Higher Human Biology
Revision
UNIT 1
Question 1
• Two classes of proteins are fibrous protein
and conjugated protein. What is the third
class?
• A. Globulating Protein
• B. Transferrin Protein
• C. Globular Protein
Question 2
• Keratin, collagen, actin and myosin all
belong to which class of protein?
• A. Fibrous Protein
• B. Congugated Protein
• C. Globular Protein
Question 3
• An example of a conjugated protein would
be
• A. Insulin
• B. Antibodies
• C. Mucus
Question 4
• What part of an enzyme is destroyed at
high temperature
• A. the active site
• B. the optimum site
• C. the specific site
Question 5
• The name of the enzyme that is involved
in the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide is
• A. Manganese oxide
• B. Catalase
• C. Amylase
Question 6
• A competitive inhibitor is one which
• A. attaches itself to the active site of an
enzyme and blocks it
• B. attaches itself to another part of the
enzyme away from the active site
• C. attaches itself to the substrate and
prevents it joining with the enzyme
Question 7
• An example of a non-competitive inhibitor
would be
• A. Sugar
• B. Cyanide
• C. Nitrogen
Question 8
• Many co-enzymes contain which
substance as the main part of their
molecular structure?
• A. Fat
• B. Water
• C. Vitamins
Question 9
• Trypsin and enteropeptidase are examples
of
• A. co- factors
• B. co- enzymes
• C. enzyme activators
Question 10
• The three parts that make up a DNA
nucleotide are
• A. Base, deoxyribose sugar, guanine
• B. Phosphate, ribose sugar, base
• C. Deoxyribose sugar, base, phosphate
Question 11
• The types of bonds that are present in
DNA are
• A. Hydrogen and peptide bonds
• B. Hydrogen and chemical bonds
• C. Chemical and peptide bonds
Question 12
• RNA is different from DNA in that it
• A. contains ribose, thymine and is single
stranded
• B. contains ribose, is single stranded and
contains uracil
• C. contains ribose, uracil and is double
stranded
Question 13
•
•
•
•
The process of transcription involves
A. the synthesis of a m-RNA from a t-RNA
B. the synthesis of a t-RNA from a m-RNA
C. the synthesis of a m-RNA from a DNA
Question 14
•
•
•
•
The process of translation takes place at
A. a ribosome
B. a golgi body
C. a nucleus
Question 15
• The three bases that are found in a t-RNA
strand are
• A. Codons
• B. Anti-codons
• C. Antibodies
Question 16
• The molecule attached to an anticodon is
an
• A. ribosome
• B. polypeptide
• C. amino acid
Question 17
• The cell structure that is responsible for
packaging and processing a protein ready
for secretion is
• A. Endoplasmic reticulum
• B. Golgi apparatus
• C. Vesicles
Question 18
• Adenosine joined to 3 inorganic
phosphates is the make up of
• A. ATP
• B. ADP
• C. ADH
Question 19
• The first stage of respiration is
• A. Krebs Cycle and occurs in the matrix of
the mitochondria
• B. Glycolysis and occurs in the matrix of
the mitochondria
• C. Glycolysis and occurs in the cytoplasm
Question 20
• The number of ATP molecules needed to
start the process of glycolysis off is
• A. 4 ATPs
• B. 2 ATPs
• C.36ATPs
Question 21
• The Krebs Cycle occurs
• A. in the matrix of the mitochondria and breaks
down citric acid in a series of enzyme-controlled
reactions.
• B. in the cristae of the mitochondria and builds
up citric acid.
• C. in the cytoplasm and breaks down citric acid
in a series of enzyme-controlled reactions.
Question 22
• The total number of ATPs made from the
complete breakdown of glucose during
aerobic respiration is
• A. 36 ATPs
• B. 38ATPs
• C. 2 ATPs
Question 23
• The final product/s of anaerobic respiration
in animal cells is/are
• A. Lactic Acid
• B. Lactic Acid and Ethanol
• C. Lactic Acid and Carbon Dioxide
Question 24
• Maltose and Glucose sugar can be
described respectively as a
• A. Monosaccharide and disaccharide
• B. Polysaccharide and disaccharide
• C. Disaccharide and Monosaccharide
Question 25
• The colour that iodine turns in the
presence of glycogen is
• A. Blue-black
• B. Brick red
• C. Purple-red
Question 26
• A phospholipid is made up of
• A. three fatty acids and a glycerol
• B. two fatty acids, a glycerol and a
phosphate
• C. three fatty acids, a glycerol and a
phosphate
Question 27
• Cholesterol, bile and sex hormones are all
examples of
• A. Phospholipids
• B. Triglycerides
• C. Steroids
Question 28
• The stores of fat around the kidneys and
on the palms of the hands are known as
• A. Fat pads
• B. Fat deposits
• C. Fat bits
Question 29
• The process of breakdown of excess
amino acids
• A. Occurs in the kidneys and is known as
deamination
• B. Occurs in the liver and is known as acid
hydrolysis
• C. Occurs in the liver and is known as
deamination
Question 30
• During the first few minutes of marathon
running an athlete will
• A. Use glucose then glycogen and fatty
acids over the next half hour
• B. Use glycogen then glucose and fatty
acids over the next half hour
• C. Use fatty acids then glucose and fatty
acids over the next half hour
Question 31
• The two molecules that make up the cell
membrane and can be represented by the
fluid mosaic model are
• A. Protein and phospholipid
• B. Protein and steroid
• C. Protein and triglyceride
Question 32
• Diffusion and osmosis are described as
• A. Passive processes
• B. Active processes
• C. Inactive processes
Question 33
• Active transport requires energy to pass
materials from
• A. A low to high concentration, against a
concentration gradient
• B. A high to low concentration, against a
concentration gradient
• C. A low to high concentration, down a
concentration gradient
Question 34
• The process of phagocytosis can be
described as
• A. Exocytosis
• B. Ectocytosis
• C. Endocytosis
Question 35
• The type of immunity that is described as
inborn and unchanging is
• A. Acquired Immunity
• B. Passive Immunity
• C. Innate Immunity
Question 36
• The production of antibodies by the Blymphocytes is described as
• A. a humoral response
• B. a cell-mediated response
• C. a quick response
Question 37
• Lymphocytes known as T-lymphocytes are
produced in
• A. the bone marrow
• B. the liver
• C. the thymus
Question 38
• A mother passing antibodies to a baby
through breast milk is an example of
• A. Active natural immunity
• B. Active acquired immunity
• C. Passive natural immunity
Question 39
• During an allergic reaction, the name of
the substance produced by the body which
results in nasal congestion, runny nose
and blocked airways is
• A. Anti-histamine
• B. Histamine
• C. Dopamine
Question 40
• People with blood group AB have
• A. anti A and anti B antibodies
• B. neither anti A nor anti B antibodies
• C. Anti A antibodies
Question 41
• People with the blood group A can receive
blood from groups
• A. B and O
• B. A, B, AB
• C. A and O
Question 42
• The order in which virus replication occurs is
• A. Attachment, DNA replication, protein
synthesis, assembly of the protein coat, lysis of
the host cell
• B. DNA replication, assembly of the protein coat,
protein synthesis, attachment, lysis of the host
cell
• C. DNA replication. protein synthesis,
attachment, assembly of the protein coat,lysis of
the host cell
Question 43
• A virus that has been rendered harmless
by chemical or heat treatment is described
as
• A. Weakened
• B. Retrovirus
• C. Attenuated
Question 44
• Each species has a unique number of
chromosomes present in the nucleus of
each of its cells. This is known as
• A. Homologous pairs
• B. Chromosome compliment
• C. Autosomal number
Question 45
• Following Meiosis
• A. 2 diploid gametes are produced
• B. 4 diploid gametes are produced
• C. 4 haploid gametes are produced
Question 46
• For DNA replication to occur
• A. enzymes, ATP, nucleotides and an RNA
strand is needed
• B. enzymes, ATP, nucleotides and a DNA
strand is needed
• C. RNA nucleotides, DNA polymerase,
ATP and a DNA strand is needed
Question 47
• The points where crossing over occurs
during meiosis are called
• A. Chiasma
• B. Crossover points
• C. Equators
Question 48
• During meiosis new combinations of
alleles arise by
• A. Crossing over
• B. Independent Assortment
• C. Crossing over and Independent
Assortment
Question 49
• In a monohybrid cross, the F2 ratio is
usually
• A. 9:1
• B. 2:1
• C. 3:1
Question 50
• The way an organism looks based on the
genes it possesses is called
• A. Phenotype
• B. Genotype
• C. Karlotype
Question 51
• Lack of understanding that the probability
of a particular outcome is always the same
regardless of the result that came before it
is called
• A. Principle of Segregation
• B. Stupidity
• C. Gambler’s Fallacy
Question 52
• People who possess the antigen D on the
surface of their red blood cells are said to
be
• A. Rhesus positive
• B. Rhesus negative
• C. Sensitised
Question 53
• A condition that is a disorder of the mucussecreting glands and causes sufferers to
die at an early age is
• A. Huntington’s Chorea
• B. Cystic Fibrosis
• C. Phenylketonuria
Question 54
• The condition that causes degeneration of
the nervous system, can only be
diagnosed in the sufferer’s late 30’s and is
caused by a dominant allele is
• A. Phenylketonuria
• B. Huntington’s Chorea
• C. Sickle Cell trait
Question 55
• Red-green colourblindness, Duchenne
muscular dystrophy and haemophilia are
examples of
• A. Autosomal dominant conditions
• B. Autosomal recessive conditions
• C. Sex- linked conditions caused by a
recessive allele
Question 56
• When a characteristic is controlled by
several genes this is an example of
• A. Polygenic inheritance
• B. Additive inheritance
• C. Multigenic inheritance
Question 57
• The gene mutations substitution and
inversion are described as
• A. Frameshift Mutations
• B. Point Mutations
• C. Minor Mutations
Question 58
• The condition where a person has suffered
an inborn error of metabolism and is
unable to convert phenylalanine into
tyrosine is
• A. Cystic fibrosis
• B. Albinism
• C. Phenylketonuria
Question 59
• The condition where a person is unable to
make melanin and is sensitive to UV light
is called
• A. Phenylketonuria
• B. Albinism
• C. Cystic Fibrosis
Question 60
• An example of a mutagenic agent is
• A. X-rays
• B. Mustard
• C. Tea
Question 61
• The failure of spindle fibres to separate
during meiosis is called
• A. Non- separation
• B. Non-disjunction
• C. Homologous chromosomes
Question 62
• The condition caused by spindle fibres
failing to separate at chromosome 21 is
• A. Turner’s syndrome
• B. Down’s syndrome
• C. Klinefelter’s syndrome
Question 63
• A person with the chromosome
compliment 44 + XO (where O denotes a
missing sex chromosome) has the
condition known as
• A. Turner’s Syndrome
• B. Down’s Syndrome
• C. Kleinfelter’s Syndrome
Question 64
• A person with the condition Kleinfelter’s
Syndrome will have the chromosome
compliment
• A. 44 + XXY
• B. 44 + XYY
• C. 45 + XXY
Question 65
• An example of an autosomal recessive
disorder would be
• A. Albinism
• B. Cystic Fibrosis
• C. Phenylketonuria
Question 66
• A condition that shows an autosomal
dominant pattern of inheritance is
• A. Cystic Fibrosis
• B. Haemophilia
• C. Huntington’s Chorea
Question 67
• An example of a sex-linked condition
caused by a recessive allele would be
• A. Cystic Fibrosis
• B. Haemophilia
• C. Huntington’s Chorea
Question 68
• The main aim of genetic counselling is to
• A. Advise couples on how many children
to have
• B. Assess the risk of a faulty allele being
passed in a family and help people to
make informed decisions
• C. Advise people to have amniocentesis
Question 69
• A procedure that can be carried out
around the 18th week of pregnancy is
• A. Chorionic Villus Sampling
• B. Post-Natal Screening
• C. Amniocentesis
Question 70
• A disorder that can be diagnosed through
post-natal screening using the Guthrie
Test is
• A. Phenylketonuria
• B. Huntington’s Chorea
• C. Albinism