Semester I Review

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On a piece of paper write the question and your choice of answers
To be turned in on day of final exam
This is your study sheet for the final
Correct your answers if incorrect and focus on the ones you did not know for studying
Score yourself as an indicator if you are ready for the final exam

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1. Students are using heat, chemicals and glassware in a laboratory experiment. Which
 of these is the best method of eye protection?
A. safety goggles
B. contact lenses
C. prescription eye glasses
D. eye protection is not needed

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2. Where should a student discard solid chemical waste?
A. sink
B. trash can
C. disposable box
D. container identified by the chemistry teacher

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3. What should be used to put out a fire in person’s hair or clothing?
A. your hands
B. a fire blanket
C. a fire extinguisher
D. water from the sink faucet

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4. Eating in the laboratory
A. is not permitted.
B. is permitted if it was purchased in the cafeteria.
C. is permitted if the lab experiment does not involve chemicals.
D. is permitted as soon as the lab experiment is finished.

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5. Safety goggles and a lab apron must be worn when handling chemicals labeled corrosive because they
A. may stain clothes
B. react with the skin
C. are difficult to pour
D. are highly flammable

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6. This hazardous materials symbol indicates that the chemicals stored in that container are highly reactive.
Which of the following procedures should be taken when dealing with the chemical?
A. Always use safety goggles when working with this chemical.
B. Always leave the container sealed, never open it.
C. Always keep water nearby in case of spills.
D. Always keep this chemical away from open flame.

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7. This hazardous materials symbol indicates that the chemical in the container with this symbol
A. is flammable and combustible.
B. is poisonous and infectious.
C. is biohazardous and can produce body infections.
D. is highly corrosive and able to burn organic material.

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8. Which of the following is NOT considered a type of matter?
A. rock
B. light
C. air
D. steam

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9. Which of the following is NOT considered a chemical property of matter?
A. reactivity
B. pH
C. solubility
D. heat of combustion

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10. Which two features are used to describe matter?
A. mass and speed of particles
B. weight and color of particles
C. weight and volume
D. mass and volume

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11. Which of the following is NOT a physical property of matter?
A. viscosity
B. reactivity
C. texture
D. density

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12. Which state of matter is most resistant to compression?
A. solid state
B. gaseous state
C. liquid state
D. plasma state

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13. Definite shape and definite volume describe which state of matter?
A. liquid state
B. solid state
C. plasma state
D. gaseous state

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14. Material that has neither a definite shape nor a definite volume is in which state of matter?
A. gaseous state
B. liquid state
C. plasma state
D. solid state

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15. Which of the following is NOT a method of separating a mixture?
A. filtration
B. evaporation
C. melting
D. chromatography

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16. Which of the following methods involves heating or boiling a mixture to recover the
 solid elements?
A. evaporation
B. distillation
C. chromatography
D. filtration

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17. An increase in which of the following would increase the boiling point of a liquid?
A. volume
B. the mass of the liquid
C. pressure
D. temperature

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18. Which of the following is correct statement regarding mixtures?
A. mixtures are composed of a single substance
B. mixtures are composed of more than one substance
C. mixtures have a fixed composition
D. all substances in a mixture are visible at all times

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19. Solid sodium chloride has a crystal structure.
Which of the following best explains why some solids can form crystals?
A. Particles experience strong intermolecular forces, causing them to be held in very orderly positions.
B. Particles spread out and mix with each other, even if they are not stirred, making crystal formation more likely.
C. Particles experience strong intermolecular forces, but can still move about freely and are not bound to fixed positions.
D. Particles are very closed together and, therefore, barely compress at all, making them predisposed to form crystals

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20. Breakfast Cereal A costs $4.99 for 793 g,
Cereal B costs $3.79 for 400 g, Cereal C costs
$4.19 for 1.19 kg, and Cereal D costs $3.99 for
567 g. Which cereal has the lowest price per gram?
A. Cereal A
B. Cereal B
C. Cereal C
D. Cereal D

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21. A student measures the mass of an object as
32.4g. The actual mass of the object is 31.8 g.
What is the percent error of the student's measurement?
A. 0.060%
B. 1.01%
C. 1.85 %
D. 60.0%

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22. If you wanted to separate a mixture of isopropyl alcohol and water, what example below would help you select the technique you should use?
A. The boiling point is 82ºC.
B. The mixture is clear.
C. The water was tap water.
D. 8 oz of alcohol was added to 8 oz of water.

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23. A student is trying to identify an unknown white crystalline solid made of small grains.
The student believes these are sugar crystals.
How should the student test this hypothesis?
A. Identify the particle pattern in the crystal
B. See if the crystals will dissolve in water
C. Find the crystal's melting point
D. Use a ruler and balance to measure the crystals

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24. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding atoms?
A. Most atoms cannot combine with other atoms.
B. Chemical reactions divide atoms into smaller units.
C. Atoms of the same element may have different mass numbers.
D. Atoms only contain protons.

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25. The cathode ray experiments lead to which particle being discovered?
A. nucleus
B. proton
C. neutron
D. electron

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26. The proton, in Rutherford’s experiments, were used to —
A. identify chemical properties
B. identify the melting point
C. determine molecular mass
D. bombard sheets of gold

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27. Which nuclear particle has the same relative mass as the proton, but has no electrical charge?
A. electron
B. neutron
C. isotope
D. quark

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28. Why is an atom considered electrically neutral?
A. neutrons equal the number of protons
B. proton forces pull on the neutrons
C. electrons equal the number of protons
D. electrons equal the number of neutrons

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29. Which of the following statements describes isotopes of an atom?
A. different chemical properties
B. different numbers of protons
C. different masses
D. different numbers of electrons

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30. What happens to the number of electrons in an atom as the atomic number on the periodic table increases?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. depends on the atom

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31. Which of the following is used to calculate the average atomic mass of an element?
A. the naturally occurring isotopes
B. the five most abundant isotopes
C. the isotopes that are man made
D. the least most common isotopes

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32. What is the mass number of a carbon isotope that consists of 6 protons, 6 electrons, and 8
 neutrons?
A. 13
B. 14
C. 20
D. 28

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33. Which of the following showed electrons in specific, fixed orbits?
A. Rutherford Model
B. Planck Model
C. Bohr Model
D. Quantum Model

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34. Which orbitals are dumbbell-shaped and are arranged along the x, y, and z axes?
A. s orbitals
B. d orbitals
C. p orbitals
D. f orbitals

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35. Which of the following orbitals contains quantum number combinations that are NOT
 possible?
A. 4d
B. 3s
C. 4p
D. 3f

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36. How many electrons are required to completely fill the 3rd energy level?
A. 0
B. 8
C. 18
D. 32

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37. An electron must occupy the lowest available energy orbital is stated by —
A. the Aufbau Principle
B. Hund's Rule
C. the Pauli Exclusion Principle
D. Bohr's Law

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38. What is the electron configuration for manganese, atomic number 25?
A. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 5
B. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 10
C. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2
D. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6

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39. The properties of elements, according to periodic law, can be predicted by —
A. the number of isotopes
B. the solubility of the element
C. the position on the periodic table
D. the color of the element

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40. Which family correctly labels the elements in Group 1 on the periodic table?
A. transition metals
B. alkali series
C. lanthanide elements
D. actinide series

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41. As the atomic number increases, within a group of elements, the atomic radius usually —
A. decreases
B. remains the same as the one above it
C. increases
D. decreases, then increases

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42. What happens to the ionization energy of an element as electrons are removed?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. decreases, then increases

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43. Which of the following best explains why
Mendeleev's periodic table was organized according to atomic mass rather than atomic number?
A. Atomic number had not yet been discovered.
B. Atomic mass is unaffected by chemical reactions.
C. Atomic number is more closely related to reactivity.
D. Atomic mass varies among the isotopes of an element.

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44. Which of the following groups, with a few exceptions, has the d-orbitals unfilled?
A. transition metals
B. nonmetals
C. gases
D. metalloids

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45. Which of the following describes the properties of noble gases?
A. They have high boiling points.
B. They are highly reactive.
C. They are generally unreactive.
D. They are solid at room temperature.

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46. The number of valence electrons in Group
2 elements is —
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

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47. Which of the following are involved in forming a chemical bond?
A. electrons and protons
B. protons and neutrons
C. neutrons and electrons
D. dipoles and electrons

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48. What happens to the potential energy of atoms when they form a chemical bond?
A. increase their potential energy
B. decrease their potential energy
C. their potential energy remains the same
D. their potential energy fluctuates over time

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49. When 2 atoms share a pair of electrons, which type of bond is formed?
A. ionic
B. sublevel
C. static
D. covalent

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50. The unequal attraction for the electrons in a chemical bond is called —
A. nonpolar
B. polar
C. triplanar
D. ionic

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51. Which of the following increases as the electronegativity difference between 2 atoms
 increases?
A. ionic nature of the bond
B. covalent nature of the bond
C. metallic nature of the bond
D. electron sharing between the 2 atoms

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52. Which of the the 2 outermost orbitals must be filled to satisfy the octet rule?
A. d and f orbitals
B. d and p orbitals
C. s and d orbitals
D. s and p orbitals

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53. Which of the following is used to draw a
Lewis structure of either a molecule or atom?
A. bond length between 2 atoms
B. electronegativity of an atom
C. number of valence electrons
D. atomic mass or masses

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54. How many double bonds are in the Lewis structure for carbon dioxide, CO
2
?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three
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O C O for carbon to have 8 valence electrons it will have to have two pairs on each side sharing with oxygen

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55. Which of the following is a property of a molecular compound?
A. low boiling point
B. tend to be brittle
C. conducts electricity well when dissolved
D. hardness

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56. The attraction between positive ions and surrounding mobile electrons forms which type of bond?
A. polar covalent bond
B. nonpolar covalent bond
C. ionic bond
D. metallic bond

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57. What happens to electron pairs, according to VSEPR, when a molecule is formed?
A. Electron pairs form negative ions.
B. Electron pairs form positive ions.
C. Electron pairs cause molecules to attract each other to form electrostatic positions.
D. Electrons pairs move away from each other to electrostatic balanced positions.

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58. According to the VSEPR theory, which shape
 represents a carbon tetrafluoride molecule, CF
4
A. tetrahedral
?
B. trigonal planar
C. bent
D. linear

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59. Which of the following has the greatest affect on the strength of London dispersion forces between molecules?
A. the number of electrons
B. the number of protons and neutrons in the molecule
C. the number of electrons and the number of neutrons in the molecule
D. the number of electrons in the molecule and the mass of the molecule

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60. Which statement is true regarding the strength of molecular bonds compared to the strength of intermolecular forces?
A. Molecular bonds tend to be weaker.
B. Molecular bonds tend to be stronger.
C. Intermolecular bonds tend to be stronger.
D. The bond strengths are about the same.

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61. Oxygen forms covalent bonds with carbon and sulfur, but forms ionic bonds with sodium and
 magnesium. What is the best inference for this difference in how oxygen behaves?
A. Oxygen bonds randomly with elements in unpredictable ways.
B. The difference in atomic radii between the groups accounts for the difference in behavior.
C. Oxygen only bonds with elements that have a smaller atomic mass.
D. Electronegativity differences between the bonding elements allow electrons to be either shared or donated.

62. Assuming an element has 8 electrons in the valence shell, what conclusions can be drawn regarding the type of bonding behavior?
A. The element will form polar covalent bonds.
B. The element will form non-polar covalent bonds.
C. The element will form ionic bonds.
D. The element will form no bonds.

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63. Which statement is true comparing the research of Bohr, Rutherford, and Dalton?
A. Dalton and Bohr modeled their experiments and their theories after Rutherford.
B. Rutherford and Bohr modeled their experiments and their theories after Dalton.
C. Dalton and Rutherford modeled their experiments and their theories after Bohr.
D. All three scientists developed their theories at the same time.

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64. How many atoms of carbon are present in a
 molecule of carbon tetrachloride, CCl
4
A. 1
?
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5

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65. Changing the subscript on an element within a correctly written chemical formula —
A. changes the charges of all the other ions in the compound
B. changes the number of ions represented by the formula
C. changes the oxidation number of each element in the formula
D. changes the formula so that it no longer represents that compound

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66. What is the formula for potassium fluoride?
A. KF
B. KF
2
C. K
2
D. K
2
F
F
2

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67. What is the formula for the compound formed by iron (II) ions and chromate ions?
A. FeCrO
4
B. Fe
2
C. Fe
2
CrO
4
(CrO
D. Fe(CrO
4
4
)
3
)
2

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68. What is the formula for aluminum hydroxide?
A. AlOH
B. Al(OH)
3
C. Al
D. Al
2
(OH)
3
OH
3

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69. What is the formula for tin (IV) oxide?
A. Tn
4
O
B. SnO
2
C. TnO
2
D. SnO
2

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70. What is the formula for barium nitrate?
A. Ba(NO
3
)
2
B. BaNO
2
C. Ba
2
NO
D. Ba(NO
3
4
)
2

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71. What is the name of the compound NiSO
4
A. nickel (II) sulfite
B. nickel (II) sulfide
C. nickel (II) sulfate
D. nickel (II) sulfuroxide
?

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72. What is the name of the compound AlPO
4
A. aluminum phosphide
?
B. aluminum phosphate
C. aluminum phosphite
D. aluminum phosphoroxide

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73. Which of the following is the metallic ion in scandium (II) chloride?
A. Sd 2+
B. Cl 2-
C. Sc 2+
D. Cl 1-

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74. What is the name of the compound N
2
A. sodium dioxide
O
3
?
B. dinitrogen oxide
C. nitrous oxide
D. dinitrogen trioxide

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75. What is the formula for sulfur trioxide?
A. SO
B. SO
2
C. SO
3
D. SrO
3

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76. What is the oxidation number of nitrogen in most compounds?
A. -3
B. -2
C. -1
D. +1

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77. What is the oxidation number of hydrogen in HCl?
A. 0
B. +1
C. +2
D. +3

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78. Which law states that "when two or more compounds are composed of the same two elements, the ratio of the masses of one element that combine with a fixed mass of the other element is a simple whole number"?
A. Conservation of Mass
B. Atomic Law
C. Multiple Proportions
D. Definite Composition

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79. Which of the following is a possible compound formed from Calcium (2+) and the polyatomic ion Nitrate, NO
3
(1-)?
A. Ca
B. Ca
2
NO
3
3
NO
C. CaNO
2
D. Ca(NO
3
)
2

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80. How many grams of NaCl are present in
11.00 moles?
A. 0.45 g
B. 156.60 g
C. 331.00 g
D. 642.93 g
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11.0 moles x 58.5g/mole =

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81. How many Mg 2+ ions are present in

3.00 moles of MgCl
2
A. 1.806 x 10 24
?
B. 3.02 x 10 24
C. 12.00 x 10 25
D. 16.00 x 10 23

3.00 moles x 6.02 x 10 23 molecules/mole x 1Mg/molecule

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82. Which of the following is the scientific name for NH
3
?
A. Water
B. Ammonia
C. Nitric acid
D. Methane

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83. What is the formula mass of MgSO
4
A. 116.13 amu
?
B. 272.83 amu
C. 111.21 amu
D. 120.36 amu
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Mg = 1 x 24.31= 24.31
S = 1 x 32.06 = 32.06
O = 4 x 15.999= 63.99

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84. The mass of one _________ is the molar mass of the element.
A. mole of the element
B. picogram of the element
C. milliliter of the element
D. representative particle of the element

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85. The sum of the atomic masses of all the atoms in a formula for a compound is the—
A. real mass
B. formula mass
C. Avogadro mass
D. molecule mass

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86. What is the formula mass of sodium chloride, NaCl?
A. 53.023 amu
B. 58.439 amu
C. 102.771 amu
D. 112.539 amu
Na = 1 x 22.99 amu
Cl = 1 x 35.45 amu

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87. What is the formula mass of glucose,

C
6
H
12
O
6
?
A. 58.347 amu
B. 137.490 amu
C. 180.017 amu
D. 231.369 amu

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88. Describe the process of calculating the molar mass of Li
2
S.
A. Add the masses of 1 mole of lithium and 2 moles of sulfur.
B. Add the masses of 1 mole of lithium and 1 mole of sulfur.
C. Add the masses of 2 moles of lithium and
1 mole of sulfur.
D. Add the masses of 2 moles of lithium and
2 moles of sulfur.

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89. How many moles of CO
2
200.00 g?
A. .22 mol
B. 4.54 mol
C. 9.08 mol
D. 88.02 mol are present in
200g CO
2 x 1 mole CO
2
/44g CO
2

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90. Calculate the number of representative particles that are present in .20 moles of H without regards to significant figures.
2
O
A. 3.612x 10 23 atoms
B. 1.204 x 10 24 atoms
C. 2.408 x 10 24 atoms
D. 2.944 x 10 25 atoms
.20 moles x 6.02 x 10 23 H
2
0/1mole x 3rp/1H
2
0

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91. You are performing an experiment to determine whether the "S" on Skittles dissolves faster in cold water, warm water or hot water. In
9 out 10 trials the data indicates that the "S" dissolves faster in hot water. "S“ dissolves in warm water faster than hot water. What should you do?
A. Report this data
B. Throw out this data
C. Redo the experiment
D. Change your hypothesis

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92. If the average mass of a one pound bag of
Skittles is 453.6 g and there are 927 Skittles in
 a bag, determine which best represents the mass of one Skittle.
A. 489.3 mg
B. 4893 mg
C. 2.044 g
D. 204.4 mg

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93. Which of the following is the mass in grams of 4.25 × 10³ mol of N
2
A. 2.35 × 10 -4 g
B. 1.52 × 10 2 g
C. 5.95 × 10 4 g

D. 1.19 × 10 5 g
(4.25 × 10³ mol of N
2) x (28.012g/ 1 mol N
2
)

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94. After the correct formula for a reactant in an equation has been written, the —
A. chemical formula cannot be altered
B. subscripts of the formula are changed to balance the equation
C. chemical symbols in the formula must appear only on the reactant side
D. same chemical formula must be written on the product side of the equation

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95. Which of the following reactions involves two or more substances combining to form a new compound?
A. single-replacement reaction
B. synthesis reaction
C. combustion reaction
D. double-replacement reaction

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96. Which of the following reactions involves one element replacing an element in a compound that is from the same activity series?
A. combustion reaction
B. decomposition reaction
C. single-replacement reaction
D. double-replacement reaction

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97. Which of the following reactions involves a single compound producing two or more simpler substances?
A. synthesis reaction
B. decomposition reaction
C. combustion reaction
D. double-replacement reaction

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98. Which of the following reactions involves the ions of two compounds exchanging places to form two new compounds?
A. synthesis reaction
B. single-replacement reaction
C. double-replacement reaction
D. combustion reaction

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99. By predicting the outcome of the following reactants mixing together in an aqueous

 solution, what type of reaction will take place?
Pb(NO
3
)
2
( aq) + 2 KI (aq) -->
A. double-replacement reaction
B. synthesis reaction
C. decomposition reaction
D. single-replacement reaction

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
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
100. When an acid, such as carbonic acid, decomposes, the products are —
A. non-metal oxides and a salt
B. non-metal oxides and water
C. metal oxides and oxygen
D. metal oxides and peroxide

102. Predict the products of the following reaction:




Na
2
O + CO
2
A. Na
2
CO
C. NaCO
2
3
B. Na + CO
+ O
D. NaC + O
-->
3
3
2

Typically a synthesis reaction will occur that is balanced

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
103. What are the advantages of using an activity series in predicting the outcome of chemical reactions?
A. The freezing point of the elements can be determined.
B. Reactions can be categorized as either exothermic or endothermic.
C. The ionization energy can be calculated for each element in the reaction.
D. The reaction can be categorized as possible or not possible.

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
104. Predict the outcome of the reaction where zinc metal is added to a solution of potassium chloride.
A. No reaction occurs.
B. Gaseous zinc is formed.
C. Potassium calcide forms.
D. Zinc chloride forms.

Zinc is below Potassium on the reactivity series chart

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


105. Predict the outcome of the reaction where a solution of silver nitrate is added to a solution of sodium chloride.
A. No reaction occurs
B. Silver chloride forms
C. Nitric acid is produced
D. Calcium chloride is formed
In the solubility chart silver is insoluble in chlorine so a precipitate will form. Nitrate is soluble with sodium

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

106. According to the Law of Conservation of
Matter, the total mass of all the reacting

Substance is —
A. more than the mass of all the products
B. more than the total mass of all the products and the reactants
C. less than the total mass of all the products
D. equal to the mass of all the products

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


107. What are the coefficients that would correctly balance this reaction?
____Ni + ____C
A. 1, 2, 1
B. 2, 2, 1
4
H
8
N
2
O
2
--> ____Ni(C
4
H
8
N
2
O
2
)
2
C. 2, 1, 1
D. 2, 2, 2

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


108. What are the coefficients that would correctly balance this equation?
____Zn + ____K
A. 2, 1, 2, 1
2
CrO
4
-->____K + ____ZnCrO
4
B. 1, 2, 3, 1
C. 1, 2, 1, 2
D. 1, 1, 2, 1

109. What is the balanced equation for the



 combustion of magnesium?
A. Mg (
B. Mg (
D. Mg ( s) + O
2 s) + O
C. 2 Mg (
2 s) + O s) + 2 O
(g) --> MgO (g)
(g) --> MgO
2
2
2
(g)
(g) --> 2 MgO (s)
(g) --> MgO
4

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
110. Lavoisier used a variety of experiments to draw conclusions regarding the chemical reactivity of a number of elements. Critique the following statements and select the statement that was determined later to be false.
A. Water is formed from a reaction of hydrogen (what he called phlogiston) and oxygen.
B. Sulfur, when burned, combines with air to form new substances.
C. Oxygen makes some substances acidic.
D. The weight gained by the products of a burning reaction came from the air.

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
111. The safest way to dilute concentrated hydrochloric acid is to add -
A. a series of small volumes of water to the acid while stirring slowly
B. the acid to water slowly while stirring constantly
C. the acid to a small volume of water and then add more water
D. dilute hydrochloric acid to a small volume of the concentrated acid