Test Questions for Pumps, Seals
and Rotating Equipments
1.
The letters LOTOTO stand for ___________________ Lock Out, Tag Out,
Try out.
2.
Who should have the keys to your lock?
A.
Supervisor.
B.
Co-workers.
C.
Electricians.
D.
You.
3.
When locking out a valve to prevent flow you can assume that closing and
locking the valve will prevent flow?
True
False
4.
You can remove another worker’s lock if you need to work on a piece of
equipment and the worker is unavailable.
True
False
5.
A piece of equipment can have more than one electrical source?
True
False
6.
_Try Out___________ is the step in LOTOTO that you should pay
particular attention to.
7.
Which energy source should you lock out before working on a machine.
A.
Electrical.
B.
Hydraulic.
C.
Pneumatic.
D.
All electrical and stored energy sources.
8.
_____________ and ______________ are two types of stored energy.
(Pneumatic,hydraulic,gravitational,thermal,kinetic, eleasticity,chemical)
9.
In a Synchronous motor, the ___Stator_________ produces a rotating
magnetic field that is proportionate to the supplied frequency.
10.
The ___commutator___________ is a component found mainly in DC
motors. Its purpose is to switch the direction of the electric current in the
armature.
11.
One type of rotor that is used in AC induction motors is
________________. (squirrel cage rotor or wound rotor)
Test Questions for
Pumps, Seals, and Rotating Equipment
Prepared by Mesa Oak Consulting, Inc.
1
12.
In a DC motor, the current goes through the ____armature___________
and becomes an electromagnet. It is cylindrical in shape, and is linked to
a drive shaft to drive the load.
13.
Hydraulic motors:
A.
Operate in either direction of rotation.
B.
Require a separate lubrication source.
C.
Convert hydraulic pressure into linear motion.
D.
Are limited to low to medium torque applications.
14.
The two types of pneumatic motors are _vane_________________ and
_____piston air_________________.
15.
Which is the biggest advantage of air motors over electric, hydraulic, and
servo motors?
A.
Low cost.
B.
Ease of rebuild.
C.
Able to operate it in unfavorable conditions.
D.
Requires no control circuit.
16.
Which is not commonly given information on an electric motor nameplate?
A.
Rated volts and full load amps.
B.
Frame size.
C.
Horsepower.
D.
Service Factor.
E.
Output shaft diameter.
17.
NEMA requires bearing information be placed on a motor nameplate?
True
False
18.
NEMA stands for:
A.
National Electric Motors Association.
B.
National Electric Manufacturers Association.
C.
National Energy Management Association.
D.
Non-Electrical Makers Association.
19.
TEFC (Totally Enclosed Fan Cooled) motors are watertight.
True
False
20.
The __brush___________ rides on the commutator of a motor and forms
an electrical connection between the armature and the power source.
21.
The majority of gear coupling failures occur due to __overheating_______.
Test Questions for
Pumps, Seals, and Rotating Equipment
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2
22.
Gear couplings should be lubricated a minimum of every:
A.
Year.
B.
Six months.
C.
Month.
D.
Week.
23.
The three different types of sheave misalignment are _vertical angularity_,
horizontal angularity_, and ____axial offset___.
Match the coupling types with their application:
24.
Double Roller Chain F___
A. Has a high backlash to allow for
angular misalignment.
25.
Gear A___
B. Has no moving parts and zero
backlash.
26.
Disc E___
C. Very little misalignment, high
horsepower is required.
27.
Bellows B___
28.
Split G___
E. Has no moving parts and
requires no lubrication.
29.
Rigid C___
F. Moderate speeds and steady loads.
30.
Flex D___
G. Used where no movement of
coupled components is desired.
31.
After starting a machine up after belts have been replaced, approximately
how long should you wait before re-tensioning?
A.
24 hours.
B.
1 week.
C.
2 hours.
D.
8 hours.
32.
What is the most common method used in sheave alignment?
A.
Eye.
B.
Straight Edge.
C.
Laser.
D.
Tri-angulation.
Test Questions for
Pumps, Seals, and Rotating Equipment
Prepared by Mesa Oak Consulting, Inc.
D. Used on the vast majority of
rotating equipment.
3
33.
An effective way to tension a belt is to press down in the approximate
center of the belt with a spring scale and adjust to 1/8 inch per of span
length.
True
False
34.
When inspecting a removed belt for defects, what would indicate slippage
had occurred?
A.
Cracking.
B.
Crumbling.
C.
Glazing.
D.
Gouges.
35.
In what order should misalignment be corrected when installing new belts:
__3__ Axial offset.
__1__ Vertical angularity (twist).
__2__ Horizontal angularity.
36.
The tolerance for radial or rim run out on high-speed sheaves (1800 rpm
or higher) should not exceed ____ total indicated reading (TIR).
A.
2 mils.
B.
5 mils.
C.
10 mils
D.
25 mils.
37.
A belt that is hard and brittle would most likely be caused by:
A.
Over-tension.
B.
Under-tension.
C.
Misalignment.
D.
Wrong belt.
38.
Different manufacturer’s belts can be used on the same drive.
True
False
39.
Belt span is determined by:
A.
Measuring the distance from outside to outside edge of the pulleys.
B.
Measuring the distance from the center of the pulleys multiplied by
the distance between the belts.
C.
Measuring the distance from the center of the pulleys.
D.
Taking the circumference of the pulleys and adding it to the
distance between the pulleys.
Test Questions for
Pumps, Seals, and Rotating Equipment
Prepared by Mesa Oak Consulting, Inc.
4
Match the Sheave with its Correct Application
40.
Variable Pitch Sheave B____
A. Used in higher torque applications.
41.
Single Groove Sheave C____
B. Used where speed adjustments are
required.
42.
Multiple Groove Sheave A____
C. Most common sheave type for most
applications.
43.
Three types of gearbox designs are ________________________,
_________________, and ____________________________.
(bevel,cycloidal,helical,offset,planetary,right angle bevel)
44.
A bevel gearbox is a good choice for __low_____ ratio applications.
45.
A helical gearbox would be a good choice for high speed and high load
meshes.
True
False
46.
Helical gearboxes have what type of shafting?
A.
Right angle.
B.
Horizontal.
C.
Parallel.
D.
All of the above.
47.
A cross-helical gearbox should not be used where a precision rating is
desired?
True
False
48.
A cross-helical gearbox should be used where ___low________ speeds
and _____light____________loads are placed on the gearbox.
49.
Select the most common type of gears used in gearboxes.
A.
Rack and Pinion.
B.
Spur.
C.
Internal Ring.
D.
Helical.
E.
Face.
50-54. The five components of gearbox construction are:
_______________________ (gear case housing)
_______________________ (shafts)
_______________________ (bearings)
_______________________ (seals)
_______________________ (gears)
Test Questions for
Pumps, Seals, and Rotating Equipment
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5
55.
Select the best use for planetary gearboxes.
A.
High Speed, High Torque.
B.
Low Torque, High Speed.
C.
Low Torque, Low Speed.
D.
High Torque, Low Speed.
56.
A planetary gear set operates by the planetary wheel gearing rotating
around the ______________ gear.
A.
Sunwheel.
B.
Helical.
C.
Worm.
D.
Spur.
57-59. Name three advantages of using a cycloidal gearbox. (high reduction
ratios,low backlash,high accuracy,high stiffness,can withstand high shock
loads)
_________________________
_________________________
_________________________
60.
How is the drive motor mounted on an offset gearbox?
A.
Coupled.
B.
Direct.
C.
Belt or chain.
D.
Both A & B.
E.
All of the above.
61.
If using a gearbox in a high horsepower application with long-term
efficiency as a consideration, which one would you choose?
A.
Bevel.
B.
Helical.
C.
Worm.
D.
Cycloidal.
62.
A sequential gearbox is also known as a:
A.
Sequential manual transmission.
B.
Worm reduction gearbox.
C.
Spiral bevel gearbox.
D.
Sequential automatic transmission.
63.
Shaft mounted gearboxes require the use of a base frame.
Test Questions for
Pumps, Seals, and Rotating Equipment
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True False
6
64.
Which type of gearbox is based upon the shaft mounting principle?
A.
Parallel shaft.
B.
Sequential.
C.
Planetary.
D.
Both A & C.
E.
Both A & B.
F.
Both B & C.
G.
None of the above.
65.
Spiral bevel gearboxes provide what level of efficiency?
A.
35-45%.
B.
95-98%.
C.
85-95%.
D.
65-75%.
66.
On a spiral bevel gearbox, the shafts have which orientation to each
other?
A.
Right angle.
B.
Horizontal.
C.
Vertical.
D.
Direct.
E.
Parallel.
67.
Spiral bevel gearboxes can be used both as a __reducer______________
and _____increaser_______________.
68.
What type of teeth do the gears in a spiral bevel gearbox have?
A.
Face and helical.
B.
Hypoid.
C.
Straight bevel and ring.
D.
Curved and oblique.
69.
A worm gear changes the direction of the axis of rotary motion?
True
False
70.
A worm gearbox consists of what type of gearing?
A.
Shaft with helical gear and bevel gear.
B.
Shaft with worm gear and bevel gear.
C.
Shaft with spur gear and bevel gear.
D.
Shaft with screw thread and toothed wheel.
71.
A worm reduction gearbox can be overdriven.
72.
A worm reduction gearbox can have a vertical output shaft.
True
False
Test Questions for
Pumps, Seals, and Rotating Equipment
Prepared by Mesa Oak Consulting, Inc.
True
False
7
73.
Crane duty gearboxes are used in ____heavy________
__duty____________ applications.
74.
A worm reduction gearbox can be shaft mounted.
75.
What ranges can a crane duty gearbox come in?
A.
Single.
B.
Double.
C.
Triple.
D.
All of the above.
76.
__Horizontal_______________ and ___vertical_________ are two types
of crane duty gearboxes.
77.
In a generic roller chain drive system, the __chain_________ should be
the weakest component.
78.
High Speed roller chain drive systems generally require:
A.
Larger pitch chain.
B.
Smaller pitch chain.
C.
High-temperature grease.
D.
Double-master link.
79.
The drive ratio normally should be more than __________ in a single
stage drive.
A.
2:1
B.
15:1
C.
7:1
D.
10:1
80.
An offset link is required when the chain has a ____odd________ number
of pitches.
81.
When an idler sprocket is used for static chain tension, it must have fewer
teeth that the small sprocket.
True
False
82.
If the tips of the teeth on a sprocket are wearing off, it could be a sign of:
A.
Loose chain.
B.
Tight chain.
C.
Mis-alignment.
D.
Lubrication problem.
Test Questions for
Pumps, Seals, and Rotating Equipment
Prepared by Mesa Oak Consulting, Inc.
True
False
8
83.
No roller chain should be used when the wear or elongation is _________
or more.
A.
10%
B.
5%
C.
20%
D.
3%
84.
With a center distance between sprockets of 60”, what is the
recommended mid-span movement of a chain?
A.
1”
B.
2”
C.
3”
D.
4”
85-88. Match the roller link component with its function.
85. Pin B___
A. Provides engagement with sprocket teeth.
86. Pin and Roller
link plates C___
B. The interface that provides chain flexure.
87. Bushing D___
C. Primary tension bearing members in the
chain.
88. Roller A___
D. Connects plates, supports free turning
rollers.
89.
Double-pitch chain is chain with _________________ roller missing.
A.
Every fifth.
B.
Every fourth.
C.
Every third.
D.
Every other.
90.
In a #60-4 chain, what does the “6” identify?
A.
The pitch in 1/8” increments.
B.
The pitch in 1/16” increments.
C.
The chain width in 1/16” increments.
D.
The chain width in 1/32” increments.
91.
To decrease the speed of a conveyor that is chain driven, what would you
do?
A.
Add an idler sprocket to the static side of the chain.
B.
Add an idler to the driven side of the chain.
C.
Increase the number of teeth on the driver sprocket.
D.
Increase the number of teeth on the driven sprocket.
Test Questions for
Pumps, Seals, and Rotating Equipment
Prepared by Mesa Oak Consulting, Inc.
9
92.
A common positive displacement compressor is a _____________
compressor.
A.
Centrifugal.
B.
Dynamic.
C.
Reciprocating.
D.
Gas accelerating.
93.
Select the type of compressor that works by trapping a certain amount of
gas and forcing it into a smaller volume.
A.
Positive displacement.
B.
Centrifugal.
C.
Vacuum.
D.
Spring-action.
94.
A characteristic commonly used to rate a compressor is __________.
A.
Temperature limits.
B.
Discharge pressure.
C.
Flow rate.
D.
Intake capacity.
E.
All of the above.
F.
A &C.
G.
B & C.
95.
Select only those types of drive mechanisms that can be used with
compressors.
A.
Electric motors.
B.
Gasoline engines.
C.
Steam turbines.
D.
Gas turbines.
E.
All of the above.
F.
A & B.
G.
C & D.
96.
Select all of the devices that remove moisture from the compressed gas in
a compressed gas system.
A.
Clarifier.
B.
Scrubber.
C.
Demister.
D.
Desiccant dryer.
97.
Why is moisture removed from compressed gas?
A.
To prevent damage to equipment that uses compressed air.
B.
To increase the flow rate of the compressed air.
C.
To decrease the weight of the compressed air.
D.
To decrease the flow rate of the compressed air.
Test Questions for
Pumps, Seals, and Rotating Equipment
Prepared by Mesa Oak Consulting, Inc.
10
98.
Select the device that prevents excessive pressure from building up in a
compressed gas system.
A.
Diaphragm valve actuator.
B.
Safety valve.
C.
Scrubber.
D.
Gas receiver.
99.
An air compressor typically has some type of ___________ in the intake
line.
A.
Heating element.
B.
Cooler.
C.
Filtering device.
D.
Lubricator.
100.
Select the cooling medium that cools a compressor that has metal fins on
its casting.
A.
Ice.
B.
Water.
C.
Refrigerant.
D.
Air.
101.
Select all of the compressor auxiliary devices that are basically shell and
tube heat exchangers.
A.
Demister.
B.
Oiler.
C.
After cooler.
D.
Intercooler.
E.
All of the above.
F.
A & C.
G.
C & D.
102.
Centrifugal force can separate liquids from gasses because __________.
A.
Gasses are heavier than liquids.
B.
Liquids are heavier than gases.
C.
Liquids and gasses weigh the same.
D.
None of the above.
103.
Select the substance that is used to lubricate piston rings in most
reciprocating compressors that contain pistons.
A.
Water.
B.
Graphite.
C.
Oil.
D.
Hydrogen gas.
Test Questions for
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11
104.
Which of these statements is the reason why the operation of an oil
separator is possible.
A.
Oil is heavier than gas.
B.
Gas is heavier than oil.
C.
Gas and oil weigh approximately the same.
D.
None of the above
105.
Large tanks that store compressed gas are called __________.
A.
Unloaders.
B.
Sumps.
C.
Receivers.
D.
Regenerators.
106.
Select the device that is used to relieve excess pressure in a compressed
gas system.
A.
Orifice plate.
B.
Safety valve.
C.
Regeneration tank.
D.
Receiver.
107.
Select all of the characteristics that gases in compressed systems may
have.
A.
They may be explosive.
B.
They may be toxic.
C.
They may be flammable.
D.
They may displace air.
E.
All of the above.
F.
A, B, & C.
108.
Select all of the hazards that may exist around a compressed gas system.
A.
Hot surfaces
B.
Excessive noise.
C.
Airborne dust and dirt.
D.
Toxic gases.
E.
A & B.
F.
None of the above.
G.
All of the above.
109.
The main difference between after cooler and intercooler is:
A.
The cooling medium used.
B.
Their design.
C.
The location in the flow path of the compressed gas.
D.
All of the above.
E.
None of the above.
Test Questions for
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12
110.
Filters may be used in a compressed air system to clean or dry the
compressed air.
True
False
111.
Which device removes solid impurities from the gas in a compressed gas
system?
A.
Demister.
B.
Filter.
C.
Scrubber.
D.
Clarifier.
112.
Which of these choices is typically found in an air compressor’s intake
line?
A.
Filtering device.
B.
Cooler.
C.
Heating Element.
D.
Lubricator.
113.
The function of a demister is to lubricate piston rings.
True
False
114.
In a vertical column of liquid, the height of the column is called ________.
A.
Head.
B.
Positive suction distance.
C.
Pump static pressure.
D.
Static head.
115.
The conditions on the suction side of a pump that determines the lowest
pressure point that fluid will vaporize is the definition of what term?
A.
Net positive suction head.
B.
Maximum pump speed.
C.
Cavitation.
D.
Outlet piping restriction quotient.
116.
If the area of a pipe is increased, the velocity of flow will ______. increase
117.
In a centrifugal pump, what is the function of the volute?
A.
Directs the liquid to the impeller.
B.
Converts liquid velocity to pressure.
C.
Converts pressure to liquid velocity.
D.
Decreases the ability of pump to cavitate.
Test Questions for
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13
118.
The impeller in a centrifugal pump is designed to _________ the liquid out
of the volute.
A.
Sling.
B.
Keep.
C.
Cup.
D.
All of the above.
E.
None of he above.
Match the pump characteristics with the appropriate pump type.
119.
A___ Does not impart velocity to
the liquid it is pumping.
A. Positive Displacement
120.
B___ Flow and pressure are
directly dependent on
each other.
B. Centrifugal
121.
A___ Puts out a constant volume
with each revolution of the shaft.
122.
B___ Pump is not self-priming.
123.
B___ Works best with low viscous fluids.
124.
Most of the pumps used in the process industry are of the _______ vane
type.
A.
Radial
B.
Mixed flow.
C.
Francis.
D.
Axial flow.
125.
Physical damage of the impeller is most often caused by ___________.
A.
Cavitation
B.
Pipe strain.
C.
High running speeds.
D.
Assembly process.
126.
As the velocity of a liquid increases, the pressure to the flow will
____________ (decrease) in a centrifugal pump.
127.
It is a good idea to start a centrifugal pump with the discharge valve shut.
True
False
Test Questions for
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14
128.
The Best Efficiency Point (BEP) of a centrifugal pump can be described
as:
A.
The steady state operation of the pump.
B.
The point where the pump shaft experiences the least amount of
vibration.
C.
The lowest rpm the pump can run and still provide the required
G.P.M.
D.
The pump operation point that has the least cavitation.
Match the pump with its characteristics or application.
129.
D___ Limited to pumping clean
lubricating fluids.
A. Inline
130.
A___ Mounted in the piping. No base
plate or alignment required.
B. Pit Suction
131.
E___ Circulates some of the process
fluid to lubricate and cool the
bearings that support the inner rotor.
C. Double Suction
132.
B.___ Can be arranged to be completely
submerged including the motor.
D. Canned
133.
C___ The rotor is suspended between two
bearings with fluid entering either
side of the impeller.
E. Magnetic Drive
134.
The ___Rotary_____ positive displacement pump has a rotating shaft that
moves the chamber along the bore or housing towards the discharge port.
135.
The ___Reciprocating ___ positive displacement pump always has check
valves on the suction and discharge side of the pump.
136.
This type of pump is especially suited for toxic material service:
A.
Lobe.
B.
Gear.
C.
Plunger.
D.
Diaphragm.
137.
The greatest danger to positive displacement pumps is:
A.
Overpressure.
B.
Cavitation.
C.
Inlet loss.
D.
Water hammer.
Test Questions for
Pumps, Seals, and Rotating Equipment
Prepared by Mesa Oak Consulting, Inc.
15
138.
Positive Displacement rotary pumps are rarely used in hydraulic systems.
True
False
Match the positive displacement pump to the appropriate statement.
139.
D___ Has a retractable spring loaded mechanism
that extends radially from the center of the
pump rotor.
A. Gear
140.
A___ Uses the meshing of rotating teeth to move
liquid through a hydraulic system.
B. Diaphragm
141.
E___ Consists of two meshing components
mounted on two parallel shafts. One right
hand thread, the other left hand thread.
One shaft drives the other through a set of
Timing gears.
C. Plunger
142.
B___ The pulsating motion is transmitted to the
membrane through a fluid or mechanical
drive and then through the membrane to
the pumped liquid.
D. Vane
143.
C___ Is a double action pump that draws liquid
in on one stroke and discharges the liquid
on the return stroke.
E. Screw
144.
Which choice is not a limiting factor in how much pressure a rotary
positive displacement pump will produce?
A.
Material of internal components.
B.
Power of the pump driver.
C.
Strength of the pump casing.
D.
The specific gravity of the fluid.
145.
If you double the speed of a positive displacement rotary pump, it will
require ____twice____ the horsepower.
146.
If the bypass line in a positive displacement pump were partially open,
what symptom would be observed?
A.
Cavitation noise.
B.
An increase in output velocity.
C.
The pump output capacity is lower.
D.
A decrease in input pressure.
Test Questions for
Pumps, Seals, and Rotating Equipment
Prepared by Mesa Oak Consulting, Inc.
16
QuickTime™ and a
decompressor
are needed to see this picture.
List the pump components for the following letters:
147.
A.
____________________ 153.
G.
___________________
148.
B.
____________________ 154.
H.
____________________
149.
C.
____________________ 155.
I.
____________________
150.
D.
____________________ 156.
J.
____________________
151.
E.
____________________ 157.
K.
____________________
152.
F.
____________________
Test Questions for
Pumps, Seals, and Rotating Equipment
Prepared by Mesa Oak Consulting, Inc.
17
This workforce solution was funded by a grant awarded under the Workforce Innovation in Regional Development
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Test Questions for
Pumps, Seals, and Rotating Equipment
Prepared by Mesa Oak Consulting, Inc.
18