Semester 1
Review Game
Forensic Science
K. Davis
The first officers on a crime scene
should:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Collect evidence
Exclude all unauthorized personnel
Isolate the crime scene
Both a and b
Bothe b and c
2) Videography of a crime scene:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Can be used to augment photography
Can narrate events
Does not replace photos
Should never be used
a, b, and c
3) Items discovered at a crime
scene must be:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Initially tested for evidentiary value
Marked for identification with the
collector’s initials and date of collection
Packaged in one container to keep
everything together
Handled only by representatives from the
crime laboratory’s evidence unit
4) Which of the following is
considered to be an acceptable
crime scene search pattern?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Spiral search
Quadrant search
Strip search
All of the above
5) In investigating a crime scene
which skills would be more
essential to the process?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Observation
Deductive reasoning
Inductive reasoning
Classifying information
6) At the crime scene there are
various types of evidence (blood,
hairs, a ransom note, and a shell
casing) what personnel would be
involved in processing this
evidence?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Biology unit, document examination,
firearms unit
Biology unit, toxicology unit, document
examination
Physical science unit, firearms unit,
document examination
Biology unit, physical science unit,
firearms unit
7) What of these examples
illustrates Locard’s Exchange
Principle?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Blood from the victim is found on the
murder weapon
Fibers from the crime scene found on the
victim
Dirt from the crime scene found on the
suspects shoes
All of the above
8) Which of the following are
essential to a successful court
case:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Recognition of pertinent evidence
Correct packaging of evidence
Correct processing of evidence
All of the above
9) The first officer arriving at a crime
scene, after providing or obtaining
medical assistance for the injured
and effecting an arrest of suspects (if
possible), should immediately:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Search for evidence
Make a rough sketch of the scene
Secure the scene
Take notes
10) A rough sketch need NOT
include a:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Sketch of the suspect(s)
Location of all recovered physical
evidence
Date, location, and time of the incident
Compass heading designating north
11) Which crime scene search
pattern would absolutely require
more than one investigator?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Spiral
Grid
Zone
Line
12) The successful outcome of a
criminal investigation is almost
always directly related to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
The manner in which the evidence is
collected and preserved
Whether the crime is considered high
profile
The number of people employed in the
crime lab
The volume of the physical evidence
collected
13) A properly maintained chain of
custody is NOT the responsibility
of the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Forensic technician
Crime scene processor
Trial judge
Evidence clerk
14) Success in the recognition and
collection of physical evidence
is determined primarily by the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Skill of personnel processing the crime
scene
Notoriety of the case
Type of evidence involved
Time available to the evidence collectors
15) The collection of standard reference
samples at the crime scene is
important because they:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Prove the continuity of possession
Serve as a source of extra test material if
required in the crime lab
Permit comparisons to be made with the
evidence
Are obtained only from suspects in cases
of violent assault
16) The removal of any evidence from
a person or from the scene of a
crime must be done in conformity
with the privileges of which
amendment of the Constitution?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Fourth
Fifth
Sixth
First
17) Heard in the Supreme Court, which
case dealt with the impropriety of
the warrantless collection of
physical evidence at a homicide
scene?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Mapp v. US
Frye v. US
Mincey v. Arizona
People v. Wilkens
18) Which of the following can be used
to identify whether a body has
been moved post-death?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Livor mortis
Rigor mortis
Algor mortis
None of these
19) When do the affects of rigor mortis
disappear?
a)
b)
c)
d)
6-12 hours post death
12-24 hours post death
24-36 hours post death
36-48 hours post death
20) Which of the following is used to
determine time of death?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Algor mortis
Livor mortis
Rigor mortis
None of these
21) Which of the following does not
influence the rate at which insects
develop on the body?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Weather
Location
Sex of the victim
Climate
22) As a general rule the deceased
body will lose heat at a rate of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 to 1 1/2 degrees Fahrenheit per hour
until the body reaches the environmental
temperature
2 to 4 degrees Fahrenheit per hour until
the body reaches the environmental
temperature
1 to 1 1/2 degrees Celsius per hour until
the body reaches the environmental
temperature
2 to 4 degrees Celsius per hour until the
body reaches the environmental
temperature
23) Rigor Mortis manifests itself:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Within the first 24 hours and disappearing
within 36 hours
Within the first 24 hours and continuing for
the following 12 hours
Within the first 12 hours and continuing for
the following 24 hours
Within the first 12 hours and disappearing
within 48 hours
24) Which bones are most useful in
determining the sex of the victim?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Skull
Pelvic
Femur
Mandible
25) What can cranial sutures be
used to indicate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Sex of the victim
Cause of death
Age of victim
Race of victim
26) Which of the following factors does
not have to be considered when
using a bone to estimate height?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Sex of the victim
Age of victim
Race of victim
None of these
27) Which of these is NOT an example
of how skeletal remains may
indicate cause of death?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Bullet holes or indentations
Indentions or fractures showing blunt
force trauma
Stab wounds that reach the bone
Soft tissue markers on the skull
28) In order to determine whether a
skeleton belonged to a male or a
female, a forensic anthropologist
may examine the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Pelvis
Base of skull
Forehead
Jaw
All of the above
29) Which of the following is NOT
generally used to determine
height of a decedent?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Femur
Tibia
Humerus
Sternum
30) The examination of bite mark
evidence and its relation to a
criminal investigation is known
as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Forensic Biology
Forensic Odontology
Forensic Anthropology
Forensic Entomology
31) Rigor mortis may occur very
quickly if the victim was:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Running before death
Stabbed repeatedly
Extremely cold
Beat around the head repeatedly
32) Which of the following is the first
stage in decomposition of the body
in putrefication?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Skin begins to marble
Skin develops blisters
Abdomen takes on greenish color
Bloating
33) A corpse was discovered in an
apartment last November. It was
that of a 50-year-old male who
died of a heart attack. At the time
of discovery, the body temperature
was determined to be 890F. What is
the most probable post mortem
interval?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 hour
7 hours
2 hours
4 hours
34) The rate of cooling of a dead
body can be influenced by all
BUT the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Size of body
Gender of victim
Weather conditions
Location
35) As the post mortem interval
increases, the concentration of
potassium in the vitreous humor of
the eye:
a)
b)
c)
Decreases
Increases
Remains the same
36) Rigor mortis refers to the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Temperature of death
Stiffness of death
Time of death
Color of death
37) Which of the following is an
element?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Wood
Water
Aluminum
Air
Fire
38) The physical state that has both
shape and volume is a:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Solid
Liquid
Gas
Vapor
All of these
39) Which of the following is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The basic building blocks of all substances
are elements.
Elements are composed of atoms.
Two or more elements combine to form
compounds.
Compounds are composed of molecules.
At present, 96 compounds have been
identified.
40) Organic chemistry is the study of
substances containing the
element:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Hydrogen
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Carbon
Silicon
41) A technique for separating and
tentatively identifying the
components of a mixture is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Spectrophotometry
Infrared
Chromatography
Mass spectrometry
Ultraviolet
42) The distribution of a substance
between a mobile and
stationary phase describes:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Spectrophotometry
Dispersion
Density-gradient tubes
Chromatography
Mass spectrometry
43) The recorder of a
spectrophotometer measures the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Rf value of light
Retention time of light
Absorption of light at specific frequencies
Refractive index of light
Speed of light
44) The most abundant element of
the earth’s crust is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Oxygen
Hydrogen
Carbon
Aluminium
Silicon
45) A “fingerprint” of an element is
obtained by the technique of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Infrared spectrophotometry
Ultraviolet spectrophotometry
Gas chromatography
Emission spectroscopy
Thin-layer chromatography
46) Which of the following
statements is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Protons and neutrons comprise the nucleus
of an atom.
The proton has a charge of +1.
The neutron has no electrical charge.
The electron and proton have the same
mass.
An atom has an equal number of protons
and electrons.
47) The atoms of hydrogen, deuterium,
and tritium all have the same
number of protons, but differ in the
number of neutrons they possess.
These substances are:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Elements
Compounds
Molecules
Radioactive
Isotopes
48) In neutron activation analysis, an
element is identified by measuring
the energy of emitting:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Protons
Electrons
Neutrons
Gamma rays
Alpha rays
49) Gamma rays are:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Electrons
Protons
Neutrons
Alpha particles
Electromagnetic radiation
50) Which of the following
statements is correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
All atoms of an element have the same
atomic mass number.
All atoms of an element have the same
number of protons.
All atoms of an element have the same
number of neutrons.
The number of protons in the nucleus of an
atom is called the atomic mass number.
All atoms of an element have an equal
number of neutrons and electrons.
51) The technique commonly used to
identify crystalline substances is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
X-ray diffraction
Emission spectroscopy
Neutron activation analysis
Ultraviolet spectrophotometry
52) The emission spectrograph is
used to determine the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Mass of a substance
Weight of a substance
Crystalline structure of a substance
Elemental composition of a substance
All of the above
53) The magnification power of a
microscope equals the magnifying
power of the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Eyepiece lens
Objective lens
Objective lens multiplied by two
Eyepiece lens multiplied by two
Objective lens multiplied by the eyepiece
lens
54) The microscope examination of
a bullet requires:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Transmitted light
Reflected light
Condensed light
All of the above
None of the above
55) The most important tool of the
firearms examiner is the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Compound microscope
Comparison microscope
Stereoscopic microscope
Polarizing microscope
Scanning electron microscope
56) Which of the following is not an
example of a natural polymer?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Starch
Cellulose
Sugar
Proteins
None of the above
57) Rayon is classified as a:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Natural fiber
Synthetic fiber
Plant fiber
Regenerated fiber
Animal fiber
58) Which of the following properties
should be examined when
comparing two fibers?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Color
Diameter
Birefringence
The presence or absence of delustering
particles
All of the above
59) Paint chips may be
individualized to a single source
by examining their:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Infrared spectra
Ultraviolet spectra
Color and layer structure
Pyrograms
Relative size
60) Medullae may be classified as
being:
a)
b)
c)
d)
fragmented
interrupted or absent
continuous
all of the above
61) A hair sample was examined
and its medulla appeared to
have a pattern described as
resembling a string of pearls. It
was most likely from a:
a)
b)
c)
d)
mouse
cat
rabbit
deer
62) The medullary index of human
hair is _________ the medullary
index for most other animals.
a)
b)
c)
the same as
greater than
less than
63) A cast of a hair surface can be
made using:
a)
b)
c)
d)
an SEM
clear nail polish
softened vinyl
both B and C
64) Pigment granules the impart hair
with color are found in the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
cortex
medulla
cuticle
both A and B
65) The central canal running
through many hairs is known as
the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
medulla
shaft
cortex
cuticle
66) In what stage can hair most
readily be removed from the
scalp?
a)
b)
c)
analgesic
telogenic
catagenic
67) Nuclear DNA typing can be
most successfully accomplished
on hairs that have removed
during which stage of growth?
a)
b)
c)
d)
categenic
anagenic
mutagenic
anagenic