Evolution Test Bank - Marblehead High School

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CP1 B IOLOGY

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REVIEW FOR THE E XAM ON EVOLUTION

Test Dates: _________________

You should be able to:

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Explain what the article states about Darwin’s Theory of Evolution

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Define all the vocabulary words and explain how they relate to the article or pages 398-410 in your biology book

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Answer the article comprehension questions

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Answer the Evolution Part 2 Main Questions

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Answer the review questions below.

Resources to Use while studying (besides this very helpful handout):

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Your Evolution Topic Sheets Part 1 and 2

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The National Geographic article entitled “Was Darwin Wrong?” by D. Quammen

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The packet corresponding to the above article

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The Evolution Vocabulary Matching quiz

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Pages 398-410 in your book

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Chapters 15-16 on Evolution in your textbook can be used to supplement the

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Darwin article

Test Set-up: This exam contain two parts. Part I will be a multiple choice , completion and matching section. Part II will contain short answer questions and essays. Make sure to outline your answers while studying.

Part I:

Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Darwin began to formulate his concept of evolution by natural selection after a. experimentation with animals. b. observations of many species and their geographical locations. c. reading the writings of Wallace. d. agreeing with Lamarck about the driving force behind evolution.

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____ 2. Lamarck proposed that organisms a. have an innate tendency toward complexity and perfection. b. have an innate tendency to become more simple as time passes. c. inherit all of the adaptations they display. d. belong to species that never change.

____ 3. Lamarck’s theory of evolution includes the concept that new organs in a species appear as a result of a. continual increases in population size. b. the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures. c. an unchanging local environment. d. the natural variations already present within the population of organisms.

____ 4. The idea that only famine, disease, and war could prevent the endless growth of human populations was presented by a. Darwin. b. Lamarck. c. Malthus. d. Lyell.

____ 5. When Darwin returned from the voyage of the Beagle, he a. immediately published his ideas about evolution. b. realized his ideas about evolution were wrong. c. wrote about his ideas but waited many years to publish them. d. copied the evolutionary theory of Wallace.

____ 6. When lions prey on a herd of antelope, some antelope are killed and some escape. Which part of Darwin’s concept of natural selection might be used to describe this situation? a. acquired characteristics b. reproductive isolation c. survival of the fittest d. descent with modification

____ 7. According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have a. characteristics their parents acquired by use and disuse. b. characteristics that plant and animal breeders value. c. the greatest number of offspring. d. variations best suited to the environment.

____ 8. Darwin’s concept of evolution was NOT influenced by a. the work of Lyell. b. knowledge of the structure of DNA. c. his collection of specimens. d. his trip on the H.M.S. Beagle.

____ 9. The number and location of bones of many fossil vertebrates are similar to those in living vertebrates. Most biologists would probably explain this fact on the basis of a. the needs of the organisms. b. a common ancestor. c. the struggle for existence. d. the inheritance of acquired traits.

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____ 10. Darwin viewed the fossil record as a. evidence that Earth was thousands of years old. b. a record of evolution. c. interesting but unrelated to the evolution of modern species. d. evidence that traits are acquired through use or disuse.

____ 11. Which concept is NOT included in the modern theory of evolution? a. descent with modification b. natural selection c. transmission of acquired characteristics d. competition among the members of a population

____ 12. During the voyage on the Beagle, Charles Darwin made many observations a. in England. c. on the Galápagos Islands. b. in North America. d. in Asia.

____ 13. In 1859, Darwin published his revolutionary scientific ideas in a work entitled a. Principles of Geology. b. Essay on the Principle of Population. c. Evolution in Malaysia. d. On the Origin of Species.

____ 14. Darwin was prompted to publish his theory of evolution by a. an essay by Wallace on evolution. b. the publication of Lamarck’s theory of evolution. c. the captain of the Beagle. d. the work of Hutton and Lyell.

____ 15. When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is a. natural selection. c. artificial variation. b. artificial selection. d. survival of the fittest.

____ 16. An adaptation is an inherited characteristic that can be a. physical or behavioral. b. physical or geographical. c. acquired during the organism’s lifetime. d. the result of artificial selection.

____ 17. Darwin called the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its environment a. diversity. c. adaptation. b. fitness. d. evolution.

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____ 18. In humans, the pelvis and the femur, or thighbone, are involved in walking. In whales, the pelvis and femur shown in

Figure 15–2 a. examples of fossils. b. vestigial structures. c. acquired traits. d. examples of natural variation.

____ 19. The economist Thomas Malthus suggested that a. people die faster than babies are born. b. there would soon be insufficient food for the growing human population. c. in the 1700s, England needed more housing. d. the majority of a species’ offspring die.

____ 20. Darwin’s theory of evolution suggests that a. species change over time. b. extinct species are not related to living species. c. different species can interbreed. d. animals that look alike are the most closely related.

____ 21. Which statement is in agreement with Darwin’s theory of evolution? a. More offspring are produced than can possibly survive. b. The organisms that are the fittest are always the largest and strongest. c. The number of offspring is not related to fitness. d. Acquired characteristics that are inherited are the cause of evolution.

____ 22. Which of the following statements describes what all members of a population share? a. They are temporally isolated from one another. b. They are geographically isolated from one another. c. They are members of the same species. d. They have identical genes.

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____ 22. Which statement about gene pools is typically true? a. They contain two or more alleles for each gene. b. They contain only dominant alleles. c. They belong to two or more interbreeding species. d. The relative frequencies of the alleles never change.

____ 23. If an allele makes up one fourth of a population’s alleles for a given trait, its relative frequency is a. 100 percent. b. 75 percent. c. 25 percent. d. 4 percent.

____ 24. In many kinds of organisms, most heritable differences are due to a. mutations during gamete formation. b. chemicals in the environment. c. gene shuffling during gamete formation. d. the effects of radiation.

____ 25. A single-gene trait that has two alleles and that shows a simple dominant-recessive pattern will result in a. one phenotype. b. two phenotypes. c. four phenotypes. d. millions of phenotypes.

____ 27. When individuals at only one end of a bell-shaped curve of phenotype frequencies have high fitness, the result is a. directional selection. b. stabilizing selection. c. disruptive selection. d. genetic drift.

____ 28. When individuals with an average form of a trait have the highest fitness, the result is a. not predictable. c. directional selection. b. disruptive selection. d. stabilizing selection.

____ 29. Genetic drift tends to occur in populations that a. are very large. b. are small. c. are formed from new species. d. have unchanging allele frequencies.

____ 30. The type of genetic drift that follows the colonization of a new habitat by a small group of individuals is called a. the Hardy-Weinberg principle. b. the founder effect. c. directional selection. d. stabilizing selection.

____ 31. The genetic equilibrium of a population can be disturbed by each of the following EXCEPT a. nonrandom mating. b. movement into and out of the population. c. a large population size. d. mutations.

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____ 32. The allele frequencies of a population are more likely to remain unchanged if a. the population size is reduced. b. frequent movement into and out of the population occurs. c. all mating is random. d. the mutation rate increases.

____ 33. What situation might develop in a population having some plants whose flowers open at midday and other plants whose flowers open late in the day? a. behavioral isolation b. geographic isolation c. temporal isolation d. genetic drift

____ 34. The Galápagos finch species are an excellent example of a. speciation. c. stabilizing selection. b. genetic equilibrium. d. selection on single-gene traits.

____ 35. The combined genetic information of all members of a particular population is the population’s a. relative frequency. c. genotype. b. phenotype. d. gene pool.

____ 36. A change in a sequence of DNA is called a a. recombination. c. single-gene trait. b. polygenic trait. d. mutation.

____ 37. An example of a single-gene trait is a. a widow’s peak in humans. b. the weight of human infants at birth. c. height in humans. d. beak size in the Galápagos finches.

____ 38. The distribution of phenotypes for a typical polygenic trait can often be expressed as a. a bar graph. c. Mendelian ratios. b. a bell-shaped curve. d. allele frequencies.

____ 39. Natural selection acts directly on a. alleles. b. genes. c. phenotypes. d. mutations.

____ 40. Which of the following is NOT a way in which natural selection affects the distribution of phenotypes? a. directional selection b. stabilizing selection c. disruptive selection d. chance events

____ 41. In genetic drift, allele frequencies change because of a. mutations. c. natural selection. b. chance. d. genetic equilibrium.

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____ 42. The situation in which allele frequencies of a population remain constant is called a. evolution. c. genetic equilibrium. b. genetic drift. d. natural selection.

____ 43. The separation of populations by barriers such as rivers, mountains, or bodies of water is called a. temporal isolation. b. geographic isolation. c. behavioral isolation. d. genetic equilibrium.

____ 44. A factor that is necessary for the formation of a new species is a. reproduction at different times. b. geographic barriers. c. different mating behaviors. d. reproductive isolation.

Completion

Complete each sentence or statement.

45. Although his idea was incorrect, Lamarck was one of the first people to propose a scientific explanation for ____________________.

46. Darwin concluded that in similar environments around the world,

_________________________ could produce similar structures in unrelated species.

47. According to Darwin’s theory of evolution, all species on Earth are united by

48. Darwin proposed that natural selection takes place as individuals best suited to the

____________________ survive and reproduce.

_________________________.

49. Crossing-over can occur during the meiotic divisions that produce cells called

____________________.

50. A polygenic trait can have many possible genotypes and ____________________.

51. When a population is NOT evolving, it is in a situation called _________________________.

52. A gene pool typically contains two or more ____________________ for each gene.

53. Inheritable traits can be classified as either ____________________ traits or polygenic traits.

54. For ____________________ traits, natural selection can affect the distribution of phenotypes in three ways.

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55. According to the _________________________ principle, allele frequencies in a population will remain constant unless one or more of five specific factors cause those frequencies to change.

56. For new species to evolve, populations must be ____________________ isolated from each other.

Part II:

Review Questions: Make sure to answer the following questions completely using examples from the article and text book.

1.

What is a theory? Give examples. Explain the Theory of Evolution by Natural

Selection.

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Why is evolutionary theory not even considered by some even though it is by scientists.

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What are closely allied species? Where would you look to find evidence to support your claim of two species being closely allied.

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Define the process of co-evolution and provide two examples.

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5.

Compare artificial selection with natural selection and give an example for each.

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Define convergent evolution and provide an example.

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Could we see the process of evolution occurring during our lifetime? Explain.

A.

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What is the world’s most dominant evolutionary force today? Why? Provide some examples.

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Draw, label and explain (provide your own story) the three different types of natural selection (directional, disruptive, and stabilizing). Use one color line for the original curve and another color line for the line after selection.

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C.

B.

Possible Essay Topics:

1) What are the four original areas of science from which Charles Darwin used to develop his theory of evolution? Explain how each one contributed to his understanding of evolution by natural selection.

2) The end of the article discussed current evidence used to back up

Darwin’s theory. Use at least three specific examples from the article that provide evidence for how this area of science has only been used to strengthen Darwin’s theory.

3) Compare anagenesis with speciation. Then, describe the four different types of isolation that lead to reproductive isolation (speciation) and provide your own example, or story, as to how each type may occur in nature.

4) You will also have two previous MCAS open response questions that relate to evolution.

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