How many tetrads are there in metaphase I of

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Practice Exam Mitosis, Meiosis & Pattern of Inheritance Assessment
1.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How many tetrads are there in metaphase I of meiosis in humans?
2
22
23
46
92
2. How many chromatids are seen in a cell in metaphase I of meiosis in a human?
A. four
B. twenty-three
C. forty-six
D. ninety-two
E. 184
3. The attachment point of microtubules to individual chromosomes is called:
A. kinetochore.
B. centromere.
C. telomere.
D. chromatin.
E. none of these choices
4. Adult somatic, eukaryotic cells are:
A. haploid.
B. diploid.
C. triploid.
D. monoploid.
E. none of the above
5. The X-shaped figures seen during prophase I of meiosis are called:
A. leptonema.
B. zygonema.
C. chiasmata.
D. diakinesis.
6. During which stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
A. the S stage of interphase
B. anaphase of mitosis
C. G2 stage of metaphase
D. prophase
7. Cell division is needed for:
A. growth
B. replacement of worn-out cells
C. healing of damaged tissue
D. all of these
8. The exchange of genetic material (genes) between segments of homologous chromosomes
results in:
A. new genetic combinations
B. zygotes
C. diploid cells
D. segregation of genes
9. An organism having a diploid number of 12 forms gametes having:
A. 6 chromosomes
B. 12 chromosomes
C. 18 chromosomes
D. 24 chromosomes
10. The centromere is a region in which:
A. chromatids are attached to one another
B. metaphase chromosomes become aligned
C. chromosomes are grouped during telophase
D. the nucleus is located prior to mitosis
E. new spindle microtubules form
11. Sexual reproduction:
A. leads to uniform characteristics in a population.
B. results in new combinations of genetic traits.
C. produces genetic clones.
D. requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction.
E. c and d above
12. Sister chromatids are:
A. Replicated chromosomes held together by a common centromere
B. Specialized gamete-forming cells
C. Non-functional chromosomes
D. Homologous pairs of chromosomes
E. Different in their genetic content
13. Which type of cell forms a cleavage plate during cytokinesis?
A. animal in prophase
B. plant in prophase
C. animal cell in cytokinesis
D. plant cell in cytokinesis
14. What event happens in anaphase II of meiosis that also happens in mitotic anaphase?
A. synthesis of microtubules needed for cytokinesis
B. splitting of the centromeres
C. migration of chromosomes to the middle of the cell
D. formation of the cell plate in both animal and plant cells
15. Which of the following is the term for a human cell that contains 22 pairs of autosome and
two X chromosomes?
A. a male somatic cell
B. an unfertilized egg cell
C. a female somatic cell
D. a sperm cell
E. Both A and D are correct.
16. If the liver cells of an animal have 24 chromosomes, its sperm cells would have how many
chromosomes?
A. 12
B. 48
C. 24
D. 6
17. A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for
tail length (T) Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a single
gamete from this organism?
A. tt
B. T
C. Hh
D. HhTt
E. HT
18. Most copies of harmful recessive alleles in a population are carried by individuals that are:
A. afflicted with the disorder caused by the allele.
B.haploid
C. polymorphic
D. heterozygous for the allele
E. homozygous for the allele
19. When can a recessive gene be fully expressed in a person?
A. when the individual has two copies of this allele on the autosomes
B. when the individual is homozygous for this allele
C. when the recessive allele is carried on the X sex chromosome
D. a and b are correct
E. a, b, and c are all correct
20. Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) is dominant to long tails
(t). What fraction of the progeny of the cross BbTt þ BBtt will have black fur and long tails? Do
a punnett Square.
A. 2/8
B. 1/16
C. 3/16
D. 1/2
E. 9/16
21. A couple who are both carriers of the recessive gene for cystic fibrosis have two children
who have cystic fibrosis. What is the probability that their next child will have cystic fibrosis?
Do a Punnett Square
A. 75%
B. 0%
C. 100%
D. 50%
E. 25%
22. What happens if a baby has only one X chromosome, and no Y?
A. The individual would have Klinefelter syndrome.
B. The baby would be a male with Turner syndrome.
C. This baby would be a female with Turner syndrome.
D. Such a major chromosome deficiency is lethal, so the baby would be stillborn.
4.
23. If a gene has alleles that are incompletely dominant, an individual that is heterozygous at this
locus will have characteristics that are:
A. the same as organisms that are homozygous for the dominant allele
B. the same as organisms that are homozygous for the recessive allele
C. intermediate between organisms that are homozygous for the recessive allele and organisms
D. that are homozygous for the dominant allele
24. The nucleus of a diploid cell at the end of telophase contains:
A. an even number of chromosomes
B. an odd number of chromosomes
C. one chromosome of each type
D. chromosomes composed of two sister chromatids
25. Chromosomes are visible during:
A. the entire cell cycle
B. mitosis
C. interphase
D. both interphase and mitosis
26. Which of the following is true about homologous chromosomes?
A. Each parent contributes one member of each pair.
B. Most appear identical when viewed microscopically.
C. Each homologue has genes for the same trait.
D. Sperm and egg contribute pair members.
E. all of the above are true
27. Imagine that you are looking at a eukaryotic cell in the microscope. When you examine the
cell, you see that the nucleus is not present and that chromosomes are condensed and lined up
independently in the center of the cell. What are the possible stages of division you might be
observing in this cell?
A. metaphase of mitosis or meiosis II
B. metaphase of mitosis or meiosis I
C. metaphase of meiosis II
D. metaphase of mitosis
28. To what does the term haploid refer?
A. cells that contain a pair of each type of chromosome
B. chromosomes that contain the same genes
C. cells that contain only one of each type of chromosome
D. a complete set of chromosomes from a single cell that have been stained for microscopic
examination
29. In pea plants, white flower color is recessive. In order to inherit white flower color, a pea
plant must receive:
A. at least one allele for white flower color from one parent.
B. at least one allele for purple flower color from one parent.
C. an allele for white flower color from each parent.
D. two dominant alleles.
30. Which of the following is caused by an abnormal number of autosomes?
A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Down syndrome
E. none of the above
31. An individual has the following genotype Aa. What kind (s) of gametes could this individual
form?
A. All would be Aa
B. All would be A since A is dominant
C. Half would contain A and half a
D. One-fourth would be AA, one-half Aa and one-fourth aa
32. Hemophilia in humans is due to an X-chromosome mutation. What will be the results of
mating between a normal (non-carrier) female and a hemophilac male?
A. half of daughters are normal and half of sons are hemophilic.
B. all sons are normal and all daughters are carriers.
C. half of sons are normal and half are hemophilic; all daughters are carriers.
D. all daughters are normal and all sons are carriers.
E. half of daughters are hemophilic and half of daughters are carriers; all sons are normal.
33. If a plant is true-breeding for a flower color, it is __________ for the flower-color gene.
A. homozygous
B. dominant
C. heterozygous
D. homologous
E. none of the above
34-36. Please note the next three questions should be answered together.
34. Spotted fur (S) in rabbits is dominant and solid fur (s) is recessive. A pure-breeding spotted
male is crossed with a solid female. The genotypes of these individuals are?
A. SS and Ss
B.Ss and Ss
C.Ss and ss
D.SS and ss
35. The offspring of this cross would have what appearance?
A. all would have spotted fur
B. half would have spotted fur and half would have solid fur
C. three-fourths would have spotted fur and one-fourth would have solid fur
D. none of the above
36. Two of these F1 offspring mate. The genotypic ratio of the offspring from this cross would be
A. 3 spotted: 1 solid
B. all spotted
C. 1SS : 2Ss : 1ss
D. 1ss : 1ss
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