МІНІСТЕРСТВО ОСВІТИ І НАУКИ УКРАЇНИ
ХАРКІВСЬКА НАЦІОНАЛЬНА АКАДЕМІЯ МІСЬКОГО ГОСПОДАРСТВА
ТЕСТОВІ
ЗАВДАННЯ
з англійської мови
(для студентів 1-2 курсів за спеціальностями 6.070800 «Екологія та
охорона навколишнього середовища», 6.092600 «Водопостачання та
водовідведення», 6.092100 «Теплогазопостачання та вентиляція»)
Харків – ХНАМГ – 2006
Тестові завдання з англійської мови (для студентів 1-2 курсів за
спеціальностями 6.070800 «Екологія та охорона навколишнього середовища»,
6.092600 «Водопостачання та водовідведення», 6.092100 «Теплогазопостачання
та вентиляція»). Укладач: Маматова Н.В. – Харків: ХНАМГ, 2006. – 47 с.
Укладач: Н.В. Маматова
Рецензент: О.В. Маматова
Рекомендовано кафедрою іноземних мов,
протокол №5 від 24 січня 2006 р.
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INTRODUCTION
These tests are to change the attitudes of both teachers and students to
classroom activities.
The teacher who brings these tests into the study is not depriving the students
of language practice, but is, instead, providing a richer context for such
practice.
The course consists of 10 Practice Tests. Each Practice Test contains the
following:
* The test in modern English Grammar and the vocabulary
* Reading followed by a number of questions.
When teachers use texts for reading, they are often too concerned with what
was written at the expense of how.
Reading in any language is an affective as well as a cognitive process. The
teacher’s role is not that of corrector or judge, but rather that of enabler. The
teacher assists with language, error, but should not replace the student’s
perceptions with his or her own.
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PRACTICE TEST 1
Part A
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Directions: In this part each problem consists of an incomplete sentence. Below
the sentence are four choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You should find the
one choice which best completes the sentence.
1. This test is designed to be a first course for the … ecologist or engineering
student, as well as a reference for those more experienced with integration of
environment and development in decision-making.
(A) learned
(C) expert
(B) skilled
(D) novice
2. It seems a shame that so many animal species are … out.
(A) fading
(C) dying
(B) passing
(D) wiping
3. Scientists cannot account … the disappearance of the dinosaurs.
(A) with
(C) for
(B) on
(D) about
4. Dinosaurs are thought to … millions of years ago.
(A) died out
(C) having died out
(B) have died out
(D) dying out
5. Nowadays the red squirrel is mainly confined … Scotсh pine woods.
(A) by
(C) at
(B) in
(D) to
6. Are marsupials peculiar … Australia, or are they found elsewhere?
(A) from
(C) for
(B) to
(D) of
7. What is the … difference between a butterfly and a moth?
(A) precise
(C) correct
(B) accurate
(D) very
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8. Baby kangaroos are very small – only 3 centimetres … .
(A) tall
(C) wide
(B) broad
(D) long
9. Animals such as the hippopotamus, the tiger, and the rhino are very popular to
see at zoos, but these and about 2000 other large animals are in danger of
disappearing … from the wild.
(A) ever
(C) forever
(B) never
(D) not ever
10. The large number of species existing in the world is very interesting to study,
beautiful to look at, but also very useful for our civilization if we use them ... .
(A) wisely
(C) unbelievably
(B) unduly
(D) uncertainly
Part B
READING COMPREHENSION
Directions: After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each
question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in the passage.
Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.
As viewed from space, the Earth’s distinguishing characteristics are its blue waters
and white clouds. Enveloped by an ocean of air consisting of 78 per cent of nitrogen
and 21 per cent of oxygen, the planet is the only one in our Solar System known to
harbour life, circling the Sun at an average distance of 149 million km (93 million
miles). The Earth is the third planet from the Sun and the fifth largest planet in the
Solar System.
Its rapid spin and molten nickel-iron core give rise to an extensive magnetic field
which, coupled with the atmosphere, shields us from nearly all of the harmful
radiation coming from the Sun and other stars. Most meteors burn up in the Earth’s
atmosphere before they can strike the surface. The planet’s active geological
processes have left no evidence of the ancient pelting it almost certainly received soon
after it was formed.
The Earth has a single natural satellite - the Moon.
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1. Approximately how much of the Earth’s atmosphere is nitrogen?
(A) One-third
(B) One-fourth
(C) Three-fourths
(D) All of it
2. Which of the following helps to create the Earth’s magnetic field?
(A) Its blue waters
(B) Its nitrogen atmosphere
(C) Its molten metal core
(D) Its white clouds
3. What two factors help to protect the Earth from radiation?
(A) Magnetic field and atmosphere
(B) Rapid spin and molten iron-nickel core
(C) The Sun and the Moon
(D) Blue waters and white clouds
4. In line 2, the word “consisting”most nearly means
(A) committing
(B) containing
(C) concluding
(D) concocting
5. Why does the Earth show almost no signs of having been hit by numerous meteors
in the past?
(A) Humans have dug in most of the trenches.
(B) Most meteors fell into the ocean and not on land.
(C) The Earth’s magnetic field repelled most meteors.
(D) The Earth’s natural geologic activity has eliminated most traces.
6. The main idea of this passage is that
(A) there are life-supporting characteristics on Earth.
(B) the Earth is predominantly water.
(C) the Earth has no common characteristics with other planets.
(D) the Earth is the third planet from the Sun and the fifth largest planet in the Solar
System.
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7. The word “distinguishing” as it is used in this selection means
(A) elevating in nature
(B) devastating in nature
(C) characteristics like all other planets
(D) characteristics that set it apart from other planets
8. It’s probable that the next paragraph would discuss
(A) people on planets
(B) the Solar System as a whole
(C) the Earth’s natural satellite-the Moon
(D) Saturnian rings
9. As it is used in this selection, the word “harbour” is synonymous with
(A) support
(B) suppose
(C) burn
(D) suppress
10. This selection leads one to believe that
(A) the Earth never gets hit by meteors.
(B) the Earth always gets hit by meteors.
(C) the Earth was hit by meteors in some past time period.
(D) the Earth may be bombarded by meteors in the near future.
PRACTICE TEST 2
Part A
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Directions: In this part each problem consists of an incomplete sentence. Below
the sentence are four choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You should find the
one choice which best completes the sentence.
1.Man’s age-old attitude about his place in the world ... by the menacing result of his
alteration on the biosphere.
(A) was shaken
(C) is shaken
(B) is being shaken
(D) was being shaken
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2. Food which has been condemned by the Ministry as dangerous to health is still
being sold by some … traders.
(A) decadent
(C) depraved
(B) scrupulous
(D) unscrupulous
3. …no circumstances should you drink the tap water.
(A) Within
(C) By
(B) On
(D) Under
4. Water quality studies in tanks and reservoirs can be conducted to … many different
goals.
(A) provide
(C) study
(B) meet
(D) develop
5. Ultimately, finding the correct balance between calculation time and accuracy is up
… the modeller.
(A) in
(C) to
(B) without
(D) of
6. Disinfection at groundwater sources differs from sources influenced by surface
water in that it is usually applied at the … itself.
(A) plant
(C) river
(B) well
(D) lake
7. Red water is … water containing a colloidal suspension of very small, oxidized
iron particles that originated from the surface of the pipe wall.
(A) treated
(C) arranged
(B) indicated
(D) considered
8. …, pollution prevention at the source can be regarded as saving on resources.
(A) Although
(C) Thereunder
(B) Thereinto
(D) Therefore
9. The water was … by waste from the factory.
(A) contaminated
(C) purified
(B) infected
(D) infested
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10. Unless we take immediate precautions, we shall not be able to … the epidemic.
(A) contain
(C) staunch
(B) hold
(D) destroy
Part B
READING COMPREHENSION
Directions: After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each
question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in the passage.
Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.
Since life began aeons ago, thousands of creatures have come and gone. Some,
such as the dinosaurs, became extinct due to naturally changing ecologic conditions.
More recent threats to life forms are humans and their activities. Man has drained
marshes, burned prairies, dammed and diverted rivers. Some of the more recent
casualties of man’s expansion have been the dodo, great auk, passenger pigeon, Irish
elk, and Steller’s sea-cow.
Sadly, we can no longer attribute the increasing decline in our wild animals and
plant species to “natural” processes. Many species are dying out because of
exploitation, habitat alteration or destruction, pollution, or the introduction of new
species of plants and animals to an area. As mandated by Congress, protecting
endangered species, and restoring them to the point where their existence is no longer
jeopardized, is the primary objective of the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service’s
Endangered Species Programme.
1. In line 1, the word “aeons”most nearly means
(A) ages
(B) hours
(C) seconds
(D) minutes
2. Which of the following is a form of man’s habitat alteration?
(A) Typhoons
(B) Hurricanes
(C) Dammed rivers
(D) Snow-storms
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3. Which of the following have become extinct due to man’s destruction?
(A) White pelicans
(B) The dodo,Irish elk,great auk,passenger pigeon, and Steller’s sea-cow
(C) The piping plover
(D) The golden eagle
4. Which of the following would be a likely theme for the next paragraph?
(A) Naturally changing ecological conditions
(B) Animals that have become extinct
(C) Achievements of the Government Endangered Species Programme
(D) Programmes that have destroyed natural habitats
5. In line 7, the word “attribute”most nearly means
(A) assign
(B) assort
(C) introduce
(D) assume
6. The tone of this passage is
(A) antipodal
(B) pro-wildlife
(C) anti-wildlife
(D) anti-social
7. “Habitat alteration” as it is used in this paragraph means
(A) changing clothes
(B) changing animals’ environments
(C) changing humans’ environments
(D) climate change
8. According to this passage,
(A) man is the cause of some animal extinction.
(B) animals often bring about their own extinction.
(C) Congress can absolutely end extinction of animals.
(D) a law is more important than human responsibility.
9. Which of the following is not a cause of increasing decline of wild animal
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population?
(A) Exploitation
(B) Pollution
(C) Habitat alteration
(D) Congressional law
10. The primary objective of the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service’s Endangered Species
Programme can be stated as
(A) custodial care of endangered species
(B) enforcement of Congressional law
(C) education of the public
(D) thoughtful buying
PRACTICE TEST 3
Part A
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Directions: In this part each problem consists of an incomplete sentence. Below
the sentence are four choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You should find the
one choice which best completes the sentence.
1. The dinosaurs … the most successful land animals.
(A) are
(C) will be
(B) were
(D) have been
2. The dinosaurs originated during the Triassic period, which … 240 million years
ago, when all the landmasses were assembled into the supercontinent Pangaea.
(A) began
(C) has begun
(B) had begun
(D) would begin
3. The success of the dinosaurs is exemplified …their extensive range.
(A) for
(C) with
(B) at
(D) by
4. The generally warm climate of the Cretaceous period produced … vegetation,
including ferns and cicadae, that supplied the insatiable diets of the plant-eating
dinosaurs.
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(A) poor
(B) lush
(C) scanty
(D) stingy
5. … if we continue to destroy the ozone layer with our pollutants, we might find
ourselves going the same way as the dinosaurs.
(A) And
(C) For
(B) Because
(D) So
6. The bald eagle is one of Ontario’s most impressive birds of prey, with a total length
of almost one metre and a wing … which more than doubles this measurement.
(A) spandrel
(C) spangle
(B) spa
(D) span
7. White pelicans usually feed … coarse fish species which have little or no
commercial value.
(A) on
(C) under
(B) in
(D) for
8. The distribution of the eastern cougar has apparently fluctuated in response …
human disturbances and environmental modifications.
(A) to
(C) off
(B) out of
(D) aside
9. This secretive animal is … sensitive to human disturbances and many factors will
influence its ability to co-exist with man.
(A) height
(C) high
(B) higher
(D) highly
10. The Kirtland’s warbler is one of the world’s … critically endangered birds.
(A) more
(C) many
(B) most
(D) much
Part B
READING COMPREHENSION
Directions: After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each
question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis
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of what is stated or implied in the passage.
Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.
It was not until one hundred and fifty years ago that scientists learned about the
existence of dinosaurs. Thanks to an English doctor and his wife, the door was opened
to this zoological study. Reasoning that the reptiles’ tremendous size must have made
them terrible creatures, scientists combined two Greek words, deimos, meaning
terrible, and sauros, meaning lizards, to form the word dinosaur.
After many years of study, they determined that these beasts roamed the earth
for millions of years, and ceased to exist some sixty million years ago.
Unbelievable as it may seem, not all dinosaurs were carnivores, that is, the
flesh-eating animals. Many dinosaurs were herbivores, or vegetarians.
By reassembling the bones found at excavation sites, scientists have been able
to reconstruct the skeletons and learn a great deal about the dinosaurs’ living
conditions.
1. According to the passage,
(A) scientists learned about the existence of snakes.
(B) scientists learned about the existence of dinosaurs.
(C) scientists learned about the existence of bears.
(D) scientists learned about the existence of bugs.
2. The main idea of the passage is that
(A) scientists combined two Greek words to form the word “dinosaur”.
(B) scientists combined two Latin words to form the word “dinosaur”.
(C) scientists combined three Greek words to form the word “dinosaur”.
(D) scientists combined two Chinese words to form the word “dinosaur”.
3. How have scientists been able to learn of the living conditions of these animals?
(A) Scientists have been able to reconstruct their habitat.
(B) Scientists have been able to reconstruct the rainforests.
(C) Scientists have been able to reconstruct the living bank.
(D) Scientists have been able to reconstruct the skeletons.
4. When did scientists learn about the existence of dinosaurs?
(A) A century ago
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(B) 4 million years ago
(C) It was not until one hundred and fifty years ago
(D) 50 million years ago
5. The word “herbivores” in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(A) the flesh-eating animals
(B) fur-bearing animals
(C) farm animals
(D) vegetarians
6. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Not all dinosaurs were carnivores.
(B) All dinosaurs were carnivores.
(C) All dinosaurs were vegetarians.
(D) All dinosaurs were big animals.
7. In line 10, the word “bones”most nearly means
(A) a textile fabric
(B) the hard tissue
(C) raw materials
(D) dress material
8. This selection leads one to believe that
(A) the last of the dinosaurs disappeared some sixty million years ago.
(B) the last of the dinosaurs disappeared some six million years ago.
(C) the last of the dinosaurs disappeared some three million years ago.
(D) the last of the dinosaurs disappeared some two million years ago.
9. The style of this passage is
(A) turgid style
(B) lofty style
(C) humorous style
(D) naturalistic and concrete style
10. The passage refers to
(A) science fiction
(B) natural sciences
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(C) exact sciences
(D) social sciences
PRACTICE TEST 4
Part A
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Directions: In this part each problem consists of an incomplete sentence. Below
the sentence are four choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You should find the
one choice which best completes the sentence.
1. In scientific terms, ecology is the study of the relationships between plants,
animals, people, and their environment, and the balances … these relationships.
(A) among
(C) in space
(B) between
(D) in time
2. A few years ago, the average person … the slightest idea of this term.
(A) would have had
(C) wouldn’t have had
(B) will have
(D) had had
3. Man-made pollution frequently alters the environment in which a … of organisms
lives and upsets its delicate balance.
(A) community
(C) society
(B) union
(D) company
4. The ecological problem which is also very … a social one, is one of the pressing
problems of our days.
(A) little
(C) many
(B) a little
(D) much
5. If indeed silence is golden, it is also becoming … rare … gold.
(A) not so … as
(C) as … as
(B) either … or
(D) neither … nor
6. It … that the progress of man includes a rising volume of noise.
(A) seems
(C) seemed
(B) seem
(D) seeming
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7. You can pass any factory or construction area and the roar of its machinery will
make your … ring.
(A) nose
(C) teeth
(B) ears
(D) tongue
8. Even the quiet of our carefully protected wilderness areas … at any moment by a
passing jet.
(A) should be invaded
(C) could be invaded
(B) will have to be invaded
(D) can be invaded
9. We are learning finally, that silence is a natural resource and … protected by law.
(A) ought to be
(C) must be
(B) should be
(D) would be
10. It appears that we all find company … sound, but at the same time, we all demand
a little quiet from time to time.
(A) on
(C) with
(B) in
(D) of
Part B
READING COMPREHENSION
Directions: After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each
question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in the passage.
Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.
Adaptation is the process by which living things adjust to changes in their
environment – ways of finding food, protecting themselves from their enemies, and
reproducing.
The protective adaptations vary with each species of animal depending on its
individual needs and environment.
Many animals possess colours that help them blend in with their surroundings.
Polar bears and white rabbits can easily move undetected amidst the winter snows.
Many butterflies’ colours make it difficult to find them among the trees. Chameleons
can change colours to disguise themselves on rocks, trees, and wood chips.
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Snakes bite; bees and wasps sting; skunks emit a pungent odour; and
porcupines eject painful quills into their attackers.
1. The word “adaptation” as it is used in this selection means
(A) the act of changing something to make it suitable for a new situation
(B) the act of changing something to make it suitable for a new play
(C) the act of changing something to make it suitable for a new film
(D) the act of changing something to make it suitable for a new television programme
2. In line 2, the word “protecting”most nearly means
(A) prosecuting
(B) proposing
(C) prospering
(D) shielding from harm
3. This passage refers to
(A) biology
(B) sociology
(C) psychology
(D) gardening
4. What makes porcupines unique?
(A) Biting
(B) Ejecting painful quills
(C) Emitting pungent odour
(D) Stinging
5. In line 11, the word “porcupines”most nearly means
(A) animals with many long, thin, sharp spikes on their nose
(B) animals with many long, thin, sharp spikes on their paws
(C) animals with many long, thin, sharp spikes on their back
(D) animals with many long, thin, sharp spikes on their jaws
6. What makes it difficult to find butterflies among the trees?
(A) Pearls
(B) Feathers
(C) Features
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(D) Many butterflies’colours
7. What is the main idea of this reading?
(A) Adjusting to changes in the environment
(B) Adjusting to changes on the stage
(C) Adjusting to changes in the downtown
(D) Adjusting to changes among people
8. As it is used in this selection, the word “amidst” is synonymous with
(A) entrusted
(B) engaged
(C) surrounded by
(D) entitled
9. According to the passage,
(A) the protective adaptations vary with each species of animal.
(B) the protective adaptations vary with each group of people.
(C) the protective adaptations vary with each period of time.
(D) the protective adaptations vary with the same lifespan.
10. This selection leads one to believe that
(A) colours help animals to blend in with their surroundings.
(B) habits help animals to blend in with their surroundings.
(C) conditions help animals to blend in with their surroundings.
(D) thorns help animals to blend in with their surroundings.
PRACTICE TEST 5
Part A
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Directions: In this part each problem consists of an incomplete sentence. Below
the sentence are four choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You should find the
one choice which best completes the sentence.
1. A national … shows that 65% of the population would prefer to live in a city.
(A) quiz
(C) examination
(B) inquiry
(D) survey
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2. Due to the extreme weather conditions the mountain road was … .
(A) impossible
(C) impassable
(B) inoperable
(D) impregnable
3. The weather looked very doubtful as a … of clouds built up in the sky.
(A) bank
(C) ridge
(B) edge
(D) ledge
4. Many demographers believe that the world has already reached its carrying
capacity, which is the ability of the land to … people.
(A) subject
(C) pursue
(B) support
(D) counterfeit
5. The total quantity of food directly and indirectly … by the human population is
staggering.
(A) is being consumed
(C) have been consumed
(B) has been consumed
(D) consumed
6. It amounts to roughly a ton … person per year, or about 5 billion tons annually.
(A) per
(C) on
(B) for
(D) in
7…. half of the total tonnage of crops and three-quarters of the energy and protein
content is supplied by cereal grains.
(A) Near
(C) Around
(B) Nearly
(D) By
8. As a result, … is extremely vulnerable to fluctuations in soil conditions and the
climate.
(A) men
(C) man
(B) a man
(D) the man
9. Your intake of food, drink, or air is the amount that you eat, drink, or breathe …, or
the process of taking it into your body.
(A) out
(C) of
(B) in
(D) from
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10. Protein is a substance found, …, in meat, eggs, and milk.
(A) for example
(C) sample
(B) example of
(D) model
Part B
READING COMPREHENSION
Directions: After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each
question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in the passage.
Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.
Vibrio parahaemolyticus is a bacteria that has been isolated from sea-water,
shell fish, fin-fish, plankton and salt springs. It has been a major cause of food
poisoning in Japan and the Japanese have done several studies on it. They have
confirmed the presence of V. parahaemolyticus in the north and central Pacific with
the highest abundance in inshore waters, particularly in or near large harbours.
A man named Nishio studied the relationship between the chloride content of
sea-water and the seasonal distribution of V. parahaemolyticus and concluded that
while the isolation of V. parahaemolyticus was independent of the sodium chloride
content, the distribution of V. parahaemolyticus in sea-water was dependent on the
water temperature. In fact it has been isolated in high frequencies during summer,
from June to September, but was not isolated with the same frequency in winter.
Within four or five days after eating contaminated foods, a person will begin to
experience diarrhea, the most common symptom; this will very often be accompanied
by stomach cramps, nausea, and vomiting. A headache and fever, with or without
chills, may also be experienced.
1. This selection leads one to believe that
(A) a headache and fever, with or without chills, may also be experienced.
(B) a sore throat may also be experienced.
(C) a headache and fever, with or without chills, may not be experienced.
(D) heart attacks may also be experienced.
2. According to the passage,
(A) a person will begin to experience diarrhea.
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(B) a person will not begin to experience diarrhea.
(C) a person will begin to experience bronchitis.
(D) a person will begin to experience cancer.
3. In line 1, the word “bacteria”most nearly means
(A) algae
(B) water-plants
(C) seaweeds
(D) vegetable micro-organisms
4. This passage refers to
(A) fiction
(B) diplomacy
(C) law
(D) biology
5. In line 2, the word “plankton”most nearly means
(A) a plank
(B) the microscopic animals and plants
(C) plantain
(D) a plack
6. Which of the following locations would be most likely to have a high concentration
of Vibrio parahaemolyticus?
(A) a bay
(B) a sea
(C) the middle of the ocean
(D) sediment
7. The safest time for eating seafood is probably
(A) August
(B) November
(C) July
(D) September
8. The incubation period for this illness is
(A) 2 to 3 days
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(B) 3 to 4 hours
(C) 4 to 5 days
(D) several months
9. The most common symptom of V.parahaemolyticus is
(A) nausea
(B) diarrhea
(C) vomiting
(D) a headache and fever
10. Nishio’s study showed that
(A) the presence of V.parahaemolyticus was dependent on neither the salt content nor
the water temperature.
(B) the presence of V. parahaemolyticus was dependent on only the salt content.
(C) the presence of V.parahaemolyticus was dependent on the water temperature.
(D) the presence of V. parahaemolyticus was independent of both the water
temperature and the salt content.
PRACTICE TEST 6
Part A
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Directions: In this part each problem consists of an incomplete sentence. Below
the sentence are four choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You should find the
one choice which best completes the sentence.
1. Comprehensive occupational health and safety programmes … provide worksite
hazard identification, medical management or referral of employees for health
problems, a hazards communication programme, and an employee health insurance
programme.
(A) can
(C) ought to
(B) should
(D) must
2. … attention to occupational health issues is apparent among employers, employees,
and the health community, all of whom have strong incentives to implement worksite
health promotion activities.
(A) To increase
(C) Increasing
22
(B) Having increased
(D) Have increased
3. Approximately 40,000 persons die each year … complications associated with
pneumococcal disease.
(A) from
(C) off
(B) of
(D) on
4. Public health surveillance is … systematic collection, analysis, interpretation,
dissemination, and use of health information.
(A) (C) an
(B) a
(D) the
5. To be of maximum usefulness, public health data must be …, timely, and available
in a usable form.
(A) accurate
(C) false
(B) precise
(D) very
6. The year 2005 health objectives …, for the most part, using information from major
national data systems.
(A) were set
(C) will be set
(B) are being set
(D) have been set
7. Another … concern is the ability to measure the health status of special
populations.
(A) dates
(C) date
(B) datum
(D) data
8. Morbidity, mortality, access to and use of health services, and health behaviour
vary markedly … age, race, gender, and socioeconomic status.
(A) with
(C) for
(B) by
(D) from
9. … additional population based surveys will be necessary, attention should also be
given to using existing record based data (e.g., hospital records).
(A) Before
(C) While
(B) As
(D) Away
23
10. Public health data systems should be evaluated … to assure that they continue to
serve public health purposes and operate as efficiently as possible.
(A) regularly
(C) seldom
(B) regular
(D) at all
Part B
READING COMPREHENSION
Directions: After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each
question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in the passage.
Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.
In recent years, scientific and technological developments have drastically
changed human life on our planet, as well as our views both of ourselves as
individuals in society and of the universe as a whole. Maybe one of the most profound
developments of the last decade is the discovery of recombinant DNA technology,
which allows scientists to introduce genetic material (or genes) from one organism
into another. In its simplest form, the technology requires the isolation of a piece of
DNA, either directly from the DNA of the organism under study, or artificially
synthesized from an RNA template, by using a viral enzyme called reverse
transcriptase. This piece of DNA is then ligated to a fragment of bacterial DNA which
has the capacity to replicate itself independently. The recombinant molecule thus
produced can be introduced into the common intestinal bacterium Escherichia coli,
which can be grown in very large amounts in synthetic media. Under proper
conditions, the foreign gene will not only replicate in the bacteria, but also express
itself, through the process of transcription and translation, to give rise to large
amounts of the specific protein coded by the foreign gene.
The technology has already been successfully applied to the production of
several therapeutically important biomolecules, such as insulin, interferon, and
growth hormones. Many other important applications are under detailed investigation
in laboratories throughout the world.
1. Recombinant DNA technology consists primarily of
(A) producing several therapeutically important biomolecules
(B) giving rise to large amounts of protein
24
(C) introducing genetic material from one organism into another
(D) using a viral enzyme called reverse transcriptase
2. Recombinant DNA technology has been used in the production of all of the
following biomolecules except
(A) growth hormones
(B) Escherichia coli
(C) interferon
(D) insulin
3. Which of the following is not true?
(A) The foreign gene will replicate in the bacteria, but it will not express itself
through transcription and translation.
(B) The bacterium Escherichia coli can be grown in large amounts in synthetic media.
(C) Research continues in an effort to find other uses for this technology.
(D) Recombinant DNA technology is a recent development.
4. Expression of a gene in Escherichia coli requires
(A) the viral enzyme reverse transcriptase
(B) the processes of transcription and translation
(C) production of insulin and other biomolecules
(D) that the bacteria be grown in a synthetic media
5. The term “recombinant” is used because
(A) by ligation, a recombinant molecule is produced, which has the capacity of
replication.
(B) the technique requires the combination of several types of technology.
(C) by ligation, a recombinant protein is produced, part of whose amino acids come
from each different organism.
(D) Escherichia coli is a recombinant organism.
6. This passage refers to
(A) biology
(B) law
(C) ethics
(D) aesthetics
25
7. As it is used in this selection, the word “enzyme” is synonymous with
(A) a catalyst
(B) a cataclysm
(C) a cataract
(D) catharsis
8. In line 15, the word “protein”most nearly means
(A) an organic substance
(B) organic glass
(C) organic remains
(D) organic fertilizers
9. According to the passage,
(A) many other important applications are not under investigation.
(B) many other important applications are underhand.
(C) many other important applications are underfoot.
(D) many other important applications are under detailed investigation.
10. This selection leads one to believe that
(A) scientific and technological developments have drastically changed human life.
(B) scientific and technological developments have not drastically changed human
life.
(C) scientific and technological developments have drastically changed plant life.
(D) scientific and technological developments have drastically changed animal life.
PRACTICE TEST 7
Part A
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Directions: In this part each problem consists of an incomplete sentence. Below
the sentence are four choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You should find the
one choice which best completes the sentence.
1…. a broad scale, the vegetation of any site is the product of the area’s climate.
(A) In
(C) From
(B) At
(D) On
26
2. This is because water and temperature are generally the two most important
physical factors … the ecology and distribution of terrestrial plants.
(A) affecting
(C) effect
(B) effecting
(D) effects
3. The correlation between the life-zones’ climate and vegetation is so consistent ( for
example, deserts are hot and arid, boreal forests are cool and moist ) that geographers
have often used the patterns … reverse, defining major climate zones on the basis of
the vegetation type.
(A) on
(C) at
(B) in
(D) of
4…., we can interpret native vegetation as an integration of many climatic factors.
(A) As
(C) In other words
(B) While
(D) Whether
5. Clearly, any climate change that … occur would present a monumental challenge to
conservation.
(A) must
(C) may
(B) can
(D) might
6. The release of carbon dioxide and other “greenhouse” gases into the atmosphere …
steadily, and most scientists acknowledge that this will contribute to global warming.
(A) had been increased
(C) is increasing
(B) was increased
(D) is increased
7. … rise in sea level is also possible, posing the threat of extensive flooding of
coastal habitats.
(A) A
(C) An
(B) The
(D) –
8. A climate change of any magnitude could have particularly detrimental effects …
plants.
(A) on
(C) for
(B) at
(D) under
9. To survive, species may need to shift ranges considerable distances to keep … with
27
the distribution of suitable habitat.
(A) for
(B) from
(C) on
(D) up
10. Climate change may be especially damaging to rare species whose habitat patches
… or fragmented by urbanization, agriculture, or naturally unsuitable habitat.
(A) have been restricted
(C) are restricted
(B) had been restricted
(D) are being restricted
Part B
READING COMPREHENSION
Directions: After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each
question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in the passage.
Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.
All the different plants and animals in a natural community are in a state of
balance. This balance is achieved by the plants and animals intreracting with each
other and with their non-living surroundings. An example of a natural community is a
woodland, and a woodland is usually dominated by a particular species of plant, such
as the oak tree in an oak wood. The oak tree in this example is therefore called the
dominant species but there are also many other types of plants,from brambles, bushes
and small trees to mosses, lichens and algae growing on tree trunks and rocks.
The plants of a community are the producers: they use carbon dioxide, oxygen,
water and nitrogen to build up their tissues using energy in the form of sunlight. The
plant tissues form food for the plant-eating animals (herbivores) which are in turn
eaten by the flesh-eating animals (carnivores).Thus plants produce the basic food
supply for the animals of a community. The animals themselves are the consumers,
and are either herbivores or carnivores.
Examples of herbivores in a woodland community are rabbits, deer, mice and
snails, and insects such as aphides and caterpillars. The herbivores are sometimes
eaten by the carnivores. Woodland carnivores are of all sizes, from insects such as
beetles and lacewings to animals such as owls,shrews and foxes. Some carnivores
feed on herbivores,some feed on the smaller carnivores,while some feed on both: a
tawny owl will eat beetles and shrews as well as voles and mice. These food
relationships between the different members of the community are known as food
28
chains or food webs. All food chains start with plants. The links of the chain are
formed by the herbivores that eat the plants and the carnivores that feed on the
herbivores.
1. Which of the following is listed as a particular species of plant?
(A) oak-plum
(B) the oak tree
(C) oak-wart
(D) oak-apple
2. This passage refers to
(A) economics
(B) chemistry
(C) stylistics
(D) ecology
3. In line 6, the word “brambles”most nearly means
(A) thorny shrubs
(B) mosses
(C) lichens
(D) algae
4. The passage primarily discusses the point of
(A) staple foods
(B) infant’s food
(C) food chains
(D) tinned food
5. As it is used in this selection, the word “carnivores” is synonymous with
(A) the plant-eating animals
(B) the flesh-eating animals
(C) domestic animals
(D) four-footed animals
6. According to the passage,
(A) all food chains start with flesh.
(B) all food chains start with blood.
29
(C) all food chains start with plants.
(D) all food chains start with shells.
7. Which of the following is not true?
(A) The animals themselves are the consumers.
(B) Examples of herbivores in a woodland community are rabbits, deer, mice and
snails, and insects.
(C) Woodland carnivores are of all sizes.
(D) An example of a natural community is not a woodland.
8. The style of the passage is
(A) academic style
(B) the style of court
(C) a delightful style
(D) the style of Shakespeare
9. Which of the following is true?
(A) All the different plants and animals in a natural community are in a state of
balance.
(B) All the different plants and animals in a natural community are not in a state of
balance.
(C) Plants do not produce the basic food supply for all the animals in a community.
(D) A woodland is not dominated by a particular species of plant.
10. How does man interfere with the balance of nature?
(A) Negative anthropogenic influences threaten to disrupt nature’s basic cycles.
(B) Man-made pollution doesn’t alter the environment in which a community of
organisms lives.
(C) The killing of insects has not resulted in a loss of balance in ecology.
(D) At present there has not arisen a pressing necessity to change the character of
interaction between man and nature.
PRACTICE TEST 8
Part A
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
30
Directions: In this part each problem consists of an incomplete sentence. Below
the sentence are four choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You should find the
one choice which best completes the sentence.
1. Homes, businesses, and industries have their own internal plumbing systems to
transport water … sinks, washing machines, hose bibbs, and so forth.
(A) in
(C) to
(B) for
(D) from
2. A customer’s water metre is usually a positive displacement technology metre used
… lines sized from 5/8 in. to 2 in., or a turbine technology metre for lines sized 11/2 in. to 20 in.
(A) on
(C) at
(B) in
(D) of
3. The modeller must remember that the power entered for the constant power pump
is not the rated power of the motor but the water power … .
(A) to add
(C) have been added
(B) added
(D) has been added
4. In software that symbolizes pumps as links, the pump connects upstream and
downstream nodes in a system the same way a pipe ….
(A) should
(C) would
(B) shall
(D) will
5. When data files replaced punch cards, the batch approach to data entry … over.
(A) will be carried
(C) has been carried
(B) was carried
(D) were carried
6. A user accustomed to performing batch runs … find some of the terminology and
concepts employed in scenario management a bit of a challenge at first.
(A) may
(C) could
(B) can
(D) might
7. Once a water distribution model is constructed and calibrated, it can be modified to
simulate and predict system behaviour … a range of conditions.
31
(A) under
(C) between
(B) over
(D) among
8. The modeller also needs … in regular contact with operations personnel to
determine when new piping is placed into service.
(A) been
(C) to be
(B) is
(D) are
9. Water … should examine their physical assets, determine their areas of
vulnerability, and increase security accordingly.
(A) utensil
(C) utilize
(B) utilities
(D) utilization
10. Water treatment is the primary barrier to contaminants reaching the customer but
may not be effective for some constituents found in the raw water and is not effective
for contaminants that enter … finished water in the distribution system.
(A) (C) the
(B) a
(D) an
Part B
READING COMPREHENSION
Directions: After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each
question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in the passage.
Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.
Some Prominent Historic Events in Water System Security
Biblical times – The Nile River is turned to “blood” in the first plague in the
Book of Exodus requiring Egyptians to turn to wells as an alternate water supply.
19th Century – Cholera outbreaks in London led to the identification of water
supply as the major culprit by Dr. John Snow.
1860s – During the Civil War, soldiers shot and left farm animals in ponds to
poison the water supply so that advancing troops couldn’t use it.
1941 – J. Edgar Hoover, director of the FBI, acknowledged that “water supply
facilities offer a particularly vulnerable point of attack to the foreign agent”.
1940s – During World War II, water supplies were purposely contaminated in
32
China (bacteria) and Bohemia (sewage).
1978 – Carbon Tetrachloride spill on the Kanawha River resulted in
contamination of water supplies on the Ohio River and led to the establishment of an
early warning system.
1980s – Lawsuit and trial in case of industrial contamination in Woburn,
Massachusetts (USA) was subsequently profiled in the book and movie A Civil
Action.
1993 – Flooding in Iowa (USA) disrupted water service to 250,000 customers
of the Des Moines Water Works.
1993 – 400,000 people in Milwaukee (USA) became ill from Cryptosporidiosis
carried in the public water supply.
1. In line 1, the word “plague”most nearly means
(A) a plaque
(B) a placket
(C) black death
(D) a plug
2. What is the main event of the 19th century?
(A) Cholera outbreaks
(B) Plague outbreaks
(C) Quinsy outbreaks
(D) Leprosy outbreaks
3. According to this reading,
(A) the soldiers didn’t shoot and leave farm animals.
(B) the soldiers shot and left farm animals in ponds to poison the water supply.
(C) the wounded didn’t shoot and leave farm animals.
(D) the crooked didn’t shoot and leave farm animals.
4. When were water supplies purposely contaminated?
(A) in the 1860s
(B) in the 1940s
(C) in the 1970s
(D) in the 1990s
5. The above-mentioned prominent historic events refer to
33
(A) National Security Council
(B) Security and Exchange Commission
(C) Works Progress Administration
(D) Water System Security
6. As it is used in this selection, the word “spill” is synonymous with
(A) spit
(B) discharge
(C) split
(D) spittle
7. The main idea of this reading is
(A) warning against contamination of water supplies
(B) warning against wars
(C) giving opportunity to contaminate water supplies
(D) warning against racial discrimination
8. This selection leads one to believe that
(A) water supply facilities offer a particularly obscure point of attack to the foreign
agent.
(B) water supply facilities offer a particularly invulnerable point of attack to the
foreign agent.
(C) water supply facilities do not offer a particularly vulnerable point of attack to the
foreign agent.
(D) water supply facilities offer a particularly vulnerable point of attack to the foreign
agent.
9. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Flooding in Iowa (USA) disrupted water services to 200,000 customers.
(B) Flooding in Milwaukee (USA) disrupted water services to 250,000 customers.
(C) Flooding in Iowa (USA) disrupted water services to 250,000 customers.
(D) Flooding in Iowa (USA) didn’t disrupt water services to 250,000 customers.
10. Which of the following statements was the subject matter of the final event in the
year 1993?
(A) 400,000 people became ill from bronchitis.
(B) 400,000 people became ill from an abscess.
34
(C) 400,000 people became ill from flu.
(D) 400,000 people in Milwaukee (USA) became ill from Cryptosporidiosis.
PRACTICE TEST 9
Part A
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Directions: In this part each problem consists of an incomplete sentence. Below
the sentence are four choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You should find the
one choice which best completes the sentence.
1. Greenhouse gases are present in the atmosphere in … amounts than at any time in
at least 220,000 years.
(A) great
(C) few
(B) greater
(D) a few
2. The century’s 10 warmest years have all occurred … 1983, seven in this decade.
(A) since
(C ) in
(B) from
(D) for
3. A new National Science Foundation study based … natural indicators such as tree
rings, ice-cores, and corals finds the last decade of the millennium has been its hottest.
(A) with
(C) on
(B) at
(D) for
4. Middle and lower latitude mountain glaciers … the effects.
(A) show
(C) showing
(B) showed
(D) are showing
5. The finding was unexpected, and raises fears that global sea levels, already
projected … 20 inches next century, could increase even faster.
(A) rising
(C) rose
(B) to rise
(D) risen
6. … ice shelves already displace water, the loss will not add to rising ocean levels.
(A) But
(C) Since
(B) And
(D) However
35
7. But … northern tundra could have a devastating global effect.
(A) melting
(C) melted
(B) melt
(D) has melted
8. Carbon in tundra soils, equal to one-third that in the atmosphere, … .
(A) can be released
(C) would be released
(B) could be released
(D) be released
9. A warmer atmosphere is expected to cause more evaporation, making for …
droughts and more deluges.
(A) bad
(C) worse
(B) good
(D) worst
10. … nighttime warming is a significant global warming indicator.
(A) Because
(C) However
(B) So
(D) Since
Part B
READING COMPREHENSION
Directions: After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each
question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in the passage.
Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.
Excerpted from Earth Island Journal:
Predictions that global warming will be greatest in the polar regions are now
being borne out. Arctic sea ice has been shrinking by 3 per cent each decade since
1970. Several of the years with the smallest sea ice coverage were in the 1990s.
Around the Antarctic Peninsula, extensive sea ice formed four winters out of every
five at mid-century. Since the 1970s, that has dropped to one or two winters out of
five.
Warming is having devastating effects on plants and animals. Coral reefs, the
“rainforests of the ocean” where one-quarter of all marine species are found, suffered
record die-off due to heat-induced bleaching in 1998. “At this time, it appears that
36
only global warming could have induced such extensive bleaching simultaneously
throughout the disparate reef regions of the world,” a State Department scientific
report concluded.
As the Pacific has warmed, so has Alaska. On the south central coast, cool
temperatures normally keep the spruce bark beetle under control. But with the
warming the beetles have killed most trees over three million acres, one of the largest
insect-caused forest deaths in North American history.
Evidence is mounting that global warming is here and humanity is driving it.
Remaining scientific uncertainty “does not justify inaction in the mitigation of
human-induced climate change and/or the adaptation to it,” the American
Geophysical Union said in a recent statement.
The emerging scientific consensus leaves us with no excuses. We must rapidly
switch from fossil fuels to clean energy. The global climate crisis, perhaps the greatest
challenge in the history of civilization, calls upon us to act without delay.
1. In line 1, the word “predictions”most nearly means
(A) prejudices
(B) gossips
(C) prophecies
(D) preoccupations
2. According to this passage,
(A) warming is having favourable effects on plants and animals.
(B) warming is having devastating effects on plants and animals.
(C) warming is not having devastating effects on plants and animals.
(D) warming is having insufficient effects on plants and animals.
3. The word “warming” as it is used in this passage means
(A) growing warmer
(B) warning
(C) warranting
(D) becoming cold
4. The style of the passage is
(A) epic style
(B) journalistic style
(C) grand style
37
(D) elevated style
5. Which of the following living things have been killed by the beetles with the
warming?
(A) Most trees over 3 million acres have been killed by the beetles with the warming.
(B) Most flowers over 3 million acres have been killed by the beetles with the
warming.
(C) Most cicadae over 3 million acres have been killed by the beetles with the
warming.
(D) Most trees over 2 million acres have been killed by the beetles with the warming.
6. The main idea of the passage is that
(A) we must rapidly switch from clean energy to fossil fuels.
(B) we should slowly switch from fossil fuels to clean energy.
(C) we must not rapidly switch from fossil fuels to clean energy.
(D) we must rapidly switch from fossil fuels to clean energy.
7. The word “disparate” as it is used in this selection means
(A) essentially different
(B) equal
(C) fair
(D) entire
8. Which of the following is true?
(A) Global warming is not here and humanity is not driving it.
(B) Global warming is here and humanity is driving it.
(C) Global warming will not be greatest in the polar regions.
(D) Global warming could not have induced such extensive bleaching.
9. Which of the following is not true?
(A) The global climate crisis calls upon us to act without delay.
(B) The global climate crisis calls upon us to act without a postponing.
(C) The global climate crisis does not call upon us to act without delay.
(D) The global climate crisis calls upon us to act without a putting off.
10. This passage leads one to believe that
(A) Arctic sea ice has been shrinking by 3 per cent each decade since 1970.
38
(B) Arctic sea ice has been shrinking by 4 per cent each decade since 1970.
(C) Arctic sea ice has been shrinking by 5 per cent each decade since 1970.
(D) Arctic sea ice has been shrinking by 2 per cent each decade since 1970.
PRACTICE TEST 10
Part A
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Directions: In this part each problem consists of an incomplete sentence. Below
the sentence are four choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You should find the
one choice which best completes the sentence.
1. No one is expected to be a martyr when it comes to the environment, but for nearly
…, there’s plenty of room for improvement.
(A) everyone
(C) somebody
(B) everything
(D) something
2. You shouldn’t feel responsible for every environmental problem, and you needn’t
worry if you’re not ready to make major changes in your life; old habits die … .
(A) hardly
(C) harder
(B) hard
(D) hardest
3. …, many of the suggested actions in this guide can easily be incorporated into your
existing routine.
(A) Because of
(C) However
(B) So
(D) Even
4. Businesses only sell those things the public will buy; … , by making
environmentally sound purchases, you’re increasing the demand for these goods and
decreasing the market for products which pollute unnecessarily or deplete resources.
(A) out of
(C) as for
(B) according to
(D) so
5. As a society, we must stop paying lip-service to environmental quality and begin,
as individuals, … responsibility for our personal environmental impact.
(A) takes
(C) took
(B) to take
(D) has taken
39
6. While it’s true that no one person’s recycling activities … buying decisions will
solve our environmental problems, this does not diminish one’s responsibility to do
what one can reasonably do.
(A) and
(C) neither … nor
(B) either … or
(D) or
7. Modification of your buying habits is one of the easiest steps to take … reducing
your environmental impact.
(A) outwards
(C) towards
(B) downwards
(D) inwards
8. To start …, look at how you can attack our waste disposal problems at their source
by minimizing the amount of materials you bring home from the store which will
ultimately wind up in your trash.
(A) with
(C) from
(B) at
(D) of
9. Try not … non-durable goods made of plastic, such as drink cups and bottles,
plastic bags, and plastic packaging.
(A) buying
(C) bought
(B) to buy
(D) buys
10. Avoid perfect-looking waxed produce; … pesticide use is for cosmetic purposes
only, so accept produce with superficial blemishes.
(A) many
(C) more
(B) much
(D) most
Part B
READING COMPREHENSION
Directions: After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each
question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in the passage.
Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.
The comment I hear most frequently from my Environmental Science students
40
nowadays goes something like this: “It seems so hopeless. After all, we live in a
throwaway society, and as individuals we can't change that. Even though we are
environmentally aware and concerned, there's really nothing we can do about these
problems, is there?”
Fortunately, the answer is easy: Yes, there is something you can do, and you
can make a real difference. You can be an environmentally responsible citizen,
making wise choices as a consumer and actively working to re-shape our society into
a sustainable one. A change is necessary, and the time is now. Decisions made in this
decade will determine the quality of life for generations to come, and each of us plays
a role in the decision-making progress.
Your role begins with your lifestyle. This guide focuses on ways in which you
can minimize your impact on the environment by adopting an environmentally “light”
lifestyle. Most of the suggestions are easy to carry out and entail little or no extra
effort or costs on your part. Some, such as organizing a student action group or
regularly writing your legislators, require significant inputs of time or effort. None,
however, will require major sacrifices or cause undue hardship. These are mostly
things that anyone, no matter how busy (or lazy!), can do. And if most of us do them,
many of our worst pollution and resource problems will be lessened.
1. In line 1, the word “comment”most nearly means
(A) a remark
(B) a reward
(C) revenge
(D) a result
2. This selection leads one to believe that
(A) you can make a real difference.
(B) you can’t make a real difference.
(C) you can’t change our society.
(D) you can’t play a role in the decision-making process.
3. The word “sustainable” is closest in meaning to
(A) stand-offish
(B) intricate
(C) slushy
(D) steadfast
41
4. As it is used in this selection, the word “responsible” is synonymous with.
(A) nationalistic
(B) antitrust
(C) anti-social
(D) answerable
5. The main idea of this passage is that
(A) if most of us don’t do anything, many of our worst pollution and resource
problems won’t be lessened.
(B) if most of us do much, many of our worst pollution and resource problems will be
lessened.
(C) if none of us do anything, many of our worst pollution and resource problems
won’t be lessened.
(D) if most of us didn’t do anything, many of our worst pollution and resource
problems wouldn’t be lessened.
6. This passage refers to
(A) medicine
(B) ecology
(C) cosmetics
(D) cosmology
7. Is there really not anything we can do about our environmental problems?
(A) There’s really nothing we can do about these problems.
(B) There’s really something we can do about these problems.
(C) There’s really something but we can’t do anything about these problems.
(D) There was really something but we couldn’t do anything about the problems.
8. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) You can be an environmentally responsible citizen.
(B) You can’t be an environmentally responsible citizen.
(C) You can be an environmentally illiterate person.
(D) You can be an environmentally ignorant person.
9. Which of the following statements isn’t true?
(A) Yes, there is something you can do, and you can make a real difference.
(B) Fortunately, the answer is not easy.
42
(C) Fortunately, the answer is easy.
(D) Most of the suggestions are easy to carry out.
10. According to this passage,
(A) your role doesn’t begin with your lifestyle.
(B) your role begins with your lifestyle.
(C) your role begins with Old Style (Julian calendar).
(D) your role begins with New Style (Gregorian calendar).
43
REFERENCES
1. Adams, Mc Kay. Connections. Eco Education, 1994.
2. American Water Works Association (1975). “Sizing Service Lines and Meters”.
AWWA Manual M-22, Denver, Colorado.
3. American Water Works Association (1989). “Distribution Network Analysis for
Water Utilities”. AWWA Manual M-32, Denver, Colorado.
4. American Water Works Association (1996). “Ductile Iron Pipe and Fitting.”
AWWA Manual M-41, Denver, Colorado.
5. Andrew Littlejohn & Diana Hicks. Cambridge English Worldwide. Cambridge
University Press, 1999.
6. Arora, H., and Le Chevallier, M.W. (1998) “Energy Management Opportunities.”
Journal of the American Water Works Association, 90(2), 40.
7. ASCE (1975). Pressure Pipeline Design for Water and Wastewater, ASCE, New
York, New York.
8. ASCE Committee on Pipeline Planning (1992) Pressure Pipeline Design for Water
and Wastewater, ASCE, Reston, Virginia.
9. ASCE\ WEF (1982) Gravity Sanitary Sewer Design and Construction. ASCE,
Reston, Virginia.
10.Babbitt, H.E., and Doland, J.J. (1931). Water Supply Engineering. McGraw-Hill,
New York, New York.
11.Beard, Jonathan. “Glaciers on the Run”. Science 85 Vol.6, 1985.
12.Benedict, R.P. (1910) Fundamentals of Pipe Flow. John Wiley and Sons, New
York, New York.
13.Brdys, M.A., and Ulanicki, B. Operational Control of Water Systems: Structures,
Algorithms, and Applications. Prentice Hall.
14.Broecker, Wallace S. “Carbon Dioxide Circulation Through Ocean and
Atmosphere”. Nature Vol. 308, 1984.
15.Business English Exercises http://www.better-english.com\exerciselist.html,
16. Cesario, A.L. (1995). Modelling, Analysis, and Design of Water Distribution
Systems. AWWA, Denver, Colorado.
17.Chris Clarke. Earth Island Journal. Volume 14, № 3, 1999, Canada.
44
18.Clark, R.M. and Grayman, W.M. (1998). Modelling Water Quality in Drinking
Water Distribution Systems. AWWA, Denver, Colorado.
19.Collins COBUILD, Student’s Grammar. Harper Collins Publishers Ltd. 1991.
20.English for Science and Technology http://www.wfi.fr\est\estl.html.
21.English for Science Links http://www.hut.fi\~rvilmi\EST\.
22.Europe’s Environment – The Dobris Assessment; Stanners / Bourdeau European
Environmental Agency, 1995.
23.Erickson, Jon. “Greenhouse Earth: Tomorrow’s Disaster Today”. U.S.A., 1990.
24.Haestad Methods, Inc. (1997). Computer Applications in Hydraulic Engineering.
Haestad Press. Waterbury, Connecticut.
25.Haestad Methods, Inc. (2001). Current Methods. Haestad Press. Waterbury,
Connecticut.
26.Haestad Methods, Inc. (2003). Advanced Water Distribution. Modelling &
Management. First Edition. Waterbury, Connecticut.
27.Harry, M. Freeman McGraw-Hill Inc. (1995). Industrial Pollution Prevention
Handbook, USA.
28.Longman. Dictionary of Contemporary English. – Langescheidt: Longman, 1987.
29.Maurice F. Strong. The Global Partnership for Environment & Development.
UNCED, Geneva, 1992.
30.Schneider, Stephen H. “ The Greenhouse Effect. Science and Policy”. Science
Vol. 243, 1989.
31.Towe, Kenneth M. “Earth’s Early Atmosphere”. Science Vol. 235, 1987.
45
CONTENTS
Introduction……………………………………………………………………
Practice Test 1………………………………………………………………....
Part A Structure and Written Expression……………………………………..
Part B Reading Comprehension………………………………………………
Practice Test 2…………………………………………………………………
Part A Structure and Written Expression……………………………………..
Part B Reading Comprehension……………………………………………....
Practice Test 3………………………………………………………………....
Part A Structure and Written Expression……………………………………..
Part B Reading Comprehension……………………………………………...
Practice Test 4………………………………………………………………...
Part A Structure and Written Expression…………………………………….
Part B Reading Comprehension……………………………………………...
Practice Test 5………………………………………………………………...
Part A Structure and Written Expression…………………………………….
Part B Reading Comprehension……………………………………………...
Practice Test 6…………………………………………………………………
Part A Structure and Written Expression……………………………………..
Part B Reading Comprehension………………………………………………
Practice Test 7…………………………………………………………………
Part A Structure and Written Expression……………………………………..
Part B Reading Comprehension……………………………………………...
Practice Test 8…………………………………………………………………
Part A Structure and Written Expression…………………………………….
Part B Reading Comprehension……………………………………………..
Practice Test 9………………………………………………………………..
Part A Structure and Written Expression……………………………………
Part B Reading Comprehension……………………………………………..
Practice Test 10………………………………………………………………
Part A Structure and Written Expression……………………………………
Part B Reading Comprehension……………………………………………...
References…………………………………………………………………….
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Тестові завдання з англійської мови (для студентів 1-2 курсів за
спеціальностями 6.070800 «Екологія та охорона навколишнього середовища»,
6.092600 «Водопостачання та водовідведення», 6.092100 «Теплогазопостачання
та вентиляція»)
Укладач:
Відповідальний за випуск:
Редактор:
Комп′ютерна верстка:
Маматова Ніна Василівна
Наумова І. О.
Аляб′єв М. З.
Маматова H. В.
План 2006, поз.536
Підп. до друку
25.01.06 р.
Друк на ризографі
Папір офісний
Формат 60×84 1/16
Умовн.-друк. арк.. 2,4
Обл.-вид. арк. 3,0
Замовл. №
Тираж 100 прим.
Ціна договірна
____________________________________________________________________
61002, м. Харків, ХНАМГ, вул. Революції, 12
Сектор оперативної поліграфії ІОЦ
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