FHS-MVI KVA Foreign Languages Section
Stanag 6001 Test
Information
Level 3
1. Test Overview
Language proficiency profiles are recorded using a sequence of 4 digits to represent the
four language skill areas, as seen below. This is known as the SLP (standardized language
profile), e.g. SLP3333
Listening Speaking
3
3
Part/timing
Reading
3
Writing
3
Content
Test focus
Part 1 - Multiple Matching
A text or several short texts preceded by
multiple matching questions. Candidates must
match a prompt to elements in the text.
Part 2 – Gapped Text
READING
(80 mins)
Assessment of
A text from which paragraphs have been candidates’ ability to
removed and placed in jumbled order after the understand the
text. Candidates must decide from where in the meaning of written
text the paragraphs have been removed.
English at word,
phrase, sentence,
paragraph and whole
Part 3 - Multiple Choice
text level.
Three themed texts followed by two 4-option
multiple choice questions on each text.
Part 4- True/ False/ Not Given
One or more texts followed by statements.
Choose if they are T, F or NG.
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Part 1
WRITING
(90 minutes)
One compulsory question - correspondence,
brief, joining instructions or submission
Part 2
Assessment of
candidates’ ability to
write specified text
types with a range of
functions.
One essay question from a choice of three
questions
Part 1 - Multiple Choice
Interacting speakers or a monologue. Multiple
choice answers.
Part 2 - Summarise/ reformulate
LISTENING
(30 mins)
Note taking- conversation between two
interacting speakers. Extract key information
and reformulate it by answering questions.
Assess ability to listen
for specific
information, stated
and non-stated
opinion, agreement
and disagreement.
Part 3 - Sentence Completion
Informative monologue/ extract from a lecture.
Complete information by inserting a correct
word or figure into a gap in a complete text.
Part 1
Introductions and interview
Part 2
SPEAKING
(28 to 36 minutes)
Communicative discussion
Part 3
Individual presentation
Assessment of
candidates’ ability to
produce spoken
English using a range
of functions in a
variety of tasks.
Part 4
Developmental discussion
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2.1.
Reading Test Overview
Part 1
Multiple matching
Task type and focus
Format
No. of questions
Specific information, detail, opinion and attitude.
A text or several short texts preceded by multiple matching questions.
Candidates must match a prompt to elements in the text.
16 (1 mark each)
Part 2
Gapped text
Task type and focus
Format
No. of questions
Text structure, cohesion and coherence.
A text from which paragraphs have been removed and placed in mixed
order after the text. Candidates must decide from where in the text the
paragraphs have been removed.
6 (2 marks each)
Part 3
Multiple Choice
Task type and focus
Format
No. of questions
Detail, opinion, tone, purpose, main idea, implication, attitude, text
organization features (exemplification, comparison, reference).
Three themed texts followed by two 4-option multiple-choice questions
on each text.
6 (2 marks each)
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2.2.
Practice Reading Test
PART 1
For questions 1 to 16, choose from the texts A-F.
A. The Navy SEALs. The SEALs — the abbreviation stands for "Sea, Air and Land" — were created in 1961 as President
John F. Kennedy recognized the need for unconventional warfare in the escalating conflict in Vietnam. Shortly after,
Seal teams began operating in the Southeast Asian nation. The SEALs were initially deployed in and around Da Nang,
training the South Vietnamese in combat diving and anti-guerrilla tactics. As the war continued, the SEALs found
themselves positioned in the Mekong Delta where they were required to fulfill riverine operations. SEALs have
operated in every major conflict arena since, including the Persian Gulf, Bosnia, Afghanistan and Iraq, as well as
strategic operations in Grenada and Panama.
B. The French Foreign Legion. Since its establishment in 1831, the Foreign Legion has served in numerous conflicts,
often in defence of the French colonial empire in places such as SE Asia and Africa.The foreign legion is open to
citizens of any nation and political trends are reflected in the unit’s demographic, being as it is largely made up of
political refugees, asylum seekers and economic migrants. During the late 1980s, the foreign legion saw a large intake
of trained soldiers from the UK. These men had left the British Army following its restructuring and the foreign legion's
parachute unit was a popular destination. The foreign legion is famed for its rigorous training programme, during
which there is a focus on team building as a way of dealing with the multicultural nature of its membership. In the
past, the foreign legion was perceived as a refuge for criminals but there has been a shift away from this as conditions
and professionalism have improved.
C. The Brigade of Gurkhas. The Gurkhas are Nepalese fighting units of the British Army, named after a hill region that
stretches from Nepal into India. In the Gurkha War (1814–1816) they fought against the British East India Company
army. The British were so impressed by the Gurkha soldiers that they encouraged them to join the army to help keep
the peace in newly conquered India. Although they serve as a part of the UK armed forces, there are some areas in
which the Gurkhas do things differently. An example is that while in principle any British subject may apply for a
military commission without having served in the ranks, Gurkhas cannot. It is customary for a Gurkha soldier to rise
through the ranks and prove his ability before his regiment considers offering him a commission. Another idiosyncrasy
relates to personal weapons. No proper Gurkha soldier is without his age-old kukri, a curved dagger that all Gurkha
men carry at all times.
D. The Sayeret Matkal. Israel's special forces, the Sayeret Matkal, were formed in 1948 as the Special Reconnaissance
Platoon and now consist of elite commando, counterterrorist, antiterrorist and recon units and form the pre-emptive
first line of defense for the Jewish state. The covert forces have participated in clandestine operations both in Israel
and in enemy territory, including the famed 1976 Raid on Entebbe: the rescue of Israeli hostages held by Palestinian
guerrillas in Uganda. Little is known about them as information on units, commanders and size of the special forces is
classified. In fact, although Sayeret Matkal has its own insignia, it is also one of the few units in the Israeli military
whose soldiers are not allowed to wear it in public due to its secretive nature. Ironically, this lack of insignia often
leads to Sayeret Matkal operators being recognized as such, as the fact that Matkal troopers don't wear insignia is
well-known.
E. The Russian Spetsnaz. The Russian army special forces, the Spetsnaz, are thought to be one of the best special
forces in the world today due to the very harsh standards of their training. Not much is revealed about the operations
the Spetsnaz take part in, but it is known that the units were heavily involved in operations in Afghanistan and
Chechnya. Spetnaz units usually wear standard-issue Russian uniforms so as to avoid identification, although they
sometimes adopt the trappings of local units in order to keep a low profile. One of the most famous items of
equipment used by the Spetsnaz is a small, metal hand shovel which has a flat head with sharpened edges. In the
hands of a trained soldier, it can be used for numerous purposes ranging from hand-to-hand combat to use as a
shield.
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F. The Special Air Service. Special Air Service or SAS is a corps of the British Army constituted on 31 May 1950. They
are part of the United Kingdom Special Forces and have served as a model for the special forces of many other
countries all over the world, including US Delta Force and Australia’s SASR. The SAS was first formed in Libya in the
early 1940s, where they operated behind enemy lines in the North African Campaign, enjoying success in destroying
hundreds of Nazi planes and freeing countless Allied prisoners. After briefly disbanding at the end of World War II, the
SAS reformed at the start of the Korean War and has participated in a number of conflicts around the world, including
ending the siege of the Iranian embassy in London in 1980, an achievement that brought international praise. It is now
most often sent to conflict zones, including in Iraq, Somalia and Afghanistan, to rescue hostages or seize enemies. The
SAS motto, "Who Dares Wins," has even become a part of British popular culture.
In which text are the following mentioned?
1.
2. & 3
4.
A force which has not existed continuously since its inception
A group known to have a particularly challenging training regime
A group that has trained other units in specialist trades
5. & 6
A special consideration made regarding identification and security
7. & 8
A group whose reasons for fighting are often more practical than patriotic
9.
A force which has experience of fighting in inland waterways
10.
A group with a meritocratic system of advancement
11.
A group which has attempted to transform its image
12.
A group who are known to strike first as a form of self-defence
13. & 14.
A group that became better known after a high profile event
15. & 16.
A group established as a direct response to requirements during wartime
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PART 2
Read the following extract from a magazine article. Six paragraphs have been removed from the extract. Choose from
the paragraphs A-G the one which fits each gap (17 - 22). There is one extra paragraph which does not fit in any of the
gaps. Only write the letter of the paragraph in the boxes provided.
Nigerian government must consider how to tackle
an Islamist uprising that may have less to do with
religion than the rebels claim
As the sound of a distant bomb set off by militants
gives way seconds later to the rattle of government
soldiers’ automatic gunfire, Katu Afari listens in the
lobby of the business he owns in Maiduguri, a city in
Nigeria’s turbulent north-east. “Bomb is our daily
bread,” he casually states. “Bomb is our good morning
and good night.” Maiduguri is on the way to seeing a
full-blown guerrilla war and Mr Afari runs one of the
only businesses with a promising future- a hotel for
army officers.
17
All
of these atrocities seem well beyond the
capabilities of a small cult known mainly for its views
on secular education. Boko Haram in local language
means “Western learning is forbidden”. The
sophistication of the violence has led many, especially
in America, to suggest that the group is cooperating
with international terrorist networks such as al-Qaeda
and Somalia’s Shabab. Nigeria’s government, wishing
to reap the financial benefits of being an ally in the
West’s “global war on terror”, has encouraged such
explanations.
18
Goodluck Jonathan, Nigeria’s president, unsurprisingly
contests this claim. He has said that Boko Haram have
infiltrated all branches of the government, including
the army and police. “Some continue to dip their
hands and eat with you, and you won’t even know the
person who will point a gun at you or plant a bomb
behind your house,” he announced at a press
conference in Abuja.
parts of the north, government soldiers are seen by
locals as occupiers. Their high-handed, sometimes
violent behaviour stokes rebellious feelings. A
backlash is already happening in a region whose
inhabitants struggle to deal with a number of
fundamental problems on a daily basis.
20
It was not always so. When the army was in control of
Nigeria, northerners held the majority of positions of
power. But that ended 12 years ago. A sense of
marginalisation has stirred political dissatisfaction
which northern extremists use as a way of gaining
support. But the intelligence services employed to
hunt and destroy them are not successful. While the
government tries to eradicate them through the use of
violence, a better approach would be to quickly attend
to legitimate and longstanding grievances.
21
Yet the Nigerian state has shown it can end an
insurgency if it really wants to. In the recent past,
most political violence in Nigeria was in the Niger delta
in the south. Just as in today’s north, residents
complained of corruption, poverty, inequality and lack
of development. Some delta people backed armed
groups; others benefited from their generosity. In the
first nine months of 2008, more than 1,000 people
were killed in the unrest and nearly 300 taken
hostage. Over the years, the cost to Nigeria through
pipeline sabotage and oil theft was estimated at nearly
$24 billion.
22
19
Some fear that such severe measures may make a bad
situation even worse. Already deployed in
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A
Religious and political leaders in the mainly Muslim
north, however, see things differently. To them, the
internationally connected Islamist fringe group
described by officials is largely an imaginary foe. They
say there are some genuine religious fanatics in the
north but suggest Boko Haram is dominated by
criminals and disgruntled politicians. “Boko Haram has
become a mafia franchise that anyone can buy into.”
says Kashim Shettima, the governor of Borno State,
home of the group.
B
However, a deal in 2009 that included an amnesty
brought relative peace to the region. Militants were
offered a pardon and cash. Thousands accepted the
deal. Official figures show that 15,000 former militants
have had vocational training or a state funded formal
education. The increased peace of the Delta region
has certainly not come cheaply. Repentant militants
each got $393 a month in cash plus food allowances
during rehabilitation. Some say Boko Haram’s real aim
is not an Islamist state but a slice of the amnesty cake.
C
The president, a Christian who is unpopular in the
Muslim north, is following the advice of his top
security men who are baying for blood. At their
suggestion, he has put much of the north under a
state of emergency. He is preparing to give the armed
forces and police total freedom to run large-scale antiterrorist operations and is set to spend an
unbelievable 22% of the federal budget on security
this year alone.
D
Sadly, so far the opposite has been happening. The
government’s decision to cut fuel subsidies from
January 1st, however much economic sense it might
make has further heightened the sense of disaffection
in the north and widened the gap further. This has led
to a series of nationwide strikes while tension and
lawlessness have risen dramatically.
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E
F
G
The most urgent of these is the need for economic
development. Whereas the oil-rich south is
experiencing unprecedented increases in the
standard of living, most northerners live below the
poverty line on less than $200 a year. There is a
belief that government programmes neglect the
region in favour of the Christian south. The country’s
80m Muslims blame a loss of political influence.
Nigeria's homeland security services are divided into
two separate entities under the Office of the Coordinator of National Security. They are known as
the State Security Service (SSS), which is responsible
for domestic intelligence, and the Defence
Intelligence Agency (DIA), dealing with military
intelligence. Both are heavily involved in the fight
against the Northern insurgency.
The government is sending thousands of such troops
to Nigeria’s north to fight Islamist militants said to
have emerged from a small cult in the past ten years.
Known as Boko Haram, it takes the blame for most
acts of violence now occurring in the country. After
attacks on banks and prisons in 2010, the militants
are said to have intensified their campaign,
murdering politicians in the run-up to elections in
April last year. They are also thought to have planted
bombs that went off at the national police
headquarters and at the offices of the UN in the
capital, as well as murdering worshippers at
Christmas church services.
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PART 3
You are now going to read three articles on the subject of energy and the environment.
For questions 23 - 28, choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) which you think fits best according to the text.
China's move to energy efficient bulbs offers glimmer of hope
A commitment by China to limit the use of wasteful incandescent light bulbs has been welcomed by environmental groups.
However, It is unclear whether China will totally phase out production of incandescents. A report from state news agency Xinhua
said that "imports and sales" would be banned – implying that exports would still be allowed.
While switching to compact fluorescent bulbs, which are 75% more efficient than incandescent, has become unremarkable in
some developed nations, China's move is significant. Almost 20% of global electricity is used for lighting and the pollution it
causes is equivalent to half of all the cars on the world's roads.
It’s also true that with China producing billions of efficient bulbs, retail costs will fall further. That means it will be possible to cut
carbon emissions from lighting around the world without denying the most basic of amenities to the world's poor.
Energy efficient lighting is one of the more visible ways that increased energy efficiency can be achieved. However, although it is
an affordable way of dealing with climate change – often paying for itself in months – such low key efficiency measures are too
often put in the shade by bigger, more exciting energy technologies.
For questions 23 and 24, choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) which you think fits best according to the text.
23. China’s adoption of greener light bulbs will…
A.
B.
C.
D.
…reduce global demand for incandescent bulbs.
…increase the availability of bulbs for export.
…make energy efficient lighting more widely available.
…lead to a reduction in environmental investment.
Answer
24. The writer believes that the use of fluorescent light bulbs is...
A.
B.
C.
D.
...a luxury not affordable in developing countries.
...limited as a result of greater interest in other solutions.
...a good investment opportunity for China.
...unlikely to become widespread in the near future.
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Could an artificial volcano cool the planet by dimming the sun?
Dimming the sun by creating an artificial volcano is a feasible and potentially cost-effective option to reduce temperatures on Earth,
the first major study of the practicality of planetary-scale solar radiation management (SRM) concludes.
The authors, Ikarus Sciences, have considered the challenge of lifting and releasing 5m tonnes a year of sulphur dioxide to altitudes
approaching 30,000 metres. This would create sulphate particles in the thin air and provide a partial shade from the sun, potentially
reducing temperatures 1-2C. But no attempt is made to quantify the potential benefits or the risks involved in the likely disruption of
weather patterns on earth.
The study supports the views of scientists who argue that more experiments should be done into geoengineering to prepare a "plan
B" if politicians and industry fail to find a way to reduce emissions in climate talks. "The primary conclusion to draw from this
feasibility and cost study is that geoengineering is feasible from an engineering standpoint and costs are comparable to quantities
spent regularly on large engineering projects or aerospace operations.
The easiest way to launch sulphur dioxide into the upper atmosphere would be via batteries of 16-inch naval guns. But to lift so much
sulphur might need 70m gun shots a year would require an astronomical investment. By far the most effective way to lift the sulphur
would be to adapt Boeing 747 aircraft. About 14 of these planes working from bases on the equator might cost a reasonable $8bn a
year.
For questions 25 and 26, choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) which you think fits best according to the text.
25. Using naval guns to launch sulphur into the atmosphere would be...
A.
B.
C.
D.
…unaffordable.
…impractical.
…dangerous.
…unsustainable.
Answer
26. The authors of the report believe that …
A.
B.
C.
D.
… their plan is the only solution to the problem.
… their plan is the most economically realistic one.
… there are probable risks as well as benefits to the plan.
… the plan represents challenge to current scientific belief.
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Electric cars step up a gear in 2012
Sales of electric vehicles were in 2011 predictably slow for models that were significantly more expensive than their petrol
equivalents. Even government grants for those purchasing electric vehicles (EVs) failed to help. Only 1,052 claims were made during
2011, making little progress towards reaching the 1.7m electric cars the government aims to see by 2020.
This year’s new models may improve the situation. They now address the factor that is the biggest barrier to EV take-up: range
anxiety. A new generation of plug-in hybrids will allow you drive in the city using all-electric mode, but then switch to a petrol engine
for longer journeys.
Prices are still high compared with most family cars: Toyota's plug-in Prius will retail at about €26,000. But drivers can expect lower
running costs, bringing the tipping point for EV adoption closer.
The supporting infrastructure is also expanding rapidly. Many European cities have charge points now, a significant number of these
being fast-charge points, capable of more than halving the standard eight-hour refueling time for electric cars. Yet more barriers to
take-up will be hurdled.
The danger is that, with austerity measures biting, the state grants could be vulnerable. But considering how much electric cars have
improved in just one year – not to mention their vast potential for reducing transport emissions – removing support now would be a
mistake.
For questions 27 and 28, choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) which you think fits best according to the text.
27. Governments are encouraging people to buy electric vehicles by…
A.
B.
C.
D.
… offering cheaper refuelling options.
… trying to improve the efficiency of EVs.
... partly subsidising the purchase of EVs.
… explaining the benefits of driving an EV.
Answer
28. A major reason for the low numbers of EVs is…
A.
B.
C.
D.
… fear that the technology is not yet practical.
… a belief that the cost of fuelling an EV is not economical.
… the availability of better alternative vehicles.
… a belief that the technology is not safe.
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Part 4
True/ False or Not Given

Part 4 is made up of one long text.

You must answer questions with either true (T), false (F) or not given(NG).

If the fact you are given is clearly in the reading it is True

If the reading says the opposite of the fact you've been given it is False

If it is not true or false, it is Not Given
Strategies

The questions are always in the same order as the passage

The questions will contain some clues about where to look but may not use exactly the same
words as the text. The questions will probably use synonyms.

Do not spend a long time looking for the answer to one question. It is probably NG if you cannot
find it.

Only use the information in the passage to lead you to the correct answer; do not bring your
own understanding or your opinion into the decision on what the answer should be.
Sample Task
Community Education
SHORT COURSES: BUSINESS
Business Basics
Gain foundation knowledge for employment in an accounts position with bookkeeping and business basics through
to intermediate level; suitable for anyone requiring knowledge from the ground up.
Code B/ED011
th
th
16 or 24 April 9am–4pm Cost $420
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Bookkeeping
This course will provide students with a comprehensive understanding of bookkeeping and a great deal of hands-on
experience.
Code B/ED020
th
19 April 9am–2.30pm (one session only so advance bookings essential) Cost $250
New Enterprise Module
Understand company structures, tax rates, deductions, employer obligations, profit and loss statements, GST and
budgeting for tax.
Code B/ED030
th
th
15 or 27 May 6pm–9pm Cost $105
Social Networking – the Latest Marketing Tool
This broad overview gives you the opportunity to analyse what web technologies are available and how they
can benefit your organisation.
Code B/ED033
st
th
th
1 or 8 or 15 June 6pm–9pm Cost $95
Communication
Take the fear out of talking to large gatherings of people. Gain the public-speaking experience that will
empower you with better communication skills and confidence. Code B/ED401
th
th
th
12 or 13 or 14 July 6pm–9pm
Cost $90
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Questions 1–6
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write a cross (X) in the box:
T – TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
F - FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NG - NOT GIVE if there is no information on this
1
Business Basics is appropriate for beginners.
2
Bookkeeping has no practical component.
3
Bookkeeping is intended for advanced students only.
4
The New Enterprise Module can help your business become more profitable.
5
Social Networking focuses on a specific website to help your business succeed.
6
The Communication class involves speaking in front of an audience.
Question
T
F
NG
1
2
3
4
5
6
Answers to part 4= 1)T, 2)F, 3)NG, 4)NG, 5)F, 6)T.
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Answer Sheet Parts 1, 2 & 3
Part 1
Question
A
B
C
Part 2
D
E
F
Question
1
17
2 & 3*
18
4
19
5 & 6*
20
7 & 8*
21
9
22
A
B
C
D
E
F
Part 3
10
11
23
12
24
13 & 14*
25
15 & 16*
26
27
28
© Swedish National Defence College 2014
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G
3.1 Writing Test Overview
The test contains 2 tasks and you have 90 minutes to complete both (45 minutes for each task). The
tasks carry equal weighting. You are required to complete two questions – a compulsory one in Part
1, and one from a choice of three in Part 2.
Part 1
You will write routine military written communication e.g. routine email or letter.
You are required to base your answer on input material which will take the form of a short text or
texts. The texts are adapted from, or modelled on, a variety of sources such as extracts from
newspaper articles, magazines, books, letters or advertisements. Visual material such as diagrams,
simple graphs or pictures may be used also as part of the elicitation. As the task focus is on
productive language, the input is always well within the reading competence of test takers.
Part 2
Part 2 consists of three optional essay questions and you must choose one of them. The input for the
questions in Part 2 is considerably shorter than in Part 1, and will not be more than 80 words in
length. The wording of each question will define the purpose for writing, identify the target reader
and therefore, indicate the appropriate format and style required in the answer.
3.1.
Practice Test
PART 1
You are the second-in-command of your unit during a period of change for the armed
forces.
Identify an area of your service or branch which you feel should be improved. This could
be anything but some examples are provided here for you:





Working hours.
Working conditions.
An item of clothing.
A piece of equipment.
A procedure.
Write a submission to your commanding officer explaining the background to the problem
and your argumentation and recommendation.
Include the following information:



The problem and why it is a problem.
How it could be improved.
Your recommendation with a justification.
Write 300-350 words.
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PART 2
Select only one option.
Option 1
It is believed that cyber-attacks will become increasingly common and adopted by state-sponsored groups
against government and military organizations, as well as targets in national infrastructure, such as
communications, energy, finance and transport, which are often not state owned.
In what way are nations vulnerable to cyber-attack?
Write an essay, explaining your choices and outlining ways in which countries can prepare to defend
themselves from such threats.
Write 300 - 350 words
Option 2
Armed forces across the European Union face recruitment difficulties. Social changes including a more mobile
workforce, availability of further education and young people’s changing professional expectations are likely to
have contributed to these difficulties.
What can EU Armed Forces do to attract young recruits?
Write an essay, explaining your views and outlining the approach that should be adopted to deal with these
challenges.
Write 300- 350 words
Option 3
Many EU nations are reducing their defence spending and looking towards co-operating in a European Defence
Force. The Swedish Armed Forces’ recent reorganisation into an operational defence force could be seen as
following this trend.
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of multinational defence forces.
Write an essay, explaining your views and outlining the possible ways in which the Swedish Armed Forces
could contribute positively to such a force.
Write 300- 350 words
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4.1.
Listening Test Overview
Item Type
Multiple choice
Format
Part 1 consists of a text with interacting speakers discussing an issue. It
aims to test the test takers’ ability to listen to interactive exchanges,
extract key information and embed that information into an alternative
format and reformulate it further to a third party
No. of questions
6
Part 2
Item Type
Summarising and reformulating
Format
Part 2 consists of either a monologue or a text with interacting speakers
and requires the test-taker to listen to key information, summarise what
they have heard and reformulate it.
No. of questions
6
Part 3
Item Type
Sentence completion
Format
Part 3 consists of a self-contained informative monologue, in this case a
short lecture. Test takers are required to accurately complete and
contextualise relevant information by writing the correct word or figure
into a gap in a complete text or sentence.
No. of questions
8
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4.2.
Practice Listening Test
Part 1
You will hear an extract from Hardtalk, a BBC talk show, with Egemen Bagis, Turkey’s Minister for European
Affairs. For questions 1 to 6, choose the answer a, b, c or d which fits best according to what you hear. Before
you listen take 45 seconds to read through the text. You will hear the recording twice and will be given one
minute at the end to check your answers.
1.
According to the Bagis, Turkey’s Middle Eastern neighbours perceive Turkey as...
a.
b.
c.
d.
2.
According to Bagis Prime Minister Erdogan …
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
is not clear
is mixed.
has had an effect.
has had no effect.
Bagis claims that the prolongation of the conflict in Syria is a consequence of the fact that...
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
to further democratic reforms.
that it will attack their country.
to call elections.
to resign.
The interviewer implies that Turkey’s message to Syria…
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.
has brought increased democracy to Turkey.
has been re-elected with an increasing majority at the last election.
has made everyone in Turkey four times wealthier.
has always been open to change.
The interviewer says that Turkey has told the Syrian Government...
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
an example of a country with the same geography which benefits from regional relations.
an example of a country with a great prime minister.
an example of a country with the same culture which benefits from democracy.
an example of a country which has great transparency.
the international community is not united.
the Syrian president is stopping the international community from taking action.
members of the security council approve of Syria’s action.
the permanent members of the security council are looking the other way.
Turkey according to Bagis is prepared to...
a. take unilateral action against Syria to stop the violence.
b. act alone to stop the violence in Syria.
c. create general agreement within the international community to stop the violence in Syria.
d. build a multinational force to stop the violence in Syria.
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Part 2
Listen to the recording in which Prof. John Keegan talks about modern warfare. Complete the summary with an
appropriate word or phrase (not more than 3 words). Your answer should be correct grammatically. Before
you listen take 45 seconds to read through the text. You will hear the recording twice and will be given one
minute at the end to check your answers.
War is increasingly conducted on a non-state basis or between (7) _________, rather than by wealthy nations.
This situation would be less likely, or at least a smaller problem, if not for the wide availability of (8)
____________. Historically, military power has always belonged to those few nations who could afford it.
These days, (9) ___________ weapons are not always the most useful. For example, fighter jets are of use only
if (10) _____________ is required, which is rare. In fact, millions more deaths can be attributed to the
proliferation of (11) _____________. These are deadly because of their high rate of fire, as well as the fact that
they are easy to use, thus requiring little (12) ___________. Keegan argues that a key objective must be to try
and limit their (13) _____________ and production. The responsibility for this ought to be held by
governments, rather than private companies, as weapons are almost always distributed for (14) ____________
reasons.
Part 3
Spring 2012 marks the end of the United States’ Space Shuttle Programme. The curators of the National Air and
Space Museum in Washington, Roger Lorneus and Margaret White, talk to a journalist about the past and
future of reusable spacecraft in the United States.
Complete the statements, as far as possible using your own words. Before you listen take 45 seconds to read
through the text. You will hear the recording twice and will be given one minute at the end to check your
answers.
15. As a result of the shuttle, space flight is now viewed as being…
16. Roger predicts that a key future a challenge may be…
17. Margaret implies that the public may be disappointed by the current space programme because…
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18. Margaret believes NASA’s involvement in space must be supplemented by…
19. The interviewer suggests that a difference between commercial space travel and NASA’s past is…
20. Margaret hopes that in future it may be possible for…
Answers
Part 1- 1, c 2, b 3, d 4,d 5, a 6,c
Part 2
War is increasingly conducted on a non-state basis or between (7) poor states, rather than by wealthy nations.
This situation would be less likely, or at least a smaller problem, if not for the wide availability of (8) cheap
weapons. Historically, military power has always belonged to those few nations who could afford it. These
days, (9) expensive weapons are not always the most useful. For example, fighter jets are of use only if (10) air
superiority is required, which is rare. In fact, millions more deaths can be attributed to the proliferation of (11)
cheap assault rifles. These are deadly because of their high rate of fire, as well as the fact that they are easy to
use, thus requiring little (12) training. Keegan argues that a key objective must be to try and limit their (13)
availability and production. The responsibility for this ought to be held by governments, rather than private
companies, as weapons are almost always distributed for (14) political reasons.
Part 3
15. As a result of the shuttle, space flight is now viewed as being… routine/ normal
16. Roger predicts that a key future a challenge may be… travelling outside earth’s orbit
17. Margaret implies that the public may be disappointed by the current space programme because… they are
used to rapid development in the last century
18. Margaret believes NASA’s involvement in space must be supplemented by… commercial flights/
involvement of private industry
19. The interviewer suggests that a difference between commercial space travel and NASA’s past is…that it is
less romantic/ ambitious
20. Margaret hopes that in future it may be possible for… ordinary families to travel in space
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5. Speaking Test Overview
What is tested in the speaking test?
The STANAG Speaking test aims to assess the test taker’s ability to produce spoken language for both
professional and general purposes using appropriate tone and register at the range of targeted
levels. The speaking test is therefore designed to assess samples of these abilities through speaking
tasks that reflect both professional and social modes of speaking.
The structure of the speaking test
The test is divided into four parts and takes between 28 and 36 minutes. Test takers are tested in
pairs. There are two examiners, one acting as the interlocutor and the second as the assessor.
Part
Type of Interaction
Length
Part 1
Introductions
and Interview
The interlocutor interviews the test takers.
5-7 mins
Part 2
Communicative
Discussion
Part 3
Individual
Presentation
The test takers participate in a discussion on a given topic and
must state and defend their point of view.
10-14 mins
The interlocutor gives each test taker a set topic to present on
for two minutes, allowing one minute for preparation. Test
takers must listen to each other’s presentations and be
prepared to ask follow-up questions.
8-10 mins
Part 4
Developmental
Discussion
The interlocutor engages the test takers in a more detailed
discussion which is thematically linked to part 3.
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Speaking is assessed under four key criteria:
Fluency and Coherence – the ability to respond relevantly and appropriately and to discuss themes
at length
Grammatical accuracy and vocabulary resource – the range and accuracy of vocabulary and
grammar used by the test taker, and its appropriateness to contexts
Interactive Skills – the ability to interact in a socially appropriate manner, reflecting the social and
cultural practices of English speaking cultures
Pronunciation – the extent to which test takers produce language and can be understood. At higher
levels, the extent to which they use effective pronunciation to produce meaning
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