Psych 301, Fall ’03
Exam 4 Practice Questions
1.
Very brief memory for visual information is termed
a. echoic memory.
b. iconic memory.
c. haptic memory.
d. visuospatial sketchpad.
2.
Information is transferred from sensory to working
memory via processes of
a. perception.
b. encoding.
c. sensation.
d. decay.
3.
What is the capacity of short-term memory?
a. large, but everything must fit into a single chunk
b. 4-7 chunks
c. It depends on whether whole report or partial report
is used.
d. however much can be transferred from sensory
memory before it decays
4.
The theory of working memory differs from the earlier
theory of short-term memory primarily in that it includes
a. sensory memory.
b. the visuospatial sketchpad.
c. processing and manipulation of information.
d. information that has been recalled from long-term
memory.
5.
The transfer of information from short-term to long-term
memory is called
a. transduction.
b. consolidation.
c. encoding.
d. chunking.
6.
Which of the following tasks would be most likely to lead
to long-term memory for a list of words?
a. counting the number of letters in each word
b. finding a rhyme for each word
c. thinking up a synonym for each word
d. whichever of these happens to take the most time
7.
Spreading activation refers to
a. the effects of emotional processing on cognition.
b. the way that long-term memories are retrieved based
on associations.
c. categorization of a novel stimulus based on its
similarity to a prototype.
d. the interactions between neighboring retinal cells that
are responsible for contrast-based vision and edgedetection.
8.
Amnesia is a case of damage to ____ memory while ____
memory is unaffected.
a. long-term; short-term
b. short-term; sensory
c. sensory; long-term
d. episodic; semantic
9.
Which brain structure has the most important role in
acquisition of episodic memories?
a. hypothalamus
b. cerebellum
c. amygdala
d. hippocampus
10. Patients with anterograde amnesia due to temporal lobe
damage can usually still acquire new
a. episodic knowledge.
b. semantic knowledge.
c. procedural knowledge.
d. declarative knowledge.
11. Someone who has forgotten their name, family, and
personal history most likely has
a. prosopagnosia.
b. retrograde amnesia.
c. akinetopsia.
d. anterograde amnesia.
12. Consolidation refers to the process of
a. creating larger units from information in working
memory so that it can be stored more easily.
b. transferring information from working memory to
long-term memory.
c. practicing a task until the knowledge moves from
declarative to procedural memory, so that it can be done
automatically.
d. transferring long-term memories from the
hippocampus to the cortex, so that they will be more
permanent.
13. Which sentence best describes the human memory
system?
a. Memory is essentially infallible.
b. Memory often makes errors because it is a poorly
designed system.
c. Memory often doesn't perform the way people want it
to, because the system has other purposes besides literal
recording of experience.
d. Memory often fails, but the reasons are currently
largely unknown.
14. You cannot remember what you had for lunch last
Tuesday because the memory is blocked by memories for
meals you've had since. This is most likely due to
a. anterograde amnesia.
b. retrograde amnesia.
c. proactive interference.
d. retroactive interference.
15. Flashbulb memory
a. is memory in which details are especially accurate.
b. is another name for iconic memory (visual sensory
memory).
c. is memory for important events in which details are
especially vivid but not particularly accurate.
d. is the closest thing to photographic memory that has
been empirically demonstrated (also known as eidetic
imagery).
16. Schemas are useful for
a. organizing memories.
b. filling in forgotten details.
c. inferring unobserved facts.
d. all of the above.
17. You can recall the Longhorns' logo not by picturing it, but
by knowing that it is orange, looks like the head of a cow,
and has horns protruding from either side. This
knowledge is based on a ____ representation.
a. pictorial
b. phonological
c. propositional
d. prototype
18. Biologists group animals into vertebrates and
invertebrates based on whether they have a spine. This is
best described by a(n) ____ model.
a. defining attribute
b. prototype
c. exemplar
d. neural network
19. When deciding whether a piece of music qualifies as jazz,
you consider a number of factors, including the
instruments involved, the style of vocals (if present), the
tempo, and the degree of improvisation. Each factor has a
different weight and the final decision is based on the
summed input from all of them. This is best described by
a(n) ____ model.
a. defining attribute
b. prototype
c. exemplar
d. neural network
20. An exemplar is
a. any real member of a category.
b. any idealized representative of a category.
c. a real object that exemplifies the typical features of
its category.
d. none of the above.
21. Insight learning is characterized by all of the following
except
a. a need for expertise in the particular problem domain.
b. progress based on viewing the problem in a different
way.
c. sudden rapid progress after a long period of
stagnation.
d. often discovering the solution while engaged in a
different task.
22. Suppose you are working on a jigsaw puzzle. What are
the operators for this problem?
a. the pieces
b. possible arrangements of pieces
c. placing a piece in a particular place, or hooking two
pieces together
d. the initial configuration of all the pieces jumbled in
the box, along with the goal configuration in which the
puzzle has been completed
23. In blackjack, the optimal choice (hit, stand, etc.) can
always be calculated based on the cards that are currently
showing and the cards that have been dealt in previous
hands. However, hardly anyone has the memory capacity
to perfectly track which cards have previously appeared
(especially when 8-12 decks are used simultaneously).
Therefore there are a number of card counting strategies
in which the player only keeps track of some summary
statistic of the past cards (usually a running count, such as
+1 for a number card and -2 for a face card). The player
then plays the optimal choice conditioned on this running
count, rather than on a full description of all the cards.
The theory behind this strategy is an example of a
a. normative model.
b. descriptive model.
c. bounded rationality model.
d. defining attribute model.
24. In backgammon, calculation of the optimal move would
involve determining probabilities of all future rolls of the
dice and is thus practically impossible. Instead, most
players use simplified rules, such as "only hit the
opponent's blot if it is on his side of the table, or if you
can cover up." Strategies like this, which are imperfect
but efficient and usually successful, are known as
a. loss aversion.
b. heuristics.
c. operators.
d. schemas.
25. IQ is determined by comparing
a. your actual age to the age of people equal to you in
mental abilities.
b. your mental abilities to those of other people your
age.
c. your fluid intelligence to your crystallized
intelligence.
d. your mental abilities now to the abilities you had at
half your age.
26. Which of these classes of abilities is not tested using
traditional IQ tests?
a. verbal
b. musical
c. logical
d. mathematical
27. Your ability to solve new problems unlike anything
you've seen before is based on your ____ intelligence.
a. crystallized
b. savant
c. fluid
d. logical
28. Which of the following is not one of Gardner's 7
dimensions of intelligence?
a. musical
b. kinesthetic
c. logical
d. temporal
29. The philosophical view stating that consciousness cannot
be studied scientifically is known as
a. dualism.
b. qualia.
c. materialism.
d. phenomenology.
30. Why has quantum mechanics been proposed as a possible
source of explanations for consciousness?
a. It states that observation is fundamental to reality.
b. It explains how distant events can actually be unitary
processes.
c. It explains how huge numbers of component
processes can give rise to something qualitatively new.
d. both a and b
31. A qualium is
a. the subjective experience associated with a stimulus.
b. a feature of an object that is used to categorize it.
c. a quantum mechanical event in the brain that may be
the basis for consciousness.
d. the emotional content associated with a memory.
32. Subliminal processing
a. takes place in the anterior brainstem, just below the
tongue.
b. occurs outside of conscious awareness.
c. is based on purely verbal or linguistic
representations.
d. both b and c.
33. A purposive motive is one that
a. is not immediately rewarding but leads to a desired
outcome.
b. involves regulation of temperature, hunger, etc.
c. is based on homeostasis.
d. is related to a goal, such as reproduction or
graduating college.
34. We often derive pleasure from activities that don't satisfy
our needs, such as artificial sweeteners or heroin, because
a. the brain often confuses regulatory and purposive
motives.
b. hedonistic drives often serve as evolved mediators
between needs and behaviors, and these drives can be
fooled.
c. extrinsic motives often overcome intrinsic ones.
d. self-regulation is often difficult.
35. A drive is
a. a biological or social deficiency that leads to
motivation.
b. a tendency to perform some action that will fulfill a
need.
c. any factor influencing a person to conform to the
opinion of the group.
d. a stimulus that aids in recall of some memory.
36. Oversufficient justification refers to a situation in which
a. intrinsic motivation is undermined by an extrinsic
reward.
b. a purposive motive overrules a regulatory motive.
c. a person's attitude to a task improves after having
described the task in a positive light, in response to
cognitive dissonance.
d. a person refuses to do what they are asked because
the reward is too high.
37. What is the pattern of perceived pleasure as a function of
arousal level?
a. Low and high levels of arousal are pleasurable but
intermediate levels are unpleasant.
b. Pleasure increases with moderate increases in
arousal, but then decreases once arousal becomes too
great.
c. Increased arousal always leads to increased pleasure,
although the effect diminishes at higher levels of arousal.
d. There seems to be no relationship between arousal
and pleasure.
38. Self regulation involves
a. suppressing intrinsic motivations in order to follow
extrinsic motivations.
b. ignoring extrinsic motivations in order to satisfy
intrinsic motivations.
c. ignoring regulatory motivations in order to pursue
purposive motivations.
d. setting aside purposive motivations in order to
address regulatory motivations.
39. Regulatory motivations are primarily controlled by the
a. hippocampus.
b. thalamus.
c. hypothalamus.
d. nucleus accumbens.
40. Which region of the frontal cortex is involved in
evaluating the reward value of possible outcomes?
a. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
b. medial frontal cortex
c. anterior cingulate
d. orbitofrontal cortex
41. Which of these is not a basic type of nutrient?
a. carbohydrate
b. serotonin
c. amino acids
d. lipids
42. Which of these is likely to trigger hunger?
a. the time of day that a person is used to eating
b. a social context associated with eating
c. the smell of food
d. all of the above
43. Glucostatic processes
a. rely on the ionic properties (i.e., static electricity)
inherent in glucose and other sugars.
b. regulate the amount of glucose in the bloodstream.
c. have more long-term effects than lipostatic processes.
d. do both a and c.
44. Which of these is not evidence for the genetic
determination of obesity?
a. high correlations of body mass index (BMI) between
identical twins
b. low correlations of BMI between adopted children
and their adoptive parents
c. the increase in obesity in this country over the
previous two decades
d. the difficulty that most overweight people have in
losing weight
45. As a person progresses into deeper (stage 3 and 4) sleep,
a. their brain waves slow down.
b. their brain waves become weaker.
c. their eyes begin to move rapidly.
d. their heart rate increases.
46. During which stage of sleep does much of the body
become paralyzed?
a. stage 1
b. stage 4
c. beta stage
d. REM
47. Which theory of sleep states that sleep is adaptive because
it keeps animals safe when they are vulnerable?
a. restoration theory
b. evolved threat rehearsal theory
c. circadian rhythm theory
d. theory of facilitation of learning
48. Which portion of the brainstem is responsible for
blocking motor commands from the cortex from reaching
the body during certain stages of sleep?
a. pons
b. medulla
c. reticular formation
d. cerebellum
49. Infants first display facial expressions of emotions
a. only after interacting with other infants.
b. shortly after birth.
c. around the same time they speak their first words.
d. at approximately 3 months of age.
50. Which of the following had been proposed as an adaptive
purpose of emotions?
a. communication
b. aiding cognition
c. strengthening social bonds
d. all of the above
51. Embarrassment is functional because it
a. demonstrates to people that you're not concerned with
your shortcomings.
b. is a submissive act that reduces the likelihood of
social exclusion.
c. does neither of these.
d. does both of these.
52. Alexithmyia is a
a. region of the hypothalamus important in the
regulation of hunger.
b. memory disorder.
c. lack of emotion.
d. random word that has nothing to do with psychology.
53. Primary emotions are defined by being
a. more intense than secondary emotions.
b. common to all cultures.
c. evolved.
d. both b and c.
54. Which of the following provides evidence that emotion is
not solely dependent on physiological reactions?
a. Subjective emotions are more varied than their
physiological analogs.
b. Subjective emotion also depends on our explanations
for our physical states.
c. Subjective experience of emotion often occurs before
any physiological reaction.
d. all of the above.
55. The fact that emotions depend on a comparison between
actual outcomes and their possible alternatives is due to
a. framing effects.
b. counterfactual reasoning.
c. sensory memory.
d. the communicative role of emotions.
56. Excitation transfer refers to
a. attributing a state of arousal to the wrong source,
hence falsely believing that you like that thing.
b. The mechanism by which an action potential moves
along the axon.
c. spreading activation in long term memory that is
responsible for priming and memory by association.
d. none of the above.
57. Polygraphs are based on the fact that people's emotions
can be inferred from
a. their facial expressions.
b. their physiological responses.
c. their brain waves.
d. the words they use in answering questions.
58. Which part of the brain is responsible for learning
emotional responses to stimuli?
a. the amygdala
b. the orbitofrontal cortex
c. the nucleus accumbens
d. the hippocampus
59. Which part of the brain is responsible for assessing the
reward value of potential outcomes, based on input from
the nucleus accumbens?
a. the amygdala
b. the orbitofrontal cortex
c. the anterior cingulate
d. the hippocampus
60. Negative emotions are associated with relatively greater
levels of activity in the
a. parietal lobes.
b. hippocampus.
c. right frontal lobe.
d. left frontal lobe.
61. A common response to stress, involving activation of the
sympathetic nervous system to prepare for danger, is
termed the ____ response.
a. run and hide
b. fight or flight
c. attack or submit
d. sink or swim
62. The long-term effects of stress are collectively referred to
as
a. post-traumatic stress disorder
b. general adaptation syndrome
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. Huntington's disease
63. Say you lose an arm in an accident, and you deal with this
loss by developing new skills with your remaining arm
and by reassessing your career goals so that your
disability will not be a major impediment. This would be
an example of
a. problem-focused coping.
b. emotion-focused coping.
c. positive reappraisal.
d. cognitive realignment.
64. Your parents get divorced, and after initially being upset
you decide that it was a good thing because they will be
happier this way. This is an example of
a. problem-focused coping.
b. emotion-focused coping.
c. positive reappraisal.
d. hardiness.
65. A correlational study differs from an experiment because
a. it only involves two variables.
b. it assumes a linear relationship between the variables
it measures.
c. there is no experimenter manipulation of the
variables.
d. it is done in a naturalistic setting rather than the lab.
Answers:
1–b
6–c
2–a
7–b
3–b
8–a
4–c
9–d
5–c
10 – c
11 – b
12 – d
13 – c
14 – c
15 – c
16 – d
17 – c
18 – a
19 – d
20 – a
21 – a
22 – c
23 – c
24 – b
25 – a
26 – b
27 – c
28 – d
29 – a
30 – d
31 – a
32 – b
33 – d
34 – b
35 – b
66. Which of these is not a lobe of the cerebral cortex?
a. parietal
b. dorsal
c. temporal
d. occipital
67. A stimulus that comes to act as a reinforcer as a result of
classical conditioning (for example, your dog doing tricks
to hear the word 'yes', because he's learned that this
predicts food) is called a(n)
a. conditioned reinforcer
b. unconditioned stimulus
c. positive punishment
d. Skinner box
68. Imprinting is
a. the way that human infants develop attachments to
their mothers.
b. the process of briefly storing photo-like information
in visual sensory memory.
c. a form of long term memory encoding that leads to
"flash bulb" type memories.
d. the phenomenon by which newborns of some species
treat the first adult animal they see as their mother.
69. Conformity is the process of
a. adjusting one's schemas to incorporate new
information.
b. distorting information to fit into one's schemas.
c. changing one's behavior to match expectations of a
group.
d. neurons in sensory cortex changing their function
after a limb has been lost.
70. Which of the following is an Axis II (personality)
disorder?
a. schizophrenia
b. autism
c. depression
d. epilepsy
36 – a
37 – b
38 – b
39 – c
40 – d
41 – b
42 – d
43 – b
44 – c
45 – a
46 – d
47 – c
48 – a
49 – b
50 – d
51 – b
52 – c
53 – d
54 – d
55 – b
56 – a
57 – b
58 – a
59 – a
60 – c
61 – b
62 – b
63 – a
64 – c
65 – c
66 – b
67 – a
68 – d
69 – c
70 – b