Final test Question Bank
____1. Physiology is best defined as the study of
a. the development of the body parts.
b. the framework of the body.
c. the structure of the body and it’s parts.
d. how the various body parts normally function.
e. the tissues that make up the various body parts.
_____2
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The study of tissues is called
gross anatomy
cytology
histology
organology
microbiology
_____3. The following is a list of several levels of organization that make up the human body:
1. tissue
2. cell
3. organ
4. molecule
5. organism
6. organ system
The correct order from the smallest to the largest level would be
a. 2, 4, 1, 3, 6, 5
b. 4, 2, 1, 3, 6, 5
c. 4, 2, 1, 6, 3, 5
d. 4, 2, 3, 1, 6, 5
e. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6
_____4.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Defense against infection and disease is a function of the
cardiovascular system
lymphatic system
respiratory system
urinary system
both a and d
_____5.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment in an organism is termed
positive feedback
homeostasis
negative feedback
effector control
none of the above
_____6. When body temperature rises, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to decrease the body
temperature. this regulation mechanism is an example of
a. negative feedback
b. positive feedback
c. non-homeostatic regulation
d. diagnostic regulation
e. disease
_____7. The increasingly forceful labor contractions that lead to childbirth are an example of this type of mechanism
a. receptor activation
b.
c.
d.
e.
effector shutdown
negative feedback
positive feedback
none of the above
_____8.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
A person who is facing forward with arms at the sides and palms facing forward is said to be in the
supine position
prone position
anatomical position
frontal position
sagittal position
_____9.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which indicates the front of the body?
anterior
posterior
dorsal
ventral
both a and d
_____10.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following is lateral to the nose?
eyes
forehead
scalp
chin
chest
_____11.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The knee is considered __________ to the hip.
proximal
distal
anterior
posterior
none of the above
_____12.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The umbilicus is __________ to the chest.
anterior
superior
posterior
inferior
lateral
_____13.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
_____14.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The cranial cavity and spinal cavity would be found in the
dorsal body cavity
peritoneal cavity
pleural cavity
ventral body cavity
abdominopelvic cavity
The diaphragm separates the __________ cavity from the __________ cavity.
pleura; mediastinum
thoracic; abdominopelvic
pericardial; pleural
abdominal; pelvic
pericardial sac; pericardial
_____15. The mediastinum separates __________ from the __________.
a. the pleural cavity; coelom
b. the thoracic cavity; peritoneal cavity
c. one pleural cavity; other pleural cavity
d. the abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity
e. the pericardial sac; pericardial cavity
____ 16. In making an anatomical display a cadavar is cut vertically into right and left parts which are unequal,
exposing the inner parts for inspection .This type of section (plane) is called
a. parasagittal
b. sagittal
c. frontal
d. transverse
e. coronal
____ 17. A horizontal cut that separates the upper body from the lower body is known as…
a. parasagittal
b. sagittal
c. frontal
d. transverse
e. coronal
____ 18. In a human, the “upper and lower” from the previous question would be which of the
following?
a. Anterior/posterior
b. Superior/inferior
c. Proximal/distal
d. Medial/lateral
e. Dorsal/ventral
_____19.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which sectional plane could divide the body so that the face remains intact?
sagittal plane
coronal plane
equatorial plane
midsagittal plane
none of the above
_____20. Organs situated within the mediastinum include:
a. heart, lungs, and esophagus
b. heart, esophagus, and trachea
c. thyroid, lungs, and liver
d. pancreas, liver, and spleen
e.
stomach, pancreas, and heart
1. The four chemical elements that make up 94 percent of the weight of the human body are:
A. oxygen, nitrogen, sodium, and iron
B. carbon, calcium, nitrogen, and phosphorous
C. hydrogen, potassium, oxygen, and calcium
D. carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen
2. Chemical reactions occur between the smallest units of matter called:
A. atoms
B. cells
C. elements
D. molecules
3. The nucleus of an atom is the location of which kinds of subatomic particles?
A. electrons
B. protons and electrons
C. neutrons and protons
D. neutrons and electrons
4. When an atom loses one or more electrons, it:
A. becomes a cation
C. forms a covalent bond
5. All atoms with the same atomic number are grouped into
A. molecules
B. becomes an anion
D. becomes a different kind of atom
B. cells
C. compounds
D. elements
E. none of the above
6. The atomic weight of an element indicates…
A. the mass of the protons only
B. the mass of neutrons only
C. the mass of the electrons
D. A and B
E. A and C
7. The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by
A. the number of protons
B. the number of neutrons
C. the number and arrangement of the electrons
D. the mass of the atom
8. The weakest bond that occurs in living organisms is...
A. ionic
B. covalent
C. polar covalent
D. metallic
E. hydrogen
9. Ionic bonds are formed when…
A. atoms share electrons
B. cations and anions are held together by their opposite charges
C. a pair of electrons is shared unequally by two atoms
D. hydrogen forms bonds with negatively charged atoms in the same or different molecules
E. two or more atoms lose electrons at the same time
10. Which of the following is true regarding a covalent bond?
A. it is less stable than an ionic bond
B. it is formed by losing or gaining electrons
C. it is the most common bond found in the living things D. it is found in a bond containing Na & Cl
11. The chemical reaction illustrated by the following – (A + B  AB) is a:
A. decomposition reaction
B. synthesis reaction
C. catabolic process
D. replacement reaction
12. Identify the reaction type represented by the following – AB + C  AC + B
A. decomposition reaction
B. synthesis reaction
C. catabolic process
D. replacement reaction
13. In the human body many smaller glucose molecules may combine to form the larger starch molecule for
storage. This is an example of…
A. a catabolic process
B.an anabolic process
C. respiration
D. an ionic bond
14. A solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is
A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. alkaline
D. none of the above
15. Which of the following substances would be least acidic?
A. lemon juice, pH = 5.5
B. urine, pH = 6
C. tomato juice, pH = 4
D. white wine, pH = 3
E. stomach secretions, pH = 2
16. Which of the following is true with reference to the pH scale?
A. the lower the pH the more acidic it is
B. the higher the pH the more acidic it is
C. the pH scale runs from 1-14
D. the lower the pH the more basic it is
17. Which of the following is NOT an example of an inorganic compound?
A. water
B. acid
C. base
D. salt
E. enzyme
18. Which of the following statements about water is not correct?
A. It is composed of polar molecules
B. It makes up 2/3 of the human body’s mass
C. It has a relatively low specific heat capacity
D. It dissolves many compounds
E. It contains hydrogen bonds
19. The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is
A. sucrose
B. starch
C. protein
D. vitamin B12
E. glucose
20. The group of organic compounds containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in near 1:2:1 ratio is defined
as a
A. carbohydrate
B. lipid
C. protein
D. nucleic acid
E. none of above
21. A fatty acid that contains three double covalent bonds in its carbon chain is said to be
A. saturated
B. polyunsaturated
C. monounsaturated
D. monosaturated
22. Buffers are substances found in the body that function to:
A. prevent drastic pH changes
B. are found in body fluids such as blood
C. are weak acids or bases and their salts
D. all of the answers are correct
23. Which of the following pertains correctly to the synthesis of a disaccharide molecule?
A. a hydration (addition of water) occurs
B. a molecule of water is formed
C. galactose is formed
D. water is not involved
24. The immediate energy for use in cellular metabolic activities:
A. is released by the oxidation of glucose
B. comes from the breakdown of ATP to ADP
C. results from the formation of ADP from AMP
D. involves the enzyme adenylic dehydrogenase
25. You would expect to find a peptide bond linking
A. two simple sugars
B. one amino acid to another
C. two nucleotides
D. a fatty acid and a glycerol molecule
E. a cholesterol molecule and a fatty acid molecule
26. The molecules that store and process information are known as…
A. carbohydrates
B. nucleic acids
C. proteins
D. enzymes
27. Proteins differ from carbohydrates chemically because they contain…
A. Nitrogen
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon
28. After adding the appropriate chemicals, a positive test for starch would be:
A. a color range from green to orange after heating
B. a lavender color change
C. the dissolving of a red stain
D. the formation of dark blue to black
29. After adding the appropriate chemicals a positive test for protein would be:
A. a color range from green to orange after heating
B. a lavender color change
C. the dissolving of a red stain
D. the formation of dark blue to black
30. The test for reducing sugars is known as:
A. Benedict’s
B. Biurets
C. Sudan IV
D. KI and NaOCl
1.
The basic structural and functional unit of the human body is
a. protein
b. the cell
c. tissue
d. the organ
e. the organ system
2.
The watery medium that surrounds a cell is known as
a. cytosol
b. protoplasm
c. extracellular fluid
d. cytoplasm
e. a colloidal gel
3.
Which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane?
a. separation of the cytoplasm from the extracellular fluid
b. regulation of exchange of materials with the environment
c. sensitivity to changes in the extracellular fluid
d. structural support
e. controling movement into the nucleus
4.
Structurally, the plasma membrane
a. is composed of a bilayer of proteins
b. is composed of a bilayer of lipids
c. is composed of only carbohydrate molecules
d. is a complex combination of carbohydrates and proteins
e. is a complex combination of carbohydrates and lipids
5.
Cell membranes are said to be
a. impermeable
b. freely permeable
c. selectively permeable
d. actively permeable
e. none of the above
6.
The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is an example of
a. osmosis
b. active transport
c. diffusion
d. facilitated diffusion
e. filtration
7.
The movement of water across a membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of higher solute
concentration is known as
a. osmosis
b. active transport
c. diffusion
d. facilitated diffusion
e. filtration
8.
A solution that contains a lower solute concentration than the cytoplasm of a cell is called
a. holotonic
b. hypertonic
c. isotonic
d. hypotonic
e. semitonic
9.
Crenation occurs when a blood cell is placed in a
a. isotonic solution
b. hypertonic solution
c. hypotonic solution
d. holotonic solution
e. none of the above
10.
The process by which molecules such as glucose are moved into cells along their concentration gradient with the
help of membrane-bound carrier proteins is called
a. osmosis
b. passive transport
c. active transport
d. osmosis
e. exocytosis
11.
A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called
a. active transport
b. passive transport
c. facilitated transport
d. osmosis
e. diffusion
12.
The process by which vesicles containing solid objects such as bacteria are formed on the surface of a cell for
transport into the cell is called
a. pinocytosis
b. phagocytosis
c. exocytosis
d. receptor-mediated endocytosis
e. none of the above
13.
Flagella move a cell through a fluid medium. What moves the fluid medium across the surface of cells?
a. centrioles
b. thick filaments
c. cilia
d. ribosomes
e. endoplasmic reticula
14.
Most of the ATP required to power cellular operations is produced in the
a. ribosomes
b. endoplasmic reticulum
c. nucleus
d. mitochondria
e. Golgi apparatus
15.
The fluid within mitochondria is called
a. cristae
b. cytosol
c. cytoplasm
d. matrix
e. none of the above
16.
Renewal or modification of the cell membrane is a function of the
a. microtubules
b. mitochondria
c. rough ER
d. ribosomes
e. Golgi apparatus
17.
When activated, lysosomes function in
a. the formation of new cell membranes
b. the synthesis of proteins
c. digestion of foreign material
d. the synthesis of lipids
e. cell division
18.
The cell's DNA is located in the
a. ribosomes
b. nucleolus
c. lysosomes
d. nucleus
e. Golgi complex
19.
The control center for cellular operations is the
a. nucleus
b. nucleolus
c. cell membrane
d. Golgi apparatus
e. none of the above
20.
The complex structures of DNA and protein found in the cell nucleus are called
a. nucleoplasms
b. chromosomes
c. mitochondria
d. nucleolemmas
e. nucleoli
21.
All of the triplet codes needed to produce a specific polypeptide chain are found in a(n)
a. chromosome
b. gene
c. codon
d. anticodon
e. none of the above
22.
As each codon binds at the active site of a ribosome, it interacts with another molecule. This molecule is called
a. DNA
b. mRNA
c. ribosomal RNA
d. tRNA
e. rough ER
23.
Which of the following sequences is correct?
a. DNA - tRNA - mRNA - protein
b. DNA - ribosome - mRNA - protein
c. DNA - mRNA - tRNA - protein
d. DNA - mRNA - rRNA - protein
e. none of the above
The process of forming mRNA is called
a. replication
b. transcription
c. translation
d. ribolation
e. protein synthesis
24.
25.
The stage in a cell's life cycle in which the cell performs its normal functions and prepares for division is called
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. interphase
d. telophase
e. anaphase
26.
During this phase of cell division, the nuclear membrane forms, the chromosomes uncoil, and cytokinesis may
occur.
a. anaphase
b. prophase
c. interphase
d. telophase
e. metaphase
27.
During the process of mitosis, duplicated chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell during
a. anaphase
b. prophase
c. interphase
d. telophase
e. metaphase
28.
Hemolysis occurs when a blood cell is placed into
a. isotonic solution
b. hypertonic solution
c. hypotonic solution
d. holotonic solution
e. none of the above
29.
If a cell lacked ribosomes, it would not be able to
a. move
b. produce DNA
c. divide
d. synthesize proteins
e. metabolize sugars
30.
Two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane with the same properties as a cell membrane. Solution
A is 5% glucose and solution B is 10% glucose. Under these circumstances
a. water will move from solution A to solution B
b. water will move from solution B to solution A
c. glucose will move from solution A to solution B
d. glucose will move from solution B to solution A
e. at equilibrium the concentration of glucose will be higher in solution B
31.
When sodium ion is moved across the cell membrane against its concentration gradient,
a. diffusion occurs
b. osmosis occurs
c. cellular ATP is used
d. vesicles are formed
e. the cell membrane changes shape
32.
The anticodon for the triplet UCA would be
a. AGU
b. AGC
c. TCA
d. TGT
e. none of the above
33.
The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence ATC on DNA would be
a. ATC
b. TAG
c. UAG
d. AUG
e. none of the above
34.
The cell membrane:
a. is a watery gel in which structures are suspended
b. contains the power house of the cell
c. is the central government of the cell
d. protects the cell and acts as a filter
e. carries the cell's hereditary information
35.
Cellular organelles are located within the
a. cytoplasm
b. cell membrane
c. phospholipid bilayer
d. lipid droplets
e. chromosomes
36.
Which of these is an example of carrier-mediated transport?
a. osmosis
b. facilitated diffusion
c. endocytosis
d. exocytosis
e. phagocytosis
37.
The term "cancer" refers to:
a. any of various malignant neoplasms
b. neoplasms that have the tendency to metastasize to new sites
c. an illness characterized by malignant cells
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
38.
Two types of RNA are:
a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. dRNA
d. A and B
e. B and C
1. The type of tissue that is the most abundant in the body usually has a rich blood supply and is
characterized by a large amount of intercellular material is :
A. vascular tissue
B. muscle tissue
C. connective tissue
D. glandular tissue
2. Which of the following are the types of fibers found in the spaces of loose connective tissue?
A. hyaloronic and mucous fibers
B. elastic and collagenous fibers
C. hyaline and keratin fibers
D. none of the above
3. The macrophage is an important cell found in the loose connective tissue and functions as:
A. a source of fiber in this tissue
B. a chemical that stimulates dialation
C. a pigment cell beneath the epidermis
D. a defense cell responsible for phagocytosis
4. Loose connective tissue is found in all of the following except:
A. dermis
B. tendons and ligaments
C. around blood vessels and nerves
D. mucous membranes
5. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of terms?
A. hyaline cartilage – intervertebral disc
B. elastic cartilage - tracheal rings
C. hyaline cartilage – embryonic skeleton D. fibrocartilage – costal region
6. Which of the types of membranes does not have an epithelial layer?
A. mucous membrane
B. serous membrane
C. cutaneous membrane
D. synovial membrane
7. A serous membrane :
A. is responsible for secreting joint fluid:
B. lines a cavity with no connection to the exterior
C. is found in the respiratory tract
D. may contain digestive enzymes
8. The type of cartilage that functions as a shock absorber in joints is
A. hyaline cartilage
B. elastic cartilage
C. fibrocartilage
D. all of these
9. The three types of muscle tissue are:
A. dense, loose, and striated
B. skeletal, smooth, and cardiac
C. squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
D. skeletal, smooth, and connective
10. The matrix consists of:
A. ground substance and fibers
B. plasma and fibers
C. vascular tissue and bone
D. a DJ and a dance floor
11. Where would histologists find simple ciliated columnar epithelium?
A. in the digestive tract
B. in all living tissue
C. in the uterus and uterine tubes
D. in the male reproductive tract
12. A cell with a single layer of cells that appear to be multi-layered best describes:
A. stratified tissue
B. columnar tissue
C. pseudostratified tissue
D. all of the above
13. Flat cells would be called:
A. squamous
B. cuboidal
C. columnar
D. transitional
14. The ground substance of the matrix consists of:
A. collagen
B. hyaluronic acid and chondroitin sulfate
C. cartilage
D. collagenous and elastic fibers
15. The chemical responsible for adhesiveness in cartilage and bone is:
A. collagen
B. hyaluronic acid
C. chondroitin sulfate
D. heparin
1. Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except one. Identify the exception
a. protection of underlying tissue
b. excretion
c. maintenance of body temperature
d. synthesis of vitamin C
e. nutrition and storage
2.
The two components of the cutaneous membrane are the
a. epidermis and dermis
b. epidermis and subcutaneous layer
c. dermis and subcutaneous layer
d. integument and dermis
e. epidermis and superficial fascia
3.
Accessory structures of the skin include
a. hair follicles
b. sebaceous and sweat glands
c. nails
d. a and b only
e. all of the above
4.
The layer of the epidermis that contains cells undergoing division is the
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
stratum corneum
stratum lucidum
stratum germinativum
stratum granulosum
stratum spinosum
5.
An epidermal layer found only in the skin of the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet is the
a. stratum corneum
b. stratum lucidum
c. stratum germinativum
d. stratum granulosum
e. stratum spinosum
6.
The layer of the epidermis that contains melanocytes is the
a. stratum corneum
b. stratum lucidum
c. stratum germinativum
d. stratum granulosum
e. stratum spinosum
Page 2
7.
An albino individual lacks the ability to produce
a. melanin
b. keratin
c. carotene
d. keratinocytes
e. collgen
8.
Sweat tastes salty because of its
a. water
b. metabolites
c. waste products
d. electrolytes
e. acidic pH
9.
The pigment melanin
a. is produced by cells called melanocytes and is found in higher concentration in individuals with
darker skin
b. is usually some shade of red, yellow or brown
c. protects DNA from the damaging effects of U.V. radiation
d. a and c only
e. all of the above
10.
Exposure of the skin to ultraviolet light
a. can result in increased numbers of melanocytes forming in the skin
b. can result in decreased melanin production by melanocytes
c. can cause destruction of vitamin D
d. can result in damage to the DNA of cells in the stratum germinativum
e. has no effect on the skin cells
11.
The layer of the skin that contains the blood vessels and nerves that supply the surface of the skin is the
a. papillary layer
b. reticular layer
c. epidermal layer
d. subcutaneous layer
e. hypodermal layer
12.
Glands that discharge a waxy secretion into hair follicles are
a. ceruminous glands
b. apocrine sweat glands
c. sebaceous glands
d. merocrine sweat glands
e. mammary glands
Page 3
13.
Most body odor is the result of bacterial metabolism of the secretions produced by
a. ceruminous glands
b. apocrine sweat glands
c. sebaceous glands
d. merocrine sweat glands
e. mammary glands
14.
Nail production occurs at the
a. body
b. bed
c. root
d. cuticle
e. free edge
15.
The dense mass of dead, keratinized cells of the nail is the
a. body
b. bed
c. root
d. cuticle
e. free edge
16.
The condition that results from clogged sebaceous glands is
a. a boil
b. a carbuncle
c. acne
d. a blister
e. none of the above
17.
Variations in hair color reflect differences in the type and amount of pigment produced by
a. keratinocytes
b. melanocytes
c. dermal papillae
d. carotene cells
e. the papillary layer of the dermis
18.
The layer of the skin that provides protection against bacteria as well as chemical and mechanical injuries
is the
a. dermis
b. subcutaneous layer
c. epidermis
d. papillary layer
e. sebum layer
Thick skin can be found on the __________.
a. back
b. palms
c. legs
d. arms
e. chest
19.
20.
__________ are macrophages in the epidermis that are part of the immune system.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Langerhan's cells
Merkel cells
Melanocytes
Basal cells
Squamous cells
21.
An important vitamin that is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight is
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin B
c. vitamin C
d. vitamin D
e. vitamin E
22.
When the arrector pili muscles contract
a. "goose bumps" are formed
b. hairs are shed
c. sweat is released from sweat glands
d. shivering occurs
e. the skin changes color
23.
Deodorants are used to mask the odor of __________ secretions.
a. sebaceous
b. apocrine
c. merocrine
d. mammary
e. ceruminous
24.
The type of burn that may require a skin graft is a
a. first degree
b. second degree
c. third degree burn
d. partial thickness burn
e. all of the above are correct
Page 5
25.
Stretch marks occur when
a. the skin is stretched in normal movements
b. surgical incisions are made perpendicular to the skin's lines of cleavage
c. the skin is so extensively stretched that its elastic capabilities are exceeded
d. athletes overextend a muscle
e. the hair follicles cease to produce hairs
26.
Scar tissue is the result of
a. an abnormally large number of collagen fibers and relatively few blood vessels at the repair site
b. increased numbers of epidermal layers in the area of the injury
c. a thickened stratum germinativum in the area of the injury
d. increased numbers of fibroblasts and mast cells in the injured area
e. a lack of hair follicles and sebaceous glands in the injured area
27.
The reproducing cells of the skin are located in the:
a. surface
b. stratum corneum
c. stratum lucidum
d. stratum germinativum
e. stratum spinosum
28.
Hair is composed of
a. discharge from sebaceous glands
b. dead keratinized cells
c. reticular tissue
d. epidermal ridges
e. the hypodermis
29.
When the skin is exposed to ultraviolet radiation, it responds by
a. decreasing melanin production
b. increasing heart rate
c. decreasing carotene production
d. increasing melanin production
e. increasing carotene production
30.
This type of burn appears inflamed and tender, but has no blisters.
a. first-degree burn
b. second-degree burn
c. third-degree burn
d. full-thickness burn
e. none of the above
Multiple Choice – Choose the best answer and put the correct letter in the space provided.(1pt. Each).
____1. Functions of the skeletal system include
a. support
b. storage
c. protection
d. blood cell production
e. all of the above
____2. Mature bone cells are termed
a. osteocytes
b.
c.
d.
e.
osteoblasts
osteoclasts
chondrocytes
osteons
____3.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Large, multinucleated cells that can dissolve the bony matrix are termed
osteocytes
stem cells
osteoblasts
osteoclasts
chondrocytes
____4.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The basic functional unit of compact bone is the
osteocyte
osteoclast
osteon
oseous matrix
osseous lamellae
____5.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The medullary cavity of bones contains
compact bone
osteons
cartilage
marrow
Periosteum
____6.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The shaft of a long bone is called the
epiphysis
diaphysis
osteon
epiphyseal plate
lamella
____7.The lining of the marrow cavity is called the
a. endosteum
b. periosteum
c. epimysium
d. perimysium
e. none of the above
_____8. Which types of bones develop through intramembranous ossification?
a. long bones
b. flat bones
c. short bones
d. irregular bones
____9.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of
a fibrous connective tissue model
a cartilaginous model
a membranous model
a calcified model
no model at all, just the presence of osteoblasts
____10.
a.
b.
c.
When sexual hormone production increases, bone growth
slows down
accelerates rapidly
increases slowly
d. increases, but only in thickness
e. is not affected
____11.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The presence of an epiphyseal line indicates
epiphyseal growth has ended
epiphyseal growth is just beginning
growth in bone diameter is just beginning
the bone is fractured at that location
the presence of an epiphyseal line does not indicate any particular event
____12.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The hormone calcitonin functions to
stimulate osteoclast activity
decrease the rate of calcium excretion
increase the rate of bone deposition
decrease the level of calcium ion in the blood
all of the above
____13.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Vitamin D is necessary for
collagen formation
absorption and transport of calcium and phosphate ions
reducing osteoblast activity
increasing osteoclast activity
the formation of the organic framework of bone
____14.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
A lack of exercise would
cause bones to become thicker
cause bones to store more calcium
result in thin, brittle bones
increase the length of a bone
have no effect on a bone
____15.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
When stress is applied to a bone
osteoblast activity increases
osteoclast activity increases
it becomes thin and brittle
it bends
trabeculae are formed perpendicular to the zone of stress to increase strength
____16.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The normal loss of bone that occurs with aging is called
osteopenia
osteoporosis
osteogenesis
osteoinflammation
bone cancer
____17.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
A large rough projection of a bone (found only on the femur) is termed a
wall
trochanter
tuberosity
tubercle
condyle
____18.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
A small round projection of a bone is termed a
wall
trochanter
tuberosity
tubercle
facet
____19.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The smooth, rounded or oval articular process of a bone is termed a
crest
ridge
head
condyle
trochlea
____20.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
A shallow depression on a bone is termed a
fossa
sulcus
facet
fissure
line
____21.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
A passageway through bone is termed a
sinus
meatus
fissure
foramen
fossa
____22.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
A landmark found near the proximal end of the humerus would be the
medial epicondyle
lateral epicondyle
greater tubercle
olecranon fossa
capitulum
____23.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
____24.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The appendicular skeleton consists of
the bones of the arms
the bones of the legs
the bones of the hands and feet
the bones that connect the limbs to the axial skeleton
all of the above
The foramen magnum would be found in the
frontal bone
parietal bone
sphenoid bone
occipital bone
temporal bone
____25. The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following are the secondary
curves, or those that do not appear until several months later?
a. cervical and lumbar
b. thoracic and lumbar
c. sacral and lumbar
d. thoracic and sacral
e. cervical and sacral
____26.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Types of tissue found in bones include all of the following except:
blood
cartilage
fibrous connective tissue
nerve tissue
muscle tissue
____27.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Inadequate ossification as a result of the aging process is termed:
osteogenesis
osteoporosis
osteopenia
rickets
osteomalacia
____28.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The term used to describe any bony projection or bump is:
ramus
fossa
sulcus
process
meatus
______ 1. Which of the following features does not pertain to synovial joints?
A. freely moveable
B. joint cavity
C. immoveable
D. articular cavity
______ 2. A suture is :
A. a type of syndesmosis
B. a type of joint only found in the skull
C. type of joint most likely to fracture
D. contains cartilage between joints
______ 3. Which of the following is true?
A. cartilagenous joints have a joint cavity
B. ossification is rare in synovial joints
C. a symphysis is a cartilaginous joint
D. fibrous joints have a joint cavity
______ 4. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of terms?
A. suture – fibrocartilage
B. symphysis joint – articular disc
C. synarthrosis joint – articular cartilage
D. knee joint – cruciate ligaments
______ 5. Where in the body would gliding joints be found?
A. intercarpal joints
B. elbow
C. interphalangeal joints
D. shoulder
______ 6. Flexion is :
A. decreasing an angle between bones
B. bending at the knee
C. bending the head forward
D. all of the above
______ 7. Which of these bones articulates at both ends by means of a gliding joint?
A. sternum
B. mandible
C. sacrum
D. clavicle
______ 8. Pointing of the toes is defined as :
A. dorsiflexion
B. plantar flexion
C. eversion
D. inversion
______ 9.Which part of the femur articulates with the acetabulum of the hip bone?
A. head
B. greater trochanter
C. medial condyle
D. lateral condyle
______ 10. The only bone that articulates with both the tibia and the fibula is:
A. femur
B. talus
C. calcaneous
D. none of the above
______ 11. Which statement regarding joints is false?
A. Joints are locations where 2 or more bones articulate.
B. The structural classification of joints includes fibrous, membranous and cartilaginous.
C. Arthrology is the study of joints and kinesiology is the study of the biomechanics of joint movement.
D. Joints can be moveable or immovable.
______ 12. Synchondrosis are a type of :
A. fibrous joint
B. synovial joint
C. cartlagenous joint
D. freely moveable joint
______ 13. Which of the following joint type-function word pairs is incorrect ?
A. Synchondrosis/growth at the epiphyseal plate
B. Symphysis/movement of the intervertebral plate
C. Suture/strength and stability in the skull
D. Syndesmosis/movement of the jaw
______ 14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of all synovial joints ?
A. Fibrocartilage
B. synovial fluid
C. a joint capsule
D. a meniscus
______ 15. Elevation, depression, protraction, and retraction are all types of joint movements that occur
in which joint of the body ?
A. elbow joint
B. tibiofemoral joint
C. temperomandibular joit
D. coxal joint
______ 16. Which of the following groups of joints is representative of diarthritic joints ?
A. syndesmosis and symphysis
B. gomphosis, sutures, and synchondrosis
C. hinge, pivot, and gliding
D. gomphosis and symphysis