
following structures would show degenerative
changes that would account for this man's hearing
loss?
A.*Hair cells of the organ of Corti
B. The epithelium lining the inner portion of the
tympanic
membrane
C. Hair cells in the ampullae of the semicircular
ducts
D. The auditory (eustachian) tube extending to the
middle
20.
Underdeveloped epithelium of
cornea is observed in the histological specimen of a
fetus' eyeball. A part of what embryonal layer was
probably affected in the process of embryogenesis?
A. Mesoderm.
B. Entoderm.
*C. Ectoderm.
D. Outer layer of the eyeball.
E. Internal layer of the eyeball.
21.
As a result of the laser correction of
vision stratified squamous epithelium of cornea
21
decays on the incision line. What cells provide the
regeneration of this epithelium?
*A. Basal epithelial cells.
B. Spinosum epithelial cells.
C. Fibroblasts.
D.Fibrocytes.
E. Lymphocytes.
C. Multipolar neurons.
*D.Cones neurons.
E. Horizontal neurons.
27.
A 14-year-old patient has twilight
vision impairment. What vitamin deficit takes place
in the organism?
A. B12.
B. B1.
C. B6.
D.C.
*E. A.
22.
A patient has taken high doses of
streptomycin and consequently became deaf. The
function of what cells of the inner ear was damaged
in this case?
A. Pillar.
B. Phalangal.
*C. Hair.
D.Deiters'.
E. Connective tissue.
28.
The ciliary body of a patient is
damaged. The function of what eye apparatus
suffers?
A. Light-sensitive.
B. Light-conductive.
*C. Accommodation.
D. Protective.
E. Trophic.
23.
Twilight vision disorder occurs as a
result of vitamin A deficit. Name
the cells, which perform this photoreceptor
function.
A. Multipolar neurons.
B. Horizontal neurons.
C. Cones neurosensory cells.
*D.Rod neurosensory cells.
E. Ganglionic nerve cells.
29.
In a histological specimen a
structure of eyeball wall is detected; blood vessels
are absent in this structure. What structure is
characterized by this morphologic sign?
A. Ciliar body.
*B. Cornea.
C. Choroid.
D.Iris.
E. Retina.
24.
A child (5 years old) after a
chemical burn of the lateral surface of tongue has
ageusia in this site. It is connected with the
destruction of gustatory sensory cells. What cellular
structure takes part in stimulation perception?
A. Lateral su rface.
*B. Microvilli on the apical surface.
C. Microvilli on the basal surface.
D. Nucleus.
E. Basement membrane.
30.
. In an electronic micrograph of a
sense organ hair cells are seen, on their apical part
there are short microvilli -stereocilii and a polarlocated kinocilium. Of what sensory organ are such
cells typical?
*A. Organ of vestibular.
B. Organ of vision.
C. Olfactory organ.
D. Organ of hearing.
E. Organ of taste.
25.
A boxer has disturbance in smell
after a trauma of the nose. The damage of what
cells may cause the loss of smell?
*A. Neurosensory.
B. Supporting epithelial cells.
C. Basal epithelial cells.
D. Ciliary epithelial cells.
E. Microvillous epithelial cells.
31.
Taste buds located near the tip
(anterior portion) of the tongue are usually
associated with what structure?
A. Circumvallate papillae.
B. Filiform papillae.
C. *Fungiform papillae.
D. Sublingual glands.
E. Meissner's plexi.
26.
During examination an oculist has
detected that the patient does not distinguish blue
and green colors, but perceives other colors
normally. It may be connected with the function
damage of some structures of retina. Name these
structures.
A. Amacrine neurons.
B. Rod neurons.
32.
The patient who used the big dozes
of streptomycin has lost hearing. The function of
what cells of an internal ear is damaged in this
case?
A. Pillar cells
22
B. Phalangeal cells
C. Hair cells
D. Cells of Deiters
E. Connective tissue cells
38.
A vessel, the wall of which consists
of endothelium, basal membrane and loose
connective tissue, is visible in histological section.
What is this vessel?
A.Vein of muscular type
B. Artery
C.*Vein of fibrotype
D. Hemocapillary
E. Lymphcapillary
33.
A histological section of an eyeball
wall shows the structure in which blood vessels are
absent. What structure is characterized by this
morphological attribute?
A. Ciliary body
*B. Cornea
C. Choroid
D. Iris
E. Retina
39.
The organ of the cardiovascular
system consists of cells connected with one another
through intercalated disks. What organ is this?
A. Vein of muscular type
B.*Heart
C. Artery of the muscular-elastic type
D. Artery of muscular type
E. Aorta
CARDIO-VASCULAR SYSTEM
34.
The blood-brain barrier is thought
to occur because capillaries in the central nervous
system (CNS) have which of the following
characteristics?
A.* A few pinocytic vesicles
B. Discontinuous basal lamina
C. Fenestrae with diaphragms
D. Fenestrae without diaphragms
E. No basement membrane
40.
Arterioles execute an important role
in blood supply of organs" functional units. What
from the folloving structures of arteriole execute
this function?
A. Outer elastic membrane
B.*Myocytes
C. Inner clastic membrane
D. Special cells of connective tissue
E. Endotheliocytes
35.
After heart attack at the patient the
morphological integrity of a wall of heart was
restored. At the expense of what tissue the
regeneration was carried out?
A.*Connective
B. Striated muscular
C. Nervous
D. Smooth muscular
E. Epithelial
41.
In microscopic section of the organ
of the cardiovascular system is presented. One of its
layers consists of fibers, which form anastomosis
between itself. They are formed of the cells
connected through intercalated disks. What is this
organ?
A.Artery of elastic type
B. Vein of muscular type
C. Artery of muscular type
D.*Heart
E.Arteriole
36.
At the 53 years patient a malignant
epithelial tumor of pericardium is diagnosed. What
epithelium is a source of its development?
A.*Simple squamous
B. Transitional
C. Simple pseudostratified ciliated
D. Stratified keratinized
E. Stratified nonkeratinized
42.
A capillary is characterized by
presence of fenestrated endothelium and porous
basal membrane. Name the type of capillary.
A.Visceral
B. Somatic
C.*Sinusoidal
D. Lymphatic
E. Lacunas
37.
In the pericardial cavity of the
patient with exudative pericarditis was found large
amount of exudate. Malfunction of functional
activity which cells are the reason of that condition?
A.Endotheliocytes
B. Fibroblasts
C. Typical cardiomyocytes
D. Atypical cardiomyocytes
E.*Mesotheliocytes
43.
The walls of vessels have pretty
considerable morphological divergences in the
structure of tunica media. Than appearance of
specific features in a structure of this layer in
different vessels is caused?
A. Influence of endocrine organs
B.Regulation of CNS
23
C. Inductive influence of neurons of autonomic
ganglions
D.*Hemodinamic conditions
components did the regeneration of cardiac wall
take place due to?
A. Intracellular regeneration of contractile
cardyomyocytes.
B.*Proliferation of cages of connecting tissues.
C. Proliferation of contractile cardyomyocytes.
D. Proliferation of conducting cardyomyocytes.
E. Proliferation of contractile and conducting
cardyomyocytes.
44.
Arteries of large caliber widen itself
during a systole and return into the initial state
during a diastole,
providing stability of
blood stream. The presence of what walls elements
of vessel explain it?
A.*Elastic fibers
B. Muscular fibers
C. Reticular fibers
D. Collagen fibers
E. Numerous fibroblasts
50.
In histological micropreparation of
vessel inner and outer elastic membranes are well
expressed, a lot of myocytes are in medulla. What is
this vessel?
A.Artery of elastic type.
B. Artery of the mixed type.
C. Vein of muscular type.
D.*Artery of muscular ty pe.
E. Extraorganic lymph vessel.
45.
An epithelium covers tunica intima
of vessel from within. Which one?
A.Pseudostratified
B. Mesothelium
C. Epidermis
D. Transitional
E.*Endothelium
51.
In the wall of blood vessels and
wall of heart a some tunics (layers) are
distinguished. What is the layer of heart according
to histogenesis and tissue composition is identical
to the wall of vessels?
A. Myocardium.
B.*Endocardium.
C. Pericardium.
D. Epicardium.
E. Epicardium and myocardium.
46.
On the cardiac muscle
electrophotograph cells with processes are visible,
with small amount of organelles, but good
developed rough endoplasmic reticulum, secretory
granules. Name these cells.
A.Pace maker cells
B.Ventricle typical cardiomyocytes
C.*Atrium secretory cardiomyocytes
D.Atrium contractile cardiomyocytes
E.Purkinje cells
52.
After myocardial infarction a
patient's morphological heart wall integrity was
regenerated. Owing to what tissues did the
regeneration take place?
A. Nerve.
B. Smooth muscle.
C. Striated muscle.
D. Epithelial.
*E. Connective.
47.
Disruption in development of
myocardial ventricles is diagnosed at new-born. To
disruption in development of what embryonic layer
this pathology is related?
A.Mesenchyme.
B. Parietal splanchnopleura.
C. Endoderm.
D. Ectoderm.
E.*Myoepicardial plates.
53.
In a red bone marrow specimen
numerous capillaries are detected, through their
wall mature blood elements enter blood circulation.
What is the type of these capillaries?
A. Lymphatic.
B. Fenestrated.
C. Somatic.
D. Visceral.
*E. Sinusoidal.
48.
M. Sechenov named arterioles the
"faucets" of the cardiovascular system. What
structural elements provide this function of
arterioles?
A. Colloginous fibres.
B. Longitudinal myocytes
C. Elastic fibres
D. Longitudinal muscular fibres
E.*Circular myocytes
54.
Tunica intima of a vessel has been
impregnated with argentic salt. As a result the cells
with rugged, twisting edges have been detected.
Name these cells.
A. Stellate cells.
*B. Endotheliocytes.
49.
A patient, 40 years, carried the
heart attack of myocardium. What morphological
24
C. Myocytes.
D. Fibroblasts.
E. Adipocytes.
60.
Vessels walls have rather
significant differences in the structure of the tunica
media. What causes specific peculiarities of this
tunica structure in different vessels?
A. High concentration of catecholamines in blood.
B. Influence of endocrine system organs.
C. Central nervous system regulation.
D. Inductive influence of autonomic ganglions.
*E. Hemodynamic conditions.
55.
There are some tunics in the wall of
blood vessels and heart. What tunic of the heart
corresponds to a blood vessels wall according to its
histogenesis and tissue structure?
A. Myocardium.
*B. Endocardium.
C. Pericardium.
D.Epicardium.
E. Epicardium and myocardium.
61.
Large arteries stretch during systole
and return to the start state during diastole to
provide bloodstream stability. Which structural
components of vessel wall explain this?
*A. Elastic fibres.
B. Muscle fibres.
C. Reticular fibres.
D. Collagen fibres.
E. Numerous fibroblasts.
56.
In a histological specimen of a
blood vessel dyed with orcein there have been
detected from 40 to 60 elastic fe-nesrated
membranes in the tunica media. Name this blood
vessel.
A. Artery of mixed type.
B. Artery of muscular type.
*C. Artery of elastic type.
D.Vein of muscular type.
E. Vein of unmuscular type.
62.
Tunica intima of a blood vessel is
lined with epithelium from within. What epithelium
is this?
A. Pseudostratified epithelium.
B. Mesothelium.
C. Epidermis.
D.Transitional epithelium.
*E. Endothelium.
57.
Large quantity of exudate has been
detected in the pericardial cavity of a patient with
exudative pericarditis. Functional activity disorder
of what cells caused this?
A. Fibroblasts.
*B. Endotheliocytes.
C. Contractile cardiac cells.
D. Conductive cardiac cells.
E. Endotheliocytes.
63.
Abnormalities of the development
of the ventricle myocardium of a newborn child
were diagnosed. The disturbance of which
embryonic anlage development causes such
pathology?
A. Mesenchyme.
B. Parietal splanchnopleure.
C. Endoderm.
D. Ectoderm.
*E. Myoepicardial plate.
58.
Arterioles are playing an important
role in supplying functional units of organs with
blood. Which arteriole structures perform this
function?
A. External elastic membrane.
*B. Myocytes.
C. Internal elastic membrane.
D. Special cells of connective tissue.
E. Endotheliocytes.
64.
In a heart wall histological
specimen between endocardium and myocardium
large cells with light cytoplasm and eccentrically
located nucleus are detected. What cells of heart
have these morphological features?
A. Lipocytes.
B. Pacemaker cells.
C. Contractile cardiac cells.
D. Endocrine cells.
*E. Cells of Purkinje's fibers.
59.
In a heart specimen there are
detected cells of squared shape, 80-120
micrometers in size, with a centrical nucleus and
well-developed myofibrils connected with the help
of intercalated disks. What function is connected
with these cells?
A. Regenerative.
B. Nerve impulses conduction.
C. Endocrine.
D. Protective.
*E. Heart contraction.
65.
I.M.Sechenov called arterioles "the
taps" of the cardiovascular system. What structural
elements provide this function of arterioles?
A. Collagen fibers.
B. Longitudinal myocytes.
C. Elastic fibres.
25
D. Longitudinal muscle fibers.
*E. Circular myocytes.
HAEMOPOIETIC AND LYMPHOID
ORGANS
71.
A histologycal section shows an
organ with a large amount of lymphatic tissue,
including nodules with germinal centers and a
deeply invaginated mucosal suface formed by a
stratified but poorly defined epithelium. The section
is an example of
A.* palatine tonsil
B. lymph node
C. spleen
D. thymus
E. Peyer patch
66.
In a histological specimen the
vessels, which begin blindly, are detected. These
vessels have a form of flattened endothelial tubes.
They do not contain basic membrane and pericytes.
Endothelium of these vessels is fixed by fixative
fibers to collagen fibers of connecting tissue. What
vessels are these?
A. Hemocapillaries.
*B. Limphocapillaries.
C. Arterioles.
D. Venules.
E. Arteriovenous anastomosis.
72.
If stem cells of red bone marrow
are damaged, regeneration of which cells
population of connective tissue will destroy?
A.Reticular cells
B. Pericytes
C. Fat cells
D. Fibroblasts
E.*Macrophages
67.
In a heart specimen there are
detected cells located in light cords with a small
amount of myofibrils, inclusions of glycogen, and
eccentrically located nucleus. What cells are these?
*A. Purkinje's fibers.
B. Conducting pacemakers.
C. Conducting transitive.
D. Endocrine.
E. Contractile.
73.
The thymus of the new-born child
is underdeveloped. What type of hemopoesis is
disturbed?
A.Granulocytopoesis
B. Monocytopoiesis
C. Erithrocytopoesis
D.*Lymphocytopoesis
E. Megakaryocytopoesis
68.
If you were looking at transmission
electron micrographs, which cell type in the
cardiovascular system would you expect to contain
the highest density of micropinocytotic vesicles?
A. Pericyte.
B. Fibroblast in the tunica adventitia of the aorta.
C. Endothelium of renal artery.
D. *Endothelium of a continuous capillary.
E. Myofiber of the ventricle.
74.
In histological micropreparation the
medula of hemopoietic organ's lobule has more
light coloring and contains epithelial corpuscles.
What organ these morphological signs belong to?
A. Lymph node
B.*Thymus
C. Spleen
D. Liver
E. Adrenal gland
69.
The organ of the cardiovascular
system consists of cells connected with one another
through intercalated disks. What organ is this?
A. Vein of muscular type.
B. Heart.
C. Artery of the muscular-elastic type.
D. Artery of muscular type.
E. Aorta.
75.
A hemopoietic organ which
consists of different on a form lobules is explored in
histological preparation. There is the cortex and
medula in every lobule. What is this organ?
A. Lymph node
B.*Thymus
C. Spleen
D. Tonsils
E. Appendix
70.
In the wall of blood vessels and
wall of heart a some tunics (layers) are
distinguished. What is the layer of heart according
to histogenesis and tissue composition is identical
to the wall of vessels?
A. Myocardium.
B.* Endocardium.
C. Pericardium.
D. Epicardium.
E. Epicardium and myocardium.
76.
In histological micropreparation the
parenchima of organ is represented by lymphoid
tissue which forms lymphoid nodules. These
nodules are disposed diffusely and have a central
artery. What organ has such structure?
26
A.Thymus.
B. Tonsil.
C. Lymph node
D.*Spleen
E. Red bone marrow
reticuloepitheliocytes. How is such phenomenon
named?
A. Hypotrophy of thymus.
B. Age-dependent involution of hymus.
C.*Accidental involution of thymus.
D. Dystrophy of thymus.
E. Atrophy of thymus.
77.
In a microslide there is kidneyshaped organ, which has cortex and medulla.
Cortex is represented by separate spherical nodules
by a diameter 0,5-1 mm, and medulla - by
medullary cords. What is this organ?
A.Thymus.
B. Kidney.
C.*Lymph node.
D. Adrenal gland.
E. Spleen.
82.
At the infectious diseases and
intoxications the amount of reticuloepitheliocytes.
Gassales corpuscles increase in the lobules of
thymus; the area of medulla become larger. How
are these changes named in thymus?
A.*Accidental involution.
B. Age-dependent involution.
C. Chemoly mphatic status.
D. T-immunodeficiency.
E. B-immunodeficiency.
78.
The microsection of lymph node is
made. There is widening of its paracortical zona in
the microslide. Proliferation of what cells of lymph
node has caused this process?
A.Macrophages
B. Dendritic cells.
C. Plasmacytes.
D.*T-lymphocytes
E. Reticulocytes.
83.
With the purpose of diagnostics at a
patient a punktate of parenchyma of hemopoietic
organ was taken. In smears of this punktate
megakaryocytes are found. What is this organ?
A.*Red bone marrow.
B. Spleen.
C. Thymus.
D. Lymph node.
E. Tonsil.
79.
In a microslide spherical structures
containing lymphocytes are exposed. In this
structure there is central artery What organ is
explored?
A.*Spleen.
B. Kidney
C. Thymus.
D. Bone marrow
E. Lymph node.
84.
In a spleen specimen a blood vessel
is detected. Its wall consists of basic membrane
with endothelium, tunica media is absent, adventitia
is grown together with connective tissue interlayers
of spleen. What vessel is it?
A. Arteriole.
B. Vein of muscular type with poor development of
muscular elements.
C. Artery of muscular type.
*D.Vein of fibro type.
E. Artery of elastic type.
80.
Two histological
micropreparations are given to the student. On both
there are the organs having lymphatic nodules. On
the first micropreparation follicles contain the
eccentrically located arterial vessel; on the second
there are follicles without arteries. What is this
organs?
A. First is red bone marrow, second is spleen.
B.*First is spleen, second - lymph node
C. First is thymus, second is spleen
D. First is a liver, second is lymph node
E. First is a liver, second is spleen
85.
Experimentally into the organism of
a laboratory animal thymosin antibodies have been
introduced. Differentiation of what cells will be
affected first of all?
*A. T-lymphocytes.
B. Monocytes.
C. B-lymphocytes.
D. Macrophages.
E. Plasma cells.
81.
In the case of action of unfavorable
factors on the organism in thymus the
reconstruction of organ take place. This
reconstruction is accompanied by mass death of
thymoctes, by migration of lymphocytes in
peripheral organs, by proliferation of
86.
In a histological specimen an organ
parenchyma is represented by lymphoid tissue
which forms lymph nodules. These nodules are
diffusely arranged and have a central artery. What
organ has such structure?
27
A. Thymus.
B. Tonsil.
C. Lymph node.
*D. Spleen.
E. Red bone marrow.
92.
A student has to study two smears
specimens. In one of them all visual field is covered
by erythrocytes. In the other one there are blood
elements of different maturity. What smears are
these?
A. Frog blood and human blood.
B. Blood and lymph.
*C. Blood and a smear of human red bone marrow.
D. Blood and a smear of yellow bone marrow.
E. A smear of yellow and red bone marrow.
87.
A newborn child has an
undeveloped thymus. What type of hematopoiesis is
damaged?
A. Granulocytopoiesis.
B. Monocytopoiesis.
C. Erythropoiesis.
*D. Lymphopoiesis.
E. Megakaryocytopoiesis.
93.
A student has two histological
specimens; both contain organs with lymph
nodules. In the first specimen follicles contain
eccentrically located artery, in the second one there
are follicles without arteries. What organs are
these?
A. The first - red bone marrow, the second - spleen.
*B. The first - spleen, the second -lymph node.
C. The first - thymus, the second -spleen.
D.The first - liver, the second – lymph node.
E. The first - liver, the second - spleen.
88.
A histologic specimen of medulla
substance of a hematopoietic organ lobule has a
lighter strain and contains epithelial bodies. What
organ has these morphologic characteristics?
A. Lymph node.
*B. Thymus.
C. Spleen.
D. Liver.
E. Kidney.
94.
A specimen of human red bone
marrow contains giant cells clusters in close contact
with sinusoidal capillaries. Name the blood
elements, which differentiate from these cells.
A. Erythrocytes.
*B. Thrombocytes.
C. Leukocytes.
D. Monocytes.
E. Lympocytes.
89.
In a microscopic specimen is a
bean-shaped organ which has cortical and medullar
substance. Cortical substance is represented by
separate spherical nodules 0.5-1 mm in diameter,
medullar substance - by medullary cords. What
organ is this?
A. Thymus.
B. Kidney.
*C. Lymph node.
D. Adrenal gland.
E. Spleen.
95.
In case of unfavorable factors
influence on the organism reorganization of thymus
takes place. This reorganization is accompanied by
mass destruction of thymocytes, their migration into
peripheral organs, and proliferation of
epithelioreticulocytes. How is this phenomenon
called?
A. Hypotrophy of thymus.
B. Age involution of thymus.
*C. Accidental involution of thymus.
D. Dystrophy of thymus.
E. Atrophy of thymus.
90.
In the specimen of a lymph node
histological section the enlargement of its
paracortical zone is observed. The proliferation of
which lymph node cells causes this process?
A. Macrophages.
B. Waterside macrophages.
C. Plasma cells.
*D. T-lymphocytes.
E. Reticulocytes.
96.
The quantity of
epithelioreticulocytes and Hassall corpuscles in
thymus lobules increases in case of infection
diseases or intoxications. The area of medullary
substance extends. How are these changes called?
*A. Accidental involution.
B. Age involution.
C. Status thymicolymphaticus.
D.T-immunodeficiency.
E. B-immunodeficiency.
91.
In a microscopic specimen
spherical structures of lymphocytes are detected. In
the middle of the structures there is a central artery.
Name this organ.
*A. Spleen.
B. Kidney.
C. Thymus.
D.Bone marrow.
E. Lymph node.
28
97.
The punctate of hematopoietic
organ parenchyma has been taken with the purpose
of diagnostics. As a result, megakaryocytes have
been found. What hematopoietic organ is this?
*A. Red bone marrow.
B. Spleen.
C. Thymus.
D. Lymph node.
E. Tonsil.
cytoplasm, which contact with the help of their
processes. What cells are these?
A. Dendritic cells.
B. Fibroblasts.
C. Macrophages.
*D. Reticular cells.
E. Osteocytes.
103.
In lymph node biopsy material in
medullary cords the focus of increased
plasmocytogenesis is detected. Antigen-dependent
stimulation of what cells caused the formation of
this center?
*A. B-lymphocytes.
B. T-lymphocytes.
C. Macrophages.
D. Dendritic cells.
E. Interdigitative cells.
98.
In the course of an experiment a
vital coloring agent was introduced into a lymph
node afferent vessel of an animal. In what cells of
the lymph node will it be possible to detect it?
*A. Typical and waterside macrophages.
B. Reticular endotheliocytes.
C. B-lymphocytes.
D. Plasma cells.
E. T-lymphocytes.
104.
In a palatine tonsil histological
specimen crypts are detected. Their epithelium is
infiltrated by leukocytes. What epithelium is a part
of this structure?
A. Stratified cuboidal.
B. Simple columnar.
*C. Stratified squamous non-keratinized.
D. Stratified squamous keratinized.
E. Pseudostratified ciliated.
99.
Developing blood cells of red bone
marrow are located in the form of islets. Some of
the islets are linked with macrophages. What blood
elements are developing in these islets?
A. Basophile granulocytes.
B. Unmature T- and B-lymphocytes.
C. Monocytes.
D. Thrombocytes.
*E. Erythrocytes.
105.
Inactive, yellow bone marrow can
convert back into active, red marrow when the
organism is stressed, for instance, after a major
blood loss. Active hematopoietic marrow contains
adventitial reticular cells, which are critical support
elements. Which cells of yellow marrow are likely
to give rise to these adventitial reticular cells?
A. Endothelial cells.
B. Macrophages.
C. Fatty cells.
D. *Adventitial cells.
E. Smooth muscle cells.
100.
In the histological section of a
lymph node of an experimental animal in medullary
cords after antigen stimulation a plenty of cells of
such morphology have been detected: intensively
basophilic cytoplasm, eccentrically located nucleus
with chromatin, which is located as wheel spokes
with a light site of cytoplasm near it. What cells are
these?
A. Macrophages.
*B. Plasma cells.
C. Fibroblasts.
D. Adipocytes.
E. Mast cells.
101.
A child has a congenital
immunodeficiency. Cellular immunity is damaged,
which results in frequent viral infections. What
organ disorder is it most probably caused by?
*A. Thymus.
B. Red bone marrow.
C. Lymph nodes.
D. Spleen.
E. Palatine tonsil.
106.
76. A histological preparation of a
red bone marrow of the person shows clumps of the
gigantic cells located in close contact with
sinusoidal capillaries. What cellular elements of
blood are formed from these cells?
A. Erythrocytes
B. *Platelets
C. Leucocytes
D. Monocytes
E. Lymphocytes
102.
In a specimen of human red bone
marrow smear among the cells of myeloid line and
adipocytes there are stellate cells with oxyphilic
107.
In a microslide there is kidneyshaped organ, which has cortex and medulla.
Cortex is represented by separate spherical nodules
29
by a diameter 0,5-1 mm, and medulla – by
medullary cords. What is this organ?
A. Thymus.
B. Kidney.
C. *Lymph node.
D. Adrenal gland.
E. Spleen.
A.* endocrine
B. paracrine
C. apocrine
D. holocrine
E. merocrine
113.
At a patient which during 7 years
old suffers by a hypothyreosis is discovered
insufficiency of thyroid hormones. What cells of
adenohypophysis are here changed?
A. Corticotropocytes
B. Gonadotropocytes
C.*Tyreotropotsytes
D. Somatotropoctes
E. Mammotropocytes.
108.
Two histological micropreparations
are given to the student. On both there are the
organs having lymphatic nodules. On the first
micropreparation follicles contain the eccentrically
located arterial vessel; on the second there are
follicles without arteries. What are these organs?
A. First is red bone marrow, second is spleen.
B. *First is spleen, second – lymph node.
C. First is thymus, second is spleen.
D. First is a liver, second is lymph node.
E. First is a liver, second is spleen.
114.
It is known that aldosteron
regulates content of sodium in an organism. What
cells of adrenal glands produce this hormone?
A. Cells of zona fasciculate
B. Epinephrocytes.
C. Cells of zona reticularis
D.*Cells of zona glomerulosis
E. Norepinephrocytes.
109.
The microsection of lymp node is
made. There is widening of its paracortical zona in
the microslide. Proliferation of what cells of lymph
node has caused this process?
A. Macrophages
B. Dendritic cells.
C. Plasmacytes.
D.*T-lymphocytes.
E. Reticulocytes.
115.
Endocrinologist observes a patient
of 40 years with lack of adrenal cortex function,
which is characterized by decreases of amount of
hormone aldosterone in a blood. The function of
what cells of cortex is affected?
A.*Zona glomerulosis
B. Zona fasciculata
C. Zona reticularis.
D. Sudanophobic zona.
E. X-zona
110.
With the purpose of diagnostics at a
patient a punktate of parenchyma of hemopoietic
organ was taken. In smears of this punktate
megakaryocytes are found. What is this organ?
A *Red bone marrow.
B. Spleen.
C. Thymus.
D. Lymph node.
E. Tonsil.
116.
In the endocrinology department at
the patient the desease is diagnosed: acromegaly.
By hyperfunction of what pituitary cells is this
disease contingently?
A. Tireotropocy tcs
B. Gonadotropocy tes.
C. Chromophobic.
D. Mammotropocytes.
E.*Somatotropocytes
ENDOCRYNE SYSTEM
111.
The histological appearance of a
thyroid gland being stimulated by thyroidstimulating hormone (TSH) would show which of
the following?
A.* Columnar-shaped follicular cells
B. Decreased numbers of follicular cells
C. Increased numbers of parafollicular cells
D. An abundance of colloid in the lumen of the
follicle
E. Decreased numbers of parafollicular capillaries
117.
A patient with 7 years' history of
hypothyroidism has thyroid hormone deficiency
detected. What cells of adenohypophysis are
changed?
A. Corticotropocytes.
B. Gonadotropocytes.
*C. Thyrotropocytes.
D. Somatotropocytes.
E. Lactotropocytes.
112.
Somatostatin secreted by δ cells of
the islets of Langerhans affects the activity of the
insulin and glucagon-secreting cells of the islets.
This type of secretion is called
30
118.
The removal of what endocrine
gland causes pubertas precox of experimental
animals?
A. Thyroid gland.
B. Pituitary gland.
C. Adrenal gland.
*D. Epiphysis.
E. Parathyroid gland.
B. Gonadotropocytes.
C. Chromophobocytes.
D. Lactotropocytes.
*E. Somatotropocytes.
124.
A 42-year-old patient has spasms
after the resection of the thyroid gland. Relief has
come after the introduction of calcium preparations.
Function infringement of what endocrine glands has
caused this condition?
A. Adrenal glands.
*B. Parathyroid glands.
C. Ovaries.
D. Hypophysis.
E. Epiphysis.
119.
In a histological specimen of
ad¬renal glands cortical substance one can see
small polygonal cells forming round clusters and
containing a small quantity of lipidic inclusions.
What part of adrenal glands is represented in the
specimen?
*A. Zona glomerulosa.
B. Intermediate zone.
C. Zona fasciculata.
D.Zona reticularis.
E. Medullary substance.
125.
A 40-year-old woman has weak
birth activity caused by the weakness of
myometrium contractile ability. What hormonal
preparation is it necessary to introduce to help her?
A. Prednisolone.
B. Hydrocortisone.
C. Dexamethasone.
D. Aldosterone.
*E. Oxytocin.
120.
In a histological specimen of
adrenal glands one can see large cells of cubic form
located in the form of cords and containing a lot of
lipidic inclusions. What part of adrenal glands is
represented in the specimen?
A. Medullary substance.
B. Zona glomerulosa.
C. Intermediate zone.
D.Zona reticularis.
*E. Zona fasciculata.
126.
There are round structures of
different size in the histological specimen of an
endocrine gland. These structures' wall is formed of
one layer of epithelial cells on basic membrane,
inside they contain homogeneous non-cellular mass.
What gland is this?
A. Posterior lobe of pituitary gland.
B. Adrenal gland, cortical substance.
C. Parathyroid gland.
D. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland.
*E. Thyroid gland.
121.
A 25-year-old woman in a month
after delivery appealed to a doctor with complaint
of milk quantity decline. The lack of which
hormone causes such con¬dition?
A. Glucagon.
B. Adrenocorticotropin.
C. Somatostatin.
D. Insulin.
*E. Prolactin.
127.
A 30-year-old patient has
hyperfunction of thyroid gland. What form do the
thyrocytes of follicles have?
A. Polygonal.
*B. Columnar.
C. Squamous.
D. Spindle-shaped.
E. Cuboidal.
122.
Aldosterone is known to regulate
sodium content in organism. Which cells of adrenal
glands secrete this hormone?
A. Cells of zona fasciculata.
B. Epinephrocytes.
C. Cells of zona reticularis.
*D. Cells of zona glomerulosa.
E. Norepinephrocytes.
128.
In a histological specimen of
endocrine gland epithelial cords contain
ing chromophilic (acidophilic and basophilic) and
chromophobic cells are detected. What organ is
presented in the preparation?
A. Epiphysis.
B. Adrenal gland.
C. Neurohypophysis.
D.Thyroid gland.
*E. Adenohypophysis.
123.
Acromegaly of a patient in an
endocrinological department is diagnosed. The
hyperfunction of what hypophysis cells caused this
disease?
A. Thyrotropocytes.
31
134.
It is known that aldosteron
regulates content of sodium in an organism. What
cells of adrenal glands produce this hormone?
A.Cells of zona fasciculata.
B. Epinephrocytes.
C. Cells of zona reticularis.
D. *Cells of zona glomerulosis.
E. Norepinephrocytes.
129.
An experimental animal excretes a
lot of urine (polyuria) and has severe thirst
(polydipsia). Urine does not contain sugar. With the
function infringement of what cells is it connected?
A. Follicular endocrine cells of thyroid gland.
*B. Neurosecretory cells of hypothalamus.
C. Parathyrocytes.
D. Endocrine cells of glomerular zone of adrenal
gland.
E. Endocrine cells of medullary substance of
adrenal gland.
135.
In the endocrinology department at
the patient the desease is diagnosed: acromegaly.
By hyperfunction of what pituitary cells is this
disease contingently?
A. Tireotropocytes
B. Gonadotropocytes.
C. Chromophobic.
D. Mammotropocytes.
E. *Somatotropocytes
130.
A 30-year-old woman against the
background of sex hormones deficiency has an
increased quantity of follicle-stimulating hormone.
What cells synthesize this hormone?
A. Thyrotropocytes.
*B. Gonadotropocytes.
C. Corticotropocytes.
D. Somatotropocytes.
E. Lactotropocytes.
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM. DIGESTIVE
TRACT
136.
A 26-year-old female patient goes
to the dentist because of a toothache. On
examination the dentist notes that the patient has a
carious lesion that involves not only the enamel but
also the dentin and the cementum of the
tooth. Which of these substances cannot repair
itself?
A.* Enamel
B. Dentin
C. Cementum
D. Dentin and cementum
E. Dentin, cementum, and enamel
131.
You have discovered a mutant
mouse with defective neural crest migration. Which
endocrine organs are most severely affected?
A. Adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis
B. *Neurohypophysis and pineal gland
C. Adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla
D. Adrenal cortex and thyroid
E. Adrenal medulla and thyroid
132.
You begin to have muscle tremors
and have difficulty breathing. Fearing for your life,
you rush to your physician. After extensive blood
tests, you learn your blood Ca2+ levels are
dangerously low. Which endocrine gland or region
is most likely to have depressed or abnormally low
function?
A. Adenohypophysis
B. Neurohypophysis
C. Follicular cells of thyroid
D. Parathyroid
E. *Parafollicular cells of thyroid
137.
By some reasons at the age of 5
months a processes of destruction of Hertvig
epithelial sheath around a tooth were infringed.
What tissue won't develop because of this?
A. Enamel.
B. Dental papilla.
C. Dental saccule.
D.Pulp.
*E. Cement.
133.
A histological section of adrenal
glands shows the large cells of the cuboidal shape
which are located as cords and contain a plenty of
lipid inclusions. What part of adrenal glands is
represented in a histological section?
A. Medula
B. Zona glomerulosa
C. Zona intermedia
D. Zona reticularis
E. *Zona fasciculata
138.
By some reasons the activity of
cells in the peripheral part of pulp is temporarily
blocked. What tissue of the tooth is under the threat
of physiological regeneration deficiency?
*A. Dentin.
B. Enamel.
C. Pulp.
D. Cellular cement.
E. Acellular cement.
32
139.
In the first histological tooth
specimen acellular cement is detected, in the second
- cellular. What part of tooth is the second
preparation made of?
A. Upper part of the tooth under the gum.
B. Dental cervix.
*C. Root apex.
D. Crown of tooth.
E. Border between crown and root.
B. Primary.
C. Tertiary.
D. Sclerosed.
E. Dead tracts.
145.
In a histological specimen there is a
section of a jaw of a 2-month-old human embryo
with a damaged enamel epithelial organ. What
histological part of the tooth will not develop?
A. Dentin.
B. Pulp.
C. Cement.
D. Periodontium.
*E. Enamel.
140.
A student was wrong when he said
that enamel is descended from mesenchyme cells.
What is the correct answer?
A. Cells of Hertvig epithelial sheath.
B. Cells of stellate reticulum of enamel organ.
C. Cells of epithelial cervix of enamel organ.
*D. Epithelial cells of the internal layer of enamel
organ.
E. Epithelial cells of the external layer of enamel
organ.
146.
During embryogenesis superficial
mesenchimal cells of dental papilla
were damaged. To the failure of what dental
structure formation can this lead?
*A. Dentin.
B. Enamel.
C. Cement.
D. Periodontium.
E. Enamel cuticle.
141.
During embryogenesis the
formation of the anterior part of primary gut was
disturbed. What is the possible localization of
development anomalies?
A. Pancreas.
B. Stomach.
C. Liver.
*D. Organs of oral cavity.
E. Jejunum.
147.
Internal cells of dental saccule were
damaged during dental morphogenesis. The
formation of what structures will be damaged?
A. Pulp.
B. Enamel.
C. Dentin.
*D. Cement.
E. Periodontium.
142.
Disorder in the secretory activity of
odontoblasts took place du ring mantle dentin
formation in a milk tooth. Formation of what fibers
will be changed?
A. Elastic.
B. Reticular.
*C. Radial Korf collagen fibers.
D.Tangential Ebner collagen fibers.
E. Nerve.
148.
Examination of a patient has shown
deficient pulp development. What embryonal
source has been affected?
A. Ectoderm.
*B. Mesenchyme.
C. Endoderm.
D. Epithelium of oral cavity.
E. Dorsal mesoderm.
143.
In a histological specimen of the
lower jaw forming dentin is detected. Collagen
fibers synthesized by odontoblasts are thin and
perpendicular to dentinal tubules. What fibers are
being formed in dentin?
A. Radial.
*B. Tangential.
C. Parallel.
D.Sharpey.
E. Perforated.
149.
In a histological specimen of the
lower jaw sagittal section of a 3.5-month-old human
embryo an epithelial enamel organ surrounded by
compactly placed mesenchimal cells is observed.
How is this mesenchimal formation called?
A. Pulp of enamel organ.
B. Dental papilla.
C. External enamel cells.
D. Internal enamel cells.
*E. Dental saccule.
144.
There are disordered areas of dentin
tubules and collagen fibrils in prepulpal dentin of a
decalcified tooth of an adult patient. Name this kind
of dentin.
*A. Secondary.
150.
During oral cavity embryogenesis
dental enamel development was damaged. What
source of dental development was affected?
33
A. Mesoderm.
B. Mesenchyme.
*C. Epithelium of oral cavity.
D. Dental saccule.
E. Dental papilla.
156.
A sick child has white scurf on the
tongue. What papillae have caused this?
A. Fungiform papilla.
B. Circumvallate papilla.
C. Foliate papilla.
*D. Filiform papilla.
E. Leaflike papillla.
151.
Dentin having been formed, a
process of inversion begins in cells - the movement
of nucleus and organelles. What cells are involved
in this process?
*A. Enameloblasts.
B. Odontoblasts.
C. Preodontoblasts.
D.Cementoblasts.
E. Cementocytes.
157.
During the act of swallowing milk
runs through an infant's nose, the child chokes,
breathes heavily. During exam¬ination a surgeon
detected a congenital defect - cleft palate. What
development anomalies lead to this pathology?
*A. Nonunion of palatine processes.
B. Disorder of union of middle nasal process with
maxillary one.
C. Nonunion of mandible processes.
D. Nonunion of lateral tongue tubercles.
E. Disorder of development of frontal process.
152.
Undeveloped periodontium was
detected during microscopic examination of biopsy
material. To what source of dental development
does this infringement belong?
A. Dental papilla.
*B. Dental saccule.
C. Dental plate.
D. Preenameloblasts.
E. Enameloblasts.
158.
Experimentally the external layer of
a dental saccule was destroyed in an embryo's
dental germ. Name the structure that will not
develop in future.
A. Dentin.
B. Enamel.
*C. Periodontium.
D. Cement.
E. Pulp.
153.
There are 3 zones in a histological
specimen of an oral cavity organ: adipose, mucous,
fibrous. What organ is this?
A. Cheek.
B. Gum.
C. Soft palate.
D.Lip.
*E. Hard palate.
159.
A 42-year-old patient suffers from
parodontosis. Round calcified formations of 2-3
mm in diameter are found in the crown part of pulp.
What structures are these?
A. Intertubular dentin.
B. Interglobular cavities.
C. Sclerosed dentin.
D.Dead dentin.
*E. Denticles.
154.
In a histological specimen an organ
of oral cavity is observed. It consists of 3 parts dermal, intermediate, and mucous, the base being
formed of striated muscle tissue. What organ is it?
A. Hard palate.
B. Gum.
*C. Lip.
D.Soft palate.
E. Cheek.
160.
A child complains of toothache. A
dentist diagnosed carious damage of enamel.
Quantity of what mineral substances decreases in
the site of carious damage?
A. Sodium, calcium, potassium.
*B. Phosphorus, fluorine, calcium.
C. Potassium, phosphorus, fluorine.
D. Magnesium, fluorine, calcium.
E. Phosphorus, magnesium, potassium.
155.
In a histological specimen of an
oral cavity organ it can be seen that the anterior
surface is lined with stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium, the posterior surface - with
pseudostratified ciliary epithelium. What organ is
it?
*A. Soft palate.
B. Gum.
C. Hard palate.
D.Lip.
E. Cheek.
161.
In a histological specimen there is
presented a transverse section of the wall of a
hollow organ, whose mucous membrane is covered
with stratified squamous non-keratinized
epithelium. What organ is this?
*A. Esophagus.
B. Duodenum.
34
C. Colon.
D. Uterus.
E. Vermiform appendix.
D. Ileocoic
E. Colorectal
166.
A gistologic section of the intestine
shows branched tubular glands in the compartment
bounded by the muscularis mucosae and the
muscularis externa. The glands drain into the crypts
of Lieberkuhn. This is a section of
A.* duodenum
B. pylorus
C. cecum
D. ileum
E. jejunum
162.
The process of epithelium
cornification is detected during the morphological
analysis of the mucous coat of esophagus biopsy
material. What epithelium covers the mucous coat
of esophagus?
A. Stratified squamous keratinized.
B. Simple squamous.
C. Simple pseudostratified ciliary.
D. Simple columnar.
*E. Stratified squamous non-keratinized.
The human esophagus is lined with
(A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
(B) simple columnar absorptive epithelium
(C) simple columnar mucus-secreting epithelium
(D) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
(E) stratified ciliated columnar epithelium
163.
The girl, 15 years, has a corrosive
burn of the surface of tongue. What epithelium thus
is damaged?
A. Transitional
B. Pseudostratified ciliated
C. Simple columnar
D. Stratified nonkeratinized
E. Simple squamous
167.
A histologic slide of a transverse
section through the duodenum shows large cells
with large euchromatic nuclei and prominent
nucleoli between two layers of smooth muscle that
are oriented at right angles to one another. The large
cells are
A.* neurons of the myenteric plexus that innervate
the
muscularis externa
B. Enteroendocrine cells that secrete regulatory
peptides
C. Paneth cells that secrete bactericidal enzymes
D. Primordial cells that migrate into the epithelium
to form stem cells
E. Lymphocytes that have undergone blastic
transformation
164.
Secretin and cholecystokinin are
produced and secreted by cells in the lining of the
alimentary tract. Which of the following statements
about these two substances is true?
A.* They are hormones that have target cells in the
pancreas
and biliary tract
B. They are digestive enzymes present within the
lumen of
the duodenum
C. They are produced by Paneth cells
D. They are produced by Brunner glands and
released into
the lumina of the crypts of Lieberkiihn
E. They are produced by diffuse neuroendocrine
cells in the
lining of the stomach and small intestine
168.
A patient has malignant anemia
developing after gastrectomy. The absence of the
cells of what gastric glands causes this pathology?
A. Neck mucous cells.
B. Principal cells.
*C. Parietal cells.
D. Endocrinocytes.
E. Goblet cells.
169.
. In a histologic specimen in the
submucosal base of small intestine terminal parts of
serous glands are located. What part of the intestine
is presented in the specimen?
A. Jejunum.
B. Colon.
*C. Duodenum.
D. Ileum.
E. Appendix.
165.
A histologic section of a portion of
the alimentary canal shows the junction of a
stratified spithelium. Submucosal mucus-secreting
glands are visible under the stratified squamous
epithelium. The columnar epithelium is a sheet of
mucus-secreting cells. This section shows which of
the following junctions?
A.* Esophagogastric
B. Gastroduodenal
C. Rectoanal
170.
In a histological specimen of a
small intestine wall at the bottom of crypts there
have been found clustered cells. In the apical part of
the cells there
are large acidophilic secretory granules; cytoplasm
is basophilic-colored. What cells are these?
A. Goblet.
35
B. Columnar without bordering.
C. Endocrine.
*D.Panett.
E. Columnar with bordering.
C. Goblet exocrine cells.
*D. Columnar non-border epithelial cells.
E. Exocrine cells with acidophilic granulosity.
176.
After the ray therapeutics of the
stomach cancer a 48-year-old patient has malignant
anemia developed caused by the damage of the cells
producing antianemic factor. What gastric glands
cells are damaged?
A. Neck mucous cells.
B. Principal exocrine cells.
*C. Parietal exocrine cells.
D. Endocrine cells.
E. Additional mucous cells.
171.
Clusters of spherical cells with
large basophile nuclei and thin rim of cytoplasm are
detected in a specimen of small intestine in lamina
propria of mucous membrane. Majority of the
clusters have a light central part containing fewer
cells than the peripheral one. To what
morphological structure do such clusters belong?
A. Lymphatic vessels.
B. Nerve nodule.
C. Adipose cells.
D. Blood vessels.
*E. Lymph nodule.
177.
An infectiologist has detected an
acute enterocolitis syndrome with infringement of
the processes of breakdown and absorption of
nutritive materials of a patient. Due to the damage
of what intestinal epithelium cells is such disorder
observed?
A. Goblet cells.
B. Non-microvilli epitheliocytes.
*C. Columnar epitheliocytes with microvilli.
D. Cells with an acidophile granule.
E. Endocrynocytes.
172.
A child of the first year of life has
disorders of mother's milk suction. With activity
disorder of what gastric proper glands cells is it
connected?
A. Endocrine cells.
B. Parietal exocrine cells.
C. Neck mucous cells.
D. Additional mucous cells.
*E. Principal exocrine cells.
178.
Examination of a 43-year-old
patient has shown that protein products are digested
badly in the stomach. Gastric juice analysis has
shown low activity. The function of what cells of
stomach is damaged in this case?
A. Principal (chief) exocrine cells.
*B. Parietal exocrine cells.
C. Mucous cells.
D. Endocrine cells.
E. Neck mucous cells
179.
. A 39-year-old patient's small
intestine was investigated after the radiation therapy
of liver tumor. It was detected that the ulcer of
small intestine formed as a result of mitotic activity
depression of the cells, which contribute to the
tegumental epithelium of small intestine renewing.
What cells are these?
A. Endocrine.
B. Columnar epithelial.
C. Goblet exocrine.
*D. undifferentiated epithelial cells.
E. Exocrine cells with acidophil granulosity.
173.
In an electronic microgram of
duodenal epithelium a cell with electro-dense
granules on the basal pole is clearly seen. What cell
is this?
A. Undifferentiated.
B. Columnar with microvilli.
*C. Endocrine cells.
D.Goblet cell.
E. Parietal exocrine cells.
174.
Intragastric pH-metry of a patient
with chronic gastritis was performed. The
procedure detected the reduction of gastric juice
acidity. What cells function is lowered?
A. Endocrine cells.
B. Principal exocrine cells.
*C. Parietal exocrine cells.
D.Neck mucous cells.
E. Additional cells.
175.
Significant infringement of the
regeneration process of the small intestine mucous
membrane epithelial layer of a cancer patient is
detected by means of morphological research after
ray therapeutics. What epithelial layer cells are
damaged?
A. Endocrine cells.
B. Columnar epithelial cells with microvilli.
180.
A 45-year-old patient is
hospitalized with the complaint of pain in the
stomach. Gastroscopy has detected small ulcers in
the area of gastric fundus. The function impairment
of what cells of the mucous coat of stomach became
a reason for the mucous coat damage?
36
*A. Cells of superficial epithelium with mucous
secretion.
B. Parietal cells of stomach glands that secrete
chlorides and ions of hydrogen.
C. Principal (chief) exocrine cells that secrete
pepsinogen.
D. Endocrine cells which secrete somatostatin.
E. Endocrine cells which secrete serotonin.
B. *The presence of a connective tissue capsule
around all O-MALT.
C. The inability of O-MALT to make antibodies.
D. The inability of O-MALT to undergo the process
of immunological tolerance.
E. The lack of a blood supply to O-MALT.
186.
There are many examples of
"opposing-pairs" in the body - where one group of
cells does something that opposes the activity of a
second group of cells. What is an example of an
opposing-pair in the digestive system?
A. *Parietal cells—Brunner's gland.
B. Chief cells—pancreative acinar cells.
C. Surface mucous cells—neck mucous cells.
D. M cells—absorptive columnar cells.
E. Paneth cells—enteroendocrine cells.
181.
Some diseases of small intestine are
connected with the functions damage of exocrine
cells with acidophil granules. Where are these cells
located?
A. In the place of villi transition into crypts.
B. In the apical part of intestinal villi.
C. On lateral surfaces of intestinal villi.
*D. At the bottom of intestinal glands.
E. In the superior part of intestinal glands.
187.
The malignant anemia develops in
the patient after gastroectomy. Absence of what
cells of gastric glands is the reason of this
pathology?
A. Mucous neck cells
B. Chief cells
C. *Parietal cells
D. Enteroendocrine cells
E. Goblet cells
182.
The proportion between epithelial
cells of mucosa change in case of certain diseases
of large intestine. What types of cells dominate in
epithelium crypts of large intestine in normal
condition?
A. Undifferentiated cells.
B. Columnar villous epithelial cells.
C. Endocrine cells.
D.With acidophil granules.
*E. Goblet cells.
188.
A histologic section of the intestine
shows branched tubular glands in the compartment
bounded by the muscularis mucosae and the
muscularis externa. The glands drain into the crypts
of Lieberkuhn. This is a section of
(A) pylorus
(B) cecum
(C) ileum
(D) jejunum
(E) *duodenum
183.
Proctoscopy has shown a tumor
proceeding from the mucosa of the caudal part of
rectum. Of what epithelium has this tumor formed?
A. Transitional.
B. Simple columnar glandular.
C. Simple columnar with microvilli.
D. Simple cuboidal.
*E. Stratified squamous non-keratinized.
189.
A histologic section of a portion of
the alimentary canal shows the junction of a
stratified squamous epithelium and a simple
columnar epithelium. Submucosal mucus-secreting
glands are visible under the stratified squamous
epithelium. The columnar epithelium is a sheet of
mucus-secreting cells. This section shows which of
the following junctions?
(A) Gastroduodenal
(B) Rectoanal
(C) Ileocolic
(D) * Esophagogastric
(E) Colorectal
184.
Intestinal epithelial cells can move
antibody molecules into the lumen of the gut by
transcytosis. This process involves:
A. E*ndocytosis at the basal surface and exocytosis
at the apical surface.
B. Endocytosis at the apical surface and exocytosis
at the basal surface.
C. Disruption of tight junctions (zonula occludens).
D. Movement through gap junctions.
E. Movement through carriers (permeases).
185.
The lymphatic aggregates found in
the gut, known as O-MALT, differ from "dry"
lymph nodes, such as those associated with arms
and legs, in several ways. One of these is:
A. The lack of afferent lymphatics in O-MALT.
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM. DIGESTIVE
GLANDS
37
190.
A salivary gland histological
specimen is being examined. In the specimen
protein, mixed and mucous terminal departments
are detected. What organ is being examined?
A. Salivary gland of cheek.
B. Parotid salivary gland.
C. Submandibular salivary gland.
D. Lip salivary gland.
*E. Sublingual salivary gland.
C. Sublingual gland.
D. Submandibular gland.
E. Submucosal gland of the esophagus.
195.
The central, or axial, structure of
the classic liver lobule is a
(A) portal triad
(B) sinusoid
(C) *central vein
(D) space of Disse
(E) bile canaliculus
191.
In a histological specimen an organ
parenchyma is presented by lobules of hexahedral
prism form consisting of anastomosing plates with
sinusoidal capillaries. The capillaries are lying
between the plates and are radially converging to
the central vein. What anatomic organ has such
morphological structure?
A. Spleen.
B. Pancreas.
C. Thymus.
*D. Liver.
E. Lymph node.
196.
Insulin is synthesized and secreted
by which pancreatic cell?
(A) Islet A cell
(B) Exocrine acinar cell
(C) *Islet B cell
(D) Intercalated duct cell
(E) Islet D cell
197.
. A histologic section of an exocrine
gland shows numerous serous secretory acini, some
mucous acini, many prominent striated ducts, and
distinct interlobular duels. This section is a sample
of which of the following types of glands?
(A) Sublingual gland
(B) Exocrine pancreas
(C) Eccrine sweat gland
(D) Parotid gland
(E) * Submandibular gland
192.
In a histological specimen of a
glandular organ only serous terminal parts are
detected. In interlobular connective tissue a duct is
seen, lined with two-layer or stratified epithelium.
What organ is this?
A. Submandibular salivary gland.
*B. Parotid salivary gland.
C. Pancreas.
D. Sublingual salivary gland.
E. Liver.
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
198.
At the patient, 66 years, a malignant
epithelial tumour, which occurs from a middle
bronchus, was diagnosed. What epithelium is a
source of development of this tumor?
A.*Simple pseudostratified ciliated
B. Stratified keratinized
C. Stratified nonkeratinized
D. Transitional
E. Simple columnar
193.
During the excrescence of
connective tissue into the parenchyma of liver
(fibrosis caused by chronic diseases) blood
circulation disorder in classical lobules is observed.
What is the direction of blood circulation in such
lobules normally?
*A. From periphery to centre.
B. From centre to periphery.
C. Around the lobule.
D. From top to bottom.
E. From bottom to top.
199.
At the patient, 48 years, benign
epithelial tumor of a pleura of the lung top part is
revealed. What epithelium is a source of a tumor
development?
A. Pseudostratified ciliated
B. Stratified nonkeratinized
C.*Simple squamous
D. Transitional
E. Stratified keratinized
194.
Imagine that you are looking
through a microscope at ca. 400X total
magnification at a standard H&E stained section of
the parenchyma of a pancreas and that you can see
secretory cells, but no islets, capsule, or connective
tissue septa. What other digestive system gland
would you be most likely to confuse this with,
given a similar view limited to the parenchyma of
the gland?
A. Mucosal gland of the colon.
B. *Parotid gland.
200.
After a long inflammation of a
nasal cavity mucosa the changes of an epithehum
are observed. What epithelium has undergone to
changes?
38
A.*Simple pseudostratified
B. Stratified cuboidal
C. Stratified squamous
D. Simple squamous
E. Stratified columnar
206.
In an electronic micrograph some
structures have the form of opened vesicles, the
internal surface of which is lined with simple
epithelium. It contains respiratory and secretory
cells. What structures are these?
*A. Alveoli.
B. Bronchioles.
C. Acini.
D. Alveolar duct.
E. Terminal bronchioles.
201.
At the patient the dry pleuritis
auscultates. What epithelium lining pleural cavity is
damaged in this case?
A.Simple cuboidal
B.Simple columnar
C.*Simple squamous
D.Transitional
E.pseudostratified
207.
In the epithelium of airways there
are cells with a cupola-shaped apical pole, on the
surface of which microvilli are located. In the cell a
well-developed synthetic device is detected, in the
apical pole - secretory granules. What cell is this?
A. Endocrine.
B. Goblet.
*C. Clara's.
D. Without bordering.
E. Cambial.
202.
At the patient, 56 years, a malignant
epithelial tumor of a trachea was diagnosed. What
epithelium is a source of development of a tumor?
A.Transitional
B.*Simple pseudostratified ciliated
C.Stratified nonkeratinized
D.Stratified keratinized
E.Simple columnar
208.
. Premature infants have a
respiratory distress syndrome developed. The
insufficiency of what airhematic barrier component
underlies this pathology?
A. Basement membrane of endothelium.
B. Endothelium of capillaries.
*C. Surfactant.
D. Basement membrane of alveolocytes.
E. Alveolocytes.
203.
A 22 year old male with respiratory
difficulties is diagnosed with a mediastinal germ
cell tumor. The primordial germ cell that gave rise
to this tumor inappropriately migrated to this site
from which of the following tissues?
A.Liver
B.Testis
C.*Yolk sac
D.Allantois
E.Spleen
209.
Hyperemia and increased mucous
formation in the nasal cavity of a patient with acute
rhinitis are detected. The activity of what cells of
mucous membrane epithelium is increased?
A. Microvillous.
B. Ciliated.
*C. Goblet.
D. Basal.
E. Endocrine.
204.
A patient has appealed to an
otolaryngologist with complaints of dryness in the
nose which caused unpleasant sensations.
Examination of nasal cavity mucosa has shown
function infringements of mucous glands located in
it. In what layer of nasal cavity mucosa are these
glands located?
A. Submucous layer.
B. Epithelial plate.
C. Muscle plate.
*D. Proper mucous plate.
E. Fibrocartilaginous plate.
210.
Surfactant alveolar complex is
known to be an important component of the
airhematic barrier. This complex prevents alveoli
from coalescence during expiration. What alveolar
cells synthesize phospholipins that are used to form
the complex?
A. Border epithelial cells.
B. Respiratory cells.
*C. Alveolocytes of type II.
D. Alveolar macrophages.
E. Endothelium of capillaries.
205.
In lungs alveoli there are special
cells, which carry out gas exchange and form the
barrier between air and blood. Name these cells.
A. Alveolar macrophages.
B. Clara's cells.
*C. Type I alveolocytes.
D.Type II alveolocytes.
E. Microvillous epithelial cells.
211.
A child has inspired a button. This
button was removed from the right primary
39
bronchus with the help of a bronchoscope. What
bronchial epithelium is the most likely to be
damaged by the foreign body?
A. Stratified non-keratinized.
*B. Simple pseudostratified ciliated.
C. Simple low-columnar.
D. Transitional.
E. Simple squamous.
216.
In a section of lung tissue
consisting predominantly of alveoli, a tubule about
2 mm in diameter is observed that contains smooth
muscle and cartilage in its wall. The tubule is which
one of the following?
(A) *Alveolar duct
(B) Alveolar sac
(C) Bronchiole
(D) Bronchus
(E) Trachea
212.
Pneumothorax describes a situation
in which the lung collapses. Which of the following
defects is most likely associated with this
condition?
A. Distension of the alveoli following
hyperventilation.
B. Failure of the upper respiratory tract to
adequately warm and humidify the air, resulting in
"shrinkage" of the lung.
C. *Immaturity of the Type II pneumocytes.
D. Disruption of junctional complexes between
visceral pleura mesothelial cells, resulting in air
leaking into the pleural cavity
E. Excess contraction of smooth muscles in bronchi
and bronchioles
217.
The smallest active functional unit
(including conduction and air exchange) of the lung
is
A *An alveolus
B A respiratory bronchiolar unit (acinus)
C A bronchopulmonary segment
D Segmental bronchi
E An intrapulmonary bronchus
INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
218.
The intercellular spaces in the
stratum spinosum of the epidermis contain lipidcontaining sheets that are impermeable to water.
This material is released from:
A.* membrane-coating granules
B. keratohyalin granules
C. Langerhans cells
D. sebaceous glands
E. melanosomes
213.
Premature infants with respiratory
distress syndrome have difficulty breathing because
the following type of cell has not yet matured:
A. Type I pneumocyte
B. Goblet cell
C. Ciliated cell
D. *Type II pneumocyte
E. Alveolar phagocyte
F. Brush cell
G. APUD cell
219.
In a routine histologic section of
skin showing a full thickness of epidermis, mitotic
cells are occasionally visible. These are
characteristic of which level of the epidermis?
A.* Stratum basale
B. Stratum spinosum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum lucidum
E. Stratum cornea
214.
The syndrome of respiratory
insufficiency develops in prematurely born children
. Deficiency of what component of air-blood barrier
underlies this pathology?
A. Basal membrane of endothelium
B. Endothelium of capillaries
C. *Surfactant
D. Basal membrane of pneumocytes
Е. Pneumocytes
220.
With age the human skin is exposed
to changes, which can be shown by decrease of its
elasticity. What elements of a connective tissue
more over provide its elasticity?
A.*Collagen and elastic fibers
B. Cells of epidermis
C. Ground substance
D. Connective tissue cells
E. Reticular fibers
215.
It is known, that the important
component of air-blood barrier is the complex of an
alveolar surfactant, which prevents sticking of
alveoluses during an exhalation. What cells of
alveoluses synthesize phospholipids, used in
construction of this complex?
A. Microvillar (brush) cells
B. Type I pneumocytes
C. *Type II pneumocytes
D. Alveolar macrophages
Е. Endothelium of capillaries
221.
Which substance have the most
important role in formation of scar after healing of
the wound?
A.*Collagen
40
B.Keratan-sulfate
C.Chondroithin-sulfate
D.Elastin
E.Hyaluronic acid
227.
In medicolegal practice
identification of personality is periodically
necessary. The method of dactyloscopy is used for
this purpose. Structure peculiarities of what layer
define the individual skin pattern?
A. Reticular derma layer.
*B. Papillary derma layer.
C. Epidermis.
D. Epidermis and derma.
E. Epidermis, derma, and hypoderm.
222.
At the biopsy of mammary gland
star-shaped cells are founded between a basal
membrane and laktocytes. Name the source of
embryonic development of these cells.
A.dermatome
B.Sclerotome
C.Myotome
D.*skin ectoderm
E.Nephrogonotome
228.
A child has abraded skin of the
palm when falling down. What epithelium was
damaged?
A. Transitional.
B. Stratified non-keratinized.
C. Simple low-columnar.
*D. Stratified keratinized.
E. Simple squamous.
223.
In an electronic micrograph of skin
epidermis among the cells of cubic form dendritic
cells are detected. In their cytoplasm Golgi
apparatus is well-developed, there are a lot of
ribosomes and melanosomes. Name these cells.
*A. Melanocytes.
B. Keratinocytes.
C. Cells of Langerhans.
D.Merkel's cells.
E. Mast cells.
229.
A woman has got allergic
dermatitis of hands after industrial contact with
chromium compounds. What cells of skin were
mainly damaged by the disease?
A. Plasma cells.
*B. Mast cells.
C. Macrophages.
D. Neutrophils.
E. Lymphocytes.
224.
Terminal secretory parts of
apocrine sudoriferous glands contain myoepithelial
cells. What is the function of these cells?
A. Protective.
B. Secretory.
*C. Contractive.
D. Regenerative.
E. Supportive.
230.
The reticular layer of skin is
damaged after a trauma. This layer will recover
with the help of a cell population. Name this cell
population.
A. Macrophagic.
*B. Fibroblastic.
C. Lymphoblastic.
D. Neuroblasts.
E. Erythroblastic.
225.
A patient with an open fracture of a
forefinger has appealed to a traumatology center.
First medical aid is given. Which of the injured
tissues regenerates the most quickly?
A. Nerve.
B. Connective.
C. Striated muscular.
D.Bone.
*E. Epidermis.
231.
Some layers are absent on a limited
area of epidermis after a trauma. Only germinative
layer is preserved. Name the cells, which will
become the main source of its regeneration.
*A. Layer of basal cells.
B. Layer of spinosum cells.
C. Layer of granulosum cells.
D. Layer of spinous and granular cells of
undisturbed area.
E. Clear layer cells of undisturbed area.
226.
A 12-year-old patient has white
spots without a pigment on skin. Spots have
appeared after the age of 10, constantly increase in
size. The absence of what cells of skin led to such
formations appearance?
A. Plasma cell.
B. Adipocytes.
C. Fibrocytes.
*D. Melanocytes.
E. Mast cell.
232.
In skin biopsy material in epidermis
cells with processes containing deep-brown
granules in cytoplasm have been detected. What
cells are these?
*A. Melanocytes.
B. Intraepidermal macrophages.
41
C. Keratinocytes.
D.Merkel's cells.
E. Lymphocytes.
cells are occasionally visible. These are
characteristic of which level of the epidermis?
(A) Keratinized layer
(B) Granular layer
(C) Spinous layer
(D) *Basal layer
233.
Your dog ate your histology notes,
so you were unable to prepare adequately for this
exam. Now, as you face these impossible questions,
your palms are dripping with sweat. What
cutaneous appendages are responsible for this
phenomenon?
A. Sebaceous glands
B. Meibomian glands
C. Apocrine sweat glands
D. *Eccrine sweat glands
URINARY SYSTEM
239.
In a specimen a dense network of
capillaries located between two arterioles (rete
mirabile) can be clearly seen. In what organ is it
possible to find this network?
A. Retina.
B. Liver.
C. Adrenal gland.
D. Spleen.
*E. Kidney.
234.
Special cells, which carry out gas
exchange, are present in alveoluses of the lungs.
These cells are part of an air-blood barrier. What
are these cells?
A. Alveolar macrophages
B. Clara cell
C. *Type I pneumocytes.
D. Type II pneumocytes
Е. Microvillar (brush) cells
240.
Normally, during a laboratory
examination of urine blood elements are not
detected in it. What nephron structure interferes
with their getting into primary urine?
*A. Basement membrane of glomerular capillaries.
B. Juxtavascular cells.
C. Mesangial cells.
D. Epithelium of the external leaf of glomerular
capsule.
E. Epithelium of Henle's loop.
235.
In medicolegal practice periodically
it is necessary to made an identification of the
person. For this purpose a method of dactyloscopy
(dermatoglyphics) is used. Structure of what skin
layer determines the individual epidermal ridges
(individual fingerprints) of a human skin?
A. Reticular layer of the dermis
B. *Papillary layer of the dermis
C. Epidermis
D. Epidermis and dermis
E. Epidermis, dermis and hypodermis
241.
. Work in the mines is known to be
connected with the inhalation of a
significant amount of coal dust. In what pulmonary
cells is it possible to detect coal dust?
A. In the pericytes of capillaries.
B. In respiratory epithelial cells.
C. In secretory epithelial cells.
D.In endotheliocytes of capillaries.
*E. In alveolar macrophages.
236.
Which one of the following
describes the secretory mechanism by which sebum
is produced?
(A) Apocrine
(B) Cytocrine
(C) Eccrine
(D) *Holocrine
(E) Paracrine
242.
Laboratory examination has shown
subacid reaction of urine. What kidneys cells
provide this reaction of urine?
A. Cells of the dense macula of juxtaglomerular
complex.
B. Juxteglomerular cells of cortical nephrons.
C. Juxtavascular cells of cortical nephrons.
*D. Secretory cells of gathering tubules.
E. Interstitial cells of stroma.
237.
. Which of the following occurs
after exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation?
a. Reduced protection of the nuclei of dividing
keratinocytes by melanin
b. Lightening of melanin
c. *Increased melanin synthesis
d. Proliferation of melanocytes
e. Decreased cytocrine secretion of melanin
243.
In a kidney specimen nephrons are
detected on the border of cortical and medullary
substance with identical diameter of afferent and
efferent arterioles. What function will be damaged
in case of their affection?
A. Synthesis of renin.
238.
. In a routine histologic section of
skin showing a full thickness of epidermis, mitotic
42
*B. Shunting of blood accompanied by intensive
blood circulation.
C. Synthesis of prostaglandins.
D. Synthesis of erythropoietin.
E. Activity of sodium (Na+) receptor.
D.Mesonephrogenic duct.
*E. Mesonephrogenic duct diverticulum,
methanephrogenic tissue.
249.
Clinical examination of a 35-yearold female with renal disease has detected in the
urine blood cells, fibrinogen, probably because of
renal filter failure. Of what structures is this filter
formed?
A. Trilaminar basic membrane.
*B. Endothelium of glomerular capillaries,
trilaminar basic membrane, podocytes.
C. Endothelium of capillaries, basic membrane.
D.Podocytes, basic membrane.
E. Endothelium, podocytes.
244.
In an electronic micrograph of a
nephron part there are detected cells of cubic form,
the apical surface of which contains brush border,
and the basal - basal banding with mitochondria
between invaginations of cytolemma. Name the
department of nephron.
A. Distal tubule.
B. Gathering tubule.
*C. Proximal tubule.
D.Thin tubule.
E. Capsule of the glomerule.
250.
Electron microscopy of a kidney
has detected tubules lined with cuboidal epithelium.
There are light and dark cells in the epithelium.
Light cells have few organelles, cytoplasm forms
folds. These cells provide reabsorption of water
from primary urine into blood. Dark cells resemble
parietal cells of stomach by structure and function.
What tubules are presented?
*A. Connecting tubules.
B. Proximal tubules.
C. Distal tubules.
D. Ascending tubules of Henle's loop.
E. Descending tubules of Henle's loop.
245.
Kidney endocrine complex cells are
located under endothelium in the wall of afferent
and efferent arterioles; in the cytoplasm these cells
contain granules of renin, which assists the rise of
blood pressure. What cells are these?
A. Mesangial cells.
B. Hurmagtig's cells.
C. Dense macula cells.
*D. Juxteglomerular cells.
E. Interstitial cells.
246.
In urine analysis epithelial cells of
the thin tubule of nephron are detected. With what
epithelium is the wall of this nephron tubule
covered?
A. Columnar ciliated.
B. Cuboidal.
C. Cuboidal ciliated.
D. Columnar.
*E. Simple squamous.
251.
Leached erythrocytes have been
detected in a patient's urine analysis. What is the
localization of the pathological process
predetermining such changes?
A. Gathering tubules.
B. Proximal part of nephron.
*C. Filtration barrier.
D. Distal part of nephron.
E. Thin part of nephron.
247.
In a kidney histological specimen
there has been presented a site of a distal tubule of
nephron located between afferent and efferent
arterioles. In the cells, which form the tubule wall,
nuclei are thickened, basic membrane is absent.
Name this structural formation.
A. Hurmagtig's cells.
*B. Dense macula cells.
C. Mesangial cells.
D.Juxtavascular cells.
E. Juxtaglomerular cells.
252.
Anemia of a 50-year-old patient
with chronic nephritis has developed. What is the
main reason for this?
*A. Reduction of erythropoietin production.
B. Absence of the gland.
C. Absence of vitamin B12.
D. Disorder of porphyrin synthesis.
E. Immunologic damage of immature cells of
erythropoiesis.
248.
Anlage of metanephros occurs
during the second month of embryoge-nesis. What
are the sources of its formation?
A. Segment peduncles.
B. Segment peduncles, nephrogenic tissue.
C. Nephrogenic tissue.
253.
Sugar is detected in the urine of a
30-year-old patient, its amount in blood being
normal. What structure functional mechanisms of
the kidney are violated?
A. Filtration process.
43
*B. Reabsorption process in the proximal part of
nephron.
C. Reabsorption process in the distal part of
nephron.
D. Reabsorption process in the thin tubule.
E. Reabsorption process in the distal part as a result
of vasopressin secretion insufficiency.
MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
259.
Boy 5 years old with the symptoms
of early sexual development are found out
happening. At the examination a tumour of testis is
exposed. What cells is a tumour formed from?
A.Fibroblasts
B.spermatogones
C.cells of Sertoli
D.primary spermatocytes
E.*cells of Leydig
254.
. An electron micrograph of one
part of nephron shows cuboidal cells, apical
surface of which contains a brush border, and basal
surface has basal striations with mitochondria
located between invagination of cytolemma. What
part of nephron is this?
A. Distal tubule
B. Collecting tubule
C. *Proximal tubule
D. Thin segment of the loop of Henle
E. Renal capsule
260.
At man 20 years old with the
decrease of the FSH production is exposed. What
change will happen in the testis?
A.spermatogenesis increase
B.no changes in spermatogenesis
C.*spermatogenesis stops
D.Atrophy of Leydig cells
E.atrophy of Sertoli cells
255.
A small protein (approximately
30,000 daltons) passes through the glomerular
basement membrane into the glomerular filtrate.
Cells of which of the following tissues would
remove the protein from the filtrate?
(A) Visceral epithelium of the renal corpuscle
(B) Distal convoluted tubule
(C) Glomerular mesangium
(D) *Proximal convoluted tubuie
(E) Parietal layer of the renal corpuscle
261.
A man 20 years appealed to the
centre engaged in the problem of sterile marriages.
This patient has a problem: decrease of LH
production. Synthesis of what hormone of the testis
is broken?
A.inhibins
B.follitropine
C.Androgen binding protein
D.*testosterone
E.estradiole
256.
. Identification of a macula densa
in a section of kidney also identifies an example of
a
(A) proximal tubule
(B) loop of Henle
(C) *distal tubule
(D) collecting duct
(E) papillary duct
262.
At men long time working in hot
workshops without the special defense
(steelmakers, rolls) aspermatogenesis develops .
What temperature the testis need for the normal
process of spermatogenesis?
A.*34°C
B.36.6°C
C.36.8°C
D.37°C
E.37.2°C
257.
The greatest reduction in volume of
initial glomerular filtrate occurs in which of the
following structures?
(A) Urinary space of the renal capsule
(B) Proximal convoluted tubule
(C) Distal convoluted tubule
(D) Collecting duct
(E) *Loop of Henle
263.
In preparation of cross section of
tubule of male reproductive system in an inner
covering epithelium the groups of high ciliary cells
and low cuboidal cells, are founded. Cuboidal cells
have apocrine type of secretion, What department
of male reproductive system is represented?
A.straight tubules
B.rete testis
C.seminiferous tubules
D.*ductuli efferentes
E.ductus deferens
258.
Renin is secreted by
(A) proximal tubule cells
(B) visceral epithelial cells
(C) modified distal tubule cells
(D) gastric mucosal cells
(E) *modified vascular smooth muscle cells
264.
It is known, that suppression of
synthesis of androgenes result impotence.
44
Hypersecretion of what hormone is the cause of this
process?
A.Prolactine
B.progesterone
C.Inhibine
D.*Gonadostatine
E.somatostatine
A. Sertoli cells.
B. Sustentocytes.
C. Sustentacular cells.
*D. Spermatogones.
E. Leidig cells.
270.
The changes of nucleus and
cytoplasm of spermatids are observed during one of
the phases of spermatogenesis. These changes
predetermine the formation of mature sex cells.
What gametogenesis phase is meant?
A. Proliferation.
B. Maturation.
C. Growth.
D. Reproduction.
*E. Formation.
265.
In the section of the testis in the
epithelium of seminiferous tubules only Leydig
cells and spermatogonii are founded. What is the
age of man?
A.*1 month
B.8 years
C.15 years
D.25 years
E.80 years
271.
The primary energy source
(fructose) for sperm in semen is secreted by:
A. the seminal vesicle.
B. the prostate gland.
C. the bulbourethral gland.
D. *the epididymis.
266.
An undescended testis of a
prepubertal male is removed since it is at higher
risk to develop testicular cancer. Histologic analysis
reveals that cells of the germ line in this testis have
have advanced as far as which of the following
stages of development?
A.Primordial germ cell
B.*Spermatogonium
C.Primary spermatocyte
D.Secondary spermatocyte
E.Definitive spermatocyte
272.
Because spermatogonia don't begin
to divide and produce spermatocytes until puberty,
spermatocyte-and sperm-specific proteins are not
present for a significant portion of the time when
the immune system is eliminating self-reactive
cells. Thus, it is not impossible to find sexually
mature males with high levels of anti-sperm
antibodies. Such antibodies can be shown to react
against and interfere with sperm in vitro. These
same males, however, are not necessarily infertile
due to features of:
A. spermatogonia.
B. myoepithelial cells.
C. endothelial cells.
D. Leydig cells.
E. *Sertoli cells.
267.
A family couple complains of being
infertile. Examination revealed that the man's
spermatogenic epithelium of testicle has been
affected, that led to the absence of spermatozoa in
seminal fluid, and consequently to barrenness. What
part of testicle has been damaged?
A. Straight seminiferous tubules.
*B. Convoluted seminiferous tubules.
C. Rete testis.
D. Duct of epididymis.
E. Efferent duct of testicle.
273.
Which of the following cells is the
first, or earliest, member of the series that will
contain either an X or Y chromosome, but not both,
in its prophase nucleus?
A. Type A spermatogonium.
B. *Type B spermatogonium.
C. Primary spermatocyte.
D. Secondary spermatocyte.
E. Early spermatid.
268.
As a result of a mechanical injury
of scrotum a patient has disorders of the network of
testis epithelial lining. What epithelium is
damaged?
A. Ciliated.
*B. Simple cuboidal.
C. Simple columnar.
D. Double layer.
E. Transitional.
269.
Insufficient quantity of
spermatozoa is detected during a seminal fluid
analysis of a 25-year-old patient. What cells of male
sex glands, dividing, provide a sufficient quantity of
spermatozoa for fertilization?
274.
. In semen, what is the primary
energy source for the spermatozoa?
A. *Fructose produced in seminal vesicles
B. Fructose produced in bulbourethral glands
C. ATP produced in bulbourethral glands
45
D. Glucose produced in prostate gland
E. ATP produced in prostate gland
275.
A man 20 years appealed to the
centre engaged in the problem of sterile marriages.
This patient has a problem: decrease of LH
production. Synthesis of what hormone of the testis
is broken?
A inhibins
B follitropine
C Androgen binding protein
D *testosterone
E estradiole
contain either an X or Y chromosome, but not both,
in its prophase nucleus?
A. Type A spermatogonium.
B. Type B spermatogonium.
C. Primary spermatocyte.
D. Secondary spermatocyte.
E. Early spermatid.
281.
The genetically and
immunologically distinct secondary spermatocytes
and spermatids are in a compartment that is isolated
from the immune system by the blood-testis barrier,
The barrier is formed by which one of the
following?
(A) Basal laminae of seminiferous tubules
(B) * Tight junctions between Sertoli cells
(C) Cytoplasmic bridges between spermatocytes
(D) Myoid cells subtending the seminiferous
tubules
(E) Gap junctions between type B spermatogonia
276.
Which of the following pituitary
hormones is the principal controlling factor in
regulating the interstitial endocrine cells (Leydig
cells) of the testis?
A GH
B TSH
C *LH
D MSH
E FSH
FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
282.
A female patient with unexplained
infertility is treated with menopausal gonadotropin
and pure follicle stimulating hormone to induce
follicular development. Several oocytes are
aspirated from enlarged follicles and cultured in
nutrient medium until they reach the normal second
stage of meiotic arrest before they are fertilized.
Fertilization is therefore carried out at which of the
following stages of oocyte development?
A.Metaphase of the primary oocyte
B.*Prophase of the Secondary oocyte
C.Metaphase of the Secondary oocyte
D.Prophase of the definitive oocyte
E.Metaphase of the definitive oocyte
277.
Sperm sells in the human male
begin to differentiate at which of the following
points in development?
A At 5 month of fetal life
B As soon as the embryonic Leydig cells secrete
androgens
C *At puberty
D As soon as primordial germ cells enter the genital
ridge
E At birth
278.
As you study slides of the male
reproductive system you see epithelial tissue that
contains both proliferative cells at varied stages of
differentiation and non-proliferative cells. What
part of the reproductive system is this?
A. *Post-pubertal testis
B. Aged prostate
C. Pre-pubertal seminal vesicle
D. Sexually mature ductus deferens
E. Immature bulbourethral gland
283.
Injection of urine of expectant
mother to mice (before puberty) causes the multiple
folliculogenesis in ovary. What substance
containing in urine does determine this effect?
A.estryole
B.testosterone
C.tyroliberine
D.prolactine
E.*chorional gonadotropic
279.
This gland within the male
reproductive system has both pseudostratified and
transitional epithelium and contributes proteolytic
enzymes to the semen:
A. Bulbourethral gland
B. *Prostate
C. Seminal Vesicle
D. Ductuli efferentes
E. Epididymis
284.
The blood test of woman shows a
high level of estrogens. What cells synthesize a
basic amount of estrogens?
A.interstitial cells of ovary
B.follicular cells of primary follicles
C.*follicular cells of secondary follicles
D.follicular cells of primordial follicles
E.mesothelium
280.
Which of the following cells is the
first, or earliest, member of the series that will
46
285.
On medicolegal assessment the
dead body of unknown woman was delivered. On a
section in an ovary the rounded formation by a
diameter about 5 sm was found, containing the
yellow pigment. Pathological changes are not
discovered in the ovary. What cells does this
formation consist of?
A.Follicular
B.Myoid
C.Fibroblasts
D.*Luteal
E.Interstitial
some oocytes contain two copies of chromosome 21
while others contain no copies of chromosome 21.
The woman displays none of the characteristics of
Down syndrome and so the nondisjunction that
resulted in this condition must have occurred in
which of the following cells?
A.Primary oocyte in her mother's germline
B.Secondary oocyte in her mother's germline
germline
C.Blastomere in her mother's germline
D.*Secondary oocyte in her own germline
E.Blastomere in her own germ line
286.
Oogonia reach their maximum
number at which of the following stages of human
development?
A.*Five months of fetal life
B.Birth
C.Puberty (f 2 to 14 years of age)
D.Adolescence (16 to 20 years of age)
E.Early adulthood (21 to 26 years of age)
291.
A female patient spontaneously
aborts a hydatidiform mole. Follow-up monitoring
of which of the following hormones is typically
carried out to definitively reveal whether or not any
remnants of the mole remain?
A.Estrogen
B.Adrenocortical hormone
C.*Human chorionic gonadotropin
D.Follicle stimulating hormone
E.Progesterone
287.
Primordial follicles of the ovary
possess
A.layer of cuboidal follicular cells
B.*an oocyte arrested in prophase of meiosis I
C.an oocyte arrested in metaphase of meiosis II
D.well-defined thecae interna and externa
E.a thick zona pellucida
292.
In a month after childbirth the
woman of 25 years old appealed to the doctor with
a complaint about decrease of amount of milk. The
lack of what hormone did result in such state?
A. Glucagon.
B. Corticotropin
C. Somatostatin.
D. Insulin.
E.*ProlactinA
288.
The secondary oocytic enters the
second meiotic division and proceeds as far as
metaphase. The stimulus required for continuation
of the second meiotic division to produce the
haploid ovum is
A.Elevation of progesterone tilers
B.The environment of the oviduct and uterus
C.Expulsion from the mature follicle
D.*Fertilization by a spermatozoon
E.The presence of human chorionic gonadotropin
(hCG)
293.
Atretic bodies and developed
yellow body are detected in an ovary specimen next
to follicles of different order. To what phase of
ovarian-menstrual cycle does such condition
correspond?
A. Regenerative.
B. Menstrual.
C. Postmenstrual.
*D. Premenstrual.
E. Follicle growth.
289.
Ultrasound examination of an
anovulatory patient with polycystic ovary syndrome
(PCOS) reveals that her ovaries contain multiple
enlarged but immature follicles. The oocytes within
these follicles have advanced to which of the
following stages of meiosis?
*A.First meiotic prophase
B.First meiotic metaphase
C.Second meiotic prophase
D.Second meiotic metaphase
E.Pronuclear stage
294.
Normal implantation of a human
embryo is possible only in case of appropriate
changes of endometrium. What cells of
endometrium increase quantitatively in this case?
*A. Decidual cells.
B. Fibroblasts.
C. Neurons.
D. Macrophages.
E. Myocytes.
290.
Chromosome analysis is carried out
on the polar bodies of a woman for screening prior
to in vitro fertilization. Polar bodies removed from
47
295.
In a woman's blood a large quantity
of estrogens has been found. What cells synthesize
the basic quantity of estrogens?
A. Ovocytes.
*B. Interstitial and follicular cells of secondary
follicles.
C. Follicular cells of primary follicles.
D. Follicular cells of the primordial follicles.
E. Follicular cells and ovocytes.
not observed; there are decidual cells in stroma.
What stage of menstrual cycle is described?
A. Proliferative.
B. Menstrual.
C. Regenerative.
*D. Secretory (premenstrual).
E. Relative rest.
301.
Microscopic examination of
endometrium biopsy material of a woman suffering
from infertility has shown changes in endometrium
construction caused by the influence of
progesterone. Where is this hormone produced?
A. In follicles of ovary.
*B. In corpus luteum of ovary.
C. In adenohypophysis.
D.In neurohypophysis.
E. In hypothalamus.
296.
Anovular menstrual cycle of a
female patient is detected. What process from the
listed below does not take place?
*A. Rupture of follicle and outlet of ovocyte into
abdominal cavity.
B. Reconstruction of follicle after ovocyte's death.
C. Reproduction of granular layer cells.
D. Accumulation of lutein in follicular cells.
E. Decrease of mature follicle volume.
302.
As a pin passes from the nucleus of
a developing oocyte into the surrounding ovarian
tissue it would encounter the following layers in
what sequence:
1 = Nuclear membrane
2 = Theca interna
3 = Zona pellucida
4 = Granulosa or follicular cells
5 = Theca externa
6 = Basement membrane
A. 1-2-3-4-5-6
B. 1-4-5-6-2-3
C.* 1-3-4-6-2-5
D. 1-3-2-4-5-6
E. 1-3-2-5-4-6
297.
A bleeding after a delivery may be
stopped by hormones action on uterus structures.
One component of uterus wall takes part in this
process more than others. Name this component.
A. Endometrium.
*B. Myometrium middle layer.
C. Myometrium internal layer.
D.Myometrium superficial layer.
E. Perimetrium.
298.
The bleeding stop following a
delivery is connected with the action of oxytocin on
the wall of uterus. What tunica of the organ reacts
to this action?
A. Perimetrium.
B. Endometrium.
*C. Myometrium.
D. Parametrium.
E. Submucous layer.
303.
During the average menstrual cycle,
LH and FSH levels are highest
A. during the proliferative phase
B. on day one of the cycle
C. during the luteal (secretory) phase
D.* immediately prior to ovulation
E. during the menstrual phase
299.
Internal female genital organs were
removed in the course of an operation. Microscopic
examination of these organs has shown an embryo
consisting of two blastomeres. Name the place of its
localization in the conditions of normal
development.
A. Cavity of uterus.
B. Uterine part of uterine tube.
*C. Ampulla part of uterine tube.
D. Abdominal cavity.
E. Ovary.
304.
. A woman, 25 years, a month later
after child-birth, has consulted the doctor with the
problem of decrease in quantity of milk. A
deficiency of what hormone has made such
condition?
A. Glucagon
B. Corticotrophin
C. Somatostatin
D. Insulin
E. *Prolactin
300.
Histopathologic feature of
endometrium has such typical signs: thickening,
edema, sinuous glands with dilated lumen which
secrete a big amount of mucus; mitoses in cells are
305.
Low estrogens concentration and
high concentration of progesterone are detected in
the blood test of a nonpregnant 26-year-old woman.
48
С. Fibroblasts
D. *Luteal
Е. Interstitial
At what ovarian-menstrual cycle phase was the test
done?
A. Postmenstrual (proliferative).
B. Menstrual.
*C. Premenstrual (secretory).
D.Phase of desquamation.
E. Phase of endometrium proliferation.
311.
. The antrum of a maturing ovarian
follicle is denoted by which of one of the following
characteristics?
A Thickening of the zona pellucida
B *Hypertrophy of the theca interna
C Dilatation of an intercellular space
D Vacuolization of the theca externa
306.
At microscopic research of biopsy
material of endometrium of women with sterility
(infecundity) morphological changes are revealed in
its structure. These are caused by action of a
progesterone. Where is this hormone produced?
A. In ovarian follicle
B. *In corpus luteum of ovary
C. In adenohypophysis
D. In neurohypophysis
Е. In hypothalamus
312.
Which of the following steps is
critical for ovulation?
A *Prior completion of the second meiotic division
B Elevated levels of progesterone and estrogens
C Loss of oocyte-granulosa cell gap junctions
D Surge in the secretion of luteinizing hormone
307.
A lady of 32 becomes pregnant.
The ovum, which was fertilized, was probably
derived from an oogonium
A 2 weeks ago
B 2 months ago
C 20 years ago
D* more than 30 years ago
E at any time since puberty
313.
Oogonia, derived from primordial
germ cells, divide by mitosis during
A. all postnatal periods
B. *early fetal life
C. postnatal periods after puberty
D. the first two weeks of embryonic development
E. the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle
308.
Where and when does fertilization
normally occur?
A. Ovary, immediately after ovulation
B. Vagina, within 12 hours after ovulation
C. Internal os of the uterus, within 1 day after
ovulation
D. *Ampulla of the oviduct, within 1 day after
ovulation
E. Anterior wall of the uterine body, within 2 days
after ovulation
314.
The growth of the endometrium
during the proliferative phase depends on the
influence of estrogens. What cells of the female
ovary produce the androgens that are subsequently
converted into these estrogens?
A. *Theca interna
B. Granulosa
C. Theca externa
D. Corona radiata
E. Cumulus oophorus
309.
The blood test of woman shows a
high level of estrogens. What cells synthesize a
main amount of estrogens?
A interstitial cells of ovary
B follicular cells of primary follicles
C* follicular cells of secondary follicles
D follicular cells of primordial follicles
E mesothelium
315.
A couple comes to consult you
about some fertility questions. They are making a
fertility calendar and are wondering during what
phase of the menstrual cycle will fertilization and
implantation most likely occur. What do you tell
them?
A. During the proliferative phase
B. During the menstrual phase
C. During the menarche phase
D. *During the luteal phase
310.
. On medicolegal assessment the
dead body of unknown woman was delivered. On a
section in an ovary the rounded formation by a
diameter about 5 sm was found, containing the
yellow pigment. Pathological changes are not
discovered in the ovary. What cells does this
formation consist of?
А. Follicular
В. Myoid
316.
An oocyte found in the ampula of a
fallopian tube of a celibate woman is reffered to as
A oogonium
B primary oocyte
C *secondary oocyte
D ovum
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E zygote
317.
The maximum number of oocytes
that will ever occur in an ovary are found at what
stage of development?
A *18-week-olg fetus
B 1-week-old infant
C 7-year-old child
D 20-year-old woman
E 55-year-old woman
318.
A histologic section of
endometrium containing examples of straight
tubular glands is characteristic of which phase of
the menstrual cycle?
(A) Luteal
(B) Menstrual
(C) *Premenstrual
(D) Proliferative
(E) Secretory
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