FORENSICS
PRACTICE FINAL EXAM
NAME__________________
6/4/14
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
Enter your response on the scantron at the appropriate number
1. The most common storage device for the personal computer is the:
a. hard disk drive (HDD) b. flash drive c. floppy disk
d. CD
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Computer forensics involves all of the following stated activities except:
manipulation of computer data
extraction of computer data.
preservation of computer data
interpretation of computer data
3. A set of instructions compiled into a program that performs a particular task is
known as:
a. mothrboard b. software c. hardware d. CPU
4. The volatile memory of the computer is known as:
a. RAM b. ROM c. BIOSIS d. CPU
5. The smallest addressable unit of data by a HDD generally consists of:
a. 512 bytes b. 8 bits c. 64K d. 528 MB
6. The most popular software forensic tools include all of the following except:
a. Quicken b. SMART c. Forensic Toolkit d. Forensic Autopsy
7. Areas of files and disks that are not apparent to the user, and sometimes not even to
the operating system, is termed
a. exceptional data b. missing data c. latent data d. hidden data
8. The average elimination or “burn-off” rate of alcohol is approximately:
a 0.05 percent w/v per hour
b. 0.5 percent w/v per hour
c. 0.015 percent w/v per hour
d. 0.15 percent w/v per hour
9. The ratio of alcohol in the blood to alcohol in alveoli air is approximately:
a. 1:2100 b. 1500:1 c. 1:1500 d. 2100:1
10. An average red blood cell contains about ______ molecules of hemoglobin
a. 280 million b. 740 thousand c. 13 trillion d. 75 billion
11.
In a healthy middle-aged individual, a carbon monoxide blood saturation
greater than ______ is considered fatal.
a. 10-20% b. 30-40% c. 5% d. 50-60%
12. This color reagent test is for cocaine where a powder containing cocaine will turn
Solution A blue and upon addition of Solution B, the blue color is transformed to a
clear pink color.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Van Urk Test
Dillie-Koppanyi Test
Scott Test
Duquenois-Levine Test
13. The luminol test is capable of detecting bloodstains diluted up to:
a. 3000 times b. 300,000 times c. 300 times
d. 30,000 times
14. The direction of travel of blood striking an object can be ascertained by the stain’s
shape, noting that:
a.
b.
c.
d.
the pointed end of a bloodstain always faces away from its direction of travel
a round bloodstain means that there was high velocity by the striking object.
the rounded end of a bloodstain always faces its direction of travel
the pointed end of a bloodstain always faces its direction of travel
15. The determination of whether or not a substance is blood is best made by means of a
preliminary color test such as the Kastle-Meyer color test, which uses the chemical:
a. precipitin b. phenolphthalein c. benzidine d. p30
16. To test whether or not a blood sample is of human or animal origin, the standard
test that is used is:
a. Kastle-Meyer b. precipitin c. p30
d. radioimmunoassay
17. The criminalist must be prepared to answer the question when examining dried
blood:
a. Is it blood?
b. How closely can human blood be associated with a single individual?
c. From what species did the blood originate?
d. All of the others
18. Forensic analysts using currently accepted DNA protocols can reach sensitivity
levels as low as:
a. 125 picograms b. 350 milligrams c. 7 picograms d. 9 nanograms
19. The forensic science community has standardized ______ STRs for entry into a
national database known as the Combined DNA Index System.
a. 13 b. 64 c. 26 d. 128
20. mtDNA analysis is best suited for:
a. samples for which nuclear DNA typing is not possible
b. analyses for which only a minute quantity of DNA is available
c. samples for which the father’s or grandfather’s DNA is readily available
d. samples for which the nearest maternal relative’s DNA is not available
21. The average fingerprint has approximately how many individual ridge
characteristics?
a. 75
b. 150
c. 300
d. 225
22. The International Association for Identification concluded that the minimum
number of friction ridge characteristics which must be present in two impressions in
order to establish positive identification is:
a. 10
b. 6
c. 8
d. there is no minimum
23. Whorls are divided into how many distinct groups?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 3
d. 4
24. What is the basis for the determination of the primary classification of fingerprints?
a. whorls
b. arches
c. minutae d. loops
25. For most fingerprint examiners, the chemical method of choice for visualizing latent
prints is:
a. iodine
b. ninhydrin
c. silver nitrate d. luminol
26. What was the original fingerprinting system adopted by Scotland Yard in 1901 which
converted ridge patterns on all 10 fingers into a series of letters and numbers arranged in
the form of a fraction?
a. Bertillon
b. Henry
c. Galton
d. Lee
27. Attempts at changing one’s fingerprints by trying to obscure them has led to:
a. the possibility of permanent scarring which only provides new characteristics for
identification purpose since it is impossible to obliterate all ridge characteristics.
b. the creation of a new class of criminal who can avoid detection through currently
available fingerprinting technology
c. self-injurious behavior that only results in the growth of new ridge characteristics
on the fingertips
d. renewed efforts on the part of law enforcement to categorize the obliterated
fingerprints.
28. The oldest chemical method used to visualize latent prints is:
a. laser illumination
b. UV illumination c. IR illumination d. iodine fuming
29. A technique for visualizing latent fingerprints on non-porous surfaces by exposing them
to cyanoacrylic vapors is:
a. superglue b. fluorescence
c. iodine fuming
d. ninhydrin
30. A famous criminal that attempted to change his fingerprints with acid was
a. John Dillinger
b. Baby Face Nelson
c. Jack the Ripper
d. Ted Bundy
31. Tool marks are most often encountered at which type of crime scene?
a. homcide
b. sexual assault
c. burglary
d. arson
32. What is the primary consideration in collecting impressions at a crime scene?
a.
b.
c.
d.
its admissibility in a courtroom
the obliteration of the impressions based on weather conditions
the preservation of the impression or its reproduction for later use
maintaining the chain of evidence
33. The best way to preserve shoe and tire marks that have been impressed into soft earth
is:
a. using a high-voltage electrode
b. photography and casting
c. rough sketch and finished sketch
d. with an electrostatic lifting device.
34. In the examination of tool mark impressions, individuality of a tool can be ascertained
by:
a. patterns of striations created by the manufacturer to trademark the tool.
b. patterns of hills and valleys as minute imperfections
c.patterns of grooves and lands resulting from the machining process.
d. patterns of stains from oil and other maintenance activities.
35. Critical to the examination of questioned documents is:
a. the gathering of documents of known authorship
b. the preservation of the questioned document in its original form.
c. the knowledge and understanding on the part of the document examiner of the
current scientific formula to apply to the examination
d. the recognition that only handwritten or typewritten documents are suitable for
examination
36.What characteristic will a blood droplet deposited at an angle of impact of about 90
degrees (i.e., directly vertical to the surface) exhibit?
a. Acute elongation
b. A tail showing the directionality
c. Elliptical in shape
d. Approximately circular in shape
37. The intersection of straight lines through the long axis of several individual bloodstains
in an impact spatter pattern illustrates the pattern’s what?
a. Area of origin
b. Void pattern
c. Area of convergence
d. Velocity classification
38. At the crime scene, the string method is used to find out what about the impact spatter
pattern?
a. Area of origin
b. Void pattern
c. Area of convergence
d. Velocity classification
39. The removal of an object or surface that was located between the origin of blood and
the target surface during the bloodstain deposition leaves what behind?
a. Expirated blood
b. A void
c. Blowback spatter
d. An unidentifiable pattern
40. Widely spaced bloody shoe prints with satellite spatter between the shoe prints were
likely deposited by an individual who was doing what?
a. Standing in place
b. Walking slowly
c. Running
d. Carrying a bloody weapon
41. The approximate drying time of a pool of blood can be used to estimate timing of
events at a crime scene and varies according to what?
a. Clotting ability of the blood
b. Blood type of the blood
c. Environmental conditions at the scene
d. Method of deposition
42. A trail pattern leading away from the victim at a stabbing scene was most likely
created by what?
a. A victim’s arterial wound
b. Blood dripping from the murder weapon
c. Postmortem movement of the victim
d. Blood expelled from a respiratory injury
43. Rough surfaces usually result in stains with what type of spatter?
a. Forward
b. Back
c. Blow-back
d. Satellite
44. Setting up squares of known dimension over the entire pattern describes what method
of documentation?
a. String
b. Stake
c. Grid
d. Perimeter ruler
45. Generally, bloodstain diameter _____ as height increases.
a. Decreases
b. Remains unchanged
c. Increases
d. Increases lengthwise, decreases widthwise
46. What information can an investigator gain from locating of the area of origin of a
bloodstain pattern?
a. Position of weapons at a crime scene
b. Position of person from which pattern originated
c. Type of force used
d. Identity of the suspect
47. What should one surmise if a blood flow found on an object or body does not appear
consistent with the direction of gravity?
a. The object or body was within 5 feet of the blood source.
b. The object or body was moved after the blood had dried.
c. The object or body was not moved.
d. The object or body was at a lower temperature than the blood.
48. DNA is which of the following?
a. A protein
b. A starch
c. A polymer
d. An enzyme
49. Type AB blood contains which of the following?
a. Anti-A antibodies and B antigens
b. Anti-A antigens and anti-B antibodies
c. Both A and B antigens
d. Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
.50.Which nitrogenous base is not found in DNA?
a. Thymine
b. Cytosine
c. Uracil
d. Adenine
51. Which of the following depicts correct base-pairing in DNA?
a. A-U
b. G-A
c. T-A
d. C-T
52. What does the PCR technique do?
a. Provides a statistical analysis of the nitrogenous-base pairings
b. Can produce many exact copies of segments of DNA
c. Produces information regarding the sequence of nitrogenous bases
d. Virtually eliminates operator error from DNA analysis
53. The PCR technique requires the use of a thermal cycler to do what?
a. Synthesize protein
b. Copy DNA
c. Make probes radioactive
d. Hydrolyze polymerase
. 54. In the PCR process, the first step is to heat the DNA strands. This is to permit what?
a. DNA to coil very tightly in the helical shape
b. The process to take place without DNA degradation
c. Hybridization to take place
d. Double-stranded molecules to separate completely
55. The amplification of DNA using the thermal cycler takes approximately how long?
a. 30 cycles
b. 4 cycles
c. 2 hours
d. 2 minutes
56. Which is an advantage of working with short DNA fragments?
a. They are more stable and less likely to break apart.
b. Their quantity can be greatly amplified by PCR technology.
c. They are less subject to degradation due to adverse environmental conditions.
d. All of the above
57. Few forensic labs do analysis of mtDNA because:
a. Little mtDNA is present in a cell.
b. The analysis procedure is very rigorous.
c. It costs much more than nuclear DNA profiling.
d. Such study takes a short time
. 58. CODIS is a national system of what?
a. Computers that track the movement of sex offenders released from prison
b. Shared databases of DNA-typing information from convicted felons and crimescene evidence
c. Vastly enhanced 911 emergency systems
d. Crime laboratory directors
59. A DNA sample is normally said to have a low copy number when it contains fewer than
_____ DNA-bearing cells.
a. 18
b. 36
c. 180
d. 800
60. An individual who is “type O” has what type of antibodies?
a. O antibodies
b. A antibodies
c. B antibodies
d. Neither A nor B antibodies
61. Where are antibodies found?
a. In the red blood cells
b. In the white blood cells
c. In the solid portion of blood
d. In the blood serum
62. If blood is found to have both A and B antigens, what type is it?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
63. Assume that two strands of DNA have been separated and that the base sequence on
one strand is ATGC. State the sequence of bases on the second strand.
a. GCAT
b. ACTC
c. TGGC
d. TACG
64. The clumping together of red blood cells by the action of an antibody is known as what?
a. Radioimmunology
b. Clotting
c. Agglutination
d. Serology
65. A precipitin test can be used to identify which of the following?
a. Human blood
b. Dog blood
c. Cat blood
d. All of the above
66. The individuality of an organism is determined by the organism’s what?
a. DNA nucleotide sequence
b. Nitrogenous bases
c. Amino acids
d. Environment
67. How should blood-containing clothes from a victim be packaged?
a. In an airtight metal container
b. In an airtight clear plastic container
c. In a metal paint can
d. In breathable paper after the blood has dried