2nd Semester Review Sheet
Name: _____________________________
Date: _______________ Period: ________
(Required!)
Key Concepts:
Unit 6: Genetics
-
genotype vs. phenotype
Punnett squares & word problems
Mendel’s 3 principles
observed vs. expected results
Unit 7: Protein Synthesis
-
DNA structure & function
RNA structure & function
the importance of proteins
transcription
Unit 8: DNA Fingerprinting
- using micropipettes
- how to conduct electrophoresis
Unit 9: Evolution
-
evolution
evidence for evolution
natural vs. artificial selection
Darwin vs. Lamarck
inherited traits vs. acquired traits
Unit 10: Classification & Body Systems
-
classification
diversity of life
circulatory system
lung capacity
Unit 11: End of Year Projects
-
fetal pig dissections
muscle action
-
complex inheritance patterns (eg, sex-linkage)
pedigrees
vocab, vocab, vocab!
-
translation
mutations types & causes
vocab, vocab, vocab!
-
reading a gel
uses of biotechnology
-
variation
adaptations
speciation
vocab, vocab, vocab!
-
immune system
nervous system
vocab, vocab, vocab!
-
endangered & invasive species
Vocabulary:
Refer to your 6 vocabulary sheets (Genetics, Protein Synthesis, DNA Fingerprinting, Evolution, Classification & Body
Systems, End of Year Projects) for a list of terms that you should know.
Readings Covered:
Pages 308 – 321, 344 – 353, 362 – 376, 450 – 453, 460 – 469, 484 – 486, and 494 – 497, 523 – 528, 896 – 900,
948 – 953, 963 – 969, and 1014 – 1019.
What You Can Use During Your Test:
Everyone may use:
#2 pencils
Your completed 6 vocabulary sheets, handwritten
Your 6 front and back pages of hand-written notes on computer paper that you have been stapling to your
vocabulary sheets
Practice Questions:
1. Different forms of a gene are called
a. hybrids
b. dominant factors
c. alleles
d. recessive factors
2. Organisms that have two identical alleles for a
particular trait are said to be
a. hybrid
b. heterozygous
c. homozygous
d. dominant
8. What is meant by true- or pure-breeding?
a. The individual is homozygous and
will always pass on a certain gene
to offspring
b. The individual is heterozygous and
will always pass on a certain gene to
offspring
c. The individual is homozygous and will
never pass on a certain gene to
offspring
d. The individual’s genotype is very
valuable
3. A Punnett square is used to determine the
a. probable outcome of a cross
b. actual outcome of a cross
c. results of incomplete dominance
d. results of meiosis
9. What determines an organism’s phenotype?
a. Genes (DNA)
b. Environment
c. Both genes and the environment
d. Neither genes nor the environment
4. The physical characteristics of an organism
are called its
a. genetics
b. heredity
c. phenotype
d. genotype
Use the diagram below to answer the next 3
questions.
5. A situation in which a gene has more than
two alleles is known as
a. complete dominance
b. codominance
c. incomplete dominance
d. multiple alleles
6. Two pink-flowering plants are crossed. The
offspring are 25% red, 25% white, and 50%
pink. What pattern of inheritance is this?
a. dominant/recessive
b. multiple alleles
c. incomplete dominance
d. polygenic traits
7. If we expect 50% of the children to be boys
and 50% to be girls, how is it possible to have
a family of 4 girls?
a. 50% represents chance, not a
guarantee
b. The sample size (family) is small; a
large population would show 50%
boys and girls
c. It is not possible
d. Both A and B
10. What is the diagram above called? A(n)
a. Punnett square
b. genotype
c. dihybrid cross
d. pedigree
11. If the diagram is used to track the occurrence
of lung disease in a family, how many family
members have the disease?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
12. What is the relationship between individuals I1 and III-1
a. grandfather/granddaughter
b. grandmother/grandson
c. cousin/cousin
d. There is no relationship
15. The process shown below in which the
genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand
of RNA is called
a. DNA replication
b. Transcription
c. Translation
d. Transformation
13. A nucleotide does NOT contain
a. A 5-carbon sugar
b. An amino acid
c. A nitrogen base
d. A phosphate group
14. The diagram below shows new DNA being
made in the process of
a. DNA replication
b. Transcription
c. Translation
d. Transformation
16. In mRNA, each codon specifies a particular
a. Nucleotide
b. Enzyme
c. Amino acid
d. Saccharide
17. “Replication” most closely means
a. change
b. destroy
c. copy
d. mutate
18. Which of the following describes RNA?
a. RNA is usually double-stranded and
contains the base thymine
b. RNA is usually single-stranded and
contains the base uracil
c. RNA is longer than DNA and uses
five bases to encode information
d. RNA is made in the nucleus of cells
and never leaves
19. There are _____ different amino acids
a. 3
b. 20
c. 64
d. none of the above
20. Which of the following statements about the
genetic code is true?
a. A codon can specify more than one
amino acid
b. Every codon specifies a different
amino acid
c. Some codons specify the same
amino acid
d. Some codons have no function at all
21. The process of making proteins on a
ribosome based on instructions from mRNA
as shown below is called
a. DNA replication
b. Transcription
c. Translation
d. Transformation
d. Protecting DNA from breaking down
25. What charge does DNA have?
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Neutral
26. Electrophoresis separates DNA bands
according to…
a. Charge
b. Length
c. Proportion of adenine nucleotides
d. Proportion of thymine nucleotides
27. Which end of your electrophoresis gel box do
you place the DNA closest to?
a. Negative (black)
b. Positive (red)
28. What is one practical application of DNA
fingerprinting?
a. Matching suspects to a crime scene
b. Eliminating a man as the possible
father of a child
c. Conclusively identifying a man as the
father of a child
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
22. A single gene mutation in a region of DNA
could transcribe the DNA sequence
CAGTAT into
a. GTCATA
b. GUCAUA
c. GTCUTU
d. GUAAUA
23. What is electrophoresis?
a. Using electricity to move DNA
fragments
b. The breaking of water with electricity
c. Using electricity to cause a mutation
d. Using electricity to make bubbles
24. What is a micropipette used for?
a. Mixing small amounts of liquid
b. Transferring small amount of
liquid
c. Balancing a centrifuge
29. Who observed variations in the characteristics
of plants and animals on different islands of
the Galapagos?
a. Alfred Russell Wallace
b. Charles Lyell
c. Charles Darwin
d. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
30. In addition to observing living organisms,
Darwin studied the preserved remains of
ancient organisms called
a. fossils
b. adaptations
c. homologies
d. vestigial structures
31. Which of the following ideas proposed by
Lamarck was later found to be incorrect?
a. acquired characteristics can be
inherited
b. all species are descended from other
species
c. living things change over time
d. there is a relationship between an
organism and its environment
32. What process produced the different types of
beaks of the different finch species in the
Galapagos?
a. artificial selection
b. natural selection
c. wanting different beaks by the birds
d. disuse of the beak
d. mosquito’s wings
39. Intermediate fossil forms are important
evidence of evolution because they show
a. how organisms changed over time
b. how animals behaved in their
environments
c. how the embryos of organisms
develop
d. molecular homologies
33. Lyell’s Principles of Geology influenced Darwin
because it explained how…
a. organisms change over time
b. adaptations occur
c. the surface of the Earth changes
over time, suggesting that the
Earth is old
d. the Galapagos Islands formed
40. The large ground finch obtains food by
cracking seeds. Its short, large, strong beak is
an example of
a. the struggle for existence
b. the tendency toward perfection
c. an adaptation
d. a vestigial organ
34. A farmer’s use of the best livestock for
breeding is an example of
a. natural selection
b. artificial selection
c. extinction
d. adaptation
41. The combined genetic information of all
members of a particular population forms a
a. gene pool
b. niche
c. phenotype
d. population
35. An inherited characteristic that increases an
organism’s ability to survive and reproduce in
its specific environment is called a(n)
a. vestigial structure
b. adaptation
c. speciation
d. analogous structure
42. Mutations and the genetic recombination that
occurs during sexual reproduction are both
sources of
a. genetic variation
b. stabilizing selection
c. genetic equilibrium
d. clones
36. How well an organism survives and
reproduces in its environment can be
described as its…
a. fitness
b. homologies
c. common descent
d. analogies
43. Populations of antibiotic-resistant bacteria are
the result of the process of
a. natural selection
b. temporal isolation
c. genetic drift
d. artificial selection
37. Structures that have different mature forms
but develop from the same embryonic tissue
are called
a. analogous
b. adaptations
c. homologous
d. fossils
38. A bird’s wings are homologous to a(n)
a. fish’s tailfin
b. alligator’s claws
c. dog’s front legs
44. Mutations that improve an individual’s ability
to survive and reproduce are
a. harmful
b. neutral
c. beneficial
d. chromosomal
45. Temporal isolation occurs when two different
populations
a. develop different mating behaviors
b. become geographically separated
c. reproduce at different times
d. interbreed
48. True or false? Populations evolve, not
individuals. __T__
55. If species A and B have very similar genes,
which of the following statements is probably
true?
a. Species A and B shared a relatively
recent common ancestor
b. Species A evolved independently of
species B for a long period
c. Species A and species B are the same
species
d. Species A is older than species B
49. Solely from its name, you know that Rhizopus
nigricans must be
a. a plant
b. an animal
c. in the genus Nigricans
d. in the genus Rhizopus
56. The basic unit of structure and function in the
nervous system are
a. Neurons
b. Axons
c. Dendrites
d. Neurotransmitters
50. A useful classification system does NOT
a. show relationships
b. reveal evolutionary trends
c. use different scientific names for
the same organism
d. change the taxon of an organism
based on new data
57. The central nervous system consists of the
a. sense organs
b. reflexes
c. brain and spinal cord
d. sensory and motor neurons
46. True or false? Fossils are simply very old
bones. __F__
47. True or false? Adaptations are coded in an
organism’s DNA and living things are born
with their adaptations. __T__
51. In Linnaeus’s system of classifying organisms,
orders are grouped together into
a. Classes
b. Species
c. Families
d. Genera
52. The largest and most inclusive grouping is the
a. Kingdom
b. Order
c. Phylum
d. Domain
53. The three domains are
a. Animalia, Plantae, and Archaebacteria
b. Plantae, Fungi, and Eubacteria
c. Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya
d. Protista, Bacteria, and Animalia
54. In which of the following are the groupings in
correct order from largest to smallest?
a. Phylum, kingdom, species
b. Genus, order, family
c. Kingdom, phylum, class
d. Order, class, family
58. The circulatory system includes the
a. lungs, heart, and brain
b. lungs, blood vessels, and heart
c. heart, blood, and blood vessels
d. heart, arteries, and veins
59. Nutrients and wastes are exchanged with body
cells through the walls of
a. ceins
b. capillaries
c. arteries
d. atria
60. The protein found in red blood cells that
transports oxygen is called
a. Hemoglobin
b. Fibrinogen
c. Prothrombin
d. Lymphocytes
61. Clotting is made possible by plasma proteins
and cells called
a. Plasma
b. White blood cells
c. Platelets
d. Red blood cells
62. Cells that protect the body by engulfing
foreign cells or producing antibodies are
a. red blood cells
b. cilia
c. platelets
d. white blood cells
63. The tiny hollow air sac in the lungs where gas
exchange takes place are the
a. alveoli
b. lymph nodes
c. capillaries
d. hemoglobin
64. A heartbeat begins with an impulse from the
a. nervous system
b. sinoatrial node
c. lungs
d. blood cells
65. All of the following are components of
human blood except
a. plasma
b. mucus
c. phagocytes
d. platelets
66. Disease-causing agents such as viruses,
bacteria, and fungi are known as
a. antibodies
b. antigens
c. pathogens
d. toxins
67. The body’s largest and most wide-spread
nonspecific defense against pathogens is (are)
a. tears
b. mucus
c. saliva
d. skin
68. A nonspecific defense reaction to tissue
damage caused by injury or infection is
a. the inflammatory response
b. skin
c. immunity
d. mucus
69. A strong response by a person’s immune
system to a harmless antigen in the
environment is called
a. immunity
b. an allergy
c. the inflammatory response
d. an autoimmune disease
70. All of the following prevent pathogens from
entering the human body except
a. red blood cells
b. tears
c. mucus
d. skin
71. Which is NOT part of the inflammatory
response?
a. white blood cells rush to the wound
site
b. blood vessels near the wound
shrink
c. white blood cells engulf and destroy
pathogens
d. histamine is released by damaged cells
72. What did the white precipitate in Fido’s
Ouchterlony test indicate?
a. The binding of Fido’s antibodies to
foreign antigens
b. The binding of Fido’s antigens to
foreign antibodies
c. That Fido is allergic to the substance
being test; his immune system is
actively trying to fight it
d. Both A and C
e. Both B and C
73. The range of a species refers to…
a. the species’ lowest population size
b. the areas where the species is
found
c. the largest and smallest members of
the species
d. all of the above
74. What are possible effects of hypothermia?
a. Muscle do not contract as easily or
quickly
b. Nervous system malfunctions, leading
to poor decision making
c. Death
d. All of the above
75. Anterior refers to…
a. the front, head-end of an organism
b. the back, tail-end of an organism
c. the top or upperside of an organism
d. the bottom or underside of an
organism
76. One of the main functions of the liver is to…
a. store bile
b. absorb nutrients
c. destroy old red blood cells
d. clean the blood by removing toxins
77. One of the main functions of the spleen is
to…
a. store bile
b. absorb nutrients
c. destroy old red blood cells
d. clean the blood by removing toxins
79. What is an endangered species?
a. A species that is likely to become
extinct
b. A species that is uncommon
c. A species with fewer individuals than
most species
d. A species that is being hunted by
humans
80. What is an invasive species?
a. A species that is new
b. A species that harms other species
c. A species that humans breed or
cultivate
d. A species that is not native to an
ecosystem and is adversely
affecting the ecosystem
78. The muscular tube that transports food to the
stomach is called the…
a. ductus arteriosus
b. esophagus
c. trachea
d. Small intestine
__________________________________________________________________________________________
Review your labs. You may see questions about each lab’s key ideas on your test.
Done? Excellent! All of the answers can be found on the school website. Please log-on, grade yourself using a different color
pen or pencil, and write your score here:
/80
Based upon what you missed, which topics do you need to study the most? Be specific; don’t simply say “everything.” Refer to
page 1 for a list of topics.






Which questions do you not understand, even after seeing the correct answer? Write down the number of a question or two
that you would like Ms. Minson to go over during tutorial or in class.
# ______ and # ______