MODULE 4. SYMPTOMS AND SYNDROMES IN
SURGERY
Text test questions
1. Causes aneurysm of the thoracic aorta:
A. *Atherosclerosis
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
2. Causes aneurysm of the thoracic aorta:
A. *Trauma
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
3. Causes aneurysm of the thoracic aorta:
A. *Syphilis
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
4. Causes aneurysm of the thoracic aorta:
A. *No right answer
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
5. Diffuse enlargement of the thoracic aorta occurs at:
A. *Nonspecific aortoarteriitis
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
6. Diffuse enlargement of the thoracic aorta occurs at:
A. *Morfan’s Syndrome
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
7. Diffuse enlargement of the thoracic aorta occurs at:
A. *No right answer
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
8. The clinical picture the aneurysm of the thoracic aorta distinguish syndromes:
A. *Algic
B. Venous hypertension
C. Respiratory failure
D. Chronic arterial ischemia
E. Eating Disorders
9. The clinical picture the aneurysm of the thoracic aorta distinguish syndromes:
A. *Compression
B. Venous hypertension
C. Respiratory failure
D. Chronic arterial ischemia
E. Eating Disorders
10. The clinical picture the aneurysm of the thoracic aorta distinguish syndromes:
A. *Hemodynamic
B. Venous hypertension
C. Respiratory failure
D. Chronic arterial ischemia
E. Eating Disorders
11. The clinical picture the aneurysm of the thoracic aorta distinguish syndromes:
A. *No right answer
B. Venous hypertension
C. Respiratory failure
D. Chronic arterial ischemia
E. Eating Disorders
12. Aortoalgya found at:
A. *Aneurysms of the thoracic aorta
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
D. Chronic arterial ischemia
E. Vena cava superior syndrome
13. Aortoalgya found at:
A. *No right answer
B. Deepvein thrombosis
C. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
D. Chronic arterial ischemia
E. Vena cava superior syndrome
14. For aneurysms the thoracic aorta is characterized
A. *Increased breast-pressure
B. Reduced breast pressure
C. Pressure changes do not
D. All answers are correct
E. The lower abdominal pressure
15. For aneurysms the thoracic aorta is characterized
A. *No right answer
B. Reduced breast pressure
C. Pressure changes do not
D. All answers are correct
E. The lower abdominal pressure
16. For aneurysms the thoracic aorta is characterized
A. *Dry unproductive cough
B. Moist cough
C. The presence of asthma
D. The presence of pleural effusion
E. Respiratory disorders are absent
17. For aneurysms the thoracic aorta is characterized
A. *No right answer
B. Moist cough
C. The presence of asthma
D. The presence of pleural effusion
E. Respiratory disorders are absent
18. For artalgya is characteristic
A. *Increased blood pressure
B. Lowering blood pressure
C. Changes in blood pressure is not
D. Fluctuations in blood pressure
E. Reducing pulse pressure
19. For artalgya is characteristic
A. *No right answer
B. Lowering blood pressure
C. Changes in blood pressure is not
D. Fluctuations in blood pressure
E. Reducing pulse pressure
20. For artalgya is characteristic
A. *Lack of effect of nitrate
B. The presence of the effect of nitrate
C. The presence of the effect of statins
D. The presence of the effect of antibiotic
E. The presence of the effect of aspirin
21. For artalgya characteristic
A. *No right answer
B. The presence of the effect of nitrate
C. The presence of the effect of statins
D. The presence of the effect of antibiotic
E. The presence of the effect of aspirin
22. Artalgya must be differentiated from
A. *Angina
B. Appendicitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Asthmatic
E. Ileus
23. Artalgesia must be differentiated from
A. *Syndrome of the anterior chest wall
B. Appendicitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Asthmatic
E. Ileus
24. Artalgya must be differentiated from
A. *Fibromiositis anterior chest
B. Appendicitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Asthmatic
E. Ileus
25. Artalgya must be differentiated from
A. *No right answer
B. Appendicitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Asthmatic
E. Ileus
26. The aneurysm thoracic aorta may complicate
A. *Vena cava superior syndrome
B. Vena cavainferiorsSyndrome
C. Appendicitis
D. Inguinal hernia
E. Ileus
27. The aneurysm of the thoracic aorta may complicate
A. *Unilateral edema, cyanosis and swelling of surface veins of the hands
B. Vena cava inferior Syndrome
C. Appendicitis
D. Inguinal hernia
E. Ileus
28. The aneurysm of the thoracic aorta may complicate
A. *The extension of jugular veins
B. Vena cavai nferior Syndrome
C. Appendicitis
D. Inguinal hernia
E. Ileus
29. The aneurysm of the thoracic aorta may complicate
A. *No right answer
B. Vena cava inferior Syndrome
C. Appendicitis
D. Inguinal hernia
E. Ileus
30. For the initial part of the aortic arch aneurysm is characterized by
A. *The decrease and delay the pulse on the radial artery on the right
B. The decrease and delay the pulse on the radial artery on the left
C. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
right
D. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
left
E. All answers are correct
31. For the initial part of the aortic arch aneurysm is characterized by
A. *No right answer
B. The decrease and delay pulse on the radial artery on the left
C. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
right
D. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
left
E. All answers are correct
32. For the initial part of the aortic arch aneurysm is characterized by
A. *The decrease and delay the pulse on the carotid artery on the right
B. The decrease and delay the pulse on the carotid artery on the left
C. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
right
D. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
left
E. All answers are correct
33. For the initial part of the aortic arch aneurysm is characterized by
A. *No right answer
B. The decrease and ¬ pazdyvanie pulse on the carotid artery on the left
C. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse at the radial artery on the
right
D. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse at the radial artery on the left
E. All answers are correct
34. For aneurysms of the distal aortic arch is characterized by
A. *The decrease and delay the pulse on the radial artery on the left
B. The decrease and delay the pulse on the radial artery on the right
C. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
right
D. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
left
E. All answers are correct
35. For aneurysms of the distal aortic arch is characterized by
A. *The decrease and delay the pulse on the carotid artery on the left
B. The decrease and delay the pulse on the carotid artery on the right
C. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
right
D. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
left
E. All answers are correct
36. Pulsating tumor-like formation with a reddish tinge of the skin over his right or left
from the front of the sternum is characteristic:
A. *Aneurism
B. Aneurysms of the descending aorta
C. Abdominal aortic aneurysms
D. Embolism of aorta
E. Thrombosis of the aorta
37. Pulsating tumor-like formation with a reddish tinge of the skin over his right or left
from the front of the sternum is characteristic:
A. *No right answer
B. Aneurysms of the descending aorta
C. Aneurysms of the abdominal aorta
D. Embolism of aorta
E. Thrombosis of the aorta
38. For diagnosis of aneurysms of the thoracic aorta is used:
A. *Contrast aortography
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Peripheral vascular ultrasound
D. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
E. Thermometry
39. For diagnosis of aneurysms of the thoracic aorta is used:
A. *Multi-axis x-ray of the chest cavity
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Peripheral vascular ultrasound
D. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
E. Thermometry
40. For the diagnosis of aneurysms of the thoracic aorta is used:
A. *Echocardiography
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Peripheral vascular ultrasound
D. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
E. Thermometry
41. For diagnosis of aneurysms of the thoracic aorta is used:
A. *No right answer
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Peripheral vascular ultrasound
D. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
E. Thermometry
42. Coarctation of aorta is:
A. *Congenital aortic
B. Valvular aortic
C. Valvular peripheral vascular
D. Congenital heart
E. All answers are correct
43. Coarctation of aorta is:
A. *No right answer
B. Valvular aortic
C. Valvular peripheral vascular
D. Congenital heart
E. All answers are correct
44. Type I Coarctation of aorta are:
A. *Isolated contraction in the transition region of the aortic arch to the
descending division
B. The combination of this defect with ductus arteriosus and arterial or venous
shunting of blood
C. The combination of coarctation of the aorta with other congenital or acquired
defects of the cardiovascular system
D. Multiple or atypical localization of coarctation of the aorta
E. All answers are correct
45. Type II Coarctation of aorta are:
A. *The combination of this defect with ductus arteriosus and arterial or venous
shunting of blood
B. Isolated contraction in the transition region of the aortic arch to the
descending division
C. The combination of coarctation of the aorta with other congenital or acquired
defects of the cardiovascular system
D. Multiple or atypical localization of coarctation of the aorta
E. All answers are correct
46. Type III Coarctation of aorta are:
A. *The combination of coarctation of the aorta with other congenital or acquired
defects of the cardiovascular system
B. Isolated contraction in the transition region of the aortic arch to the
descending division
C. The combination of this defect with ductus arteriosus and arterial or venous
shunting of blood
D. Multiple or atypical localization of coarctation of the aorta
E. All answers are correct
47. For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Well muscled shoulder girdle
B. Poor development of the musculature of the shoulder girdle
C. Well muscled legs
D. Good development of the pelvic belt
E. All answers are correct
48. For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Poor development of the pelvic girdle muscles
B. Poor development of the musculature of the shoulder girdle
C. Well muscled legs
D. Good development of the pelvic belt
E. All answers are correct
49. For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Poor development of the lower limb muscles
B. Poor development of the musculature of the shoulder girdle
C. Well muscled legs
D. Good development of the pelvic belt
E. All answers are correct
50. For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *No right answer
B. Poor development of the musculature of the shoulder girdle
C. Well muscled legs
D. Good development of the pelvic belt
E. All answers are correct
51. For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Pulse on the radial artery a full and busy
B. Pulse on the radial artery weakened
C. Pulse on the radial artery is absent
D. Pulse on the radial artery thready
E. All answers are correct
52. For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Pulse on the dorsal artery of foot missing
B. Pulse on the back of a weakened artery of foot
C. Pulse on the dorsal artery of foot is determined
D. Pulse on the dorsal artery of foot satisfactory
E. All answers are correct
53. For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Pulse on the posterior tibial artery is absent
B. Pulse on the posterior tibial artery weakened
C. Pulse on the posterior tibial artery is determined
D. Pulse on the posterior tibial artery satisfactory
E. All answers are correct
54. For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Pulse on the femoral artery weakened
B. Pulse on the femoral artery is absent
C. Pulse on the femoral artery is defined clearly
D. Pulse on the femoral artery satisfactory
E. All answers are correct
55. For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *No right answer
B. Pulse on the femoral artery is absent
C. Pulse on the femoral artery is defined clearly
D. Pulse on the femoral artery satisfactory
E. All answers are correct
56. Tortuosity and increased intercostals arteries is characteristic
A. *Aortarctia
B. Aneurysms of the thoracic aorta
C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
D. Vena cava superior syndrome
E. Vena cava inferior syndrome
57. Tortuosity and increased intercostals arteries is characteristic
A. *No right answer
B. Aneurysms of the thoracic aorta
C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
D. Vena cava superior syndrome
E. Vena cava inferior syndrome
58. Strong pulsation of the carotid, brachial, intercostal arteries is characteristic
A. *Coarctation of the aorta
B. Aneurysms of the thoracic aorta
C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
D. Vena cava superior syndrome
E. Vena cava inferior syndrome
59. Strong pulsation of the carotid, brachial, intercostal arteries is characteristic
A. *No right answer
B. Aneurysms of the thoracic aorta
C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
D. Vena cava superior syndrome
E. Vena cava inferior syndrome
60. For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Blood pressure at the hands of elevated
B. Blood pressure is lowered at the hands of
C. Blood pressure at the hands of the norm
D. The difference of pressure on the right and left hand
E. All answers are correct
61. For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Blood pressure on the legs lowered
B. Blood pressure on the legs elevated
C. Blood pressure on the legs in normal
D. The difference of pressure on the right and left leg
E. All answers are correct
62. For diagnostic coarctation of the aorta used:
A. *ECG
B. Pulse Oximetry
C. Radiography limbs
D. Radiography abdominal
E. All answers are correct
63. For diagnostic coarctation of the aorta used:
A. *Radiography of the chest cavity
B. Pulse Oximetry
C. Radiography limbs
D. Radiography abdominal
E. All answers are correct
64. For diagnostic coarctation of the aorta used:
A. *Contrast aortography
B. Pulse Oximetry
C. Radiography limbs
D. Radiography abdominal
E. All answers are correct
65. For diagnostic coarctation of the aorta used:
A. *No right answer
B. Pulse Oximetry
C. Radiography limbs
D. Radiography abdominal
E. All answers are correct
66. In the etiology of stenosis brachycephalic arteries plays a role
A. *Obliterating atherosclerosis
B. Endarteritis
C. Viral diseases
D. Intoxication
E. Supercooling
67. In the etiology of stenosis brachycephalic arteries plays a role
A. *Nonspecific aortoarteriitis
B. Endarteritis
C. Viral diseases
D. Intoxication
E. Supercooling
68. In the etiology of stenosis brachycephalic arteries plays a role
A. *Exstravessels compression
B. Endarteritis
C. Viral diseases
D. Intoxication
E. Supercooling
69. In the etiology of stenosis brachycephalic arteries plays a role
A. *Fibromuscular dysplasia
B. Endarteritis
C. Viral diseases
D. Intoxication
E. Supercooling
70. In the etiology of stenosis brachycephalic arteries plays a role
A. *No right answer
B. Endarteritis
C. Viral diseases
D. Intoxication
E. Supercooling
71. Obliterating atherosclerosis of the carotid arteries is more common in:
A. *Men older than 40 years
B. In men younger than 40 years
C. In the men's 20 - 30 years
D. Not found
E. All answers are correct
72. Obliterating atherosclerosis of the carotid arteries is more common in:
A. *No right answer
B. In men younger than 40 years
C. In the men's 20 - 30 years
D. Not found
E. All answers are correct
73. Nonspecific aortoarteriitis carotid arteries is more common in:
A. *Women younger than 30 years
B. Women older than 30 years
C. Women 40 - 50 years
D. Not found
E. All answers are correct
74. The most important mechanism compensation in lesions of brachiocephalic arteries
is:
A. *Circle of Willis
B. Aortic arch
C. Brachial artery
D. Abdominal aorta
E. Vena cava superior
75. The most important mechanism of compensation in lesions of brachiocephalic arteries
is:
A. *No right answer
B. Aortic arch
C. Brachial artery
D. Abdominal aorta
E. Vena cava superior
76. Steal syndrome characteristic:
A. *Occlusion of the proximal segment of the clavicular artery
B. Occlusion of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Occlusion of the abdominal aorta
E. Occlusion of the superior vena cava
77. Steal syndrome characteristic:
A. *No right answer
B. Occlusion of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Occlusion of the abdominal aorta
E. Occlusion of the superior vena cava
78. At Steal syndrome is characterized rob:
A. *Brain
B. Right upper extremity
C. Left upper limb
D. Both limbs
E. All answers are correct
79. Reducing the pulsation the left superficial temporal characteristic for:
A. *Lesions of the left common carotid artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
80. The absence pulsations the left superficial temporal characteristic for:
A. *Lesions of the left common carotid artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
81. Reducing pulsations on the left radial artery characteristic for:
A. *Lesion of the left subclavian artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
82. The absence pulsation on the left radial artery characteristic:
A. *Lesion of the left subclavian artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
83. Reducing pulsation the left brachial artery is characteristic:
A. *Lesion of the left subclavian artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
84. Absence pulsation left brachial artery is characteristic of:
A. *Lesion of the left subclavian artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
85. Reducing pulsation left brachial artery is characteristic:
A. *No right answer
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
86. Systolic murmur at the corner of the lower jaw is characteristic:
A. *Atherosclerotic carotid artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
87. Complications of occlusive disease brachycephalic arteries are:
A. *Cerebral circulation
B. Hemorrhagic stroke
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Thrombosis of the aortic arch
E. Embolism brachial artery
88. Complications of occlusive disease brachycephalic arteries are:
A. *Cerebral circulation
B. Hemorrhagic stroke
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Thrombosis of the aortic arch
E. Brachial artery embolism
89. Complications of occlusive disease brachycephalic arteries are:
A. *Ischemic stroke
B. Hemorrhagic stroke
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Thrombosis of the aortic arch
E. Brachial artery embolism
90. Complications of occlusive disease brachycephalic arteries are:
A. *No right answer
B. Hemorrhagic stroke
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Thrombosis of the aortic arch
E. Brachial artery embolism
91. Syndrome of vertebrobasilar insufficiency characteristic:
A. *Lesions of vertebral arteries
B. Lesions of the internal carotid arteries
C. Lost external carotid arteries
D. Lesions of brachial artery
E. Lesions of the aortic arch
92. Syndrome of vertebrobasilar insufficiency characteristic:
A. *No right answer
B. Lesions of the internal carotid arteries
C. Lost external carotid arteries
D. Lesions of brachial artery
E. Lesions of the aortic arch
93. In the diagnosis pathology of the carotid arteries leading place is:
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the neck
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
94. In the diagnosis pathology of the carotid arteries leading place is:
A. *Contrast angiography
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the neck
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
95. In the diagnosis pathology of vertebral arteries leading place is:
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the neck
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
96. In the diagnosis pathology of vertebral arteries leading place is:
A. *Contrast angiography
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the neck
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
97. In the diagnosis pathology of the subclavian artery leading place is:
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Thermometry
C. Neck X-ray
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
98. In the diagnosis pathology of the subclavian artery leading place is:
A. *Contrast angiography
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the neck
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
99. In the diagnosis pathology of the subclavian artery leading place is:
A. *No right answer
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the neck
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
100. Nonspecific aortoarteriitis more striking:
A. *Brachiocephalic trunk
B. Brachial artery
C. Abdominal aorta
D. Thoracic aorta
E. Coronary arteries
101. For lesions the subclavian artery is characterized by:
A. *Weak hands
B. Dermahemia hands
C. Increased filling of subcutaneous veins of the upper extremities
D. The pulsation of the arteries of the upper extremities is not broken
E. All true
102. For lesions the subclavian artery is characterized by:
A. *Chill hand
B. Dermahemia hands
C. Increased filling of subcutaneous veins of the upper extremities
D. The pulsation of the arteries of the upper extremities is not broken
E. All true
103. For lesions the subclavian artery is characterized by:
A. *Cooling of the skin brushes
B. Dermahemia hands
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
C. Increased filling of subcutaneous veins of the upper extremities
D. The pulsation of the arteries of the upper extremities is not broken
E. All true
For lesions the subclavian artery is characterized by:
A. *Hypotrophy of muscles of hands
B. Dermahemia hands
C. Increased filling of subcutaneous veins of the upper extremities
D. The pulsation of the arteries of the upper extremities is not broken
E. All true
For lesions the subclavian artery is characterized by:
A. *Reduction of blood pressure on the upper extremity
B. Dermahemia hands
C. Increased filling of subcutaneous veins of the upper extremities
D. The pulsation of the arteries of the upper extremities is not broken
E. All true
For lesions the subclavian artery is characterized by:
A. *The weakening of the pulse at the radial artery
B. Dermahemia hands
C. Increased filling of subcutaneous veins of the upper extremities
D. The pulsation of the arteries of the upper extremities is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Headache
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Dizziness
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Seizures brief eclipse of consciousness
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Loss of consciousness
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
A. *Sonitus
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Dysopia
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Diminished hearing
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Ischemic stroke with hemiparesis
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *The pulsation of the carotid arteries is not determined
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
Most of atherosclerotic lesions of carotid arteries captures:
A. *Bifurcation of the carotid artery
B. Initial division of the common carotid artery
C. Secondary divisions of the common carotid artery
D. Distal common carotid artery
E. All true
In the diagnosis of atherosclerotic lesions an important role plays:
A. *Ultrasound of neck vessels
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
In the diagnosis of atherosclerotic lesions an important role plays:
A. *Contrast radiography
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
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120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
In the diagnosis of atherosclerotic lesions an important role plays:
A. *No right answer
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
In the diagnosis of atherosclerotic lesions an important role plays:
A. *Digital subtraction angiography
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
In the diagnosis of atherosclerotic lesions an important role plays:
A. *Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
The linear velocity of blood flow in carotid arteries can be determined using
A. *Ultrasonic Doppler
B. CT
C. Radiography neck
D. Rheovasography
E. Thermometry
The volumetric blood flow rate on the carotid arteries can be determined using
A. *Ultrasonic Doppler
B. CT
C. Radiography neck
D. Rheovasography
E. Thermometry
The linear velocity of blood flow in carotid arteries can be determined using
A. *No right answer
B. CT
C. Radiography neck
D. Rheovasography
E. Thermometry
The percentage of stenosis of the carotid arteries can be determined using
A. *Ultrasonic Doppler
B. CT
C. Radiography neck
D. Rheovasography
E. Thermometry
To diagnose the circle of Willis terms use:
A. *Transcranial Doppler
B. Thermometry
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128.
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132.
133.
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C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
To diagnose the Vilizievogo terms of use:
A. *Contrast X-rhey investigation of cerebrovascular artery
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
Skalenus syndrome is
A. *Extravessel compression of the subclavian artery at the exit from the thorax
B. Atherosclerosis of the subclavian artery
C. Aneurysm of the subclavian artery
D. Acute thrombosis of the subclavian artery
E. Axillaries artery aneurysm
Skalenus syndrome is
A. *No right answer
B. Atherosclerosis of the subclavian artery
C. Aneurysm of the subclavian artery
D. Acute thrombosis of the subclavian artery
E. Axillaries artery aneurysm
Indications for carotid endarterctomy based on
A. *Clinical manifestations of vascular insufficiency
B. Limitation of atherosclerosis
C. Prescription treatment of atherosclerosis
D. Patient's wishes
E. Want doctor
Indications for carotid endarterctomy based on
A. *Degree of stenosis of internal carotid artery
B. Limitation of atherosclerosis
C. Prescription treatment of atherosclerosis
D. Patient's wishes
E. Want doctor
Indications for carotid endarterctomy based on
A. *Structural characteristics of atherosclerotic plaque
B. Limitation of atherosclerosis
C. Prescription treatment of atherosclerosis
D. Patient's wishes
E. Want doctor
Indications for carotid endarterctomy based on
A. *State of the surface of atherosclerotic plaque
B. Limitation of atherosclerosis
C. Prescription treatment of atherosclerosis
D. Patient's wishes
E. Want doctor
Indications for carotid endarterctomy based on
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138.
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140.
141.
A. *No right answer
B. Limitation of atherosclerosis
C. Prescription treatment of atherosclerosis
D. Patient's wishes
E. Want doctor
Carotid endarterctomy contraindicated
A. *Up to 6 weeks after stroke
B. Up to 8 weeks after stroke
C. Up to 10 weeks after stroke
D. Contraindications No
E. All true
Carotid endarterctomy contraindicated
A. *Patients with the gross neurological disorders after stroke
B. Up to 8 weeks after stroke
C. Up to 10 weeks after stroke
D. Contraindications No
E. All true
Carotid endarterctomy contraindicated
A. *2-3 months. myocardial infarction
B. 4-5 months. myocardial infarction
C. Up to 10 weeks after stroke
D. Contraindications No
E. All true
Carotid endarterctomy contraindicated
A. *In renal insufficiency
B. 4-5 months. myocardial infarction
C. Up to 10 weeks after stroke
D. Contraindications No
E. All true
Carotid endarterctomy contraindicated
A. *At liver failure
B. 4-5 months. myocardial infarction
C. Up to 10 weeks after stroke
D. Contraindications No
E. All true
Sample Matas performed for
A. *Definitions of tolerance of the brain to the compression of the internal
carotid artery
B. Definitions of tolerance of the brain to the compression of the external carotid
artery
C. Definitions of tolerance of the brain to the compression of the common carotid
artery
D. Definitions of blood flow velocity
E. All true
Sample Matas performed for
A. *No right answer
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144.
145.
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148.
B. Definitions of tolerance of the brain to the compression of the external carotid
artery
C. Definitions of tolerance of the brain to the compression of the common carotid
artery
D. Definitions of blood flow velocity
E. All true
Carotid endarterectomy performed under anesthesia
A. *Local
B. Epidural
C. Cerebrospinal
D. Anesthesia is not required
E. All true
Carotid endarterectomy performed under anesthesia
A. *Intravenously
B. Epidural
C. Cerebrospinal
D. Anesthesia is not required
E. All true
The advantages of local anesthesia at carotid endarterectomy are
A. *Precise control of the state of consciousness of the patient
B. Muscle relaxation
C. Lack of consciousness of the patient
D. The possibility of movements
E. All true
The advantages of local anesthesia at carotid endarterectomy are
A. *Precise control of the neurological status of the patient
B. Muscle relaxation
C. Lack of consciousness of the patient
D. The possibility of movements
E. All true
The advantages of local anesthesia at carotid endarterectomy are
A. *Possibility to save spontaneous respiration
B. Muscle relaxation
C. Lack of consciousness of the patient
D. The possibility of movements
E. All true
After carotid endarterectomy is necessary to monitor for:
A. *Neurological status
B. The muscle of the upper extremities
C. The muscle of the upper extremities
D. Possibility of movement
E. All true
After carotid endarterectomy is necessary to monitor for:
A. *The wounds on the neck
B. The muscle of the upper extremities
C. The muscle of the upper extremities
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150.
151.
152.
153.
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D. Possibility of movement
E. All true
After carotid endarterectomy is necessary to monitor for:
A. *Monitoring blood pressure
B. The muscle of the upper extremities
C. The muscle of the upper extremities
D. Possibility of movement
E. All true
Early complication after carotid endarterectomy:
A. *Thrombosis segment reconstruction
B. Aneurysm segment reconstruction
C. Arteriovenous fistula
D. Suppurating wounds
E. All true
Causes aneurysm of the thoracic aorta:
A. *Atherosclerosis
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
Causes aneurysm of the thoracic aorta:
A. *Trauma
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
Causes aneurysm of the thoracic aorta:
A. *Syphilis
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
Causes aneurysm of the thoracic aorta:
A. *No right answer
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
Diffuse enlargement of the thoracic aorta occurs at:
A. *Nonspecific aortoarteriitis
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
Diffuse enlargement of the thoracic aorta occurs at:
A. *Morfan’s Syndrome
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B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
Diffuse enlargement of the thoracic aorta occurs at:
A. *No right answer
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
The clinical picture the aneurysm of the thoracic aorta distinguish syndromes:
A. *Algic
B. Venous hypertension
C. Respiratory failure
D. Chronic arterial ischemia
E. Eating Disorders
The clinical picture the aneurysm of the thoracic aorta distinguish syndromes:
A. *Compression
B. Venous hypertension
C. Respiratory failure
D. Chronic arterial ischemia
E. Eating Disorders
The clinical picture the aneurysm of the thoracic aorta distinguish syndromes:
A. *Hemodynamic
B. Venous hypertension
C. Respiratory failure
D. Chronic arterial ischemia
E. Eating Disorders
The clinical picture the aneurysm of the thoracic aorta distinguish syndromes:
A. *No right answer
B. Venous hypertension
C. Respiratory failure
D. Chronic arterial ischemia
E. Eating Disorders
Aortoalgya found at:
A. *Aneurysms of the thoracic aorta
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
D. Chronic arterial ischemia
E. Vena cava superior syndrome
Aortoalgya found at:
A. *No right answer
B. Deepvein thrombosis
C. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
D. Chronic arterial ischemia
E. Vena cava superior syndrome
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For aneurysms the thoracic aorta is characterized
A. *Increased breast-pressure
B. Reduced breast pressure
C. Pressure changes do not
D. All answers are correct
E. The lower abdominal pressure
For aneurysms the thoracic aorta is characterized
A. *No right answer
B. Reduced breast pressure
C. Pressure changes do not
D. All answers are correct
E. The lower abdominal pressure
For aneurysms the thoracic aorta is characterized
A. *Dry unproductive cough
B. Moist cough
C. The presence of asthma
D. The presence of pleural effusion
E. Respiratory disorders are absent
For aneurysms the thoracic aorta is characterized
A. *No right answer
B. Moist cough
C. The presence of asthma
D. The presence of pleural effusion
E. Respiratory disorders are absent
For artalgya is characteristic
A. *Increased blood pressure
B. Lowering blood pressure
C. Changes in blood pressure is not
D. Fluctuations in blood pressure
E. Reducing pulse pressure
For artalgya is characteristic
A. *No right answer
B. Lowering blood pressure
C. Changes in blood pressure is not
D. Fluctuations in blood pressure
E. Reducing pulse pressure
For artalgya is characteristic
A. *Lack of effect of nitrate
B. The presence of the effect of nitrate
C. The presence of the effect of statins
D. The presence of the effect of antibiotic
E. The presence of the effect of aspirin
For artalgya characteristic
A. *No right answer
B. The presence of the effect of nitrate
C. The presence of the effect of statins
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173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
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D. The presence of the effect of antibiotic
E. The presence of the effect of aspirin
Artalgya must be differentiated from
A. *Angina
B. Appendicitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Asthmatic
E. Ileus
Artalya must be differentiated from
A. *Syndrome of the anterior chest wall
B. Appendicitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Asthmatic
E. Ileus
Artalgya must be differentiated from
A. *Fibromiositis anterior chest
B. Appendicitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Asthmatic
E. Ileus
Artalgya must be differentiated from
A. *No right answer
B. Appendicitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Asthmatic
E. Ileus
The aneurysm thoracic aorta may complicate
A. *Vena cava superior syndrome
B. Vena cavainferiorsSyndrome
C. Appendicitis
D. Inguinal hernia
E. Ileus
The aneurysm of the thoracic aorta may complicate
A. *Unilateral edema, cyanosis and swelling of surface veins of the hands
B. Vena cava inferior Syndrome
C. Appendicitis
D. Inguinal hernia
E. Ileus
The aneurysm of the thoracic aorta may complicate
A. *The extension of jugular veins
B. Vena cavai nferior Syndrome
C. Appendicitis
D. Inguinal hernia
E. Ileus
The aneurysm of the thoracic aorta may complicate
A. *No right answer
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181.
182.
183.
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185.
B. Vena cava inferior Syndrome
C. Appendicitis
D. Inguinal hernia
E. Ileus
For the initial part of the aortic arch aneurysm is characterized by
A. *The decrease and delay the pulse on the radial artery on the right
B. The decrease and delay the pulse on the radial artery on the left
C. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
right
D. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
left
E. All answers are correct
For the initial part of the aortic arch aneurysm is characterized by
A. *No right answer
B. The decrease and delay pulse on the radial artery on the left
C. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
right
D. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
left
E. All answers are correct
For the initial part of the aortic arch aneurysm is characterized by
A. *The decrease and delay the pulse on the carotid artery on the right
B. The decrease and delay the pulse on the carotid artery on the left
C. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
right
D. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
left
E. All answers are correct
For the initial part of the aortic arch aneurysm is characterized by
A. *No right answer
B. The decrease and ¬ pazdyvanie pulse on the carotid artery on the left
C. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse at the radial artery on the
right
D. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse at the radial artery on the left
E. All answers are correct
For aneurysms of the distal aortic arch is characterized by
A. *The decrease and delay the pulse on the radial artery on the left
B. The decrease and delay the pulse on the radial artery on the right
C. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
right
D. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
left
E. All answers are correct
For aneurysms of the distal aortic arch is characterized by
A. *The decrease and delay the pulse on the carotid artery on the left
B. The decrease and delay the pulse on the carotid artery on the right
C. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
right
D. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the
left
E. All answers are correct
186. Pulsating tumor-like formation with a reddish tinge of the skin over his right or
left from the front of the sternum is characteristic:
A. *Aneurism
B. Aneurysms of the descending aorta
C. Abdominal aortic aneurysms
D. Embolism of aorta
E. Thrombosis of the aorta
187. Pulsating tumor-like formation with a reddish tinge of the skin over his right or
left from the front of the sternum is characteristic:
A. *No right answer
B. Aneurysms of the descending aorta
C. Aneurysms of the abdominal aorta
D. Embolism of aorta
E. Thrombosis of the aorta
188. For diagnosis of aneurysms of the thoracic aorta is used:
A. *Contrast aortography
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Peripheral vascular ultrasound
D. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
E. Thermometry
189. For diagnosis of aneurysms of the thoracic aorta is used:
A. *Multi-axis x-ray of the chest cavity
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Peripheral vascular ultrasound
D. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
E. Thermometry
190. For the diagnosis of aneurysms of the thoracic aorta is used:
A. *Echocardiography
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Peripheral vascular ultrasound
D. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
E. Thermometry
191. For diagnosis of aneurysms of the thoracic aorta is used:
A. *No right answer
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Peripheral vascular ultrasound
D. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
E. Thermometry
192. Coarctation of aorta is:
A. *Congenital aortic
B. Valvular aortic
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195.
196.
197.
198.
C. Valvular peripheral vascular
D. Congenital heart
E. All answers are correct
Coarctation of aorta is:
A. *No right answer
B. Valvular aortic
C. Valvular peripheral vascular
D. Congenital heart
E. All answers are correct
Type I Coarctation of aorta are:
A. *Isolated contraction in the transition region of the aortic arch to the
descending division
B. The combination of this defect with ductus arteriosus and arterial or venous
shunting of blood
C. The combination of coarctation of the aorta with other congenital or acquired
defects of the cardiovascular system
D. Multiple or atypical localization of coarctation of the aorta
E. All answers are correct
Type II Coarctation of aorta are:
A. *The combination of this defect with ductus arteriosus and arterial or venous
shunting of blood
B. Isolated contraction in the transition region of the aortic arch to the
descending division
C. The combination of coarctation of the aorta with other congenital or acquired
defects of the cardiovascular system
D. Multiple or atypical localization of coarctation of the aorta
E. All answers are correct
Type III Coarctation of aorta are:
A. *The combination of coarctation of the aorta with other congenital or acquired
defects of the cardiovascular system
B. Isolated contraction in the transition region of the aortic arch to the
descending division
C. The combination of this defect with ductus arteriosus and arterial or venous
shunting of blood
D. Multiple or atypical localization of coarctation of the aorta
E. All answers are correct
For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Well muscled shoulder girdle
B. Poor development of the musculature of the shoulder girdle
C. Well muscled legs
D. Good development of the pelvic belt
E. All answers are correct
For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Poor development of the pelvic girdle muscles
B. Poor development of the musculature of the shoulder girdle
C. Well muscled legs
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201.
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203.
204.
205.
206.
D. Good development of the pelvic belt
E. All answers are correct
For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Poor development of the lower limb muscles
B. Poor development of the musculature of the shoulder girdle
C. Well muscled legs
D. Good development of the pelvic belt
E. All answers are correct
For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *No right answer
B. Poor development of the musculature of the shoulder girdle
C. Well muscled legs
D. Good development of the pelvic belt
E. All answers are correct
For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Pulse on the radial artery a full and busy
B. Pulse on the radial artery weakened
C. Pulse on the radial artery is absent
D. Pulse on the radial artery thready
E. All answers are correct
For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Pulse on the dorsal artery of foot missing
B. Pulse on the back of a weakened artery of foot
C. Pulse on the dorsal artery of foot is determined
D. Pulse on the dorsal artery of foot satisfactory
E. All answers are correct
For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Pulse on the posterior tibial artery is absent
B. Pulse on the posterior tibial artery weakened
C. Pulse on the posterior tibial artery is determined
D. Pulse on the posterior tibial artery satisfactory
E. All answers are correct
For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Pulse on the femoral artery weakened
B. Pulse on the femoral artery is absent
C. Pulse on the femoral artery is defined clearly
D. Pulse on the femoral artery satisfactory
E. All answers are correct
For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *No right answer
B. Pulse on the femoral artery is absent
C. Pulse on the femoral artery is defined clearly
D. Pulse on the femoral artery satisfactory
E. All answers are correct
Tortuosity and increased intercostals arteries is characteristic
A. *Aortarctia
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208.
209.
210.
211.
212.
213.
B. Aneurysms of the thoracic aorta
C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
D. Vena cava superior syndrome
E. Vena cava inferior syndrome
Tortuosity and increased intercostals arteries is characteristic
A. *No right answer
B. Aneurysms of the thoracic aorta
C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
D. Vena cava superior syndrome
E. Vena cava inferior syndrome
Strong pulsation of the carotid, brachial, intercostal arteries is characteristic
A. *Coarctation of the aorta
B. Aneurysms of the thoracic aorta
C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
D. Vena cava superior syndrome
E. Vena cava inferior syndrome
Strong pulsation of the carotid, brachial, intercostal arteries is characteristic
A. *No right answer
B. Aneurysms of the thoracic aorta
C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
D. Vena cava superior syndrome
E. Vena cava inferior syndrome
For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Blood pressure at the hands of elevated
B. Blood pressure is lowered at the hands of
C. Blood pressure at the hands of the norm
D. The difference of pressure on the right and left hand
E. All answers are correct
For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. *Blood pressure on the legs lowered
B. Blood pressure on the legs elevated
C. Blood pressure on the legs in normal
D. The difference of pressure on the right and left leg
E. All answers are correct
For diagnostic coarctation of the aorta used:
A. *ECG
B. Pulse Oximetry
C. Radiography limbs
D. Radiography abdominal
E. All answers are correct
For diagnostic coarctation of the aorta used:
A. *Radiography of the chest cavity
B. Pulse Oximetry
C. Radiography limbs
D. Radiography abdominal
E. All answers are correct
214.
215.
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
221.
For diagnostic coarctation of the aorta used:
A. *Contrast aortography
B. Pulse Oximetry
C. Radiography limbs
D. Radiography abdominal
E. All answers are correct
For diagnostic coarctation of the aorta used:
A. *No right answer
B. Pulse Oximetry
C. Radiography limbs
D. Radiography abdominal
E. All answers are correct
In the etiology of stenosis brachycephalic arteries plays a role
A. *Obliterating atherosclerosis
B. Endarteritis
C. Viral diseases
D. Intoxication
E. Supercooling
In the etiology of stenosis brachycephalic arteries plays a role
A. *Nonspecific aortoarteriitis
B. Endarteritis
C. Viral diseases
D. Intoxication
E. Supercooling
In the etiology of stenosis brachycephalic arteries plays a role
A. *Exstravessels compression
B. Endarteritis
C. Viral diseases
D. Intoxication
E. Supercooling
In the etiology of stenosis brachycephalic arteries plays a role
A. *Fibromuscular dysplasia
B. Endarteritis
C. Viral diseases
D. Intoxication
E. Supercooling
In the etiology of stenosis brachycephalic arteries plays a role
A. *No right answer
B. Endarteritis
C. Viral diseases
D. Intoxication
E. Supercooling
Obliterating atherosclerosis of the carotid arteries is more common in:
A. *Men older than 40 years
B. In men younger than 40 years
C. In the men's 20 - 30 years
D. Not found
E. All answers are correct
222. Obliterating atherosclerosis of the carotid arteries is more common in:
A. *No right answer
B. In men younger than 40 years
C. In the men's 20 - 30 years
D. Not found
E. All answers are correct
223. Nonspecific aortoarteriitis carotid arteries is more common in:
A. *Women younger than 30 years
B. Women older than 30 years
C. Women 40 - 50 years
D. Not found
E. All answers are correct
224. The most important mechanism compensation in lesions of brachiocephalic
arteries is:
A. *Circle of Willis
B. Aortic arch
C. Brachial artery
D. Abdominal aorta
E. Vena cava superior
225. The most important mechanism of compensation in lesions of brachiocephalic
arteries is:
A. *No right answer
B. Aortic arch
C. Brachial artery
D. Abdominal aorta
E. Vena cava superior
226. Steal syndrome characteristic:
A. *Occlusion of the proximal segment of the clavicular artery
B. Occlusion of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Occlusion of the abdominal aorta
E. Occlusion of the superior vena cava
227. Steal syndrome characteristic:
A. *No right answer
B. Occlusion of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Occlusion of the abdominal aorta
E. Occlusion of the superior vena cava
228. At Steal syndrome is characterized rob:
A. *Brain
B. Right upper extremity
C. Left upper limb
D. Both limbs
E. All answers are correct
229.
230.
231.
232.
233.
234.
235.
236.
Reducing the pulsation the left superficial temporal characteristic for:
A. *Lesions of the left common carotid artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
The absence pulsations the left superficial temporal characteristic for:
A. *Lesions of the left common carotid artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
Reducing pulsations on the left radial artery characteristic for:
A. *Lesion of the left subclavian artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
The absence pulsation on the left radial artery characteristic:
A. *Lesion of the left subclavian artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
Reducing pulsation the left brachial artery is characteristic:
A. *Lesion of the left subclavian artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
Absence pulsation left brachial artery is characteristic of:
A. *Lesion of the left subclavian artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
Reducing pulsation left brachial artery is characteristic:
A. *No right answer
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
Systolic murmur at the corner of the lower jaw is characteristic:
A. *Atherosclerotic carotid artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
237.
238.
239.
240.
241.
242.
243.
244.
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
Complications of occlusive disease brachycephalic arteries are:
A. *Cerebral circulation
B. Hemorrhagic stroke
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Thrombosis of the aortic arch
E. Embolism brachial artery
Complications of occlusive disease brachycephalic arteries are:
A. *Cerebral circulation
B. Hemorrhagic stroke
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Thrombosis of the aortic arch
E. Brachial artery embolism
Complications of occlusive disease brachycephalic arteries are:
A. *Ischemic stroke
B. Hemorrhagic stroke
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Thrombosis of the aortic arch
E. Brachial artery embolism
Complications of occlusive disease brachycephalic arteries are:
A. *No right answer
B. Hemorrhagic stroke
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Thrombosis of the aortic arch
E. Brachial artery embolism
Syndrome of vertebrobasilar insufficiency characteristic:
A. *Lesions of vertebral arteries
B. Lesions of the internal carotid arteries
C. Lost external carotid arteries
D. Lesions of brachial artery
E. Lesions of the aortic arch
Syndrome of vertebrobasilar insufficiency characteristic:
A. *No right answer
B. Lesions of the internal carotid arteries
C. Lost external carotid arteries
D. Lesions of brachial artery
E. Lesions of the aortic arch
In the diagnosis pathology of the carotid arteries leading place is:
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the neck
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
In the diagnosis pathology of the carotid arteries leading place is:
A. *Contrast angiography
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246.
247.
248.
249.
250.
251.
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the neck
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
In the diagnosis pathology of vertebral arteries leading place is:
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the neck
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
In the diagnosis pathology of vertebral arteries leading place is:
A. *Contrast angiography
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the neck
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
In the diagnosis pathology of the subclavian artery leading place is:
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Thermometry
C. Neck X-ray
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
In the diagnosis pathology of the subclavian artery leading place is:
A. *Contrast angiography
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the neck
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
In the diagnosis pathology of the subclavian artery leading place is:
A. *No right answer
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the neck
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
Nonspecific aortoarteriitis more striking:
A. *Brachiocephalic trunk
B. Brachial artery
C. Abdominal aorta
D. Thoracic aorta
E. Coronary arteries
For lesions the subclavian artery is characterized by:
A. *Weak hands
B. Dermahemia hands
C. Increased filling of subcutaneous veins of the upper extremities
D. The pulsation of the arteries of the upper extremities is not broken
E. All true
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254.
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256.
257.
258.
259.
For lesions the subclavian artery is characterized by:
A. *Chill hand
B. Dermahemia hands
C. Increased filling of subcutaneous veins of the upper extremities
D. The pulsation of the arteries of the upper extremities is not broken
E. All true
For lesions the subclavian artery is characterized by:
A. *Cooling of the skin brushes
B. Dermahemia hands
C. Increased filling of subcutaneous veins of the upper extremities
D. The pulsation of the arteries of the upper extremities is not broken
E. All true
For lesions the subclavian artery is characterized by:
A. *Hypotrophy of muscles of hands
B. Dermahemia hands
C. Increased filling of subcutaneous veins of the upper extremities
D. The pulsation of the arteries of the upper extremities is not broken
E. All true
For lesions the subclavian artery is characterized by:
A. *Reduction of blood pressure on the upper extremity
B. Dermahemia hands
C. Increased filling of subcutaneous veins of the upper extremities
D. The pulsation of the arteries of the upper extremities is not broken
E. All true
For lesions the subclavian artery is characterized by:
A. *The weakening of the pulse at the radial artery
B. Dermahemia hands
C. Increased filling of subcutaneous veins of the upper extremities
D. The pulsation of the arteries of the upper extremities is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Headache
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Dizziness
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Seizures brief eclipse of consciousness
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
260.
261.
262.
263.
264.
265.
266.
267.
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Loss of consciousness
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Sonitus
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Dysopia
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Diminished hearing
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *Ischemic stroke with hemiparesis
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. *The pulsation of the carotid arteries is not determined
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
Most of atherosclerotic lesions of carotid arteries captures:
A. *Bifurcation of the carotid artery
B. Initial division of the common carotid artery
C. Secondary divisions of the common carotid artery
D. Distal common carotid artery
E. All true
In the diagnosis of atherosclerotic lesions an important role plays:
A. *Ultrasound of neck vessels
268.
269.
270.
271.
272.
273.
274.
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
In the diagnosis of atherosclerotic lesions an important role plays:
A. *Contrast radiography
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
In the diagnosis of atherosclerotic lesions an important role plays:
A. *No right answer
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
In the diagnosis of atherosclerotic lesions an important role plays:
A. *Digital subtraction angiography
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
In the diagnosis of atherosclerotic lesions an important role plays:
A. *Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
The linear velocity of blood flow in carotid arteries can be determined using
A. *Ultrasonic Doppler
B. CT
C. Radiography neck
D. Rheovasography
E. Thermometry
The volumetric blood flow rate on the carotid arteries can be determined using
A. *Ultrasonic Doppler
B. CT
C. Radiography neck
D. Rheovasography
E. Thermometry
The linear velocity of blood flow in carotid arteries can be determined using
A. *No right answer
B. CT
C. Radiography neck
D. Rheovasography
E. Thermometry
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277.
278.
279.
280.
281.
282.
The percentage of stenosis of the carotid arteries can be determined using
A. *Ultrasonic Doppler
B. CT
C. Radiography neck
D. Rheovasography
E. Thermometry
To diagnose the circle of Willis terms use:
A. *Transcranial Doppler
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
To diagnose the Vilizievogo terms of use:
A. *Contrast X-rhey investigation of cerebrovascular artery
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
Skalenus syndrome is
A. *Extravessel compression of the subclavian artery at the exit from the thorax
B. Atherosclerosis of the subclavian artery
C. Aneurysm of the subclavian artery
D. Acute thrombosis of the subclavian artery
E. Axillaries artery aneurysm
Skalenus syndrome is
A. *No right answer
B. Atherosclerosis of the subclavian artery
C. Aneurysm of the subclavian artery
D. Acute thrombosis of the subclavian artery
E. Axillaries artery aneurysm
Indications for carotid endarterctomy based on
A. *Clinical manifestations of vascular insufficiency
B. Limitation of atherosclerosis
C. Prescription treatment of atherosclerosis
D. Patient's wishes
E. No right answer
Indications for carotid endarterctomy based on
A. *Degree of stenosis of internal carotid artery
B. Limitation of atherosclerosis
C. Prescription treatment of atherosclerosis
D. Patient's wishes
E. No right answer
Indications for carotid endarterctomy based on
A. *Structural characteristics of atherosclerotic plaque
B. Limitation of atherosclerosis
C. Prescription treatment of atherosclerosis
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284.
285.
286.
287.
288.
289.
290.
D. Patient's wishes
E. No right answer
Indications for carotid endarterctomy based on
A. *State of the surface of atherosclerotic plaque
B. Limitation of atherosclerosis
C. Prescription treatment of atherosclerosis
D. Patient's wishes
E. No right answer
Indications for carotid endarterctomy based on
A. *No right answer
B. Limitation of atherosclerosis
C. Prescription treatment of atherosclerosis
D. Patient's wishes
E. No right answer
Carotid endarterctomy contraindicated
A. *Up to 6 weeks after stroke
B. Up to 8 weeks after stroke
C. Up to 10 weeks after stroke
D. Contraindications No
E. All true
Carotid endarterctomy contraindicated
A. *Patients with the gross neurological disorders after stroke
B. Up to 8 weeks after stroke
C. Up to 10 weeks after stroke
D. Contraindications No
E. All true
Carotid endarterctomy contraindicated
A. *2-3 months. myocardial infarction
B. 4-5 months. myocardial infarction
C. Up to 10 weeks after stroke
D. Contraindications No
E. All true
Carotid endarterctomy contraindicated
A. *In renal insufficiency
B. 4-5 months. myocardial infarction
C. Up to 10 weeks after stroke
D. Contraindications No
E. All true
Carotid endarterctomy contraindicated
A. *At liver failure
B. 4-5 months. myocardial infarction
C. Up to 10 weeks after stroke
D. Contraindications No
E. All true
Sample Matas performed for
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292.
293.
294.
295.
296.
A. *Definitions of tolerance of the brain to the compression of the internal
carotid artery
B. Definitions of tolerance of the brain to the compression of the external carotid
artery
C. Definitions of tolerance of the brain to the compression of the common carotid
artery
D. Definitions of blood flow velocity
E. All true
Sample Matas performed for
A. *No right answer
B. Definitions of tolerance of the brain to the compression of the external carotid
artery
C. Definitions of tolerance of the brain to the compression of the common carotid
artery
D. Definitions of blood flow velocity
E. All true
Carotid endarterectomy performed under anesthesia
A. *Local
B. Epidural
C. Cerebrospinal
D. Anesthesia is not required
E. All true
Carotid endarterectomy performed under anesthesia
A. *Intravenously
B. Epidural
C. Cerebrospinal
D. Anesthesia is not required
E. All true
The advantages of local anesthesia at carotid endarterectomy are
A. *Precise control of the state of consciousness of the patient
B. Muscle relaxation
C. Lack of consciousness of the patient
D. The possibility of movements
E. All true
The advantages of local anesthesia at carotid endarterectomy are
A. *Precise control of the neurological status of the patient
B. Muscle relaxation
C. Lack of consciousness of the patient
D. The possibility of movements
E. All true
The advantages of local anesthesia at carotid endarterectomy are
A. *Possibility to save spontaneous respiration
B. Muscle relaxation
C. Lack of consciousness of the patient
D. The possibility of movements
E. All true
297.
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299.
300.
301.
302.
303.
304.
After carotid endarterectomy is necessary to monitor for:
A. *Neurological status
B. The muscle of the upper extremities
C. The muscle of the upper extremities
D. Possibility of movement
E. All true
After carotid endarterectomy is necessary to monitor for:
A. *The wounds on the neck
B. The muscle of the upper extremities
C. The muscle of the upper extremities
D. Possibility of movement
E. All true
After carotid endarterectomy is necessary to monitor for:
A. *Monitoring blood pressure
B. The muscle of the upper extremities
C. The muscle of the upper extremities
D. Possibility of movement
E. All true
Early complication after carotid endarterectomy:
A. *Thrombosis segment reconstruction
B. Aneurysm segment reconstruction
C. Arteriovenous fistula
D. Suppurating wounds
E. All true
How much blood are flows through the superficial veins?
A. *10-15%
B. 5%
C. 30-40%
D. 70-80%
E. 90%
Where are falls the great saphenous vein?
A. *Thigh Vienna
B. Calf veins
C. Popliteal vein
D. External iliac vein
E. V. cava inf.
Where are runs a small subcutaneous vein?
A. *Popliteal vein
B. Vena cava inferior
C. External iliac vein
D. Thigh vein
E. Calf veins
Localization relapsing great saphenous vein are
A. *2-3 cm below the inguinal ligament
B. In the upper third of the lower extremity
C. In the popliteal fossa
D. In the lower third of the thigh
E. In the lumbar region
305. Localization relapsing small saphenous vein are
A. *In the popliteal fossa
B. In the upper third of the lower extremity
C. In the lower third of the thigh
D. 2-3 cm below the inguinal ligament
E. In the lumbar region
306. What veins belong to a surface system?
A. *Small and large subcutaneous vein
B. Veins
C. Superficial and deep femoral vein
D. Humeral vein
E. Elbow and radial veins
307. What vein belong to the deep vein system?
A. *V. radіalіs
B. There was subcutaneous Vienna
C. Large subcutaneous Vienna
D. V. basіlіca
E. V. ceрhalіca
308. Which factor are dominates in the development of primary varicose veins?
A. *The weakness of the connective tissue blood vessels
B. Arteriovenous fistula
C. Venous hypoplasia
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Obliterating atherosclerosis
309. What are the hormonal changes contribute to the development of varicose veins?
A. *Pregnancy
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Myxedema
E. Adrenal insufficiency
310. What is the pathological basis for the development of chronic venous
insufficiency?
A. *Venous hypertension
B. Block lymph drainage
C. Arterial ischemia
D. Arterial hypertension
E. Innervation
311. What is the cause of hypertension in the venous system of lower limbs?
A. *Venous valvular insufficiency
B. Arterial ischemia
C. Arterial hypertension
D. Block lymph drainage
E. Innervation
312. What are causes venous valve insufficiency?
A. *Venous hypertension
B. Arterial ischemia
C. Arterial hypertension
D. Innervation
E. Violation of lymph drainage
313. What is the typical sign for stage I varicose veins?
A. *Feeling gravity
B. Temporary swelling
C. Permanent edema
D. Polychromia
E. Trophic ulcer
314. What is the typical sign for IIA stage of varicose veins?
A. *Transient edema
B. Feeling gravity
C. Permanent edema
D. Polychromia
E. Trophic ulcer
315. What is the typical sign for IIB stage of varicose veins?
A. *Polychromia
B. Feeling gravity
C. Temporary swelling
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Repairer trophic ulcer
316. What is the typical sign for IIB stage of varicose veins?
A. *Permanent edema
B. Feeling gravity
C. Temporary swelling
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Repairer trophic ulcer
317. What is the typical sign for the Third Stage varicose veins?
A. *Trophic ulcer
B. Feeling gravity
C. Temporary swelling
D. Permanent edema
E. Polychromia
318. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency the main feature is the "heavy
feeling"?
A. *I
B. 0
C. IIA
D. IIB
E. III
319. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency is the main feature of transient
edema?
A. *IIA
B. 0
C. II
D. IIB
E. III
320. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency the main feature is a permanent
swelling?
A. *IIB
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. III
321. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency the main feature is
hyperpigmentation?
A. *IIB
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. III
322. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency is the main feature of
lipodermatosclerosis?
A. *IIB
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. III
323. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency the main feature of opened trophic
ulcer?
A. *III
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. IIB
324. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is responsible healing of trophic
ulcers?
A. *III
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. IIB
325. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency are characteristic valvular
insufficiency of superficial veins?
A. *I
B. 0
C. IIA
D. IIB
E. III
326. To what stage of chronic venous insufficiency are characteristic valvular
insufficiency of surface and communicative veins?
A. *II
B. 0
C. I
D. III
E. IV
327. To what stage of chronic venous insufficiency of the characteristic valvular
insufficiency of superficial, communicative and deep vein ?
A. *IIB-III
B. 0
C. I
D. IA
E. IV
328. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized :
A. *Feeling gravity
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Pain at rest
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
329. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. *Transient edema of lower extremities
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Pain at rest
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
330. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. *Extension of saphenous veins
B. Cyanosis of lower limb
C. The pallor of the lower extremity
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
331. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. *Lipodermatosklerosis shin
B. Cyanosis of lower limb
C. The pallor of the lower extremity
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
332. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. *Trophic ulcer leg
B. Cyanosis of lower limb
C. The pallor of the lower extremity
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
333. *For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. Hyperpigmentation shin
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335.
336.
337.
338.
339.
340.
B. Cyanosis of lower limb
C. The pallor of the lower extremity
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
Feeling the gravity of the lower extremities is characteristic for:
A. *Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
*Transient edema of lower limbs is characteristic for:
A. Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
Lipodermatosklerosis lower third of the leg is characteristic for:
A. *Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
Hyperpigmentation of the lower third of the leg is characteristic:
A. *Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
Trophic ulcers of the lower third of the leg is characteristic:
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
What is the test used to determine valvular insufficiency superficial veins?
A. *Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test
B. Thalman’s test
C. Pratt’s test
D. Mayo Pratt’s test
E. Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test)
What is the test used to determine valvular insufficiency communacative veins?
A. *Pratt’s test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test
C. Hakenbruh’s test
D. Homans’s test
E. Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test)
341.
342.
343.
344.
345.
346.
347.
348.
What is the test used to assess the patency of deep veins?
A. *Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test)
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test
C. Hakenbruh’s test
D. Pratt’s test
E. Thalmann’s test
Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test used in the diagnosis:
A. *Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
B. Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
C. Passing deep vein
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
Thalmann’s test used in the diagnosis :
A. *Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
B. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
C. Passing deep vein
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
Pratt test used in the diagnosis of :
A. *Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
B. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
C. Patency of deep veins
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
Mayo Pratt’s test used in the diagnosis:
A. *Patency of deep veins
B. Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
C. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test) is used in the diagnosis:
A. *Passing deep vein
B. Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
C. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
What is typical complication of varicose veins?
A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Paresis
D. Lymphostasis
E. Gangrene
Most subcutaneous thrombophlebitis is caused by:
A. *Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Lymphedema of the lower extremities
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Acute cholecystitis
349. What is typical complication of varicose veins?
A. *Trophic ulcer
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Paresis
D. Plegia
E. Gangrene
350. What is the main method of diagnosis of arteriovenous fistulas?
A. *Phlebography
B. Koagulograme
C. Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test)
D. Ultrasound
E. Arteriography
351. What is the main method diagnosis еру venous angiodysplasia?
A. *Phlebography
B. Сoagulogramm
C. Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test)
D. Ultrasound
E. Arteriography
352. Phlebography is used to diagnose:
A. *Arteriovenous fistula
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterate endarteritis
D. Lymphedema
E. Gynecology
353. Phlebography is used to diagnose:
A. *Venous angiodysplasia
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Lymphedema
E. Gynecology
354. What method is used for the diagnosis the valvular insufficiency communicative
and deep veins?
A. *Duplex ultrasound
B. Сoagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. Ultrasonic Doppler
E. Arteriography
355. What method is used to assess the patency of deep veins?
A. *Ultrasound
B. Сoagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. ECG
E. Arteriography
356. What operation is carried out at varicose veins?
A. *Saphenectomy
B. Thrombectomy
C. Vein ligation
D. Intimectomy
E. Femoropopliteal bypass
357. What treatment is indicated at varicose II A stage?
A. *Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation
E. Saphenectomy with subfascial ligation communicative veins (Linton’s
operation)
358. What treatment is indicated for uncomplicated varicose veins?
A. *Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation
E. Saphenectomy with subfascial ligation communicative veins (Linton’s
operation)
359. For reason recurrence of varicose veins include:
A. *Leaving the main trunk, the long stump of the great saphenous vein
B. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
C. Arteriovenous fistula
D. Lack ostial valve
E. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
360. Functional tests for the detection valvular insufficiency of superficial veins are :
A. *Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test
B. Homens’s test,
C. Panchenko test,
D. Schwarz’s test
E. Schotkin-Blumberg test
361. Functional tests for the detection valvular insufficiency communicative veins
include:
A. *Thalmann’s, Sheinis’s
B. Panchenko test
C. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test
D. Moses’s test
E. Hekenburg’ test
362. Functional tests for the detection of valvular insufficiency of deep veins include:
A. *Mayo-Pratt’s test
B. Hakkenbrg’s test
C. Pratt’s test
D. Moses’s test
E. Levenberg’s test
363. In what sequence being saphenectomy
A. *Operation Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s, Babcock’s, Narath’s
B. Operation Linton’s. Cockett’s, Babcock’s
C. Operation Narath’s, Babcock’s, Cockett’s
D. Operation Babcock’s, Linton’s, Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s
E. Operation Babcock’s, Narath’s, Cokket’s
364. Maximum number communicative vein is:
A. *The lower third of tibia
B. The upper third of tibia
C. The middle third of tibia
D. Land thigh
E. The bottom third of the thigh
365. Contraindication to saphenectomy with varicose veins are:
A. *Obstruction deep veins
B. Incompetence of venous valves communicative vein
C. Incompetence ostial valve
D. Loose type of the great saphenous vein
E. Valvular insufficiency sural veins
366. The operation saphenectomy used:
A. *Babcoc’s probe
B. Blekmor’s probe
C. Fogarty probe
D. Nelatona Catheter’s
E. Levin’s tube
367. At operations on the communicative veins of the lower extremities used
operations:
A. *Linton, Kokket
B. Babcock, Narath
C. Troyanov-Trendelenburg
D. Modelung
E. Felder
368. Indirect anticoagulant drugs include:
A. *Phenilin.
B. Tiklid.
C. Papaverine.
D. Nicotinic acid.
E. Miskleron.
369. The direct anticoagulant is
A. *Heparin.
B. Phenilin.
C. Nicotinic acid.
D. Streptokinase.
E. Acetylsalicylic acid.
370. Saphenectomy performed at:
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
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372.
373.
374.
375.
376.
377.
378.
E. Occlusive disease
Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation is performed at:
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
Corossectomy operation performed at :
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
Linton's operation is performed at:
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation is:
A. *Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
B. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
C. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
D. Subfascial ligation perforating veins
E. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
Narath’s operation is:
A. *Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
B. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
C. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
D. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
E. Subfascial ligation perforating veins
Babcock’s operation is:
A. *Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
B. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
C. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
D. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
E. Subfascial ligation perforating veins
Coccet’s operation is:
A. *Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
B. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
C. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
D. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
E. Subfascial ligation of perforating veins
Linton's operation is:
A. *Subfascial ligation of perforating veins
B. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
379.
380.
381.
382.
383.
384.
385.
386.
C. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
D. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
E. Extrafascial ligation of perforating veins
Narath’s operation is performed at :
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
Babcock’s operation is performed at :
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
Coccet’s operation is performed at :
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
Indications to sclerotherapy is:
A. *Reticular varicose
B. Obliterating atherosclerosis
C. Occlusive disease
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
Indications for sclerotherapy is:
A. *Telangiectasia
B. Obliterating atherosclerosis
C. Occlusive disease
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
Indications for sclerotherapy is:
A. *Recurrence of varicose
B. Obliterating atherosclerosis
C. Occlusive disease
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
The method of choice in treating varicose reticulum is:
A. *Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
E. Autogenous vein bypass
The method of choice in treating telangiectasia is:
387.
388.
389.
390.
391.
392.
393.
A. *Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
E. Autogenous vein bypass
The method of choice in treating recurrent varicose veins are:
A. *Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
E. Autogenous vein bypass
For sclerotherapy used:
A. *Fibroveyn
B. Triumbrast
C. Verografin
D. Seabar
E. Bilignost
After Saphenectomy elastic compression is applied:
A. *2-3 months
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 3-4 weeks
For the treatment of varicose veins I st. used elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. *I compression
B. II compression
C. III compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
For the treatment of varicose II degree used elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. *II compression
B. I compression
C. III compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
After saphenectomy used elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. *II compression
B. I compression
C. III compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
In patients with trophic ulcers using elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. *III compression
B. II compression
C. I compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
394. *Endotelon used to treat:
A. Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
395. Detralex used to treat:
A. *Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
396. Phlebodia used to treat:
A. *Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
397. Troxevasin used to treat:
A. *Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
398. Why saphenectomy is always starts ligation safeno-femoral ejection?
A. *To prevent pulmonary embolism
B. To prevent bleeding
C. To prevent safeno-femoral reflux
D. To easily insert a venous extractor
E. To perform sclerotherapy
399. What is the main feature of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. *Painful bundle along the saphenous vein
B. Trophic ulcer
C. Gangrene fingers on the lower extremity
D. No pulsation
E. Edema of the lower extremity
400. Painful bundle along the saphenous vein is characteristic for:
A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Lymphedema
C. Atherosclerotic lesions
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Deep vein thrombosis
401. The development of limb edema in the case of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
indicates:
A. *The defeat of the deep veins
402.
403.
404.
405.
406.
407.
408.
B. Infection
C. Heart failure
D. Renal failure
E. Development lymphostasis
What group of drugs is heparin?
A. *Direct anticoagulants
B. Indirect anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agent
What group of drugs is Clexane?
A. *Direct anticoagulants
B. Indirect anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agent
What group of drugs is ?
A. *Indirect anticoagulants
B. Direct anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agen
What group of drugs is phenilin?
A. *Irreducible anticoagulants
B. Direct anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agen
What group of drugs is Detralex?
A. *Venotonics
B. Thrombolytic
C. Indirect anticoagulants
D. Direct anticoagulants
E. Antiinflammatory agen
What group of drugs is venoplant?
A. *Venotonics
B. Thrombolytic
C. Indirect anticoagulants
D. Direct anticoagulants
E. Antiinflammatory agen
Which medicinal products belong to the direct anticoagulant?
A. *Heparin
B. Syncumar, phenilin
C. Streptokinase, urokinase
D. Trental, Pentoksiphylin
E. Diclofenac, Naklofen
409.
Which medicinal products are venotonics?
A. *Detralex, Phlebodia
B. Heparin
C. Syncumar, phenilin
D. Papaverine, no-shpa
E. Diclophenac, Naklophen
410. What had normal prothrombin index?
A. *85-100%
B. 10-20%
C. 30-60%
D. 50-70%
E. 100-120%
411. What indicators prothrombin index should be in the treatment of venous
thrombosis?
A. *50-70%
B. 10-20%
C. 30-40%
D. 85-100%
E. 100-120%
412. What are the indicators of coagulation control dosing of anticoagulants?
A. *Prothrombin index
B. The number of platelets in the blood
C. The level of plasma fibrinogen
D. Trombotest
E. Recalcification time
413. What is the normal level of plasma fibrinogen?
A. *2-4 g / l
B. 6-8 g / l
C. 10-16 grams / liter
D. 30-50 grams / liter
E. 75-100 g / l
414. What is the basis of postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Valvular insufficiency
B. Venous occlusion
C. Arterial occlusion
D. Nerve damage
E. Limb gangrene
415. What is the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome does not exist?
A. *Gangrenous
B. Sclerotic
C. Varicose
D. Oedema
E. Peptic
416. What is the typical consequence of deep venous thrombosis?
A. *Recanalization of thrombus from the valve insufficiency
B. Complete obliteration of the veins
C. Partial obliteration of the veins
D. Varicose
E. Arteriovenous fistula
417. What are the clinical manifestations of postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Symptoms of venous insufficiency
B. Symptoms of nerve damage
C. Symptoms of vascular dystony
D. Signs of arterial insufficiency
E. Restriction of movement of the lower extremity
418. Which clinical sign characteristic of the postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Edema
B. No pulsation
C. Paralysis
D. Gangrene
E. Lack of sensitivity
419. What is the typical sign for stage I postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Transient edema
B. Permanent edema
C. Polychromia
D. Trophic ulcer
E. Gangrene
420. What is the typical sign for stage II postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Polychromia
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Healing of trophic ulcers
421. What is the typical sign for stage II postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Permanent edema
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Healing of trophic ulcers
422. What is the typical sign for stage III postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Trophic ulcer
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
D. Permanent edema
E. Polychromia
423. What the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome is characterized by the
absence of varicose veins?
A. *Sclerotic
B. Varicose
C. Oedema
D. Peptic
E. Necrotizing
424. What the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome is characterized by secondary
varicose veins?
A. *Varicose
B. Sclerotic
C. Oedema
D. Peptic
E. Necrotizing
425. What the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome is caused by venous
obstruction?
A. *Oedema
B. Sclerotic
C. Varicose
D. Peptic
E. Necrotizing
426. What method is used for the diagnosis of valvular insufficiency at postthrombotic
syndrome?
A. *Duplex ultrasound
B. Coagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. Ultrasound doplerography
E. Arteriography
427. What is the method used to assess the passage of deep veins in postthrombotic
syndrome?
A. *Ultrasound
B. Coagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. ECG
E. Arteriography
428. What treatment is indicated in postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation
E. Saphenectomy with subfascial ligation communicative veins (Linton’s
operation)
429. Trophic ulcers of the lower third of the leg is characteristic for:
A. *Postthrombotic syndrome
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche syndrome
E. Femoral artery embolism
430. In the classification of lymphedema distinguished:
A. *Milder form
B. Elastic form
C. Subelasticheskuyu form
D. Fibrous form
431.
432.
433.
434.
435.
436.
437.
438.
E. Soft form
In the classification of lymphedema distinguished:
A. *Solid form
B. Elastic form
C. Subelasticheskuyu form
D. Fibrous form
E. Soft form
In the classification of lymphedema distinguished:
A. *Mixed form
B. Elastic form
C. Subelasticheskuyu form
D. Fibrous form
E. Soft form
Form Elephantiasis:
A. *Congenital
B. Mixed
C. Hereditary
D. Combined
E. No right answer
Form Elephantiasis:
A. *Purchased
B. Mixed
C. Hereditary
D. Combined
E. No right answer
Form of congenital elephantiasis:
A. *Sporadic form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
Form of congenital elephantiasis:
A. *Family form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
Form of congenital elephantiasis:
A. *Syndrome Maigue
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. *Noninflammatory form
B. Mixed form
439.
440.
441.
442.
443.
444.
445.
446.
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. *Inflammatory form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. *Blastomatous form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. *Cardiac
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. *Renal form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
I degree of lymphatic edema corresponds to:
A. *Intermittent swelling
B. Permanent edema
C. Fibrosclerotic changes
D. Elephantiasis
E. No right answer
II degree of lymphatic edema corresponds to:
A. *Permanent edema
B. Intermittent swelling
C. Fibrosclerotic changes
D. Elephantiasis
E. No right answer
III level lymph edema corresponds to:
A. *Fibrosclerotic changes
B. Intermittent swelling
C. Permanent edema
D. Elephantiasis
E. No right answer
IV degree of lymphatic edema corresponds to:
447.
448.
449.
450.
451.
452.
453.
A. *Elephantiasis
B. Intermittent swelling
C. Permanent edema
D. Fibrosclerotic changes
E. No right answer
In the treatment of lymphedema using:
A. *Detralex
B. Atenolol
C. Barboval
D. Preductal
E. Seduksen
In the treatment of lymphedema using:
A. *Nicotinic acid
B. Atenolol
C. Barboval
D. Preductal
E. Seduksen
In the treatment of lymphedema using:
A. *Aspirin
B. Atenolol
C. Barboval
D. Preductal
E. Seduksen
In the treatment of lymphedema using:
A. *Wobenzym
B. Atenolol
C. Barboval
D. Preductal
E. Seduksen
How much blood are flows through the superficial veins?
A. *10-15%
B. 5%
C. 30-40%
D. 70-80%
E. 90%
Where are falls the great saphenous vein?
A. *Thigh Vienna
B. Calf veins
C. Popliteal vein
D. External iliac vein
E. Нижняя полая vein
Where are runs a small subcutaneous vein?
A. *Popliteal vein
B. Vena cava inferior
C. External iliac vein
D. Thigh vein
E. Calf veins
454. Localization relapsing great saphenous vein are
A. *2-3 cm below the inguinal ligament
B. In the upper third of the lower extremity
C. In the popliteal fossa
D. In the lower third of the thigh
E. In the lumbar region
455. Localization relapsing small saphenous vein are
A. *In the popliteal fossa
B. In the upper third of the lower extremity
C. In the lower third of the thigh
D. 2-3 cm below the inguinal ligament
E. In the lumbar region
456. What veins belong to a surface system?
A. *Small and large subcutaneous vein
B. Veins
C. Superficial and deep femoral vein
D. Humeral vein
E. Elbow and radial veins
457. What vein belong to the deep vein system?
A. *V. radіalіs
B. There was subcutaneous Vienna
C. Large subcutaneous Vienna
D. V. basіlіca
E. V. ceрhalіca
458. Which factor are dominates in the development of primary varicose veins?
A. *The weakness of the connective tissue blood vessels
B. Arteriovenous fistula
C. Venous hypoplasia
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Obliterating atherosclerosis
459. What are the hormonal changes contribute to the development of varicose veins?
A. *Pregnancy
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Myxedema
E. Adrenal insufficiency
460. What is the pathological basis for the development of chronic venous
insufficiency?
A. *Venous hypertension
B. Block lymph drainage
C. Arterial ischemia
D. Arterial hypertension
E. Innervation
461. What is the cause of hypertension in the venous system of lower limbs?
A. *Venous valvular insufficiency
B. Arterial ischemia
C. Arterial hypertension
D. Block lymph drainage
E. Innervation
462. What are causes venous valve insufficiency?
A. *Venous hypertension
B. Arterial ischemia
C. Arterial hypertension
D. Innervation
E. Violation of lymph drainage
463. What is the typical sign for stage I varicose veins?
A. *Feeling gravity
B. Temporary swelling
C. Permanent edema
D. Polychromia
E. Trophic ulcer
464. What is the typical sign for IIA stage of varicose veins?
A. *Transient edema
B. Feeling gravity
C. Permanent edema
D. Polychromia
E. Trophic ulcer
465. What is the typical sign for IIB stage of varicose veins?
A. *Polychromia
B. Feeling gravity
C. Temporary swelling
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Repairer trophic ulcer
466. What is the typical sign for IIB stage of varicose veins?
A. *Permanent edema
B. Feeling gravity
C. Temporary swelling
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Repairer trophic ulcer
467. What is the typical sign for the Third Stage varicose veins?
A. *Trophic ulcer
B. Feeling gravity
C. Temporary swelling
D. Permanent edema
E. Polychromia
468. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency the main feature is the "heavy
feeling"?
A. *I
B. 0
C. IIA
D. IIB
E. III
469. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency is the main feature of transient
edema?
A. *IIA
B. 0
C. II
D. IIB
E. III
470. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency the main feature is a permanent
swelling?
A. *IIB
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. III
471. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency the main feature is
hyperpigmentation?
A. *IIB
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. III
472. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency is the main feature of
lipodermatosclerosis?
A. *IIB
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. III
473. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency the main feature of opened trophic
ulcer?
A. *III
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. IIB
474. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is responsible healing of trophic
ulcers?
A. *III
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. IIB
475. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency are characteristic valvular
insufficiency of superficial veins?
A. *I
B. 0
C. IIA
D. IIB
E. III
476. To what stage of chronic venous insufficiency are characteristic valvular
insufficiency of surface and communicative veins?
A. *II
B. 0
C. I
D. III
E. IV
477. To what stage of chronic venous insufficiency of the characteristic valvular
insufficiency of superficial, communicative and deep vein ?
A. *IIB-III
B. 0
C. I
D. IA
E. IV
478. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized :
A. *Feeling gravity
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Pain at rest
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
479. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. *Transient edema of lower extremities
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Pain at rest
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
480. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. *Extension of saphenous veins
B. Cyanosis of lower limb
C. The pallor of the lower extremity
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
481. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. *Lipodermatosklerosis shin
B. Cyanosis of lower limb
C. The pallor of the lower extremity
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
482. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. *Trophic ulcer leg
B. Cyanosis of lower limb
C. The pallor of the lower extremity
483.
484.
485.
486.
487.
488.
489.
490.
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. *Hyperpigmentation shin
B. Cyanosis of lower limb
C. The pallor of the lower extremity
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
Feeling the gravity of the lower extremities is characteristic for:
A. *Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
Transient edema of lower limbs is characteristic for:
A. *Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
Lipodermatosklerosis lower third of the leg is characteristic for:
A. *Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
Hyperpigmentation of the lower third of the leg is characteristic:
A. *Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
Trophic ulcers of the lower third of the leg is characteristic:
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
What is the test used to determine valvular insufficiency superficial veins?
A. *Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test
B. Thalman’s test
C. Pratt’s test
D. Mayo Pratt’s test
E. Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test)
What is the test used to determine valvular insufficiency communacative veins?
A. *Pratt’s test
491.
492.
493.
494.
495.
496.
497.
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test
C. Hakenbruh’s test
D. Homans’s test
E. Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test)
What is the test used to assess the patency of deep veins?
A. *Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test)
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test
C. Hakenbruh’s test
D. Pratt’s test
E. Thalmann’s test
Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test used in the diagnosis:
A. *Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
B. Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
C. Passing deep vein
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
Thalmann’s test used in the diagnosis :
A. *Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
B. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
C. Passing deep vein
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
Pratt test used in the diagnosis of :
A. *Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
B. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
C. Patency of deep veins
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
Mayo Pratt’s test used in the diagnosis:
A. *Patency of deep veins
B. Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
C. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test) is used in the diagnosis:
A. *Passing deep vein
B. Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
C. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
What is typical complication of varicose veins?
A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Paresis
D. Lymphostasis
E. Gangrene
498.
Most subcutaneous thrombophlebitis is caused by:
A. *Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Lymphedema of the lower extremities
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Acute cholecystitis
499. What is typical complication of varicose veins?
A. *Trophic ulcer
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Paresis
D. Plegia
E. Gangrene
500. What is the main method of diagnosis of arteriovenous fistulas?
A. *Phlebography
B. Koagulograme
C. Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test)
D. Ultrasound
E. Arteriography
501. What is the main method diagnosis еру venous angiodysplasia?
A. *Phlebography
B. Сoagulogramm
C. Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test)
D. Ultrasound
E. Arteriography
502. Phlebography is used to diagnose:
A. *Arteriovenous fistula
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterate endarteritis
D. Lymphedema
E. Gynecology
503. Phlebography is used to diagnose:
A. *Venous angiodysplasia
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Lymphedema
E. Gynecology
504. What method is used for the diagnosis the valvular insufficiency communicative
and deep veins?
A. *Duplex ultrasound
B. Сoagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. Ultrasonic Doppler
E. Arteriography
505. What method is used to assess the patency of deep veins?
A. *Ultrasound
B. Сoagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. ECG
E. Arteriography
506. What operation is carried out at varicose veins?
A. *Saphenectomy
B. Thrombectomy
C. Vein ligation
D. Intimectomy
E. Femoropopliteal bypass
507. What treatment is indicated at varicose II A stage?
A. *Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation
E. Saphenectomy with subfascial ligation communicative veins (Linton’s
operation)
508. What treatment is indicated for uncomplicated varicose veins?
A. *Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation
E. Saphenectomy with subfascial ligation communicative veins (Linton’s
operation)
509. For reason recurrence of varicose veins include:
A. *Leaving the main trunk, the long stump of the great saphenous vein
B. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
C. Arteriovenous fistula
D. Lack ostial valve
E. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
510. Functional tests for the detection valvular insufficiency of superficial veins are :
A. *Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test
B. Homens’s test,
C. Panchenko test,
D. Schwarz’s test
E. Schotkin-Blumberg test
511. Functional tests for the detection valvular insufficiency communicative veins
include:
A. *Thalmann’s, Sheinis’s
B. Panchenko test
C. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test
D. Moses’s test
E. Hekenburg’ test
512. Functional tests for the detection of valvular insufficiency of deep veins include:
A. *Mayo-Pratt’s test
B. Hakkenbrg’s test
C. Pratt’s test
D. Moses’s test
E. Levenberg’s test
513. In what sequence being saphenectomy
A. *Operation Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s, Babcock’s, Narath’s
B. Operation Linton’s. Cockett’s, Babcock’s
C. Operation Narath’s, Babcock’s, Cockett’s
D. Operation Babcock’s, Linton’s, Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s
E. Operation Babcock’s, Narath’s, Cokket’s
514. Maximum number communicative vein is:
A. *The lower third of tibia
B. The upper third of tibia
C. The middle third of tibia
D. Land thigh
E. The bottom third of the thigh
515. Contraindication to saphenectomy with varicose veins are:
A. *Obstruction deep veins
B. Incompetence of venous valves communicative vein
C. Incompetence ostial valve
D. Loose type of the great saphenous vein
E. Valvular insufficiency sural veins
516. The operation saphenectomy used:
A. *Babcoc’s probe
B. Blekmor’s probe
C. Fogarty probe
D. Nelatona Catheter’s
E. Levin’s tube
517. At operations on the communicative veins of the lower extremities used
operations:
A. *Linton, Kokket
B. Babcock, Narath
C. Troyanov-Trendelenburg
D. Modelung
E. Felder
518. Indirect anticoagulant drugs include:
A. *Phenilin.
B. Tiklid.
C. Papaverine.
D. Nicotinic acid.
E. Miskleron.
519. The direct anticoagulant is
A. *Heparin.
B. Phenilin.
C. Nicotinic acid.
D. Streptokinase.
E. Acetylsalicylic acid.
520. Saphenectomy performed at:
521.
522.
523.
524.
525.
526.
527.
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation is performed at:
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
Corossectomy operation performed at :
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
Linton's operation is performed at:
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation is:
A. *Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
B. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
C. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
D. Subfascial ligation perforating veins
E. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
Narath’s operation is:
A. *Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
B. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
C. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
D. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
E. Subfascial ligation perforating veins
Babcock’s operation is:
A. *Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
B. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
C. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
D. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
E. Subfascial ligation perforating veins
Coccet’s operation is:
A. *Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
B. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
C. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
D. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
528.
529.
530.
531.
532.
533.
534.
535.
E. Subfascial ligation of perforating veins
Linton's operation is:
A. *Subfascial ligation of perforating veins
B. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
C. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
D. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
E. Extrafascial ligation of perforating veins
Narath’s operation is performed at :
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
Babcock’s operation is performed at :
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
Coccet’s operation is performed at :
A. *Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
Indications to sclerotherapy is:
A. *Reticular varicose
B. Obliterating atherosclerosis
C. Occlusive disease
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
Indications for sclerotherapy is:
A. *Telangiectasia
B. Obliterating atherosclerosis
C. Occlusive disease
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
Indications for sclerotherapy is:
A. *Recurrence of varicose
B. Obliterating atherosclerosis
C. Occlusive disease
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
The method of choice in treating varicose reticulum is:
A. *Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
536.
537.
538.
539.
540.
541.
542.
543.
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
E. Autogenous vein bypass
The method of choice in treating telangiectasia is:
A. *Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
E. Autogenous vein bypass
The method of choice in treating recurrent varicose veins are:
A. *Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
E. Autogenous vein bypass
For sclerotherapy used:
A. *Fibroveyn
B. Triumbrast
C. Verografin
D. Seabar
E. Bilignost
After Saphenectomy elastic compression is applied:
A. *2-3 months
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 3-4 weeks
For the treatment of varicose veins I st. used elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. *I compression
B. II compression
C. III compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
For the treatment of varicose II degree used elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. *II compression
B. I compression
C. III compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
After saphenectomy used elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. *II compression
B. I compression
C. III compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
In patients with trophic ulcers using elastic hosiery and bandages:
544.
545.
546.
547.
548.
549.
550.
A. *III compression
B. II compression
C. I compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
Endotelon used to treat:
A. *Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
Detralex used to treat:
A. *Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
Phlebodia used to treat:
A. *Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
Troxevasin used to treat:
A. *Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
Why saphenectomy is always starts ligation safeno-femoral ejection?
A. *To prevent pulmonary embolism
B. To prevent bleeding
C. To prevent safeno-femoral reflux
D. To easily insert a venous extractor
E. To perform sclerotherapy
What is the main feature of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. *Painful bundle along the saphenous vein
B. Trophic ulcer
C. Gangrene fingers on the lower extremity
D. No pulsation
E. Edema of the lower extremity
Painful bundle along the saphenous vein is characteristic for:
A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Lymphedema
C. Atherosclerotic lesions
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Deep vein thrombosis
551. The development of limb edema in the case of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
indicates:
A. *The defeat of the deep veins
B. Infection
C. Heart failure
D. Renal failure
E. Development lymphostasis
552. What group of drugs is heparin?
A. *Direct anticoagulants
B. Indirect anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agent
553. What group of drugs is Clexane?
A. *Direct anticoagulants
B. Indirect anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agent
554. What group of drugs is ?
A. *Indirect anticoagulants
B. Direct anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agen
555. What group of drugs is phenilin?
A. *Irreducible anticoagulants
B. Direct anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agen
556. What group of drugs is Detralex?
A. *Venotonics
B. Thrombolytic
C. Indirect anticoagulants
D. Direct anticoagulants
E. Antiinflammatory agen
557. What group of drugs is venoplant?
A. *Venotonics
B. Thrombolytic
C. Indirect anticoagulants
D. Direct anticoagulants
E. Antiinflammatory agen
558. Which medicinal products belong to the direct anticoagulant?
A. *Heparin
B. Syncumar, phenilin
C. Streptokinase, urokinase
D. Trental, Pentoksiphylin
E. Diclofenac, Naklofen
559. Which medicinal products are venotonics?
A. *Detralex, Phlebodia
B. Heparin
C. Syncumar, phenilin
D. Papaverine, no-shpa
E. Diclophenac, Naklophen
560. What had normal prothrombin index?
A. *85-100%
B. 10-20%
C. 30-60%
D. 50-70%
E. 100-120%
561. What indicators prothrombin index should be in the treatment of venous
thrombosis?
A. *50-70%
B. 10-20%
C. 30-40%
D. 85-100%
E. 100-120%
562. What are the indicators of coagulation control dosing of anticoagulants?
A. *Prothrombin index
B. The number of platelets in the blood
C. The level of plasma fibrinogen
D. Trombotest
E. Recalcification time
563. What is the normal level of plasma fibrinogen?
A. *2-4 g / l
B. 6-8 g / l
C. 10-16 grams / liter
D. 30-50 grams / liter
E. 75-100 g / l
564. What is the basis of postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Valvular insufficiency
B. Venous occlusion
C. Arterial occlusion
D. Nerve damage
E. Limb gangrene
565. What is the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome does not exist?
A. *Gangrenous
B. Sclerotic
C. Varicose
D. Oedema
E. Peptic
566. What is the typical consequence of deep venous thrombosis?
A. *Recanalization of thrombus from the valve insufficiency
B. Complete obliteration of the veins
C. Partial obliteration of the veins
D. Varicose
E. Arteriovenous fistula
567. What are the clinical manifestations of postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Symptoms of venous insufficiency
B. Symptoms of nerve damage
C. Symptoms of vascular dystony
D. Signs of arterial insufficiency
E. Restriction of movement of the lower extremity
568. Which clinical sign characteristic of the postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Edema
B. No pulsation
C. Paralysis
D. Gangrene
E. Lack of sensitivity
569. What is the typical sign for stage I postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Transient edema
B. Permanent edema
C. Polychromia
D. Trophic ulcer
E. Gangrene
570. What is the typical sign for stage II postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Polychromia
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Healing of trophic ulcers
571. What is the typical sign for stage II postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Permanent edema
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Healing of trophic ulcers
572. What is the typical sign for stage III postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Trophic ulcer
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
D. Permanent edema
E. Polychromia
573. What the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome is characterized by the
absence of varicose veins?
A. *Sclerotic
B. Varicose
C. Oedema
D. Peptic
E. Necrotizing
574. What the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome is characterized by secondary
varicose veins?
A. *Varicose
B. Sclerotic
C. Oedema
D. Peptic
E. Necrotizing
575. What the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome is caused by venous
obstruction?
A. *Oedema
B. Sclerotic
C. Varicose
D. Peptic
E. Necrotizing
576. What method is used for the diagnosis of valvular insufficiency at postthrombotic
syndrome?
A. *Duplex ultrasound
B. Coagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. Ultrasound doplerography
E. Arteriography
577. What is the method used to assess the passage of deep veins in postthrombotic
syndrome?
A. *Ultrasound
B. Coagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. ECG
E. Arteriography
578. What treatment is indicated in postthrombotic syndrome?
A. *Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation
E. Saphenectomy with subfascial ligation communicative veins (Linton’s
operation)
579. Trophic ulcers of the lower third of the leg is characteristic for:
A. *Postthrombotic syndrome
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche syndrome
E. Femoral artery embolism
580. In the classification of lymphedema distinguished:
581.
582.
583.
584.
585.
586.
587.
A. *Milder form
B. Elastic form
C. Subelasticheskuyu form
D. Fibrous form
E. Soft form
In the classification of lymphedema distinguished:
A. *Solid form
B. Elastic form
C. Subelasticheskuyu form
D. Fibrous form
E. Soft form
In the classification of lymphedema distinguished:
A. *Mixed form
B. Elastic form
C. Subelasticheskuyu form
D. Fibrous form
E. Soft form
Form Elephantiasis:
A. *Congenital
B. Mixed
C. Hereditary
D. Combined
E. No right answer
Form Elephantiasis:
A. *Purchased
B. Mixed
C. Hereditary
D. Combined
E. No right answer
Form of congenital elephantiasis:
A. *Sporadic form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
Form of congenital elephantiasis:
A. *Family form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
Form of congenital elephantiasis:
A. *Syndrome Maigue
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
588.
589.
590.
591.
592.
593.
594.
595.
E. No right answer
The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. *Noninflammatory form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. *Inflammatory form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. *Blastomatous form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. *Cardiac
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. *Renal form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
I degree of lymphatic edema corresponds to:
A. *Intermittent swelling
B. Permanent edema
C. Fibrosclerotic changes
D. Elephantiasis
E. No right answer
II degree of lymphatic edema corresponds to:
A. *Permanent edema
B. Intermittent swelling
C. Fibrosclerotic changes
D. Elephantiasis
E. No right answer
III level lymph edema corresponds to:
A. *Fibrosclerotic changes
B. Intermittent swelling
596.
597.
598.
599.
600.
601.
602.
603.
C. Permanent edema
D. Elephantiasis
E. No right answer
IV degree of lymphatic edema corresponds to:
A. *Elephantiasis
B. Intermittent swelling
C. Permanent edema
D. Fibrosclerotic changes
E. No right answer
In the treatment of lymphedema using:
A. *Detralex
B. Atenolol
C. Barboval
D. Preductal
E. Seduksen
In the treatment of lymphedema using:
A. *Nicotinic acid
B. Atenolol
C. Barboval
D. Preductal
E. Seduksen
In the treatment of lymphedema using:
A. *Aspirin
B. Atenolol
C. Barboval
D. Preductal
E. Seduksen
In the treatment of lymphedema using:
A. *Wobenzym
B. Atenolol
C. Barboval
D. Preductal
E. Seduksen
What vessels are usually affected by atherosclerosis obliterans?
A. *Aorta and arteries
B. Arterioles
C. Microcirculatory bed
D. Superficial veins
E. Deep veins
What is the morphological basis of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. *The accumulation of lipids in the intima
B. Thrombosis
C. Inflammatory process
D. Embolism
E. Aneurysm
What is the main cause of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. *Hypercholesterolemia, dyslipoproteinemia
B. Infection
C. Trauma
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Myocardial infarction
604. What does applies to the first stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the
classification by Fontane?
A. *Full compensation
B. Asymptomatic ran
C. Functional circulatory insufficiency
D. Limb ischemia at rest
E. Destruction of tissue
605. What does belongs to the second stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the
classification by Fontane?
A. *Functional circulatory insufficiency
B. Asymptomatic ran
C. Full compensation
D. Limb ischemia at rest
E. Destruction of tissue
606. What does belongs to the third stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the
classification by Fontane?
A. Limb ischemia at rest
B. *Asymptomatic ran
C. Full compensation
D. Functional circulatory insufficiency
E. Destruction of tissue
607. What does belongs to the fourth stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the
classification by Fontane?
A. *Destruction of tissue
B. Asymptomatic ran
C. Full compensation
D. Functional circulatory insufficiency
E. Limb ischemia at rest
608. What is the most typical feature of the first stage of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. *Cooling of the lower extremities
B. Fever
C. Intermittent claudication
D. Gangrene
E. Pain at rest
609. What is the most typical sign of the second stage of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Cooling of the lower extremities
C. Fever
D. Gangrene
E. Pain at rest
610. What is the most typical feature of the third stage of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. *Pain at rest
B. Fever
C. Cooling of the lower extremities
D. Intermittent claudication
E. Gangrene
611. What is the most typical feature of the fourth stage of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. *Gangrene
B. Pain at rest
C. Fever
D. Cooling of the lower extremities
E. Intermittent claudication
612. What is characterized by intermittent claudication?
A. *Pain in the muscles of his legs when walking, which disappears after rest
B. Ischialgia, lumbago
C. Constant pain in the joints
D. Pain along the superficial veins
E. Edema of lower extremities
613. Intermittent claudication is characterized by:
A. *Pain in the lower extremities
B. Heartache
C. Arthralgia
D. Dizziness
E. Edema of lower extremities
614. Intermittent claudication is characterized for:
A. *Atherosclerosis of the lower extremities
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Varicose
E. Cholecystitis
615. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic intermittent claudication
up to 1000 meters?
A. *II
B. ІІА
C. ІІB
D. III
E. IV
616. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic intermittent claudication
before 500 meters?
A. *ІІА
B. I
C. III
D. ІІB
E. IV
617. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions characteristic of intermittent claudication
before 200 meters?
A. *ІІB
B. I
C. ІІА
D. IV
E. III
618. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic of intermittent
claudication 25-50 meters?
A. *III
B. I
C. ІІА
D. IV
E. ІІB
619. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic the pain at rest?
A. *III
B. I
C. ІІА
D. IV
E. ІІB
620. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions characteristic dry trophic ulcer?
A. *III
B. I
C. ІІА
D. IV
E. ІІB
621. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic the necrosis and
gangrene?
A. *IV
B. III
C. I
D. ІІА
E. II B
622. What is the main cause of limb swelling in patients with atherosclerosis
obliterans?
A. *Permanent seating position to relieve pain
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Infection, abscess
D. Arterial thrombosis
E. Heart failure
623. Where is the most frequent location of venous ulcers with obliterating
atherosclerosis?
A. *At the tip of the toes
B. In the lower third of the lower extremities
C. In the upper third of the lower extremities
D. On the back of the knee
E. At the hip
624. Leriche syndrome is:
A. *Occlusion the bifurcation of abdominal aorta
625.
626.
627.
628.
629.
630.
631.
B. Stenosis the brachiocephalic trunk
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. Stenosis of the abdominal trunk
E. Stenosis of pulmonary artery
Leriche syndrome is characterized by:
A. *Atherosclerotic lesions
B. Obliterative endarteritis
C. Varicose
D. Phlebemphraxis
E. Lymphedema
Leriche is characterized by:
A. *Atherosclerotic lesions
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Ileus
E. Appendicular infiltrate
For Leriche syndrome is characterized by:
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Angina
C. Dizziness
D. Oedema of lower extremities
E. Extension of saphenous veins
For Leriche syndrome is characterized by:
A. *The absence of pulsations in the lower extremities
B. Hyperbilirubinemia
C. Ascites
D. Oedema of lower extremities
E. Extension of saphenous veins
For Leriche syndrome is characterized by:
A. *Hypercholesterolemia
B. Hyperbilirubinemia
C. Increased blood amylase
D. Leukocytosis
E. Anemia
For Leriche syndrome is characteristic X-ray symptoms:
A. *Occlusion of the terminal aorta
B. Occlusion of terminal part of the inferior vena cava
C. Occlusion of the superior vena cava
D. Dysplasia arteries
E. Dysplasia veins
For Leriche syndrome is characteristic X-ray symptoms:
A. *Occlusion of the terminal aorta
B. Cloiber’s bowls
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. The symptom of "niche"
E. Detelectasis
632.
633.
634.
635.
636.
637.
638.
639.
At Leriche syndrome patient has complains on:
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Pain in the heart
C. Oedema of lower extremities
D. Extension of saphenous veins
E. Dizziness
At Leriche syndrome patient has complains on:
A. *Melosalgia
B. Pain in the heart
C. Pain during urination
D. Tenesmus
E. Pain in the epigastric area
At what level is absent arterial pulsation at the Leriche syndrome?
A. *Femoral artery
B. Posterior tibial artery
C. Dorsal artery of foot
D. Popliteal artery
E. Common carotid artery
What complication is caused by atherosclerosis obliterans?
A. *Acute arterial thrombosis
B. Arteriorrhexis
C. Acute venous thrombosis
D. Phlegmon
E. Superficial thrombophlebitis
What complication is caused by atherosclerosis obliterans?
A. *Aneurysm
B. Arteriorrhexis
C. Acute venous thrombosis
D. Phlegmon
E. Superficial thrombophlebitis
Which clinical sign is typical for abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A. *Systolic noise over a pulsating formation in the abdominal cavity
B. Abdominal pain
C. Leukopenia
D. Diarrhea
E. Tension of abdominal wall
Which clinical sign is typical for the rupture abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A. *Hemorrhagic shock
B. Leukopenia
C. Systolic noise over a pulsating formation in the abdominal cavity
D. Diarrhea
E. Tension of abdominal wall
Which clinical sign is typical bundle abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A. *They expressed the pain radiating to the loin
B. Pukes bile
C. Systolic noise over the formation of a pulsating abdominal
D. Diarrhea
E. Voltage anterior abdominal wall
640. What is the treatment of uncomplicated aortic aneurysm?
A. *Aortic prosthesis
B. Saphenectomy
C. Conservative treatment
D. Ligation of the aorta
E. Profundoplastic
641. What is the treatment gap abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A. *Endovascular prostheses
B. Saphenectomy
C. Conservative treatment
D. Ligation of the aorta
E. Profundoplastic
642. Which of the instrumental methods of investigation is the most informative at
obliterating atherosclerosis?
A. *Ultrasound
B. ECG
C. Spirography
D. Urography
E. Target biopsy
643. In obliterating atherosclerosis determined by:
A. *Lenel-Lavestin’s symptom
B. Homan’s symptom
C. Ortner’s symptom
D. Rovzing’s symptom
E. Babinski symptom
644. The pulsation of the femoral artery is determined by:
A. *By the middle of the inguinal ligament;
B. By the middle line above the stomach and the navel;
C. By the mid-popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;
D. Between the back-bottom edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
E. Between I and II metatarsals.
645. The pulsation of the abdominal aorta is determined by:
A. *On the middle line above the stomach and the navel;
B. On the middle of the inguinal ligament;
C. On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;
D. Between lowback edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
E. Between I and II metatarsals.
646. The pulsation of the popliteal artery is defined:
A. *On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;
B. On the middle line above the stomach and the navel;
C. On the middle of the inguinal ligament;
D. Between the back-bottom edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
E. Between I and II metatarsals.
647. The pulsation of the posterior tibial artery is determined by:
A. *Between the back-bottom edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
B. On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;
C. On the middle line above the stomach and the navel;
D. On the middle of the inguinal ligament;
E. Between I and II metatarsals.
648. Ripple dorsal artery of foot is determined by:
A. *Between I and II metatarsals.
B. Between lowback edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
C. On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;
D. On the middle line above the stomach and the navel;
E. On the middle of the inguinal ligament;
649. What kind of ankle pressure is characterize the critical ischemia?
A. *Less than 50 mm Hg.
B. Less than 140 mm Hg.
C. Less than 70 mm Hg.
D. Less than 90 mm Hg.
E. Less than 110 mm Hg.
650. What kind of ankle pressure is characterized the II stage of the chronic ischemia?
A. *Less than 90 mm Hg.
B. Less than 50 mm Hg.
C. Less than 140 mm Hg.
D. Less than 70 mm Hg.
E. Less than 110 mm Hg.
651. What kind of ankle index corresponds to II stage of the chronic ischemia?
A. *Less than 0,9.
B. Less than 0,5.
C. 1,0.
D. More than 1,0.
E. More than 1,5.
652. What kind of ankle index corresponds to III stage of the chronic ischemia?
A. *Less than 0,5.
B. Less than 0,9.
C. 1,0.
D. More than 1,0.
E. More than 1,5.
653. Which of the X-ray methods is the most informative at obliterating
atherosclerosis?
A. *Arteriography
B. Abdominal radiography
C. Chest radiography
D. Radiography limb
E. Phlebography
654. For atherosclerotic lesions at arteriography is characterized by:
A. *Segmental occlusion of the arteries
B. Occlusion of terminal part of the inferior vena cava
C. Occlusion of the superior vena cava
D. Dysplasia arteries
E. Diffuse stenosis of small arteries
655. What is the main distinctive feature between atherosclerosis and endarteritis
obliterans?
A. *The level of arterial pulsation
B. Pain syndrome
C. Trophic ulcers
D. Changes in coagulation
E. Skin color
656. What method of research is the most informative in the differential diagnosis
between atherosclerosis and endarteritis obliterans?
A. *Angiography
B. ECG
C. Biochemical analysis of blood
D. Complete blood
E. Target biopsy
657. What is the main distinctive feature between atherosclerosis and lumbosacral
radiculitis?
A. *Arterial pulsation in the lower extremities
B. Pain syndrome of the lower extremities
C. The color of the skin of the lower extremities
D. Cold extremities
E. Paresthesias of lower extremities
658. At what level is no ripple at lumbosacral radiculitis?
A. *Stored at all levels of
B. Calf arteries
C. Popliteal artery
D. Femoral artery
E. Aorta
659. Which method to study is the most informative in the differential diagnosis
between atherosclerosis and diabetic angiopathy?
A. *Biochemical analysis of blood
B. Complete blood
C. Koagulograme
D. Imunogramma
E. Urinalysis
660. Which clinical sign is not typical for diabetic angiopathy?
A. *No pulsation of femoral artery
B. Necrosis of the fingers on the lower extremity
C. Trophic ulcers on the foot
D. Phlegmon of the foot
E. Paresthesias
661. What are the indications for conservative therapy of obliterative atherosclerosis?
A. *I-II stage of chronic arterial insufficiency
B. Not shown at all
C. III-IV stage of chronic arterial insufficiency
D. Leriche syndrome
E. Arterial thrombosis
662. Which drugs has affect on atherogenesis?
A. *Cholestyramine
B. Trental
C. Vasaprostan
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Aspirin
663. Which drug does belongs to antiaggregants?
A. *Pentoksiphilin
B. Cholestyramine
C. Vasaprostan
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Papaverine
664. What are the indications for surgical arterial reconstruction?
A. *II-III stage of chronic arterial insufficiency
B. No evidence
C. I-II stage of chronic arterial insufficiency
D. Gangrene of the lower extremity
E. Phlegmon of the lower extremity
665. Which operation is performed with Leriche syndrome?
A. *Aorto-femoral bypass
B. Lumbar sympathectomy
C. Intimectomy
D. Resection of the arteries
E. Artery ligation
666. Which operation is performed at Leriche syndrome?
A. *Right answer is absent
B. Bypass thick intestinal anastomosis
C. Gastrectomy
D. Cholecystectomy
E. Saphenectomy
667. What are the indications for endarterectomy:
A. *Isolated segmental occlusion of the artery
B. Leriche syndrome
C. Multi-storey artery occlusion
D. Calcinosis artery
E. Occlusive disease
668. What is the most common operation at atherosclerotic occlusion of the femoral
artery?
A. *Autogenous vein bypass
B. Lumbar sympathectomy
C. Intimectomy
D. Resection of the arteries
E. Artery ligation
669. What is the localization of arterial occlusion requires prophundoplastic?
A. *Bifurcation of the common femoral artery
B. Bifurcation of the aorta
C. Bifurcation of common iliac artery
D. Trifurcation popliteal artery
E. Bifurcation carotid artery
670. What is the complication of arterial reconstruction does not require repeated
surgical intervention?
A. *Deep vein thrombosis
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Arterial bleeding
D. Injection of synthetic graft
E. The increase in lower limb ischemia
671. What are indication to amputation at obliterating atherosclerosis?
A. *Gangrene of the lower extremity
B. Leriche
C. I-II stage of ischemia
D. II-III stage of ischemia
E. Arterial bleeding
672. Which artery are usually affects occlusive endarteritis?
A. *Calf arteries
B. Aorta
C. Iliac arteries
D. Femoral artery
E. Deep femoral artery
673. What factors play a very significant role in pathogenesis the obliterative
endarteritis?
A. *Chronic intoxication
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Triglitseridemia
D. Vascular injury
E. Thrombophlebitis
674. What is the morphological basis of obliterative endarteritis?
A. *Intimal hyperplasia
B. Atheroma
C. Embolism
D. Aneurysm
E. Arteriovenous fistula
675. What is the fourth stage of obliterating endarteritis?
A. *Ulcer-necrotic
B. Asymptomatic
C. Coronary
D. Trophic changes
E. Gangrenous
676. What is the main feature of obliterative endarteritis?
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Muscle contraction
677.
678.
679.
680.
681.
682.
683.
684.
C. Fever
D. Arthritic pain
E. Ishalgia
What is the cause of intermittent claudication?
A. *Muscle ischemia
B. Trauma
C. Ishalgia
D. Muscle contraction
E. Arthritic pain
The most typical localization of intermittent claudication at occlusive disease is?
A. *Foot
B. Stifle
C. Hip
D. Hip
E. Stomach
Cooling stop is characteristic:
A. *Surface thrombophlebitis
B. Deep thrombophlebitis
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Lymphostasis
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Blanching of the skin foot is characteristic:
A. *Obliterative endarteritis
B. Deep thrombophlebitis
C. Surface thrombophlebitis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Phlegmon of the foot
What is the typical location the venous ulcers at occlusive disease?
A. *At fingertips
B. In the lower third of the lower extremities
C. In the upper third of the lower extremities
D. On the back of the knee
E. At the hip
What is the typical sign for the I stage of obliterating endarteritis?
A. *Cooling of the lower extremities
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Fever
D. Pain at rest
E. Gangrene
What is the typical sign for II stage the obliterative endarteritis?
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Fever
C. Cooling of the lower extremities
D. Gangrene
E. Pain at rest
What is the typical sign for the III stage of obliterating endarteritis?
685.
686.
687.
688.
689.
690.
691.
A. *Pain at rest
B. Cooling of the lower extremities
C. Fever
D. Intermittent claudication
E. Gangrene
What is the typical sign for the IV stage of obliterating endarteritis?
A. *Gangrene
B. Cooling of the lower extremities
C. Fever
D. Pain at rest
E. Intermittent claudication
What is the most frequent complication the obliterative endarteritis?
A. *Arterial thrombosis and gangrene of the extremities
B. Bleeding
C. Blindness
D. Chylorrhea
E. Aneurysm
What is the main goal of therapy at obliterating endarteritis?
A. *Renewal or improvement of capillary circulation
B. Resumption pass vein
C. Resumption of the entrance of lymph
D. Resumption pass arteries
E. Improving the innervation of the lower extremity
For obliterative endarteritis is characterized by:
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Angina
C. Dizziness
D. Oedema of lower extremities
E. Extension of saphenous veins
For obliterative endarteritis is characterized by:
A. *The pulse absent on the feet
B. Hyperbilirubinemia
C. Ascites
D. Oedema of lower extremities
E. Extension of saphenous veins
For obliterative endarteritis is characteristic X-ray symptoms:
A. *Diffuse stenosis of small arteries
B. Occlusion of terminal part of the inferior vena cava
C. Occlusion of the superior vena cava
D. Arteries dysplasia
E. Veins dysplasia
For obliterative endarteritis is characteristic X-ray symptoms:
A. *No right answer
B. Bowls Kloiber
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. The symptom of "niche"
692.
693.
694.
695.
696.
697.
698.
699.
E. Detelectasis
At occlusive disease patient complains on:
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Pain in the heart
C. Oedema of lower extremities
D. Extension of saphenous veins
E. Dizziness
At obliterating endarteritis patient complains of:
A. *Melosalgia
B. Pain in the heart
C. Pain during urination
D. Tenesmus
E. Pain in the epigastric area
At what level is absent arterial pulsation at obliterative endarteritis ?
A. *Arteries foot
B. Femoral artery
C. Popliteal artery
D. Common carotid artery
E. Abdominal aorta
Which group of drugs are pentoxifyllinum?
A. *Antiagrigant
B. Antispasmodic
C. Antihistamines
D. Stimulants metabolism
E. Narcotic analgesics
Which group of drugs are vasaprostan?
A. *Prostaglandins
B. Antiagrigant
C. Antispasmodic
D. Antihistamines
E. Stimulants metabolism
Which operation is performed at obliterative endarteritis ?
A. *Lumbar sympathectomy
B. Intimectomy
C. Bypass grafting
D. Resection of the arteries
E. Artery ligation
Which factor is the leader in the development of atherosclerosis?
A. *Dyslipoproteinemia.
B. Diabetes.
C. Suprarenalism.
D. Frequent hypothermia.
E. Smoking.
Which factor is the leader in the development of obliterative endarteritis?
A. *Hypothermia, intoxication.
B. Hypercholesterolemia.
C. Diabetes.
D. Violations electrolytic exchange.
E. Suprarenalism.
700. At what age is the greatest risk of ill atherosclerosis obliterans?
A. *Older than 40 years.
B. In 20 - 60 years.
C. In 19 - 25 years.
D. In 30 - 35 years.
E. In 35 - 39 years.
701. At what age is the greatest risk of ill obliterative endarteritis?
A. *Up to 40 years.
B. 41 - 50 years.
C. 51 - 60 years.
D. In 10 - 15 years.
E. Over 60 years.
702. At atherosclerosis obliterans first affected:
A. *Arteries, aorta.
B. Arteriovenous shunt vessels.
C. Capillaries.
D. Arteries of medium diameter.
E. Small arteries.
703. At obliterative endarteritis first affected:
A. *Peripheral arteries.
B. Inguinal artery.
C. Aorta.
D. Ventral trunk.
E. The upper and lower mesenteric artery.
704. At what disease you can auscultated systolic murmur on the major arteries?
A. *In obliterating atherosclerosis.
B. When occlusive disease.
C. With varicose veins.
D. In acute venous thrombosis shins.
E. When ileofemoralnom venous thrombosis.
705. With the defeat of what artery atherosclerosis can develops Leriche syndrome?
A. *Bifurcation of the aorta, common iliac arteries.
B. Popliteal artery.
C. Arteries of the lower leg.
D. Ventral trunk.
E. Inferior mesenteric artery.
706. What kind of reconstructive operations on the vessels are carried out with Leriche
syndrome?
A. *Aorto-femoral prosthesis or bypass surgery.
B. Operation Linton or Kokkett.
C. Leriche's operation.
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation, Babcock’ s operation.
E. Embolectomy
707. What kind of reconstructive operations on the major arteries are carried out with
obliterating atherosclerosis?
A. *Endarterectomy, bypass surgery or prosthetic arteries.
B. Leriche's operation.
C. Lumbar sympathectomy.
D. Palm’s operation .
E. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation.
708. . What operations are conducted in obliterating endartereite lower extremities?
A. *Lumbar sympathectomy, Leriche's operation.
B. Embolectomy
C. Saphenectomy.
D. Thrombectomy.
E. Intimectomy
709. What kind of manipulation to be done vascular prostheses ifection?
A. *Remove the prosthesis.
B. Catheterization subclavian vein.
C. Catheterization great saphenous vein.
D. Fasciotomy.
E. Necrectomy.
710. Named the arteries that catheterization for aortography with bilateral Leriche
syndrome?
A. *Brachial artery.
B. Total n artery.
C. Thigh iliac artery.
D. Subclavian artery.
E. Rear leg artery
711. Aorto-occlusive disease at arteriogram characterized by:
A. *Uniform narrowing of the lumen of the arteries of the lower extremities.
B. Occlusion of peripheral arteries.
C. Uneven narrowing of the lumen of the arteries of the lower extremities.
D. Occlusion of collateral arteries.
E. Occlusion of capillaries.
712. Lumbar sympathectomy is accompanied by:
A. *Removing the spasm of precapillary sphincter .
B. Decrease in prothrombin index.
C. Normalization of glucose.
D. Increased protein content in blood serum.
E. Normalization of bilirubin in the blood serum.
713. To improve the microcirculation provide drugs:
A. *Nicotinic acid, reopolyglukine.
B. Diphenhydramine, suprastin.
C. Anaprilin, lineotol.
D. Cytitone, lobeline.
E. Amidopyrine, analgin.
714. What drugs have antisclerotic action?
A. *Clofibrate, linetol, parmidin.
B. Cytitone, lobeline.
C. Fenilin, Omefin.
D. Nicotinic acid.
E. Diphenhydramine, suprastin.
715. What methods are used to reduce the concentration of cholesterol and lipoproteins
in the blood serum?
A. *Plasmapheresis, hemosorption.
B. Artificial diuresis.
C. Hemodilution.
D. Transfusion of blood
E. Introduction vasorostana
716. At what level are removed ganglia at the lumbar sympathectomy?
A. *L3 - L4.
B. S2 - S3.
C. L1.
D. Th 10-17
E. Th 8-9.
717. How soon after the appointment of showing its effect indirect anticoagulants?
A. *After 12 - 48 hours.
B. After 4 hours.
C. After 72 hours.
D. After 56 hours.
E. 46-56 hours.
718. Specify non-pharmacological methods of correcting blood coagulation system.
A. *Hemodilution.
B. Hemodialysis.
C. Hemosorption.
D. Artificial diuresis.
E. Limfosorbtsiya.
719. What are the contrast agents used for angiography?
A. *Triyodtrast, verografin.
B. Methylene blue.
C. Barium sulfate.
D. Alprostan.
E. Vasoprostan.
720. Catheterization of the aorta is performed by:
721. Seldinger.
721.1.A.1. Billroth.
721.1.A.2. Kocher
721.1.A.3. Pirogov
721.1.A.4. Shalimov
722. What complications may arise during percutaneous catheterization of the aorta by
Seldinger?
A. *Bleeding, thrombosis, embolism.
B. Acute thrombophlebitis leg veins.
C. Relaxation of the diaphragm.
D. Thrombosis of the subclavian vein.
E. Endocarditis.
723. At occlusion what arteries can develops Leriche syndrome:
A. *Occlusion of the aortic bifurcation, common iliac arteries
B. Occlusion of inferior mesenteric artery
C. Occlusion of the subclavian and brachial arteries
D. Occlusion of the popliteal artery and lower leg
E. Occlusion of the internal iliac arteries
724. At occlusion what arteries can develops unilateral Leriche syndrome?
A. *Occlusion of the external and common iliac arteries
B. Occlusion of the internal iliac arteries
C. Occlusion of the aortic bifurcation
D. Occlusion of the deep femoral artery
E. Occlusion of popliteal artery
725. For aorto-arteriography using contrast agents:
A. *Triumbrast, verografin, urotrast
B. Seabar
C. Bilignost
D. Holevid
E. Iodognost
726. Aorto-arteriography by percutaneous catheterization of the aorta through a
peripheral artery is developed:
A. *Seldingerom
B. Petrovsky
C. Suharev
D. Pokrovsky
E. Vishnevsky
727. For aorto-arterigrafii with bilateral Leriche syndrome conducted puncture:
A. *Brachialis artery
B. Femoral artery
C. Popliteal artery
D. External iliac artery
E. Cubital vein
728. At obliterating atherosclerosis affected:
A. *Aorta and arteries
B. Small and small arteries
C. Arterivenoznye shunts
D. Komunikantni vein
E. Arterioles
729. At obliterating endartereiite affected:
A. *Peripheral artery
B. Arteriovenous shunts
C. Kommunikantnye vein
D. Aorta and arteries
E. Sural vein
730. The leading factor in the development of atherosclerotic lesions is:
731.
732.
733.
734.
are:
A. *Violation of cholesterol-lipid
B. Violation of protein metabolism
C. Suprarenalism
D. Improving the function of the sympathetic system
E. Violation of mineral metabolism
B-lipoproteins show:
A. *Antiplatelet effect
B. Atherogenic effect
C. Spasmolytic
D. Antiatherogenic effect
E. Surfactant effect
Alpha-lipoproteins has:
A. *Atherogenic effect
B. Antiatherogenic effect
C. Anticoagulant activity
D. Antiplatelet effect
E. Surfactant effect
At obliterative atherosclerosis of lower limb arteries performed:
A. *Bypass surgery, prostheses, endarterectomy
B. Leriche's operation, Oppel
C. Linton’s operation
D. Babcock’s operation
E. Troyanov – Trandelenburg’s operation
The most severe complication after reconstructive operations on the major arteries
A. *Bleeding
B. Suppuration
C. Thrombosis
D. Chylorrhea
E. Phlebeurysm
735. At occlusive disease of the lower extremities performed :
A. *Lumbar sympathectomy, Leriche's operation
B. Linton’s operation
C. Bypass surgery
D. Intimectomy
E. Troyanov – Trandelenburg’s operation
736. What are the indications for lumbar sympathectomy at obliterating endartereite?
A. *Stage II
B. Stage IV
C. Gangrene of the lower extremity
D. Deep venous thrombosis
E. The duration of reactive hyperemia was more than 3 minutes
737. At segmental occlusion of the bifurcation of the femoral artery what operation is
performed:
A. *Endarterectomy of the femoral artery
B. Bifurcation bypass surgery
C. Iliac-femoral bypass surgery
D. Saphenectomy
E. Artery ligation
738. At segmental occlusion of the superficial femoral artery what operation is
performed:
A. *Autogenous vein bypass
B. Endarterectomy of the femoral artery
C. Iliac-femoral bypass surgery
D. Saphenectomy
E. Artery ligation
739. At segmental occlusion of the popliteal artery what operation is performed:
A. *Autogenous vein bypass
B. Endarterectomy of the femoral artery
C. Iliac-femoral bypass surgery
D. Saphenectomy
E. Artery ligation
740. At segmental occlusion of the iliac artery what operation is performed:
A. *Iliac-femoral aloshuntirovanie
B. Autogenous vein bypass
C. Endarterectomy of the femoral artery
D. Saphenectomy
E. Artery ligation
741. Endarterectomy is performed at:
A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans
B. Occlusive disease
C. Varicose
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema
742. Iliac-femoral bypass surgery performed at:
A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans
B. Occlusive disease
C. Varicose
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema
743. Femoropopliteal autovenous bypass surgery is performed at :
A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans
B. Occlusive disease
C. Varicose
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema
744. Aorto-femoral bifurcation bypass surgery performed at:
A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans
B. Occlusive disease
C. Varicose
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema
745.
746.
747.
748.
749.
750.
751.
752.
Decompression osteoperforation performed at:
A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans
B. Coxarthrosis
C. Varicose
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema
Sympathectomy performed at:
A. *Occlusive disease
B. Atherosclerosis obliterans
C. Varicose
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema
What is the normal number of platelets in the blood?
A. *180-320
B. 20-40
C. 40-120
D. 420-650
E. 600-1000
What phase hemocoagulation inhibits heparin:
A. *Only the formation of thrombin
B. No right answer
C. Only the formation of fibrin
D. Only the formation of thromboplastin
E. It operates on the phase of thrombotic
By indirect anticoagulants include:
A. *Preparation of 4-oksikumarina
B. Preparations of alkaloids
C. Fibrinolytic drugs
D. Pentoksifilin
E. Thrombolytic drugs
Absolute contraindications to anticoagulation attributes is:
A. *Bleeding of any location, hemorrhagic diathesis
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Respiratory failure
D. Cardiovascular insufficiency
E. Lack of cerebral circulation
Methods control of coagulation and fibrinolytic systems of blood:
A. *Coagulogramm
B. Complete blood count
C. Determination of the rate of local blood flow
D. Blood count
E. Biochemical analysis of blood
How is the diagnosis of the general peritonitis set to the operation?
A. roentgenologic
B. anamnestetic
C. by laboratory determination the signs of inflammatory reaction
753.
on clinical signs
A. on the level secretion the gastric juice
754. For the late stage of peritonitis all is characteristic, except for:
A. swelling of stomach
B. hypovolemia
C. disappearance of intestinal noises
D. hypoproteinemia
755. increased peristalsis
756. . Diffusive festering peritonitis can be investigation of all transferred diseases,
except for:
A. perforations Meckel's diverticulum
B. destructive appendicitis
C. *stenosis of large duodenal nipple
D. Richter strangulation of hernia
E. acute intestinal impassability
757. Fibrinogenous impositions on a peritoneum are not at peritonitis:
758. serosal
A. fibrinogenous
B. festering
C. putrid
D. excrement
759. The exsudate painted blood in an abdominal region is observed always, except
for:
A. *tubercular peritonitis
B. violations of extra-uterine pregnancy
C. mesenteric ischemia
D. acute pancreatitis
E. twisted oothecoma
760. Middle laparotomy must be conducted at:
A. *diffusive peritonitis
B. local unlimited peritonitis
C. abscess of Duglas space
D. periappendiceal infiltration
E. acute appendicitis
761. . The best method of treatment the subhepatic abscess is:
A. thoracolaparotomy
B. lumbotomy
C. double-stage transpleural approach
D. laparotomy by Fedorov
E. *extrapleural extra-peritoneal method
762. The best variant the treatment of subhepatic abscess is:
A. conservative treatment
B. extra-peritoneal section and draining
C. laparotomy, section and tamponing of cavity
763. punction of abscess by a thick needle under control USD
A. all transferred right
764.
. At a subhepatic abscess can take place all, except for:
A. decline of respiratory excursion the lights
B. high standing of diaphragm dome
C. accumulation the exudate in a pleura cavity
D. pains what irradietion in a supraclavicular area
765. diarrhea
766. . At a subhepatic abscess can take place all, except for:
A. pains in a thorax with an irradiation in a supraclavicular area
B. reactive pleurisy
767. Courvoisier's symptom
A. Senator’s symptom
B. Dyushen’s symptom
768. Least answers a subhepatic abscess:
A. Senator’s symptom
B. Dyushen’s symptom
C. Liten’s symptom
769. Rovzing’s symptom
A. ShchotkiN-Blyumberg’s symptom
770. . The leading symptom of peritonitis is:
A. stomach-ache
B. enteroplegia
C. swelling of stomach
771. symptoms the irritation of peritoneum
A. symptoms of the intestinal impassability
772. Widespread festering peritonitis is investigation of all above-stated diseases,
except for:
A. perforative ulcers of duodenum
B. phlegmonous cholecystitis
773. hydrocholecystiss
A. destructive pancreatitis
B. volvulus of sigmoid bowel
774. Specify obligatory measures which are conducted during an operation concerning
widespread fibrinopurulent peritonitis:
A. removal the source of peritonitis.
B. sanitization of the abdominal region.
C. decompression of intestine.
D. draining of abdominal region.
775. all answers are faithful
776. Specify a criterion which grounds the choice of middle laoarotomy access at the
deffusion festering peritonitis:
A. minimum trauma the abdominal wall
B. minimum cut
777. valuable revision the abdominal region.
A. minimum blood loss.
B. minimum level of infecting the wound
778. For what purpose in treatment of diffusive festering peritonitis does execute
nasointestinal intubation?
A. account of losses the liquid through a gastroenteric highway.
B. control of electrolyte composition the intestinal maintenance
779. prophylaxis of intestinal impassability
A. stimulation of the intestinal peristalsis
B. suppression of the intestinal peristalsis
780. For a perforation declivous organ all is characteristic in a free abdominal region,
except for:
A. acute began pains.
B. wooden belly.
C. collapse.
781. oliguria.
A. tachycardia.
782. What symptom is most characteristic in the initial phase of peritonitis:
A. sickliness and overhanding of pelvic peritoneum at rectal research.
B. dulling in declivous places at percusion of stomach
783. tension of muscles the front abdominal wall.
A. swelling of stomach
B. melena
784. Specific symptom of perforation declivous organ in a free abdominal region is:
A. high leucocytosis.
B. absence of intestinal noises.
785. pneumoperitoneum.
A. positive symptoms of irritation the peritoneum.
B. dulling of the percusion sound in the gently sloping places of abdominal
region
786. Specify reason of use the derivatives of metronidasoli as an obligatory
component of antibacterial therapy of widespread peritonitis?
787. removal of anaerobic microflora.
A. removal of mycotic flora.
B. removal of microflora of aerobic.
C. prophylaxis of intestinal worm invasion.
D. prophylaxis of widespread candidosis
788. Specify the most rational way the introduction of antibacterial preparations in
treatment of diffusive festering peritonitis:
A. peroral
B. hypodermic
C. intramuscular
789. intravenous
A. intraperitoneal
790. What type of peritonitis are fibrinogenous impositions at on a parietal and visceral
peritoneum?
A. at serosal.
B. at festering.
C. at fibrinogenous
D. at putrid.
791. at all
792. At suspicion on the abscess of Duglas space all followings methods of diagnostics
are rotined, except for:
A. rectal inspection.
793. proctoscopy.
A. USD.
B. computer tomography.
C. vaginal research
794. At suspicion on a subdiaphragmatic abscess the followings methods of
diagnostics are rotined, except for:
795. laparoscopy.
A. USD.
B. X-rye examination of thorax.
C. X-rye examination of abdominal region.
D. computer tomography
796. What from the transferred diseases can be reason of the pseudoperitoneal
syndrome?
A. dissecting aneurysm of the abdominal part of aorta.
B. Extraperitoneal haematoma.
C. Nephrolithiasis, nephrocolic
D. Thrombosis the pelvis veins
797. All transferred
798. At a subdiaphragmatic abscess in a clinical picture characteristically all following,
except for:
A. declines the respiratory excursion of lights.
B. high standing of diaphragm dome.
C. concord pleurisy.
D. basale atelectasis of lights.
799. blood spitting
800. Specify possible reasons of the pseudoperitoneal syndrome:
A. uremia.
B. porphyria.
C. diabetic crisis.
D. nephrocolic.
E. *all transferred
801. Agents, which cause peritonitis, can be all except for:
A. urines at the break of urinary bladder
B. tables of contents the stomach during the perforation of ulcer
C. to blood at the trauma of stomach
D. biles during the perforation of gall-bladder
E. *air in an abdominal region after laparoscopy research
802. Peritonitis does not develop at the next form of acute appendicitis
A. *catarrhal
B. phlegmonous
C. gangrenous
803.
804.
805.
806.
807.
808.
809.
810.
811.
812.
813.
814.
815.
D. perforatiove
E. gangrenous-perforatiove
In classic motion of peritonitis select the stages:
A. early, intermediate, late
B. reactive, intermediate, late
C. toxic, intoxication, terminal
reactive, toxic, terminal
A. reactive, toxic, late
For the terminal stage of peritonitis not characteristically:
A. tachycardia
bradycardia
A. hyperthermia
B. falling of arteriotony
C. dynamic intestinal impassability
To the local isolated peritonitis does not attribute:
A. subdiaphragmatic abscess
B. subhepatic abscess
C. interintestinal abscess
primary idiopathic peritonitis
A. abscess cystic-rectal spaces
At festering peritonitis the disorder of hemodynamics not conditioned:
A. by the decline of volume the circulatory blood
by the increase of volume the circulatory blood
A. by the decline of tone the vascular wall
B. by the change of properties the hemorheologys
C. by violation of cardiovascular activity
The complex treatment of festering peritonitis does not provide for:
A. delete of primary hearth
B. *vagotomy
C. correction the metabolic violations
D. adequate therapy by antibiotics
E. struggle of paresis the intestine
In the dynamics of acute peritonitis it is necessary positive to consider
A. *decline of amount the leucocytes
B. increase of amount the leucocytes
C. leucocytosis with the change of leukocytic formula to the left
D. growth of the leukocytic index intoxication
E. leukopenia
The diagnostics criteria of the anaerobic peritonitis is
A. stormy progress of disease
B. heavy festering intoxication
C. expressed enteroplegia
D. abundant amount of exsudate green-brown colors
all is transferred
A prophylaxis and treatment of postoperative enteroplegias at peritonitis is
A. gastrotomy
816.
817.
818.
819.
820.
821.
822.
823.
824.
825.
826.
827.
828.
829.
B. gastrointestinotomy
nasogastrointestinal intubation
A. intubation of abdominal region
B. intubation of stuffing-box bag
For the reactive stage of festering peritonitis not characteristically:
A. acute sickliness the stomach at palpation
B. positive Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s symptom
C. tension of muscles the front abdominal wall
face of «Hippocrates»
A. tachycardia
The methods of disintoxication at peritonitis are not:
A. lymphosorbtion
B. hemosorption
C. enterosorbtion
D. plasmapheresis
antibiotic
Preoperative preparation for patients from peritonitis does not provide:
A. corrections the violations cardiovascular system
laparocentzis
A. declines the intoxication
B. corrections the exchange violations
C. struggle with hy hypovolemia
Relaparotomy at difuusive festering peritonitis pursues:
repeated revision of abdominal region
A. repeated laparoscopy of abdominal region
B. repeated endoscopy of abdominal region
C. normalization the function of gall-bladder
D. normalization the function of urinary bladder
The favourable result of treatment the patients with peritonitis provide:
A. early surgical interference
B. adequate operation
C. intravenous antibacterial therapy
D. methods of extracorporal dialysis
all is transferred
Laparostomy at the diffusive peritonitis used with a purpose
A. *to repeated sanitization the abdominal region
B. extracorporal dialysis
C. hemosorption
D. laparoscopy
E. stimulations the peristalsis
The sign of the diffusive peritonitis is not
visible peristalsis
A. absence the peristaltic intestinal noises
B. sickliness of stomach at palpation in all departments
C. even tension the muscles of front abdominal wall
D. positive Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s symptom
830.
831.
832.
833.
834.
835.
836.
837.
838.
839.
840.
841.
842.
For peritonitis there is a not characteristic symptom:
A. Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s symptom
B. Voskresenskiy’s symptom
Khomans’s symptom
A. Kulenkampf’s symptom
B. Krymov’s symptom
For peritonitis there is a not characteristic symptom:
A. Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s symptom
B. Voskresenskiy’s symptom
C. Kulenkampf’s symptom
Moebius’s symptom
A. Krymov’s symptom
Aseptic inflammation of peritoneum can be caused:
A. by bacteria
B. by bacteroids
C. by a trauma
D. by exudation
by a bile
Aseptic inflammation the peritoneum can be caused:
A. by a collibacillus
B. by staphylococcuss
C. poisoning
D. *by blood
E. by intestinal maintenance
Aseptic inflammation of peritoneum can be caused:
A. by bacteria
B. by bacteroids
by urine
A. by an abscess
B. by an enterobrosia
Aseptic inflammation of peritoneum can be caused:
A. by a collibacillus
B. by staphylococcuss
by pancreatitis juice
A. by an abscess
B. by intestinal maintenance
What surgical pathology is a characteristic symptom of toxic «scissors» ?
A. appendicitis
B. cholecystitis
C. pancreatitis
D. *peritonitis
E. mesadenitis
Symptom of toxic «scissors» at the peritinitis it is correlation:
A. *pulse and temperature
B. arteriotony and pulse
C. arteriotony and temperature
D. rectal and axillar temperature
E. rate breathings and temperatures
843. Symptom of the toxic «scissors» at peritonitis it:
A. increase of temperature and pulse
B. diminishing of temperature and pulse
C. *diminishing of temperature and increase of pulse
D. increase of temperature and diminishing of pulse
E. increase of temperature and diminishing of breathing frequency
844. Postoperative peritonitis is characterized a flow:
A. typical
845. atypical
A. stormy
B. with the expressed pain reaction
C. with the expressed intoxication
846. Atipical clinical motion of postoperative peritonitis is conditioned setting in a
postoperative period:
A. spasmolytic
B. anticoagulant
847. anaesthetic
A. analeptics
B. cardiac
848. What must be done in the case of development the posoperative peritonitis?
A. to appoint antibiotics
B. to appoint anaesthetic
C. to execute laparocenthezis
D. to execute lasparoscopy
849. to execute laparotomy
850. The most informing method the instrumental diagnostics of peritonitis is:
A. *survey sciagraphy of abdominal region
B. lasparoscopy
C. angiography
D. gastroscopy
E. colonoscopy
851. With what disease above all things is it necessary to differentiate the acute
peritonitis?
A. bronchitis
B. enterorrhagia
C. anaemia
852. acute vascular purpura
A. endotoxicosis
853. With what disease above all things is it necessary to differentiate the acute
peritonitis?
A. bronchitis
B. enterorrhagia
C. anaemia
D. coarctation of aorta
854. dissecting aneurysm of aorta
855. With what disease above all things is it necessary to differentiate the acute
peritonitis?
A. Hepar-kidney syndrome
B. *ischemic abdominal syndrome
C. adrenogenital syndrome
D. Horner’s syndrome
E. diencephalic syndrome
856. Decision role in differential diagnostics the peritonitis and dissecting aneurysm of
aorta , there is a symptom:
A. aperistalsis
B. acute pain in a stomach
C. *systole noise above the abdominal department of aorta
D. absence of pulsation of abdominal department of aorta
E. melena at rectal research
857. Decision role in differential diagnostics of peritonitis and acute vascular purpura
is a symptom:
858. hemorragic rash on a skin
A. acute pain in a stomach
B. systole noise above the abdominal department of aorta
C. absence of pulsation of abdominal department of aorta
D. melena at rectal research
859. Decision role in differential diagnostics of peritonitis and break the bone of pelvis
is:
A. to appoint antibiotics
B. to appoint anaesthetic
C. to execute laparocenthezis
860. to execute laparoscopy
A. to execute survey sciagraphy of abdominal region
861. There is vomiting at peritonitis, as a rule:
A. single
B. episodic
862. frequent
A. abundant
B. scanty
863. At peritonitis of violation the proteometabolism characterized:
A. by the increase of concentration the albumen
B. by the increase of concentration the globulins
C. diminishing of concentration the albumen
864. diminishing of the albumen - globulins coefficient
A. by the increase of the albumen - globulins coefficient
865. At peritonitis intestinal impassability develops, as a rule:
A. mechanical
B. dynamic
C. spastic
866. paralytic
A. mixed
867. Tactic of surgeon at periappendiceal mas:
A. operative treatment
868. conservative treatment, systematic looking after a patient
A. there is not a right answer
B. supervision
C. punction
869. Draining the abdominal region is conducted at:
A. phlegmonous appendicitis without exudation
B. *gangrenous appendicitis with exudation
C. phlegmonous appendicitis with serosal exudation odourless
D. there is not a right answer
E. catarrhal appendicitis
870. Preoperated complication of acute appendicitis
871. diffusive peritonitis
A. intra-abdominal bleeding
B. suppuration of wound
C. eventeration wounds
D. there are not a right answer
872. Tension of muscles the right iliac area at the perforation of duodenal ulcer is
explained
A. by development of the diffusive peritonitis
B. by reflex connections through medullispinal nerves
873. flowing down of gastric content in a right lateral channel
A. entering of air abdominal region
B. viscero0visceral connections with a vermicular appendix
874. To the late stage of peritonitis of appendicle origin does not behave
A. dehydration
B. swelling of stomach
875. increased peristalsis
A. hypoproteinemia
B. disappearance of intestinal noises
876. To the initial phase the peritonitis of appendicle origin does not behave
A. sickliness the pelvic peritoneum at rectal research
B. tachycardia
877. noticeable electrolyte changes
A. tendency to growth leucocytosis
B. tension of muscles the abdominal wall
878. Most frequent reason of peritonitis
A. posoperative complication
B. acute trauma of stomach
C. acute cholecystitis
879. acute appendicitis
A. acute intestinal impassability
880. For perforative appendicitis characteristically
A. tension the muscles of front abdominal wall
B. there is the sudden strengthening of stomach-aches
C. rapid growth of clinical picture the peritonitis
D. Razdolskuy’s symptom
E. *all transferred
881. For peritonitis in the first 24 hours not typical
A. aperistalsis intestine
B. *Kullenkamp’s symptom
C. Tachycardia
D. dry language
E. tension the muscles of abdominal wall and positive Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s
symptom
882. Tension of abdominal wall and stage peritonitis at acute appendicitis
883. absents, a stomach is swollen - terminal
A. absents, a stomach is not swollen - terminal
B. expressed, a stomach is not swollen - terminal
C. absents, a stomach is swollen - toxic
D. absents, a stomach is swollen – initial
884. In treatment of the diffusive peritonitis of appendicitis origin a basic value has
A. *all transferred
B. antibacterial therapy
C. correction water-electrolyte violations
D. removal of source of peritonitis
E. sanitization of the abdominal region
885. In treatment of the diffusive peritonitis of appendicitis origin a basic value has
A. correction water-electrolyte violations
B. sanitization of abdominal region
C. removal the source of peritonitis
886. all answers are faithful
A. antibacterial therapy
887. Courvoisier’s symptom is
A. Painless megascopic gall-bladder, patient is not yellow
B. Sickly megascopic gall-bladder, patient is not yellow
C. *Painless megascopic gall-bladder, patient is yellow
D. A gall-bladder don’t palpaton
E. All answers are not right
888. At localization the stone in a cystic channel and absence infection the
phenomenon is carried by the name
A. Courvoisier’s symptom
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Hydrocholecystis
D. *Cyst of gall-bladder
E. All answers are not right
889. With the purpose preparation to operation the patient with the protracted icterus of
bail–stone diseases origin and phenomena hepatic insufficiency, it is necessary to
make
890.
891.
892.
893.
894.
895.
A. Endoscope papilotomy, throughskin transhepatic draining of
hepaticocholedoch, endoscope papilotomy and nosebilliar draining
B. Throughskin transhepatic draining of the hepaticocholedoch,
enteropersorption, lymphopersorption or hemopersorption, endoscope
papilotomy and nosebilliar draining
C. *All right
D. Laparoscopic cholecystostomy, nosebilliar draining, throughskin transhepatic
draining of hepaticocholedoh
E. Laparoscopic cholecystostomy, nosebilliar draining, throughskin transhepatic
draining of hepaticocholedoch, endoscope papilotomy and nosebilliar
draining
Stoneformation in a gall-bladder promote:
A. *An infection, stagnation of bile, exchange violations, inflammatory
processes in a bubble, sex, constitution
B. Infection, stagnation of bile, exchange violations, inflammatory processes in
a bubble, constitution, raised amount of bilious acids
C. Stagnation of bile, inflammatory processes in a bubble, inflammatory
processes in a bubble, sex, raised amount of bilious acids
D. An infection, stagnation of bile, exchange violations, inflammatory
processes in a bubble, raised amount of bilious acids
E. All right
Patient with a gangrenous cholecystitis is indicating:
A. *Urgent operation
B. Operation at default of effect from conservative therapy
C. Conservative treatment
D. Deferred operation
E. A decision-making depends on age of patient
Intraoperative cholangiograpy at cholecystectomy used for
A. Researches of peristalsis the general bilious channel
B. Retrograde filling of intrahepatic bilious channels
C. Researches tone the sphincter Oddi
D. *Exceptions concrements in channels
E. Exposures cholangitis
Can not stipulate a mechanical icterus
A. Cancer the head of pancreas
B. *Stone of cystic channel
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Stone the general bilious channel
E. Tumour large duodenal papilla
Most widespread laparoscopic operation at bile-stone illness:
A. Cholecystectomy with revision the bilious ways
B. Ideal cholecysectomy
C. *Choledoholitotomy
D. Cholecystectomy
E. All answers are right
The liquid painted a bile in an abdominal region is not observed at
896.
897.
898.
899.
900.
901.
A. *Break pus hydatidoma
B. To the protracted mechanical icterus
C. Spontaneous bilious peritonitis
D. Perforations of gall-bladder
E. Perforations the ulcer of duodenum
The special research extrahepatic bilious ways is absolutely indicated at:
A. Shallow stone in common bile duct, suspicion on stenosis the large duodenal
papilla, expansion of the common bile duct, mechanical icterus in the
moment of operation
B. Suspicion on stenosis of large duodenal papilla, expansion of the common bile
duct, mechanical icterus in the moment of operation
C. At expansion of the common bile duct
D. *All right
E. All not right
Indications to special intraoperaive examination bilious ways
A. *A cholangitis, expansion of the common bile duct, plural shallow
concrements in a gall-bladder, mechanical icterus in anamnesis
B. Cholangitis, expansion of the common bile duct, plural shallow concrements
in a gall-bladder
C. Expansion of the common bile duct, icterus in the moment of operation, plural
shallow concrements in a gall-bladder
D. Expansion of the common bile duct, mechanical icterus in anamnesis
E. All right
Acute cholecystitis usually begins with
A. Increases the temperature
B. Appearances the vomiting
C. *Pains under a rib on the right
D. Disorders of chair
E. Weights are in a epigastria area
The attack of hepatic (bilious) colic development
A. *Suddenly, acutely
B. After a initial period
C. Gradually, gradually
D. After the protracted starvation
E. After supercooling
Characteristic laboratory sign of the acute uncomplicated cholecystitis
A. Diastasuria
B. *Leykocytosis
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Glucosuria
E. Hyperbillirubinemia
An intravenous cholecystography are indicated and informing at
A. Gall-bladder is palpated
B. To the icterus
C. Peritonitis
D. *Calming down attack of the acute cholecystitis
E. Cholangitis
902. At an acute and chronic cholecystitis application is contra-indicated
A. Omnoponum
B. *Morphine hydrochloride
C. No-spa
D. Atropine sulfate
E. Spazmalgon
903. Basic method examination the patients with the uncomplicated cholecystitis
A. Infusion cholegraphy
B. ERPCG
C. *USD
D. Laparoskopy
E. Gastroduodenoscopy
904. Normal width of the common bile duct
A. To 0,4 cm
B. *0,5-0,7 cm
C. 0,8-1,3 cm
D. 1,4-2,0 cm
E. Over 2,0 cm
905. The index litogenic bile is determined correlation
A. Cholesterol, billirubine and lecithin
B. Billirubine, bilious acids and lecithin
C. Cholesterol, bilious acids and bilirubine
D. *Cholesterol, bilious acids and lecithin
E. Billirubine and lecithin
906. What preparation is applied at violation the extrasecretory function of pancreas at a
chronic pancreatitis:
A. Pyracetam
B. Papaverin
C. Pantocrin
D. *Panzinorm
E. Panthenol
907. What operation is used for suppuration the pseudocysts of pancreas:
A. Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
908. External draining the cyst
A. Cystogastrostomy
B. Cystoduodenostomy
C. Cystoenteroanastomosis
909. What operation is used for the pseudocyst of pancreas in the 3th stage of its
forming:
A. *Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
B. External draining the cyst
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. Cystoduodenostomy
E. Cystoenteroanastomosis
910. What operation is most often used for localization the formed pseudocyst in the
area of tail the pancreas:
A. Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
B. External draining the cyst
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. *Cystoduodenostomy
E. Cystoenteroanastomosis
911. What preparations from the cytostatic group use for intensifying the chronic
pancreatitis:
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Methyluracil
C. *5-fluorouracil
D. Furadolizon
E. Mezimforte
912. What most effective blocker secretion of pancreas at acute pancreatitis:
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Ubretid
C. Arginine
D. *Sandostatin
E. Benzogeksoniy
913. Indication to early operative interference at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
B. Acute pancreatolysis
C. *Acute biliary pancreatitis
D. Acute fatty pancreatitis
E. Forming of pseudocyst
914. Indication to early operative interference at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
B. Acute pancreatolysis
C. *Acute traumatic pancreatitis at the „fresh” break the gland
D. Acute fatty pancreatitis
E. A faithful answer is not present
915. Indication to early operative interference at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Acute pancreatolysis
B. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
C. *Progressive multiple organ failure what not added conservative therapy
during 48-72 hours
D. Acute fatty pancreatitis
E. Forming of pseudocyst
916. What from operations does not execute at surgical treatment complicated acute
pancreatitis:
A. Through draining the stuffing-box bag
B. Abdominisation the pancreas
C. Omentopankreatopeksiy
D. Left-side resection of gland
E. *Pancreatojejunostomy
917. At pancreatitis abscesses and infected necrosises execute such operations, except
for:
A. Opening of abscess with draining
B. Pancreaticnecrsekvestrektomy
C. Pancreaticsekvestrektomy
D. Pancreaticsekvestrektomy with laparostomy
E. *Total pancreatotomy
918. What most effective treatment the unformed uncomplicated cyst is:
A. *Conservative treatment
B. External draining cyst
C. Resection cyst within the limits of the unchanged gland
D. Cysticenterostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
919. What most effective treatment the unformed complicated cyst is:
A. Conservative treatment
B. *External draining cyst
C. Resection cyst within the limits of the unchanged gland
D. Cysticenterostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
920. What most effective treatment the formed uncomplicated cyst is:
A. External draining the cyst
B. Marsupialization
C. Resection the cyst within the limits of the unchanged gland
D. *Cysticenterostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
921. What nosotropic conditionality Voscresencky’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
922. Inflammatory edema of pancreas
A. Reflex paresis of colon
B. Thrombosis of abdominal aorta
C. Embolism of abdominal aorta
D. Development of peritonitis
923. All surgical interferences at the destructive forms of acute pancreatitis divide on:
A. *Early, late, deferred operations
B. Primary, second, repeated operations
C. Invasion, not invasion operations
D. Complicated, operations are not complicated
E. Not divided
924. What is sequestrotomy:
A. *Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the
changed fabrics
D. Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
925. What is necrectomy:
A. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. *Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the
changed fabrics
D. Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
926. What is resection the pancreas:
A. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
927. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the changed
fabrics
A. Total delete of organ
B. There is not a faithful answer
928. What is pancreatectomy:
A. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the
changed fabrics
D. *Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
929. What complication the ulcerous illness of stomach is most characteristically for
the patients of elderly and senile age
A. perforation
B. perforation * bleeding
C. pylorus stenosis
D. malignization * penetration
E. *bleeding
930. What from preparations has the expressed bacteriostatic action on Hеlісоbасtеr
руlоrіs
A. *trichopol
B. Licviroton
C. oxiferiskorbon
D. atropine
E. pirinzsipin
931. What method diagnostics hte ulcerous illness most informing
A. *esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. analysis of excrement on the hidden blood
C. X-rye
D. global analysis of blood
E. research of gastric secretion
932. What preparation does behave to blocker of muscarine receptors of coating cages?
A. cymetidin
B. eglonin
C. *gastocepini
D. etimsiloli
E. vinylin
933. What preparation does behave to blocker H2-retseptors?
A. tavegil
B. obzidan
C. hystdol
D. cerucal
E. oraza
934. What syndrome is characteristic for hemorragic erosive gastritis?
A. *ulcerous
B. hemorragic;
C. pain;
D. all answers are correct;
E. all answers are not correct.
935. When apply Teylor’s method at ulcerous illness
A. *at conservative treatment perforeted ulcers
B. at conservative treatment sanguifluous ulcers
C. at conservative treatment penetration ulcers
D. at conservative treatment malignization ulcers
E. at conservative treatment of cicatrical pyloristenosis
936. Blood loos I stage characterized such indexes
A. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
B. Ht 23 and below, Hb 50 and below
C. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
D. *Ht 38-32, Hb 100
E. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
937. Blood loos II stage characterized
A. *Ht 23 and below, Hb 50 and below
B. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
D. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
E. Ht 55 – 60
938. Blood loos III stage characterized a degree such indexes
A. *Ht 31-23, Hb 80
B. Ht 23 and below, Hb 50 and below
C. Ht 38-32, Hb 100
D. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
939. At perforated ulcer the pulled wooden belly is determined in the stage of
peritonitis
A. *reactive
B. terminal
C. toxic
D. terminal-toxic
E. there is not a right answer
940. Pain in the left shoulder can be rather at
A. acute cholecystitis
B. perforations the ulcer of duodenum
C. *perforations the gastric ulcer
941.
942.
943.
944.
945.
946.
947.
948.
D. mesenteric lymphadenitis
E. there is not a right answer
At percusion in the first clock after perforation the ulcer more possibly
A. *dulling in the gently sloping places of stomach
B. expansion of percusion border of liver
C. tympanitis in left subcosctal area
D. expansion of percusion border the spleen
E. there is not a right answer
For differentiation of acute appendicitis with the covered perforete ulcer useful
A. gastroduodenoscopy, X-rye of abdominal region, laparoscopy
B. gastroduodenoscopy, X-rye of abdominal region, USD of abdominal region
C. survey X-rye of abdominal region, USD of abdominal region, irrigoscopy
D. X-rye of abdominal region, irrigoscopy
E. *X-rye of abdominal region, laparoscopy
Ulcerous diaeases behaves to the diseases
A. innate
B. because of alcoholism
C. because of the broken circulation of blood
D. *hronic recurrent
E. traumatic
Hepatic dullness is not determined at
A. break of spleen
B. *perforations of gastric ulcer
C. break of bud
D. volvulus of stomach
E. mesenterial ishemia
Penetration of gastric content in an abdominal region possibly at
A. bleeding
B. stenosis
C. penetration
D. malignixation
E. *perforations
Hectic fever is possible at
A. the uncomplicated ulcer
B. bleeding from an ulcer
C. perforations of ulcer in the first clock
D. *penetration
E. cicatricle-ulcerous stenosis
For clarification diagnosis of perforete ulcer used
A. Gastroscopy
B. X-rye of abdominal region
X-rye of abdominal region, after gastroscopy, then X-rye of abdominal region
A. CT
B. There is not a right answer
949. At operations on a stomach sometimes by mistake bandage an additional hepatic
artery, that, in same queue, can result to necrosis the segment, sectors or even stakes
of liver. An additional hepatic artery more frequent walks away from an artery
A. general hepatic
950. left stomach
A. splenic
B. overhead mesenteric
C. all answers are faithful
951. Symptom of the toxic «scissors» at peritonitis it:
A. increase of temperature and pulse
B. diminishing of temperature and pulse
C. *diminishing of temperature and increase of pulse
D. increase of temperature and diminishing of pulse
E. increase of temperature and diminishing of breathing frequency
952. Postoperative peritonitis is characterized a flow:
A. typical
953. atypical
A. stormy
B. with the expressed pain reaction
C. with the expressed intoxication
954. Atipical clinical motion of postoperative peritonitis is conditioned setting in a
postoperative period:
A. spasmolytic
B. anticoagulant
955. anaesthetic
A. analeptics
B. cardiac
956. What must be done in the case of development the posoperative peritonitis?
A. to appoint antibiotics
B. to appoint anaesthetic
C. to execute laparocenthezis
D. to execute lasparoscopy
957. to execute laparotomy
958. The most informing method the instrumental diagnostics of peritonitis is:
A. *survey sciagraphy of abdominal region
B. lasparoscopy
C. angiography
D. gastroscopy
E. colonoscopy
959. With what disease above all things is it necessary to differentiate the acute
peritonitis?
A. bronchitis
B. enterorrhagia
C. anaemia
960. acute vascular purpura
A. endotoxicosis
961. With what disease above all things is it necessary to differentiate the acute
peritonitis?
A. bronchitis
B. enterorrhagia
C. anaemia
D. coarctation of aorta
962. dissecting aneurysm of aorta
963. With what disease above all things is it necessary to differentiate the acute
peritonitis?
A. Hepar-kidney syndrome
B. *ischemic abdominal syndrome
C. adrenogenital syndrome
D. Horner’s syndrome
E. diencephalic syndrome
964. Decision role in differential diagnostics the peritonitis and dissecting aneurysm of
aorta , there is a symptom:
A. aperistalsis
B. acute pain in a stomach
C. *systole noise above the abdominal department of aorta
D. absence of pulsation of abdominal department of aorta
E. melena at rectal research
965. Decision role in differential diagnostics of peritonitis and acute vascular purpura
is a symptom:
966. hemorragic rash on a skin
A. acute pain in a stomach
B. systole noise above the abdominal department of aorta
C. absence of pulsation of abdominal department of aorta
D. melena at rectal research
967. Decision role in differential diagnostics of peritonitis and break the bone of pelvis
is:
A. to appoint antibiotics
B. to appoint anaesthetic
C. to execute laparocenthezis
968. to execute laparoscopy
A. to execute survey sciagraphy of abdominal region
969. There is vomiting at peritonitis, as a rule:
A. single
B. episodic
970. frequent
A. abundant
B. scanty
971. At peritonitis of violation the proteometabolism characterized:
A. by the increase of concentration the albumen
B. by the increase of concentration the globulins
C. diminishing of concentration the albumen
972. diminishing of the albumen - globulins coefficient
A. by the increase of the albumen - globulins coefficient
973. At peritonitis intestinal impassability develops, as a rule:
A. mechanical
B. dynamic
C. spastic
974. paralytic
A. mixed
975. Tactic of surgeon at periappendiceal mas:
A. operative treatment
976. conservative treatment, systematic looking after a patient
A. there is not a right answer
B. supervision
C. punction
977. Draining the abdominal region is conducted at:
A. phlegmonous appendicitis without exudation
B. *gangrenous appendicitis with exudation
C. phlegmonous appendicitis with serosal exudation odourless
D. there is not a right answer
E. catarrhal appendicitis
978. For a patient, suffering ulcerous illness, sudden great pain in an epigastrium and
unclear symptoms of peritonitis appeared. During subsequent days the display of
these symptoms diminished, the state of patient had become better. It is possible to
suppose at such clinic
A. typical perforation the ulcer
979. covered perforation
A. preperforative state
B. intensifying of ulcerous illness
C. there is not a right answer
980. Preoperated complication of acute appendicitis
981. diffusive peritonitis
A. intra-abdominal bleeding
B. suppuration of wound
C. eventeration wounds
D. there are not a right answer
982. Tension of muscles the right iliac area at the perforation of duodenal ulcer is
explained
A. by development of the diffusive peritonitis
B. by reflex connections through medullispinal nerves
983. flowing down of gastric content in a right lateral channel
A. entering of air abdominal region
B. viscero0visceral connections with a vermicular appendix
984. To the late stage of peritonitis of appendicle origin does not behave
A. dehydration
B. swelling of stomach
985. increased peristalsis
A. hypoproteinemia
986.
987.
988.
989.
990.
991.
992.
993.
994.
B. disappearance of intestinal noises
Relative absolute indication to operative treatment ulcerous illness is
A. *penetration of ulcer
B. ulcerous anamnesis more than 15 years
C. malignization ulcers
D. perforation of ulcer
E. relapses more than 3 times per a year
Udin’s sing at a perforated ulcer is
A. *feeling at palpation shove the gases which penetrate through the perforated
opening
B. dulling perforated sound in the lateral departments of stomach
C. disappearance of hepatic dullness
D. irradiation pain in a shoulder or shoulder-blade
E. sickliness the back vault of vagina
Absolute sign of unstable hemostasis
A. *profluvium blood from a vessel;
B. absence blood in a stomach and bulb of duodenum;
C. presence light blood and faltungs of blood in a stomach;
D. all answers are correct;
E. all answers are not correct
Absolute indication to operative treatment the ulcerous illness is
A. heavy pain syndrome
B. *perforation of ulcer
C. relapses more than 2 one time per a year
D. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
E. giant ulcers
Absolute indication to operative treatment the ulcerous illness is
A. *voluminous bleeding
B. callous ulcers
C. relapses more than 2 one time per a year
D. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
E. heavy pain syndrome
Absolute indication to operative treatment the ulcerous illness is
A. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
B. *bleeding what do not stopped with conservative
C. perforation ulcer in anamnesis
D. heavy pain syndrome
E. relapses more than 3 times per a year
Absolute indication to operative treatment the ulcerous illness is
A. relapses more than 2 one time per a year
B. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
C. relapse ulcer after the resection of stomach
D. relapses more than 3 times per a year
cicatrical-ulcerous stenosis of pylorus
Absolute indication to operative treatment the ulcerous illness is
A. relapses more than 2 one time per a year
B. *malignization ulcers
C. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
D. heavy pain syndrome, proof heartburn
E. relapse ulcer after vagotomy
995. Patient which the gastroenteric bleeding in house is necessary
A. *To send a patient in surgical permanent establishment
B. To appoint rest, enter Cacl, vicasol
C. To wash a stomach, appoint a cold, rest of supervision
D. To send a patient in a therapeutic gastroenterology separation
E. A right answer absents
996. Large ulcer is an ulcer measuring
A. 1-4 cm
B. 1-3 cm
C. 3-5 cm
D. 2- 6 cm
E. *2-3 cm
997. In what area of stomach practically never is not origin of ulcers, or it is
extraordinarily rarely?
A. small curvature of stomach;
B. back wall of stomach, nearer to small curvature;
C. large curvature of stomach
D. *cardiac part of stomach;
E. pylorus.
998. In what vein is a venous outflow carried out in from a stomach?
A. *V. Portae;
B. V. odd;
C. V. pair;
D. V. overhead hollow;
E. V. lower hollow;
999. What time urgent operations are executed at acute bleeding
A. *6 – 12 hours;
B. 6 – 10 hours;
C. 6 – 8 hours
D. 6 – 14 hours;
E. 6 – 20 hours
1000. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy can find out next changes in a stomach, except for
A. tumours
B. ulcers
C. bleeding polypuses
D. erosions
E. *changes of evacuation function
1001. Hemobilia is
A. *all answers are correct;
B. bleeding the bilious ways and liver;
C. bleeding the general bilious channel;
D. bloody clot in the big duodenal papilla;
1002.
1003.
1004.
1005.
1006.
1007.
1008.
1009.
E. all answers are not correct.
Giant ulcer is an ulcer measuring
A. over 4,5 cm
B. *over 3 cm
C. over 4 cm
D. over 5 cm
E. over 3,5 cm
Duration the period of primary shock at a perforeted ulcer
A. *3-6 hours
B. 6-12 hours
C. 1-3 hours
D. 12-24 hours
E. 24-36 hours
For bleeding ulcer characteristically
A. *melena
B. tension the muscles of front abdominal wall
C. Spazarskiy’s sing
D. sickliness the back vault of vagina
E. irradiation pain in a shoulder or shoulder-blade
For bleeding ulcer characteristic sign is
A. pain in an epigastrium;
B. knife-like pain;
C. signs irritation of peritoneum;
D. presence fresh blood in incandescence
E. melena;
For perforeted ulcer characteristically
A. *tension the muscles of front abdominal wall
B. melena
C. vomiting by coffee-grounds
D. high intestinal impassability
E. vomiting stagnant gastric maintenance
For pneumoperitoneum is characteristic symptom
A. *Zhober’s;
B. Khelatid’s;
C. Podlag’s;
D. Vigats’s;
E. Udin’s.
For the heavy flow of ulcerous illness characteristically
A. 2 and anymore relapses on a year
B. *3 and anymore relapses on a year
C. 4 and anymore relapses on a year
D. 5 and more relapses are on a year
E. 6 and more relapses are on a year
For the heavy flow of ulcerous illness characteristically
A. *development of complications
B. seasonal exacerbation more not frequent 1-2 times per a year
C. 1-2 relapse on a year
D. liquid, but protracted exacerbation
E. exacerbation duration more than 10 days
1010. For motion of disease ulcerous illness of middle weight characteristically
A. development of complications
B. *relapses 1-2 times per a year
C. 4 and anymore relapses on a year
D. 5 and more relapses are on a year
E. 3 and anymore relapses on a year
1011. To absolute indication to operative interference at ulcerous illness does not belong
A. *scarry-ulcerous stenosis
B. perforation of ulcer
C. profuse bleeding
D. diameter ulcer a more than 3 cm
E. bleeding what does not stopped with conservative
1012. Diet at bleeding gastric and duodenum ulcers
A. *Meulengracht's
B. № 1 by Pevznerom
C. № 5 by Pevznerom
D. № 15 by Pevznerom
E. № 7 by Pevznerom
1013. From what department degestyive tract developmentp more frequent than all the
bleeding at the Mallory-Weiss syndrome
A. gastric fundus
B. *cardial pert;
C. pyloric department;
D. from duodenal;
E. from a thick intestine
1014. At ulcerous illness can a bleeding source be
A. artery;
B. veins;
C. shallow vessels and ulcers;
D. all answers are not correct.
E. *all answers are correct
1015. Disappearance or diminishing the pain with beginning of bleeding from an ulcer
is
A. *Bergman’s sing
B. Spazarskiy’s sing
C. Mendel’s suing
D. De Keven’s sing
E. Eleker’s sing
1016. To the gastric – intestinal bleeding of unulcerous etiology belong
A. *Mallory-Weiss syndrome;
B. hemorragic erosive gastritis;
C. diseases by Randyu – Oslera – Vebera;
D. Menetrie's sing;
E. all answers are correct.
1017. What from the transferred operations on the stomach organ protective is
A. *selective proximal vagotomy
B. resection by Bilrot I
C. resection by Bilrot II
D. gastrectomy
E. all are transferred
1018. What from the transferred operations does not belong to organ protective
A. trunk vagotomy
B. *resection by Bilrot II
C. selective vagotomy
D. selective proximal vagotomy
E. the all transferred does not belong
1019. What localization of ulcer is most characteristic for the patients of elderly and
senile age
A. *cardial department of stomach
B. overhead third of gullet
C. lower third of gullet
D. bulb of duodewnum
E. small curvature
1020. What colouring of chair is most characteristic for bleeding from the ulcer of
stomach and duodwnum?
A. *Tarry excrement
B. Presence on the formed excrement of strokes of red blood
C. Littlechanged blood in an excrement
D. Excrement of the raspberry colouring with the admixtures of mucus
E. Acholic excrement
1021. What external signs are characteristic for the profuse bleeding from a gastric
ulcer?
A. Vomiting by the littlechanged blood, excrement of the raspberry colouring
B. *Vomiting by the littlechanged blood, tarry darkly-cherry chair
C. Vomiting by a complete mouth by dark blood with clots, black formed
excrement
D. Vomiting on the type of "coffee-grounds", presence on the formed
incandescence of strokes of red blood
E. Tarry darkly-cherry chair
1022. What hormones undertake the protective operating on the mucous membrane of
stomach, except for
A. *ACTH
B. epidermal factor of growth
C. prostaglandin E
D. estrogens
E. STH
1023. What preparations, except for other properties, own yet and a bacteriostatic effect
on Hеlісоbасtеr руlоrіs
A. *all are transferred preparations
B. Almagel
C. Vinylin
D. De-nol
E. Claritromycin
1024. What products are recommended in the diet of № 1?
A. *hen in a steam kind
B. pancakes
C. raw egg-white
D. bread rye fresh
E. acute cheeses
1025. What violation of mineral exchange is characteristic for patients with ulcerous
illness of stomach and intestine
A. hypocalcemia
B. *hypokaliemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcinemia
E. hyperkaliemia
1026. What complication the ulcerous illness of stomach is most characteristically for
the patients of elderly and senile age
A. perforation
B. perforation * bleeding
C. pylorus stenosis
D. malignization * penetration
E. *bleeding
1027. What from preparations has the expressed bacteriostatic action on Hеlісоbасtеr
руlоrіs
A. *trichopol
B. Licviroton
C. oxiferiskorbon
D. atropine
E. pirinzsipin
1028. What method diagnostics hte ulcerous illness most informing
A. *esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. analysis of excrement on the hidden blood
C. X-rye
D. global analysis of blood
E. research of gastric secretion
1029. What preparation does behave to blocker of muscarine receptors of coating cages?
A. cymetidin
B. eglonin
C. *gastocepini
D. etimsiloli
E. vinylin
1030. What preparation does behave to blocker H2-retseptors?
A. tavegil
B. obzidan
1031.
1032.
1033.
1034.
1035.
1036.
1037.
C. hystdol
D. cerucal
E. oraza
What syndrome is characteristic for hemorragic erosive gastritis?
A. *ulcerous
B. hemorragic;
C. pain;
D. all answers are correct;
E. all answers are not correct.
When apply Teylor’s method at ulcerous illness
A. *at conservative treatment perforeted ulcers
B. at conservative treatment sanguifluous ulcers
C. at conservative treatment penetration ulcers
D. at conservative treatment malignization ulcers
E. at conservative treatment of cicatrical pyloristenosis
Blood loos I stage characterized such indexes
A. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
B. Ht 23 and below, Hb 50 and below
C. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
D. *Ht 38-32, Hb 100
E. Ht 44-40, Hb 110 /ë
Blood loos II stage characterized
A. *Ht 23 and below, Hb 50 and below
B. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
D. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
1034.1.D.1.
Blood loos III stage characterized a degree such indexes
*Ht 31-23, Hb 80
A. Ht 23 and below, Hb 50 and below
B. Ht 38-32, Hb 100
C. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
D. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
E. At perforated ulcer the pulled wooden belly is determined in the stage of
peritonitis
*reactive
A. terminal
B. toxic
C. terminal-toxic
D. there is not a right answer
E. Pain in the left shoulder can be rather at
acute cholecystitis
A. perforations the ulcer of duodenum
B. *perforations the gastric ulcer
C. mesenteric lymphadenitis
D. there is not a right answer
E. At percusion in the first clock after perforation the ulcer more possibly
1038. *dulling in the gently sloping places of stomach
A. expansion of percusion border of liver
B. tympanitis in left subcosctal area
C. expansion of percusion border the spleen
D. there is not a right answer
E. For differentiation of acute appendicitis with the covered perforete ulcer
useful
1039. gastroduodenoscopy, X-rye of abdominal region, laparoscopy
A. gastroduodenoscopy, X-rye of abdominal region, USD of abdominal region
B. survey X-rye of abdominal region, USD of abdominal region, irrigoscopy
C. X-rye of abdominal region, irrigoscopy
D. *X-rye of abdominal region, laparoscopy
E. Ulcerous diaeases behaves to the diseases
1040. innate
A. because of alcoholism
B. because of the broken circulation of blood
C. *hronic recurrent
D. traumatic
E. Hepatic dullness is not determined at
1041. break of spleen
A. *perforations of gastric ulcer
B. break of bud
C. volvulus of stomach
D. mesenterial ishemia
E. Penetration of gastric content in an abdominal region possibly at
1042. bleeding
A. stenosis
B. penetration
C. malignixation
D. *perforations
E. Hectic fever is possible at
1043. the uncomplicated ulcer
A. bleeding from an ulcer
B. perforations of ulcer in the first clock
C. *penetration
D. cicatricle-ulcerous stenosis
E. For clarification diagnosis of perforete ulcer used
1044. Gastroscopy
A. X-rye of abdominal region
1045. X-rye of abdominal region, after gastroscopy, then X-rye of abdominal region
A. CT
B. There is not a right answer
C. . At operations on a stomach sometimes by mistake bandage an additional
hepatic artery, that, in same queue, can result to necrosis the segment, sectors
or even stakes of liver. An additional hepatic artery more frequent walks away
from an artery
1046. general hepatic
1047. left stomach
A. splenic
B. overhead mesenteric
C. all answers are faithful
1047.1.C.1.
Most guarantee against the recedive of ulcer during an
operation concerning ulcerous diseases of duodenum gives
1048. selective-proximal vagotomy
A. trunks vagotomy with a pyloroplasty
B. *resection no less than a 2/3 stomach
C. antrumectomy with selective vagotomy
D. veritable antrumectomy
E. bleeding
1049. Direct sign of ulcer at x-ray research
A. violation of evacuation from a stomach
B. change of tone of stomach
C. form the stomach as "sand-glasses"
D. *symptom of "niche"
E. defect of filling
1050. Hectic fever is possible at
A. to the uncomplicated ulcer
B. cicatrical-ulcerous stenosis
C. *penetration
D. perforations of ulcer in the first clock
E. bleeding from an ulcer
1051. Tactic of family doctor during the covered perforation of ulcer
A. *urgent hospitalization in surgical permanent establishment
B. planned hospitalization in surgical permanent establishment
C. supervision on to the house
D. hospitalization in therapeutic permanent establishment
E. there is not a right answer
1052. Change in the analysis of blood at a perforete ulcer
A. leucopenia
B. anaemia
C. eosinophilia
D. *leucocytosis with a neutrophilic change
E. there is not a right answer
1053. In treatment of ulcerous illness the stomach and duodenum executed only on
urgent indications
A. stomach resection by Bilrot-II
B. *sewing up of the perforete opening
C. selective-proximal vagotomy
D. trunk vagotomy with a pyloroplasty
E. stomach resection by Bilrot-I
1054. At the perforete ulcer of duodenum used more frequent
1055. sewing up of the perforate opening
A.
B.
C.
D.
sewing up * gastroenteroanastomosis
resection of stomach
resection of stomach for a shutdown
different types of vagotomy in combination with the economy resection of
stomach and other draining operations
1056. The ways distribution of gastroenteric content during the perforation of ulcer
depend on
A. anatomic structure of the lateral ductings
B. locations of stomach
C. localizations of the perforate opening
D. *only transferred
E. forms and locations of transversal rim bowel
1057. Sudden and painful pain with localization in the middle departments of stomach
with an irradiation in the back more characteristic for
A. heart attack the myocardium
B. *break aneurysm the aorta
C. bilious colic
D. perforate ulcers
E. nephrocolic
1058. In the moment of perforation the gastric or duodenum ulcer meets most often
A. *suddenly arising up megalgia
B. cramp-like pain
C. noncommunicative, moderate pain
D. liquid chair
E. tachycardia
1059. Numbers of complications the ulcerous illness
A. *5
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
E. 2
1060. A stomach-ache develops suddenly at (complication of ulcerous illness)
A. bleeding
B. malignization
C. stenosis
D. penetration
E. *perforations
1061. For a perforete gastric ulcer in the first six clock typical
A. great sudden pains in a stomach, frequent vomiting, swelling of stomach,
disappearance the hepatic dullness, "sickle" under the right dome of
diaphragm
B. frequent vomiting, swelling of stomach, disappearance the hepatic dullness,
"sickle" under the right dome of diaphragm
C. great sudden pains in a stomach, wooden belly, swelling of stomach
1062. great sudden pains in a stomach, wooden belly, disappearance the hepatic
dullness, "sickle" under the right dome of diaphragm
1063.
1064.
1065.
1066.
1067.
1068.
1069.
1070.
A. combinations of signs are equivalent
Most informing method diagnostics the perforate ulcers
A. X-rye examination
B. USD
C. EGDS
D. *laparoscopy
E. laparocentezis
Tension the muscles of stomach in an initial period of perforation ulcer
A. absents
B. *visible
C. sickliness under the left shoulder-blade
D. appears at palpation
E. there is not a right answer
Rational operation at the subcompensated ulcerous stenosis of pylorus
A. antrumectomy
B. *resection 2/3 stomach
C. front gastroenteroanastomosis
D. gastrectomy
E. selective proximal vagotomy
At suspicion on a duodenal ulcer conduct above all things
A. research of gastric secretion
B. *EGDS
C. X-rye examination organs of abdominal region
D. determination the level of gastrin the whey blood
E. cholecystography
At a perforation gastric ulcer, vomiting blood is
A. often
B. very often
C. it is never
D. *rarely
E. there is not a right answer
What basic method the treatment of acute pancreatitis is:
A. Surgical
B. *Conservative
C. Homoeopathic
D. Physical therapy
E. A right answer is not present
Acute pancreatitis with a heavy flow treat in terms:
A. Ambulatory
B. Permanent establishment
C. *Department of intensive therapy
D. All answers are faithful
E. A faithful answer is not present
Conservative treatment the acute pancreatitis includes:
A. *Hunger
B. Povzner’s diet №5
C. Povzner’s diet №15
D. Moderation in a meal
E. Morning gymnastics
1071. Early complications the acute pancreatitis is not:
A. *Fistula of pancreas
B. Pancreatic shock
C. Collapse
D. Ferment peritonitis
E. Pancreatic delirious syndrome
1072. Name principal reason the acute pancreatitis:
A. Trauma the pancreas
B. *Bile-stone diseases
C. Alimentary factor
D. Chronic alcoholic pancreatitis
E. Cardiospasm
1073. What operation on a pancreas is indicated at the oedematous form the acute
pancreatitis:
A. *Interference on a pancreas is not needed
B. Pancreatectomy
C. Omentopankreatopeksy
D. Abdominisation pancreas
E. Marsupialization
1074. At a frequent „fat” chair with disseminations of undigested meat and permanent
thirst, it is foremost necessary to think about:
A. *Chronic pancreatitis
B. Chronic duodenitis
C. Chronic hepatocholecystitis
D. Ulcerous diseases of duodenum
E. Hepatocirrhosis
1075. Name most frequent complication after ERDPH:
A. *Pancreatitis
B. Cholangitis
C. Pancreatic sepsis
D. Reactive cholecystitis
E. Obstructing papillitis
1076. How often does the pancreatitis department the general bilious channel pass
through the head of pancreas?:
A. *80-90 %
B. 90-100 %
C. 75-85 %
D. 50-60 %
E. 40-50 %
1077. What primary purpose treatment the patients with the heavy form of hemorragic
pancreatonecrosis to the operation is:
A. Liquidations the pain
B. *Disintoxication the organism
C. Liquidations crampy the big duodenal papilla
D. Declines secretory activity the pancreas
E. Improvements microcirculation
1078. What primary purpose treatment the patient with fatty pancreatonecrosisto the
operation is:
A. Liquidations the pain
B. *Disintoxication the organism
C. Liquidations crampy the big duodenal papilla
D. Declines secretory activity the pancreas
E. Improvements microcirculation
1079. What most optimum resort is which used for pathology the pancreas:
A. Pyatigorsk
B. *Morshin
C. Kuyal'nik
D. Truskavets
E. Nemirov
1080. Name the optimum volume of operation at acute biliary pancreatitis:
A. Deleting exsudate from an abdominal region
B. Decapsulation pancreas
C. Pancreatectomy
D. *Sanitization and draining the bilious ways
E. Draining the chanel of pancreas
1081. Name the optimum lines the operative interference concerning a acute pancreatitis
after the beginning of disease:
A. 7-8 days
B. 1-3 days
C. 1-5 days
D. 3-5 days
E. *Surgical treatment is not indicate
1082. Among acute surgical diseases acute pancreatitis occupies:
A. First place
B. *Third place
C. Fifth place
D. Second - third place
E. Most widespread
1083. What is condition hematomesis at acute pancreatitis:
A. Presence concomitant gastric ulcer
B. Presence concomitant gastritis
C. *Formation erosions in a stomach
D. Violation of microcirculation
E. Enzymes in blood
1084. ERCP apply at:
A. Postcholecystectomy syndrome
B. Stenosing papillitis
C. *Stenosis the supraduodenal department of choledoch
D. Stricture the terminal department of choledoch
E. Mechanical icterus
1085. What preparation is attributed to the proteases inhibitors:
A. Garamycin
B. Gaviskon
C. *Gordox
D. Halidor
E. Gramicidin
1086. What preparation is attributed to the proteases inhibitors:
A. Tocopherol
B. Triampur
C. Tagamet
D. *Trasylol
E. Trypsin
1087. What preparation is not attributed to the inhibitors proteases:
A. Pantripin
B. Kontrikal
C. Gordox
D. Trasylol
E. *Trypsin
1088. What preparation is applied at violation the extrasecretory function of pancreas at a
chronic pancreatitis:
A. Pyracetam
B. Papaverin
C. Pantocrin
D. *Panzinorm
E. Panthenol
1089. What operation is used for suppuration the pseudocysts of pancreas:
A. Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
1090. External draining the cyst
A. Cystogastrostomy
B. Cystoduodenostomy
C. Cystoenteroanastomosis
1091. What operation is used for the pseudocyst of pancreas in the 3th stage of its
forming:
A. *Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
B. External draining the cyst
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. Cystoduodenostomy
E. Cystoenteroanastomosis
1092. What operation is most often used for localization the formed pseudocyst in the
area of tail the pancreas:
A. Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
B. External draining the cyst
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. *Cystoduodenostomy
E. Cystoenteroanastomosis
1093. What preparations from the cytostatic group use for intensifying the chronic
pancreatitis:
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Methyluracil
C. *5-fluorouracil
D. Furadolizon
E. Mezimforte
1094. What most effective blocker secretion of pancreas at acute pancreatitis:
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Ubretid
C. Arginine
D. *Sandostatin
E. Benzogeksoniy
1095. Indication to early operative interference at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
B. Acute pancreatolysis
C. *Acute biliary pancreatitis
D. Acute fatty pancreatitis
E. Forming of pseudocyst
1096. Indication to early operative interference at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
B. Acute pancreatolysis
C. *Acute traumatic pancreatitis at the „fresh” break the gland
D. Acute fatty pancreatitis
E. A faithful answer is not present
1097. Indication to early operative interference at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Acute pancreatolysis
B. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
C. *Progressive multiple organ failure what not added conservative therapy
during 48-72 hours
D. Acute fatty pancreatitis
E. Forming of pseudocyst
1098. What from operations does not execute at surgical treatment complicated acute
pancreatitis:
A. Through draining the stuffing-box bag
B. Abdominisation the pancreas
C. Omentopankreatopeksiy
D. Left-side resection of gland
E. *Pancreatojejunostomy
1099. At pancreatitis abscesses and infected necrosises execute such operations, except
for:
A. Opening of abscess with draining
B. Pancreaticnecrsekvestrektomy
C. Pancreaticsekvestrektomy
D. Pancreaticsekvestrektomy with laparostomy
E. *Total pancreatotomy
1100. What most effective treatment the unformed uncomplicated cyst is:
A. *Conservative treatment
B. External draining cyst
C. Resection cyst within the limits of the unchanged gland
D. Cysticenterostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
1101. What most effective treatment the unformed complicated cyst is:
A. Conservative treatment
B. *External draining cyst
C. Resection cyst within the limits of the unchanged gland
D. Cysticenterostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
1102. What most effective treatment the formed uncomplicated cyst is:
A. External draining the cyst
B. Marsupialization
C. Resection the cyst within the limits of the unchanged gland
D. *Cysticenterostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
1103. What nosotropic conditionality Voscresencky’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
1104. Inflammatory edema of pancreas
A. Reflex paresis of colon
B. Thrombosis of abdominal aorta
C. Embolism of abdominal aorta
D. Development of peritonitis
1105. All surgical interferences at the destructive forms of acute pancreatitis divide on:
A. *Early, late, deferred operations
B. Primary, second, repeated operations
C. Invasion, not invasion operations
D. Complicated, operations are not complicated
E. Not divided
1106. What is sequestrotomy:
A. *Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the
changed fabrics
D. Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
1107. What is necrectomy:
A. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. *Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the
changed fabrics
D. Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
1108. What is resection the pancreas:
A. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
1109. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the changed
fabrics
A. Total delete of organ
B. There is not a faithful answer
1110. What is pancreatectomy:
A. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the
changed fabrics
D. *Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
1111. What is pancreas located in relation to a peritoneum:
A. *Retroperitoneal
B. Mesoperitoneal
C. Intraperitoneal
D. All answers are incorrect
E. Variously
1112. What is blood supply the body and tail pancreas:
A. *Splenic artery
B. A.gastroduodenalis
C. A.gastrica sinistra
D. A.cystica
E. Variously
1113. Mondor’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. *Violet spots on face and trunk
B. Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk
C. Cyanosis skin of stomach
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Cyanosys of hands
1114. Turner’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. Violet spots on face and trunk
1115. Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk
A. Cyanosis skin of stomach
B. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
C. Cyanosys of hands
1116. Holsted’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. Violet spots on face and trunk
B. Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk
C. *Cyanosis skin of stomach
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Cyanosys of hands
1117. Kulen’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. Violet spots on face and trunk
B. Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk
C. Cyanosis skin of stomach
D. *Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Cyanosys of hands
1118. Bonde’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. *Swelling the stomach only in epigastrium
B. Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk
C. Cyanosis skin of stomach
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Cyanosys of hands
1119. Voskresenskiy’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. *Absence pulsation the abdominal aorta
B. Sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal
C. Sickliness and proof tension the muscles in an epigastrium with passing to left
subcostal area
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Skin hyperesthesia in projection the gland
1120. Kerte’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. Absence pulsation the abdominal aorta
B. Sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal
C. *Sickliness and proof tension the muscles in an epigastrium with passing to left
subcostal area
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Skin hyperesthesia in projection the gland
1121. Meyo-Robson’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. Absence pulsation the abdominal aorta
B. *Sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal
C. Sickliness and proof tension the muscles in an epigastrium with passing to left
subcostal area
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Skin hyperesthesia in projection the gland
1122. How many is the period of haemodynamic violations and pancreatic shock lasts:
A. *1-3 days
B. 3-7 days
C. More 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 2 hour
1123. How many is the period of functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs
lasts:
A. 1-3 days
B. *3-7 days
C. More 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 2 hour
1124. How many is the period of degenerative and festerings complications lasts:
A. 1-3 days
B. 3-7 days
C. *More 7 days
1125.
1126.
1127.
1128.
1129.
1130.
1131.
1132.
D. 2 weeks
E. 2 hour
What hormone of pancreas has influences on metabolism glucose:
A. *Insulin
B. Vasopressin
C. Adrenalin
D. Somatotropin
E. Tiroksin
What cages of pancreas are make insulin:
A. α клетки
B. *β клетки
C. γ -клетки
D. None of cages
E. D-клетки
What cages of pancreas are make glucagon:
A. *α клетки
B. β клетки
C. γ -клетки
D. None of cages
E. D-клетки
What hormone of pancreas has influences on the exchange of fats:
A. Insulin
B. Glyukagon
C. *Lipocainu
D. Adrenalin
E. Somatotropin
At what disease pain of girdle character is characteristic:
A. Gastric ulcers
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Intestinal impassability
D. *Acute pancreatitis
E. Acute cystitis
The leading clinical symptoms the acute pancreatitis is:
A. *Stomach-ache
B. Vomiting by „coffee-grounds”
C. Disuria
D. Febrile temperature of body
E. Lock
pathognomonic symptom at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Pasternatskiy’s sing
B. *Kulen’s sing
C. Ker’s sing
D. Lenander’s sing
E. Rovsing’s sing
Characteristic complication the acute pancreatitis is:
A. Paranephritis
B. Duglas’s abscess
C. Pylephlebitis
D. Cyst of pancreas
1133. Pancreonecrosis
1134. The laboratory signs of total pancreonecrosis is:
A. Growth glucose concentration
B. Diminishing maintenance fibrinogenum
C. *Growth activity diastase
D. Diminishing activity diastase
E. Growth index AST
1135. For diagnostics of acute pancreatitis most informing is:
A. *USD
B. CT
C. Cholangiography
D. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
E. Colonoscopy
1136. What norm diastase is:
A. *To 160
B. To 50
C. To 200
D. To 300
E. To 1200
1137. What level diastase answers a chronic pancreatitis:
A. *200-500
B. 100-160
C. 600-1000
D. 1000-1500
E. 10-20
1138. What level diastase answers a acute pancreatitis:
A. 100-160
B. 200-500
C. *600-1000
D. 1000-1500
E. 10-20
1139. What level diastase answers pancreonecrosis:
A. 600-1000
B. 200-500
C. 100-160
D. *1000-1500
E. 10-20
1140. For what pathology appearance of violet spots on the skin of person and trunk is
characteristic:
A. Perforated ulcer
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. *Acute pancreatitis
D. Intestinal obstruction
1141.
1142.
1143.
1144.
1145.
1146.
1147.
1148.
E. Acute appendicitis
At what pathology is absence pulsation of abdominal aorta
A. *Acute cholecystitis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Perforated ulcer
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Acute appendicitis
At what pathology is appearance cyanosys the sides of stomach:
A. *Acute pancreatitis
B. Perforated ulcer
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Acute appendicitis
At what pathology is appearance of sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal:
A. *Acute pancreatitis
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Perforated ulcer
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. A right answer is not present
As the first period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:
A. *Haemodynamic violations and pancretic shock
B. To functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs
C. Degenerative and festerings complications
D. All answers are faithful
E. A right answer is not present
As the second period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:
A. *Haemodynamic violations and pancretic shock
B. To functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs
C. Degenerative and festerings complications
D. All answers are faithful
E. A right answer is not present
As the third period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:
A. Haemodynamic violations and pancretic shock
B. *To functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs
C. Degenerative and festerings complications
D. All answers are faithful
E. A right answer is not present
What complications at a acute pancreatitis is behave to early:
A. *Peritonitis
B. Phlegmon retroperitoneum space
C. Formation of pseudocysts
D. Development of saccharine diabetes
E. Intestinal impassability
What complications at a acute pancreatitis is behave to late:
A. Peritonitis
B. *Phlegmon retroperitoneum space
C. Formation of pseudocysts
D. Development of saccharine diabetes
E. Intestinal impassability
1149. What a clinical flow can be at acute pancreatitis:
A. Easy, middle, heavy
B. Acute, chronic
C. *Abortive, making progress
D. Edema, necrosis
E. Any variant
1150. For the abortive flowing characteristically:
A. *A process limited to the acute edema with convalescence in 7-8 days
B. A process limited to tearing away of the pathologically changed gland
C. A process limited to tearing away of the pathologically unchanged gland
D. A disease completed so not attaining clinical displays
E. Changes from the side of organ are not present
1151. For pancreonecrosis characteristically is:
A. *Rapid progress, strengthening pain, proof enteroplegia, growth
haemodynamic violations
B. Rapid progress, diminishing pain, strengthening of моторики of intestine,
growth haemodynamic violations
C. Slow progress, strengthening pain, phase of imaginary prosperity.
D. Abortive flow, toxemia, development shock.
E. Appearance light interval
1152. Specify the optimum volume operation at acute biliar pancreatitis:
A. Deleting exsudate from abdominal region
B. Decapsulation pancreas
C. Pancreatectomy
D. *Sanitization and draining bilious ways
E. Draining pancreas channel
1153. What preparation is applied at violation the extrasecretory function pancreas at a
chronic pancreatitis:
A. Pyracetam
B. Papaverin
C. Pantocrin
D. *Mezim-forte
E. Panthenol
1154. In obedience to classification complications of acute pancreatitis, after etiology
and pathogeny, distinguish such complications, except for:
A. Infectiously inflammatory
B. Enzymic
1155. Allergic
A. Mixed
B. Trombogemoragic
1156. Characteristic complication acute pancreatitis is:
A. *Pancreonecrosis
B. Pylephlebitis
C. Hepatocirrhosis
D. Veritable pancreas cyst
E. Hepatitis
1157. After time of origin complications acute pancreatitis select:
A. Premature and remote
B. Urgent and deferred
C. Primary and second
D. *Early and late
E. Any of variants faithful
1158. To early complications acute pancreatitis attribute:
A. Shock
B. Acute hepatic-kidney insufficiency
C. Poured out peritonitis
D. Icterus
E. *All answers are faithful
1159. In the postoperative period the patient must be treated with volume infusion likely
for:
A. 50 ml / kg;
B. 10 ml / kg;
C. 20 ml / kg;
D. 40 ml / kg *
E. 30 ml / kg
1160. Vital body functions:
A. hemodynamic state of consciousness;
B. respiration, activity of kidney, liver, gastrointestinal tract;
C. hemodynamics, somatic and autonomic nervous system;
D. breathing, heart activity, liver;
E. respiratory, hemodynamic, central nervous system activity *
1161. Please provide optimal kalorazh during postoperative parenteral nutrition patients:
A. 40 kcal / kg *
B. 10 kcal / kg;
C. 20 kcal / kg;
D. 30 kcal / kg;
E. 50 kcal / kg
1162. Parenteral nutrition patients displayed:
A. if you can not enteral *
B. All patients who are treated in VAITi;
C. all terminally ill;
D. with disorders of vital functions;
E. in the postoperative period
1163. In preparations for parenteral nutrition include:
A. polihlyukin;
B. albumin;
C. plasma;
D. starch derivatives;
E. lipofundin *
1164. In preparations for parenteral nutrition include:
A. 10% glucose solution *
B. albumin;
C. plasma;
D. starch derivatives;
E. karbikarb
1165. In preparations for parenteral nutrition include:
A. plasma; Mr. casein hydrolysates;
B. albumin;
C. Mr. casein hydrolysates *
D. protein;
E. polivinilpirrolidon
1166. In preparations for parenteral nutrition do not include:
A. dextran *
B. protein hydrolysates;
C. 10% glucose;
D. 20% glucose;
E. lipomays
1167. In preparations for parenteral nutrition do not include:
A. salt *
B. hidrolizyn;
C. casein hydrolysates;
D. 10% glucose;
E. lipofundin
1168. Frequently the cause of early complications after surgery using ditylinu:
A. laryngism;
B. inhibition of the respiratory center;
C. collapse;
D. zapadinnya root of the tongue *
E. Arrhythmia
1169. Frequently the cause of early complications after surgery using Arduan:
A. zapadinnya root of the tongue *
B. inhibition of the respiratory center;
C. dehydration;
D. laryngism;
E. bronhiolospazm
1170. Frequently the cause of early complications after surgery using mononarkozu
ketaminom:
A. laryngism;
B. violations heart rate;
C. collapse;
D. halyutsynoz, inadequate behavior *
E. breathing "anarchy"
1171. Frequently the cause of early complications after surgery using the central
analgesia:
A. depressed respiration *
B. bronhiolospazm;
C. hypotension;
D. cardiac arrest;
E. acute liver failure
1172. Immediately after the operation under anesthesia prozeryn vykorystovuyut to:
A. restore tone respiratory center;
B. removing the residual after applying kuraryzatsiyi depolyaryzuyuchyh muscle
relaxants;
C. removing the residual after applying kuraryzatsiyi antydepolyaryzuyuchyh
muscle relaxants *
D. stimulation of intestinal peristalsis;
E. Prevention bronhiolospazmu
1173. Please list the required corrective surgery therapy
A. narcotic analgesics, antibiotics, cardiovascular drugs, electrolytes, vitamins;
B. correction of hemostasis, anesthesia, parenteral nutrition, exercise;
C. Correction pain, external respiration, volume hidremiyi, stimulation of
peristalsis;
D. anesthesia, the use of central respiratory stimulants, antibiotics, drugs for
parenteral breathing;
E. correction of homeostasis, pain, antibacterial therapy, exercise therapy *
1174. Peritonitis is divided into:
A. reactive, toxic, terminal *
B. compensated, subkompensovanyy, terminal;
C. stage (I; II; III);
D. upper and lower half of the abdomen;
E. Early and late
1175. In a nakrkozu in patients with peritonitis significantly increases the risk of such
complications:
A. respiratory depression due to pulmonary edema;
B. bronhiolospazmu;
C. acute heart failure due to mediastinal shift raised diaphragm;
D. regurgitation and aspiration *
E. hiperkaliyemichnoyi cardiac arrest
1176. The most frequent disorders of homeostasis in peritonitis are:
A. metabolic acidosis *
B. respiratory acidosis;
C. deep vein thrombosis of lower extremities, thromboembolism
D. respiratory alkalosis;
E. metabolic alkalosis
1177. When jet peritonitis hemodynamics often seen:
A. collapse;
B. hipodynamichnym regime;
C. hiperdynamichnym regime *
D. hypovolemic shock;
E. depends on initial blood pressure
1178. When toxic peritonitis Cardiac Output:
1179.
1180.
1181.
1182.
1183.
1184.
1185.
A. depends on the value of blood pressure;
B. increases;
C. does not change significantly;
D. reduced *
E. depends on the total peripheral vascular resistance
Duration of preoperative preparation of patients with peritonitis limited:
A. conduct necessary surveys;
B. stabilization of homeostasis;
C. Willingness of Surgeons;
D. their preparation for anesthesia;
E. established ongoing all causes *
The optimal anesthetic during the operation y of patients with peritonitis are:
A. with intravenous mioplehiyeyu and ventilation *
B. Maskovyy inhalant;
C. epidural anesthesia;
D. spinal anesthesia;
E. conductor and infiltrative anesthesia
Acute intestinal obstruction causes are primarily disorders of homeostasis:
A. intoksykatsiynyy syndrome;
B. respiratory violations;
C. hipohidratatsiya, dyzelektrolitemiya *
D. acute hepatic, kidney failure;
E. septic state due to the phenomenon of translocation
Decompensated pilorostenoz especially dangerous:
A. intoksykatsiynym syndrome;
B. hiponatriyemiyeyu and hipohidratatsiyeyu;
C. Respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis;
D. Hypokalemia, hipohloremiyeyu, metabolic alkalosis *
E. acute adrenal insufficiency
Intestinal obstruction significantly increased risk:
A. regurgitation and aspiration *
B. septic state;
C. multiple organ failure;
D. liver failure;
E. painful shock
How to change hemokontsentratsiyni indices in acute intestinal obstruction?
A. hematocrit increases due to thickening of blood, but the level of hemoglobin
and protein gets lower as a result of intoxication;
B. ponyzhuyutsya;
C. essentially does not react;
D. sharply due to intoxication gets lower hemoglobin and electrolyte polrushen;
E. grow *
The best operational solution for decompensated pilorostenozi are:
A. overlay hastoenteroanastomozu *
B. resection of the stomach by Billroth II;
C. resection of the stomach by Billroth I;
1186.
1187.
1188.
1189.
1190.
1191.
1192.
D. of radical surgery, which amount will be determined on the operating table;
E. overlay or hastrostomy yeyunostomy
In decompensated pilorostenozi this possible complications:
A. distributive shock; hipohidratatsiynyy shock;
B. hypovolemic shock due to anemia intoksykatsiynoho genesis;
C. cardiogenic shock;
D. hipohidratatsiynyy shock *
E. vazohennyy shock
What is characterized by acute destructive pancreatitis?
A. drop intoksykatsiynoho cardiac output due to myocardial lesions;
B. metabolic and respiratory acidosis;
C. hipohidratatsiyeyu, hypotension *
D. compensatory hipertenziynym syndrome;
E. Injuring hepatocytes
Pathogenetic most justified use of acute pancreatitis:
A. somatostatin; *
B. kontrikal;
C. atropine sulfate;
D. antibiotic;
E. neostigmine methylsulfate
The most desirable preparation for infusion therapy of pancreatitis are:
A. reosorbilakt;
B. polihlyukin;
C. starch derivatives;
D. izotonichnymy Mr. sodium chloride;
E. glucose solution *
The most frequent complication of pancreatic necrosis are:
A. pankreatohennyy shock *
B. acute heart failure;
C. sepsis;
D. acute liver failure;
E. pulmonary edema
What is under ICE - Syndrome?
A. primary, consumption coagulopathy, anemia;
B. hypercoagulation, consumption coagulopathy, abnormal fibrinolysis,
resolution;
C. hypercoagulation, hipokoahulyatsiyi;
D. hypercoagulation, consumption coagulopathy, abnormal fibrinolysis, pixels *
E. offset, subkompensovana, decompensated
The most reasonable treatment for drug-ICE syndrome are:
A. Kriopretsipitat;
B. erytrotsytna weight;
C. whole blood;
D. Refortan;
E. quick-frozen plasma *
1193. When expressed anemia caused by acute massive hemorrhage in obstetric
practice, primarily to:
A. eliminate hypovolemia *
B. pour erytrotsytnu mass;
C. enter hemostatyky;
D. Kriopretsipitat apply;
E. ensure the infusion of fibrinogen
1194. To be carried out by blood tests?
A. now the whole blood transfusion is therefore not necessary to conduct tests;
B. determining blood type, biological samples;
C. to save time and Rh blood group-membership can be estimated by
documented data (in passport), to conduct a biological sample;
D. blood group O (I) Rh (-) is universal for transfusions for any recipient;
E. blood grouping, Rh accessories, group and individual compatibility of
biological samples *
1195. Which of the following belong to the mullion components of blood?
A. antystafilokokova plasma antyhemofilna plasma erytrotsytna mass,
fibrinogen, Kriopretsipitat;
B. native plasma mass erytrotsytna, washed erythrocytes, Kriopretsipitat,
polibiolin;
C. All types of plasma fibrinogen, washed erythrocytes, leykotsytna weight,
albumin;
D. native plasma mass erytrotsytna, washed red cells, platelet mass *
E. native plasma mass erytrotsytna, washed erythrocytes, aminokrovin,
polibiolin, thrombus and leykomasa
1196. Which of the symptoms characteristic for diagnosis hemotransfuziynoho
complications due to incompatible system AB (0) during anesthesia?
A. znobinnya patient;
B. sudden pulmonary edema;
C. expressed hyperthermia;
D. acute anuria;
E. motiveless sudden hypotension *
1197. What happens in the bloodstream of the patient with an incompatible blood
transfusion him?
A. thrombus;
B. hemolysis *
C. arteriospazm acute;
D. hypertension due hiperkateholaminemiyi;
E. Go beyond the liquid part of blood vessel wall
1198. Severe anemia occurs when a massive loss of blood volume:
A. 30% of bcc;
B. 40% of the bcc *
C. 50% of bcc;
D. 60% of bcc;
E. 70% of the bcc
1199. Bcc in adults is:
1200.
1201.
1202.
1203.
1204.
1205.
1206.
A. 1 / 10 of body weight;
B. 5-6% of body weight;
C. 5000 ml;
D. 7% of body weight *
E. 1 / 20 on body weight
The reason for ICE - Syndrome can be:
A. incompatible blood transfusion;
B. massive hemorrhage;
C. septic state;
D. amniotic fluid embolism;
E. All listed conditions *
Laboratory features of 1-under ICE - syndrome are:
A. decrease in fibrinogen;
B. reduce the clotting time by Lee-White;
C. reduction of bleeding by Dyuk'om;
D. reduction in prothrombin time;
all listed features
What is the abscessing pneumonia characterized by?
A. *Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs
B. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of
cavity, filled by pus
C. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from
adjacent pulmonary parenchyma
D. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to
defined demarcation
E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity
What is the lung abscess characterized by?
A. *Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of
cavity, filled by pus
B. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs
C. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from
adjacent pulmonary parenchyma
D. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to
defined demarcation
E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity
What is the lung gangrenous abscess characterized by?
A. *Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from
adjacent pulmonary parenchyma
B. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs
C. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of
cavity, filled by pus
D. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to
defined demarcation
E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity
What is the lung gangrene characterized by?
A. *Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to
defined demarcation
B. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs
C. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of
cavity, filled by pus
D. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from
adjacent pulmonary parenchyma
E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity
1207. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs are
called:
A. *Abscessing pneumonia
B. Lung abscess
C. Lung gangrenous abscess
D. Lung gangrene
E. Bronchoectatic disease
1208. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of
cavity, filled by pus is called:
A. *Lung abscess
B. Abscessing pneumonia
C. Lung gangrenous abscess
D. Lung gangrene
E. Bronchoectatic disease
1209. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from
adjacent pulmonary parenchyma is called:
A. *Lung gangrenous abscess
B. Lung abscess
C. Abscessing pneumonia
D. Lung gangrene
E. Bronchoectatic disease
1210. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis beyond the lobe without the tendency to
defined demarcation is called:
A. *Lung gangrene
B. Lung gangrenous abscess
C. Lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia
E. Bronchoectatic disease
1211. What type of the lung gangrene is considered to be limited?
A. *The lesion within 1 lobe
B. The lesion within 1 segment
C. The total lesion of 1 lung
D. The lesion of 2 lungs
E. The lesion of lungs and pleura
1212. What is the I stage of lung abscess?
A. *Necrotic pneumonia
B. Asymptomatic
C. Destruction and rejection
1213.
1214.
1215.
1216.
1217.
1218.
1219.
1220.
D. Cleaning and cicatrization
E. Gangrenous
What is the II stage of lung abscess?
A. *Destruction and rejection
B. Asymptomatic
C. Necrotic pneumonia
D. Cleaning and cicatrization
E. Gangrenous
What is the III stage of lung abscess?
A. *Cleaning and cicatrization
B. Asymptomatic
C. Necrotic pneumonia
D. Destruction and rejection
E. Gangrenous
What stage of lung abscess correlates with the necrotic pneumonia?
A. *I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
What stage of lung abscess correlates with the destruction and rejection?
A. *II
B. I
C. III
D. V
E. IV
What stage of lung abscess correlates with the cleaning and cicatrisation?
A. *III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
What is the predominant factor which causes the lung abscess?
A. *Disturbances of bronchial permeability with the development of atelectasis
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Myocardial infarction
What is the predominant factor which causes the lung abscess?
A. *Infection in a pulmonary tissue
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Myocardial infarction
What is the predominant factor which causes the lung abscess?
1221.
1222.
1223.
1224.
1225.
1226.
1227.
A. *Regional disturbances of pulmonary blood supply with a further necrosis of
parenchyma
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Myocardial infarction
What acute complication is characteristic for lung abscess?
A. *Pulmonary bleeding
B. Emphysema
C. Rib fracture
D. Malignancy
E. Esophageal bleeding
What acute complication is characteristic for lung abscess?
A. *Pyopneumothorax
B. Rib fracture
C. Emphysema
D. Malignancy
E. Esophageal bleeding
What complication is characteristic for lung abscess?
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Esophageal bleeding
C. Rib fracture
D. Emphysema
E. Malignancy
What complication is characteristic for lung abscess?
A. *Sepsis
B. Esophageal bleeding
C. Rib fracture
D. Emphysema
E. Malignancy
What complication is characteristic for lung abscess?
A. *Bronchogenic dissemination
B. Esophageal bleeding
C. Rib fracture
D. Emphysema
E. Malignancy
For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical:
A. *Chest pain
B. Abdominal pain
C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve
D. Edema of legs
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical:
A. *Dyspnea
B. Abdominal pain
C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve
1228.
1229.
1230.
1231.
1232.
1233.
1234.
1235.
D. Edema of legs
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical:
A. *Fever to 39-40°С
B. Abdominal pain
C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve
D. Edema of legs
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical:
A. *Troubling cough
B. Abdominal pain
C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve
D. Edema of legs
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical:
A. *Intoxication
B. Abdominal pain
C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve
D. Edema of legs
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical:
A. *Troubling cough with foul-smelling sputum
B. Abdominal pain
C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve
D. Edema of legs
E. Dilated cervical veins
The fever to 39-40°С is typical for:
A. *Lung abscess
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung cyst
The chest pain is typical for:
A. *Lung abscess
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung cyst
The intoxication is typical for:
A. *Lung abscess
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung cyst
The troubling cough with foul-smelling sputum is typical for:
A. *Lung abscess
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung cyst
1236. What is revealed in acute lung abscess by percussion?
A. *Blunted sound
B. Bandbox sound
C. Tympanic sound
D. Clear sound
E. Pulmonary sound
1237. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for:
A. *Lung abscess
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
1238. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for:
A. *Pneumonia
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
1239. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for:
A. *Lung gangrene
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
1240. What is revealed in the I stage of acute lung abscess by auscultation?
A. *Bronchial breathing with moist rales
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Harsh breathing with dry rales
E. The breathing isn't auscultated
1241. What is revealed in the II stage (after draining) of acute lung abscess by
auscultation?
A. *Amphoric breathing with moist rales
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
D. Harsh breathing with dry rales
E. The breathing isn't auscultated
1242. What is revealed in the I stage of acute lung abscess by X-ray?
A. *Rounded shadow with irregular contour
B. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
C. Expressed fibrosis
D. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
1243. What is revealed in the II stage (after draining) of acute lung abscess by X-ray?
A. *Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Expressed fibrosis
D. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
1244. What is revealed in the III stage of acute lung abscess by X-ray?
A. *Expressed fibrosis
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
1245. What is revealed in lung gangrene by X-ray?
A. *Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Expressed fibrosis
E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
1246. What is revealed in chronic lung abscess by X-ray?
A. *One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Expressed fibrosis
E. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
1247. The rounded shadow with irregular contour on X-ray is typical for:
A. *I stage of acute lung abscess
B. II stage of acute lung abscess
C. III stage of acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
1248. The rounded cavity with air-fluid level on X-ray is typical for:
A. *II stage of acute lung abscess
B. I stage of acute lung abscess
C. III stage of acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
1249. The expressed fibrosis on X-ray is typical for:
A. *III stage of acute lung abscess
B. II stage of acute lung abscess
C. I stage of acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
1250. The intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities with sequesters
and fluid levels on X-ray is typical for:
A. *Lung gangrene
B. III stage of acute lung abscess
C. II stage of acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
1251. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath on X-ray is typical
for:
A. *Chronic lung abscess
B. Lung gangrene
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
1252. When the lung abscess is considered to be chronic?
A. *In 6-8 weeks after the onset
B. In 10 days after the onset
C. In 3-4 weeks after the onset
D. In 6-8 months after the onset
E. In 1 year after the onset
1253. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for acute lung abscess before draining?
A. *Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue
C. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications, excentric destruction and regular
edge
D. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of
lymphangitis (corona maligna)
E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with
fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
1254. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for lung cyst?
A. *Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of
intact pulmonary tissue
B. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
C. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications, excentric destruction and regular
edge
D. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of
lymphangitis (corona maligna)
E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with
fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
1255. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for tuberculoma?
A. *Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge
B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue
C. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
D. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of
lymphangitis (corona maligna)
E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with
fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
1256. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for peripheral lung cancer?
A. *Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of
lymphangitis (corona maligna)
B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue
C. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
D. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge
E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with
fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
1257. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for tubercular cavern?
A. *Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with
fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue
C. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
D. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge
E. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of
lymphangitis (corona maligna)
1258. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue on X-ray is typical for:
A. *Lung cyst
B. Tuberculoma
C. Peripheral lung cancer
D. Tubercular cavern
E. Lung emphysema
1259. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge on X-ray is typical
for:
A. *Tuberculoma
B. Lung cyst
C. Peripheral lung cancer
D. Tubercular cavern
E. Lung emphysema
1260. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of
lymphangitis (corona maligna) on X-ray is typical for:
A. *Peripheral lung cancer
B. Tuberculoma
C. Lung cyst
D. Tubercular cavern
E. Lung emphysema
1261. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with
fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis on X-ray is
typical for:
A. *Tubercular cavern
B. Peripheral lung cancer
C. Tuberculoma
D. Lung cyst
E. Lung emphysema
1262. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by prompt positive
clinical, roentgenological and laboratory dynamics and recovery after the adequate
treatment regards to the:
A. *Favorable course
B. Non-progressive course
C. Progressing course
D. Incapsulated process
E. Complicated course
1263. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by transforming of
the process into the chronic form due to poor drainage of the suppurative focus and
permanent purulent intoxication regards to the:
A. *Non-progressive course
B. Favorable course
C. Progressing course
D. Incapsulated process
E. Complicated course
1264. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by expansion of the
zone of necrosis and destruction with transforming in gangrene regards to the:
A. *Progressing course
B. Non-progressive course
C. Favorable course
D. Incapsulated process
E. Complicated course
1265. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by the partial or
complete obstruction of the draining bronchus combined with satisfactory resistance
of the organism regards to the:
A. *Incapsulated process
B. Progressing course
C. Non-progressive course
D. Favorable course
E. Complicated course
1266. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by different kinds of
complications regards to the:
A. *Complicated course
B. Incapsulated process
C. Progressing course
D. Non-progressive course
E. Favorable course
1267. What disease doesn't result in pulmonary bleeding?
A. *Pleurisy
B. Lung gangrene and abscess
C. Lung cancer
D. Tuberculosis
E. Bronchiectatic disease
1268. What pulmonary hemorrhage is classified as I degree?
A. *Less than 300 ml
B. 300-500 ml
C. 500-700 ml
D. 700-1000 ml
E. More than 1500 ml
1269. What pulmonary hemorrhage is classified as II degree?
A. *500-700 ml
B. 50-100 ml
C. 100-300 ml
D. 700-1000 ml
E. More than 1500 ml
1270. What pulmonary hemorrhage is classified as III degree?
A. *More than 700 ml
B. 50-100 ml
C. 100-300 ml
D. 300-500 ml
E. 500-700 ml
1271. The pulmonary hemorrhage less than 300 ml is classified as:
A. *I degree
B. 0 degree
C. II degree
D. III degree
E. IV degree
1272. The pulmonary hemorrhage within 500-700 ml is classified as:
A. *II degree
B. I degree
C. 0 degree
D. III degree
E. IV degree
1273. The pulmonary hemorrhage more than 700 ml is classified as:
A. *III degree
B. II degree
C. I degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
1274. The coughing out of the blooddy sputum without hemodynamic disturbances are
characteristic for such degree of pulmonary bleeding:
A. *I degree
B. III degree
C. II degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
1275. The decrease of arterial pressure on 20-30 mm Hg is characteristic for such
degree of pulmonary bleeding:
A. *II degree
B. I degree
C. III degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
1276. The amount of hemoglobin within 60-80 g/l is characteristic for such degree of
pulmonary bleeding:
A. *II degree
B. I degree
C. III degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
1277. The tachycardia to 100 beats/min is characteristic for such degree of pulmonary
bleeding:
A. *II degree
B. I degree
C. III degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
1278. The decrease of arterial pressure to 40-60 mm Hg is characteristic for such degree
of pulmonary bleeding:
A. *III degree
B. II degree
C. I degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
1279. The rapid (more than 100-120 beats/min), small, thread pulse is characteristic for
such degree of pulmonary bleeding:
A. *III degree
B. II degree
C. I degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
1280. The amount of hemoglobin less than 50-60 g/l is characteristic for such degree of
pulmonary bleeding:
A. *III degree
B. II degree
C. I degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
1281. What is the main method of lung abscess sanation?
A. *Microtracheostomy
B. Transpleural
C. Transesophageal
D. Endovascular
E. Thoracotomy
1282. What is the main treatment of noncomplicated acute lung abscess?
A. *Conservative treatment
1283.
1284.
1285.
1286.
1287.
1288.
1289.
B. Segmentectomy
C. Lobectomy
D. Pneumonectomy
E. Pleural puncture
What medicine drug belongs to broad spectrum antibiotics?
A. *Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
B. Euphyllin, No-spa
C. Vasaprostan, Alprostan
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What medicine drug belongs to broad spectrum antibiotics?
A. *Tebris, Ciprinol
B. Dimedrol, Suprastin
C. Vasaprostan, Alprostan
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What medicine drug belongs to broad spectrum antibiotics?
A. *Zanocin
B. Naclofen
C. Vasaprostan
D. Nicotine acid
E. Omeprasol
What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding?
A. *Aminocapronic acid
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding?
A. *Calcium chloridi
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding?
A. *Dicinon
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding?
A. *Vitamin K
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
1290. What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding?
A. *Benzohexonium
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
1291. What is the indication for operative treatment of acute abscess of lungs?
A. *Pulmonary bleeding of ІІ- ІІІ degree
B. Decompensation of the vital organs
C. Bilateral purulent destruction of lungs
D. Incurable malignant tumours
E. Pulmonary hypertension
1292. What is the indication for operative treatment of acute abscess of lungs?
A. *Progression of the process despite appropriate therapy
B. Decompensation of the vital organs
C. Bilateral purulent destruction of lungs
D. Incurable malignant tumours
E. Pulmonary hypertension
1293. What is the indication for operative treatment of acute abscess of lungs?
A. *Tense pyopneumothorax, which is failed to liquidate by the draining of
pleural space
B. Decompensation of the vital organs
C. Bilateral purulent destruction of lungs
D. Incurable malignant tumours
E. Pulmonary hypertension
1294. What is the indication for operative treatment of acute abscess of lungs?
A. *Impossibility to rule out the suspicion on a malignant tumour
B. Decompensation of the vital organs
C. Bilateral purulent destruction of lungs
D. Incurable malignant tumours
E. Pulmonary hypertension
1295. What operation is performed in complicated acute lung abscess?
A. *Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
B. Draining of a pleural space
C. Transthoracic drainage of the abscess
D. Bronchial plastics
E. Transplantation of lungs
1296. What is the main treatment of chronic lung abscess?
A. *Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
B. Draining of a pleural space
C. Transthoracic drainage of the abscess
D. Transplantation of lungs
E. Conservative treatment
1297. The pneumonectomy is indicated for:
A. *Chronic lung abscess
B. Pneumonia
1298.
1299.
1300.
1301.
1302.
1303.
1304.
1305.
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Lung emphysema
E. Pleural empyema
The pneumonectomy is indicated for:
A. *Complicated lung abscess
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Lung emphysema
E. Pleural empyema
The pneumonectomy is indicated for:
A. *Lung gangrene
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Lung emphysema
E. Pleural empyema
The pneumonectomy is indicated for:
A. *Lung cancer
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Lung emphysema
E. Pleural empyema
The pneumonectomy is indicated for:
A. *Tuberculosis cavern
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Lung emphysema
E. Pleural empyema
What is the cause of pleural empyema?
A. *Destructive processes of lungs
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What is the cause of pleural empyema?
A. *Abscesses of abdominal cavity
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What is the cause of pleural empyema?
A. *Open and closed damages of chest
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What is the cause of pleural empyema?
1306.
1307.
1308.
1309.
1310.
1311.
1312.
A. *Operative approaches on thoracic organs
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What sign is not typical for pleural empyema?
A. *Hemoptysis
B. Pain
C. Dyspnea
D. Cough
E. Intoxication
For the clinical manifestation of pleural empyema is typical:
A. *Chest pain
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of pleural empyema is typical:
A. *Dyspnea
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of pleural empyema is typical:
A. *Cough with sputum
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of pleural empyema is typical:
A. *Intoxication
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
What is revealed in pleural empyema by percussion?
A. *Blunted sound
B. Clear sound
C. Bandbox sound
D. Metallic ringing
E. Tympanic sound
The blunted sound by percussion is typical for:
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
1313. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for:
A. *Pleurisy
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
1314. What is revealed in pleural empyema by auscultation?
A. *The breathing isn't auscultated
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
1315. The absence of breathing sounds by auscultation is typical for:
A. *Pleurisy
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Pneumonia
1316. The absence of breathing sounds by auscultation is typical for:
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Pneumonia
1317. What is revealed in wide-spread pleural empyema by X-ray?
A. *Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour
E. Lung atelectasis
1318. What is the most informative in differential diagnostic of pleural empyema with
pleuropneumonia?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. X-ray examination
C. Auscultation
D. Clinical manifestation
E. Sputum analysis
1319. What is the most informative in the diagnostic of pleural empyema?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. General blood analysis
C. Auscultation
D. Clinical manifestation
E. Sputum analysis
1320. The swelled soft tissues of supraclavicular region are typical for the:
A. *Apical empyema
1321.
1322.
1323.
1324.
1325.
1326.
1327.
B. Paracostal empyema
C. Paramediastinal empyema
D. Basal empyema
E. Postoperative empyema
The restricted thoracic excursion with severe chest pain are typical for the:
A. *Paracostal empyema
B. Apical empyema
C. Paramediastinal empyema
D. Basal empyema
E. Postoperative empyema
The heart pain is typical for the:
A. *Paramediastinal empyema
B. Paracostal empyema
C. Apical empyema
D. Basal empyema
E. Postoperative empyema
The pain in subcostal area, which increases at respiration is typical for the:
A. *Paramediastinal empyema
B. Paracostal empyema
C. Apical empyema
D. Basal empyema
E. Postoperative empyema
What is the typical method of treatment of focal empyema?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. Drainage of pleural space
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
What is the typical method of treatment of spread empyema?
A. *Drainage of pleural space
B. Pleural puncture
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
Where is the drainage of pleural space in spread empyema performed?
A. *VII intercostal space, scapular line
B. II intercostal space, midclavicular line
C. II intercostal space, scapular line
D. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
E. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
What is the typical method of treatment of chronic empyema?
A. *Pleurectomy, decortication of lung
B. Drainage of pleural space
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
1328. The pleurectomy is indicated for:
A. *Chronic empyema
B. Complicated lung abscess
C. Pneumonia
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung emphysema
1329. The decortication of lung is indicated for:
A. *Chronic empyema
B. Complicated lung abscess
C. Pneumonia
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung emphysema
1330. What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Lung abscess
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
1331. What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Lung gangrene
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
1332. What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Suppurative cyst of lung
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
1333. What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Abscessing pneumonia
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
1334. What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Subphrenic abscess
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
1335. What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Chest trauma
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
1336.
1337.
1338.
1339.
1340.
1341.
1342.
1343.
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Bronchiectatic disease
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical:
A. *Chest pain
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical:
A. *Dyspnea
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical:
A. *Cough with sputum
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical:
A. *Intoxication
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical:
A. *Hectic fever
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
What is revealed in pyopneumothorax by percussion?
A. *Blunt sound over the exudate and bandbox sound over the region of
collapsed lung
B. Pulmonary sound
C. Bandbox sound over the whole lung
D. Blunted sound over the whole lung
E. Metallic ringing
What is revealed in pyopneumothorax by auscultation?
1344.
1345.
1346.
1347.
1348.
1349.
1350.
A. *The breathing isn't auscultated
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
What is revealed in pyopneumothorax by X-ray?
A. *Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper
contour
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
E. Lung atelectasis
What is the typical method of treatment of restricted pyopneumothorax?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. Drainage of pleural space
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
What is the typical method of treatment of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Drainage of pleural space
B. Pleural puncture
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
Where is performed the drainage of pleural space in pyopneumothorax?
A. *II intercostal space, midclavicular line and VII intercostal space, scapular
line simultaneously
B. II intercostal space, midclavicular line
C. II intercostal space, scapular line
D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. VII intercostal space, scapular line
What is the early complication of chest trauma?
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Posttraumatic pneumonia
C. Posttraumatic pleurisy
D. Lung abscess
E. Pleural empyema
What is the early complication of chest trauma?
A. *Hemothorax
B. Lung abscess
C. Pleural empyema
D. Posttraumatic pneumonia
E. Posttraumatic pleurisy
What is the early complication of chest trauma?
A. *Traumatic shock
B. Lung abscess
1351.
1352.
1353.
1354.
1355.
1356.
1357.
1358.
C. Pleural empyema
D. Posttraumatic pneumonia
E. Posttraumatic pleurisy
What is the late complication of chest trauma?
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Pneumothorax
C. Hemothorax
D. Mediastinal emphysema
E. Traumatic shock, asphyxia
What is the late complication of chest trauma?
A. *Posttraumatic pneumonia
B. Pneumothorax
C. Hemothorax
D. Mediastinal emphysema
E. Traumatic shock, asphyxia
What is the chief clinical manifestation of noncomplicated rib fracture?
A. *Pain
B. Dyspnea
C. Hemoptysis
D. Shock
E. Vomiting
What is revealed in noncomplicated rib fracture by auscultation?
A. *Diminished vesicular breathing
B. The breathing isn't auscultated
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
What kind of X-ray picture is typical for noncomplicated rib fracture?
A. *Break in continuity of bone fragments of ribs
B. Exudate in pleural space
C. Collapse of the lung
D. Lung athelectasis
E. Heterogeneous lung shadow with destruction
What is the chief clinical manifestation of floating rib fracture?
A. *Shock
B. Pain
C. Dyspnea
D. Hemoptysis
E. Vomiting
What is the chief objective sign of floating rib fracture?
A. *Paradoxical respiratory movements of chest
B. Crepitation of ribs
C. Hematoma of the chest wall
D. Hemoptysis
E. Subcutaneous emphysema
What is revealed in floating rib fracture by auscultation?
1359.
1360.
1361.
1362.
1363.
1364.
1365.
A. *Diminished vesicular breathing
B. The breathing isn't auscultated
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
What kind of X-ray picture is typical for floating rib fracture?
A. *Multiple rib fracture with deformity of the chest
B. Lung emphysema
C. Spheric shadow of the lung
D. Lung athelectasis
E. Heterogeneous lung shadow with destruction
What is the typical treatment of noncomplicated rib fracture?
A. *Novocaine block
B. External fixation of ribs
C. Intrmedullary costal osteosynthesis;
D. Mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure
E. Thoracotomy
What is the first aid of floating rib fracture?
A. *Fixation of floating segment
B. Analgesics
C. Spasmolytics
D. Hemostatic drugs
E. Antibiotics
What is the main treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. *Skeletal extraction
B. Pleural puncture
C. Pneumonectomy
D. Resection of lung
E. Decortication of lung
What is the main treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. *Intrmedullary costal osteosynthesis
B. Pleural puncture
C. Pneumonectomy
D. Resection of lung
E. Decortication of lung
What is the main treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. *Mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure
B. Pleural puncture
C. Pneumonectomy
D. Resection of lung
E. Decortication of lung
What type of Novocaine block is used for the treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. *Vagosympathetic block
B. Paranephral block
C. Spinal block
D. Epidural anesthesia
1366.
1367.
1368.
1369.
1370.
1371.
1372.
1373.
E. Lung root dlock
What type of Novocaine block is used for the treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. *Alcohol - novocaine block of the site of fracture
B. Paranephral block
C. Spinal block
D. Epidural anesthesia
E. Lung root dlock
What type of Novocaine block is used for the treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. *Paravertebral block
B. Paranephral block
C. Spinal block
D. Epidural anesthesia
E. Lung root dlock
Partial pneumothorax means:
A. *Collapse of lung to 1/3 of its volume
B. No collapse of lung
C. Collapse of lung to 2/3 of its volume
D. Collapse of lung more than 2/3 of its volume
E. Total collapse of lung
Subtotal pneumothorax means:
A. *Collapse of lung to 2/3 of its volume
B. No collapse of lung
C. Collapse of lung to 1/3 of its volume
D. Collapse of lung more than 2/3 of its volume
E. Total collapse of lung
Total pneumothorax means:
A. *Collapse of lung more than 2/3 of its volume
B. No collapse of lung
C. Collapse of lung to 1/3 of its volume
D. Collapse of lung to 2/3 of its volume
E. Collapse of lung to 1/2 of its volume
The collapse of lung in pneumothorax from 1/3 to 2/3 of its volume is called:
A. *Subtotal pneumothorax
B. Partial pneumothorax
C. Total pneumothorax
D. Bilateral pneumothorax
E. Paradoxal pneumothorax
The collapse of lung in pneumothorax less than 1/3 of its volume is called:
A. *Partial pneumothorax
B. Subtotal pneumothorax
C. Total pneumothorax
D. Bilateral pneumothorax
E. Paradoxal pneumothorax
The collapse of lung in pneumothorax more than 2/3 of its volume is called:
A. *Total pneumothorax
B. Partial pneumothorax
1374.
1375.
1376.
1377.
1378.
1379.
1380.
1381.
C. Subtotal pneumothorax
D. Bilateral pneumothorax
E. Paradoxal pneumothorax
What is the most dangerous pneumothorax?
A. *Valvular
B. Subtotal closed
C. Total closed
D. Subtotal open
E. Total open
What is the chief clinical manifestation of pneumothorax?
A. *Dyspnea
B. Vomiting
C. Hemoptysis
D. Shock
E. Heart failure
What is the chief manifestation of valvular pneumothorax?
A. *Shock
B. Vomiting
C. Melena
D. Hemoptysis
E. Heart failure
What is the chief clinical manifestation of pneumothorax?
A. *Chest pain
B. Vomiting
C. Hemoptysis
D. Melena
E. Heart failure
What is revealed in pneumothorax by percussion?
A. *Bandbox sound over the whole lung
B. Pulmonary sound
C. Blunted sound over the whole lung
D. Metallic ringing
E. Blunt sound over the region of collapsed lung
The bandbox sound by percussion is typical for:
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Lung gangrene
C. Pneumonia
D. Pleural empyema
E. Lung abscess
What is revealed in pneumothorax by auscultation?
A. *The breathing isn't auscultated
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
The absence of breathing sound by auscultation is typical for:
1382.
1383.
1384.
1385.
1386.
1387.
1388.
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung emphyzema
E. Lung abscess
What is revealed in pneumothorax by X-ray?
A. *Lung collapse
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour
E. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
The lung collapse by X-ray is typical for:
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung emphyzema
E. Lung abscess
The lung collapse by X-ray is typical for:
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Lung cancer
C. Pneumonia
D. Tuberculosis
E. Lung empyema
What is the treatment of partial pneumothorax?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. Pleural drainage
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
What is the treatment of subtotal and total pneumothorax?
A. *Pleural drainage
B. Pleural puncture
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
The pleural drainage is used for the treatment of:
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung emphyzema
E. Lung abscess
The pleural drainage is used for the treatment of:
A. *Pyopneumothorax
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung emphyzema
E. Lung abscess
1389. The pleural drainage is used for the treatment of:
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung emphyzema
E. Lung abscess
1390. What is the first aid in closed pneumothorax?
A. *It doesn't require first aid measures
B. Pleural drainage
C. Compression bandage with closure of the wound
D. Artificial respiration
E. Intubation
1391. What is the first aid in open pneumothorax?
A. *Compression bandage with closure of the wound
B. It doesn't require first aid measures
C. Pleural drainage
D. Artificial respiration
E. Intubation
1392. What is the first aid in valvular pneumothorax?
A. *Pleural drainage (to transform into open)
B. It doesn't require first aid measures
C. Compression bandage with closure of the wound
D. Artificial respiration
E. Intubation
1393. Where the drainage of pleural space in pneumothorax is performed?
A. *II intercostal space, midclavicular line
B. II intercostal space, scapular line
C. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. VII intercostal space, scapular line
1394. The pleural drainage in II intercostal space along midclavicular line is used for the
treatment of:
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Pleural empyema
C. Pneumonia
D. Pleurisy
E. Hemothorax
1395. The pleural drainage in VII intercostal space along scapular line is used for the
treatment of:
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Pneumothorax
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
E. Lung emphyzema
1396. What is the indication for operative treatment of pneumothorax?
1397.
1398.
1399.
1400.
1401.
1402.
1403.
A. *Valvular
B. Subtotal closed
C. Total closed
D. Subtotal open
E. Total open
The small hemothorax means:
A. *Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood
B. Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood
C. Loss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood
D. Loss of 40-60 % of volume of circulating blood
E. Loss more than 60 % of volume of circulating blood
The moderate hemothorax means:
A. *Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood
B. Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood
C. Loss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood
D. Loss of 40-60 % of volume of circulating blood
E. Loss more than 60 % of volume of circulating blood
The great hemothorax means:
A. *Loss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood
B. Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood
C. Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood
D. Loss of 40-60 % of volume of circulating blood
E. Loss more than 60 % of volume of circulating blood
The total hemothorax means:
A. *Loss more than 40 % of volume of circulating blood
B. Loss of 20-30 % of volume of circulating blood
C. Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood
D. Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood
E. Loss of 30-40 % of volume of circulating blood
The bloodloss to 10 % of volume of circulating blood relates to:
A. *Small hemothorax
B. Moderate hemothorax
C. Great hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
The bloodloss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood relates to:
A. *Moderate hemothorax
B. Small hemothorax
C. Great hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
The bloodloss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood relates to:
A. *Great hemothorax
B. Moderate hemothorax
C. Small hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
1404.
1405.
1406.
1407.
1408.
1409.
1410.
1411.
E. Coagulated hemothorax
The bloodloss more than 40 % of volume of circulating blood relates to:
A. *Total hemothorax
B. Moderate hemothorax
C. Small hemothorax
D. Great hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
What is the chief clinical manifestation of hemothorax?
A. *Clinic of internal bleeding
B. Pain
C. Vomiting
D. Hemoptysis
E. Intoxication
What is revealed in hemothorax by percussion?
A. *Blunted sound
B. Clear sound
C. Bandbox sound
D. Tympanic sound
E. Metallic ringing
The blunted sound by percussion is typical for:
A. *Hemothorax
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
The absence of breathing sounds by auscultation is typical for:
A. *Hemothorax
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Lung abscess
E. Pneumonia
What is revealed in hemothorax by auscultation?
A. *The breathing isn't auscultated
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
What is revealed in hemothorax by X-ray?
A. *Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
D. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
E. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour
Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in small hemothorax?
A. *Shadow observed only in the region of sinus
B. Up to scapular angle
1412.
1413.
1414.
1415.
1416.
1417.
1418.
C. Up to ІІІ rib
D. Complete shadow of a pleural space
E. The shadow is absent
Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in moderate hemothorax?
A. *Up to scapular angle
B. Shadow observed only in the region of sinus
C. Up to ІІІ rib
D. Complete shadow of a pleural space
E. The shadow is absent
Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in great hemothorax?
A. *Up to ІІІ rib
B. Shadow observed only in the region of sinus
C. Up to scapular angle
D. Complete shadow of a pleural space
E. The shadow is absent
Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in total hemothorax?
A. *Complete shadow of a pleural space
B. Up to scapular angle
C. Shadow observed only in the region of sinus
D. Up to ІІІ rib
E. The shadow is absent
The X-ray shadow in hemothorax observed only in the region of sinus relates to:
A. *Small hemothorax
B. Moderate hemothorax
C. Great hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
The X-ray shadow in hemothorax up to scapular angle relates to:
A. *Moderate hemothorax
B. Small hemothorax
C. Great hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
The X-ray shadow in hemothorax up to III rib relates to:
A. *Great hemothorax
B. Small hemothorax
C. Moderate hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
The complete X-ray shadow of a pleural space in hemothorax relates to:
A. *Total hemothorax
B. Small hemothorax
C. Moderate hemothorax
D. Great hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
1419. What method is the most informative in differential diagnostic of hemothorax
with pleurisy?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. Clinical manifestation
C. Sputum analysis
D. Auscultation
E. X-ray examination
1420. What method is the most informative in the diagnostic of hemothorax?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. General blood analysis
C. Sputum analysis
D. Auscultation
E. X-ray examination
1421. What is the sign of continuity of pleural bleeding?
A. *The property of pleural blood to form the clot
B. Data of general blood analysis
C. Data of biochemical blood analysis
D. Data of coagulogram
E. Clinical manifestation
1422. What test is used to determine the continuity of pleural bleeding?
A. *Revilour-Greguar's test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
C. Talman's test
D. Mayo-Pratt's test
E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
1423. The Revilour-Greguar's test is used in the diagnostics of:
A. *Pleural bleeding
B. Lung abscess
C. Pleural empyema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Deep vein thrombosis
1424. The property of pleural blood to form the clot is called:
A. *Revilour-Greguar's test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
C. Talman's test
D. Mayo-Pratt's test
E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
1425. What sign shows that the pleural bleeding is stopped?
A. *The pleural blood doesn't form the clot
B. Data of general blood analysis
C. Data of biochemical blood analysis
D. Data of coagulogram
E. Clinical manifestation
1426. What does the clotted hemothorax result in?
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Dyspnea
1427.
1428.
1429.
1430.
1431.
1432.
1433.
1434.
C. Hemoptysis
D. Obliteration of pleural space
E. Cardiac tamponade
What kind of hemothorax is treated by pleural aspiration?
A. *Small
B. Great
C. Total
D. Clotted
E. Continuing hemothorax
What medicine used for the treatment of hemothorax?
A. *Aminocapronic acid
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What medicine used for the treatment of hemothorax?
A. *Calcium chloridi
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What medicine used for the treatment of hemothorax?
A. *Dicinon
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What medicine used for the treatment of hemothorax?
A. *Vitamin K
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What pathology is the indication for operative treatment?
A. *Great and total hemothorax
B. Noncomplicated rib fracture
C. Closed partial pneumothorax
D. Closed total pneumothorax
E. Subcutaneous emphysema
What pathology is the indication for operative treatment?
A. *Clotted hemothorax
B. Noncomplicated rib fracture
C. Subcutaneous emphysema
D. Closed partial pneumothorax
E. Closed total pneumothorax
What pathology is the indication for operative treatment?
1435.
1436.
1437.
1438.
1439.
1440.
1441.
A. *Continuing hemothorax
B. Closed partial pneumothorax
C. Closed total pneumothorax
D. Noncomplicated rib fracture
E. Subcutaneous emphysema
What is the main cause of mediastinal emphysema?
A. *Disruptions of trachea, bronchi
B. Rib fracture
C. Pneumothorax
D. Hemothorax
E. Mediastinal tumours
What does the mediastinal emphysema result in?
A. *Cardiac tamponade
B. Hemoptysis
C. Pleural empyema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung atelectasis
What is the treatment of mediastinal emphysema?
A. *Drainage of anterior mediastinum
B. Conservative treatment
C. Drainage of pleural cavity
D. Novocaine block
E. Pericardial puncture
Where is located the first anatomical narrowing of esophagus?
A. *The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
B. The site of crossing with left bronchus
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of passing through diaphragm
E. The site of cardia
Where is located the second anatomical narrowing of esophagus?
A. *The site of crossing with left bronchus
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of passing through diaphragm
E. The site of cardia
Where is located the third anatomical narrowing of esophagus?
A. *The site of passing through diaphragm
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of crossing with left bronchus
E. The site of cardia
Where is located the first physiological narrowing of esophagus?
A. *The site of crossing with aorta
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
C. The site of crossing with left bronchus
D. The site of passing through diaphragm
1442.
1443.
1444.
1445.
1446.
1447.
1448.
1449.
E. The site of cardia
Where is located the second physiological narrowing of esophagus?
A. *The site of cardia
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of crossing with left bronchus
E. The site of passing through diaphragm
The site of pharyngoesophageal junction is:
A. *The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
B. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
The site of crossing with left bronchus is:
A. *The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
The site of passing through diaphragm is:
A. *The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
The site of crossing with aorta is:
A. *The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
The site of cardia is:
A. *The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
E. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
What is the mechanism of formation of pulsion diverticula?
A. *Herniation of the esophageal wall proximal to anatomical narrowing
B. Inflammatory changes of paraesophageal tissues
C. Dilatation of esophagus caused by achalasia
D. Changes of esophagus caused by chemical burns
E. Changes of esophagus caused by reflux esophagitis
What is the mechanism of formation of traction diverticula?
A. *Inflammatory changes of paraesophageal tissues
B. Herniation of the esophageal wall proximal to anatomical narrowing
1450.
1451.
1452.
1453.
1454.
1455.
1456.
1457.
C. Dilatation of esophagus caused by achalasia
D. Changes of esophagus caused by chemical burns
E. Changes of esophagus caused by reflux esophagitis
What sign is not typical for Zenker's diverticula?
A. *Dyspnea
B. Salivation
C. Cervical dysphagia
D. Difficult swallowing
E. Cough
Zenker's diverticulum is:
A. *Pharyngoesophageal diverticulum
B. Bifurcational diverticulum
C. Epiphrenic diverticulum
D. Paraaortal diverticulum
E. Multiple diverticula
What is the main objective manifestation of Zenker's diverticula?
A. *Compressible mass on the left side of the neck
B. Signs of achalasia
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia
E. Lung atelectasis
What can bifurcational diverticula result in?
A. *Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia
B. Signs of achalasia
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck
E. Coarctation of aorta
What is the main objective manifestation of epiphrenal diverticula?
A. *Signs of achalasia
B. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
C. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck
D. Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia
E. Lung atelectasis
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
A. *Salivation
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
A. *Cervical dysphagia
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
1458.
1459.
1460.
1461.
1462.
1463.
1464.
A. *Difficult swallowing
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
A. *Compressible mass in the neck
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
A. *Gurgling sound while eating
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
A. *Foul-smell from the mouth
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
A. *The sign "of a wet pillow"
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal diverticula?
A. *X-ray examination with barium swallow
B. Pleural punctere
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Irrigoscopy
What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal diverticula?
A. *Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. Pleural punctere
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Irrigoscopy
What complication is typical for esophageal diverticula?
A. *Bleeding
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Myocardial infarction
1465.
1466.
1467.
1468.
1469.
1470.
1471.
1472.
E. Lung atelectasis
What complication is typical for esophageal diverticula?
A. *Perforation into pleural space
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Pancreatitis
D. Obstructive jaundice
E. Intestinal obstruction
What complication is typical for esophageal diverticula?
A. *Diverticulitis
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Lung atelectasis
What complication is typical for esophageal diverticula?
A. *Malignancy
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Lung atelectasis
What disease should be the diverticulitis differentiated from?
A. *Angina pectoris
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What is the typical treatment of complicated Zenker's diverticula?
A. *Surgical treatment
B. Spasmolytics
C. Analgetics
D. Nonsteroid antiinflammatory drugs
E. Antibiotics
What is the indication for conservative treatment of bifurcational diverticula?
A. *Asymptomatic course
B. Frequently recurrent diverticulites
C. Perforation
D. Esophago-bronchial fistula
E. Suspicion on malignancy
What operation is performed in esophageal diverticula?
A. *Resection of diverticulum
B. Esophagomyotomy
C. Esophagogastric anastomosis
D. Extirpation of esophagus
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
What surgical access should be applied for Zenker's diverticula?
A. *Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
B. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
1473.
1474.
1475.
1476.
1477.
1478.
1479.
1480.
C. Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
D. Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
What surgical access should be applied for bifurcational diverticula?
A. *Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
B. Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
D. Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
What surgical access should be applied for epiphrenal diverticula?
A. *Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
B. Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
D. Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
What is the characteristic feature of achalasia of the cardia?
A. *Failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax
B. Spasm of the lower esophageal sphincter
C. Cicatrical changes after the burn
D. Anorexia
E. Esophageal gaping
The failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax is called:
A. *Achalasia
B. Chalasia
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
What is the cause of achalasia?
A. *Disturbance of innervation of esophagus
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
What is the cause of achalasia?
A. *Psycho-emotional trauma
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
What is the cause of achalasia?
A. *Influence of vegetotrophic substances on muscular fibers
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
Who mostly suffer from achalasia?
A. *Young women
B. Young men
C. Old men
D. Old women
E. Both old men and women
1481. What is the characteristic feature of the I stage of achalasia?
A. *Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
B. Asymptomatic
C. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained
peristalsis
D. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
E. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
1482. What is the characteristic feature of the II stage of achalasia?
A. *Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained
peristalsis
B. Asymptomatic
C. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
D. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
E. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
1483. What is the characteristic feature of the III stage of achalasia?
A. *Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is
absent
B. Asymptomatic
C. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
D. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained
peristalsis
E. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
1484. What is the characteristic feature of the IV stage of achalasia?
A. *Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
B. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
C. Asymptomatic
D. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
E. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained
peristalsis
1485. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation relates to such stage of achalasia:
A. *I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
1486. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis
relates to such stage of achalasia:
A. *II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
1487. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation with absent peristalsis
relates to such stage of achalasia:
A. *III
B. I
C. II
D. IV
E. V
1488. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation relates to such stage
of achalasia:
A. *IV
B. I
C. II
D. III
E. V
1489. For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
A. *Dysphagia
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
1490. For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
A. *Regurgitation
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
1491. For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
A. *Splashing sounds and gurgling
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
1492. For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
A. *Nocturnal cough
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
1493. For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
A. *Pain and sense of tightness in the chest
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
1494. For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
1495.
1496.
1497.
1498.
1499.
1500.
1501.
A. *Loss of weight
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
What does dysphagia mean?
A. *Disturbances of swallowing
B. Pain behind breastbone
C. Absence of appetite
D. Esophageal vomiting
E. Vomiting with blood
What is the I stage of dysphagia?
A. *Disturbances of solid food passage
B. Asymptomatic
C. Disturbances of semisolid food passage
D. Disturbances of liquid food passage
E. No passage of food
What is the II stage of dysphagia?
A. *Disturbances of semisolid food passage
B. Asymptomatic
C. Disturbances of solid food passage
D. Disturbances of liquid food passage
E. No passage of food
What is the III stage of dysphagia?
A. *Disturbances of liquid food passage
B. Asymptomatic
C. Disturbances of solid food passage
D. Disturbances of semisolid food passage
E. No passage of food
What is the IV stage of dysphagia?
A. *No passage of food
B. Asymptomatic
C. Disturbances of solid food passage
D. Disturbances of semisolid food passage
E. Disturbances of liquid food passage
Disturbances of solid food passage relates to such stage of dysphagia:
A. *I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
Disturbances of semisolid food passage relates to such stage of dysphagia:
A. *II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
1502.
1503.
1504.
1505.
1506.
1507.
1508.
1509.
E. V
Disturbances of liquid food passage relates to such stage of dysphagia:
A. *III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
No passage of any food relates to such stage of dysphagia:
A. *IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. V
What is the roentgenological sign of achalasia?
A. *"Rat tail" sign
B. Filling defects
C. "Niche" sign
D. "Bell" sign
E. Blunt His angle
What is the roentgenological sign of esophageal cancer?
A. *Filling defects
B. "Rat tail" sign
C. "Bird-beak" sign
D. "Bell" sign
E. Blunt His angle
"Rat tail" is the X-ray sign of:
A. *Achalasia
B. Esophageal cancer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
"Bird-beak" is the X-ray sign of:
A. *Achalasia
B. Esophageal cancer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal achalasia?
A. *X-ray examination with barium swallow
B. Pleural punctere
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Irrigoscopy
What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal achalasia?
A. *Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. Pleural punctere
1510.
1511.
1512.
1513.
1514.
1515.
1516.
1517.
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Irrigoscopy
What is the main treatment of the I stage of achalasia?
A. *Diet, conservative treatment
B. Cardiodilatation
C. Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation)
D. Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation)
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
What is the main treatment of the II stage of achalasia?
A. *Cardiodilatation
B. Diet, conservative treatment
C. Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation)
D. Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation)
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
What is the main treatment of the III stage of achalasia?
A. *Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation)
B. Diet, conservative treatment
C. Cardiodilatation
D. Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation)
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
What is the main treatment of the IV stage of achalasia?
A. *Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation)
B. Diet, conservative treatment
C. Cardiodilatation
D. Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation)
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
Diet, conservative treatment is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. *I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
Cardiodilatation is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. *II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
Esophagomyotomy is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. *III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
Heller's operation is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
1518.
1519.
1520.
1521.
1522.
1523.
1524.
A. *III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
Esophagogastroanastomosis is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. *IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. V
Helerovsky's operation is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. *IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. V
Helerovsky's operation is used for the treatment of:
A. *Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal ulcer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
Esophagogastroanastomosis is used for the treatment of:
A. *Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal ulcer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
Heller's operation is used for the treatment of:
A. *Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal cancer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
Esophagogastroanastomosis is used for the treatment of:
A. *Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal ulcer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
Esophagomyotomy is used for the treatment of:
A. *Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal cancer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
1525.
1526.
1527.
1528.
1529.
1530.
1531.
1532.
E. Intestinal obstruction
Cardiodilatation is used for the treatment of:
A. *Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal cancer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
Heller's operation is:
A. *Esophagomyotomy
B. Resection of the stomach
C. Cardiodilatation
D. Esophagogastroanastomosis
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
Helerovsky's operation is:
A. *Esophagogastroanastomosis
B. Esophagomyotomy
C. Resection of the stomach
D. Cardiodilatation
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
Esophagogastroanastomosis is:
A. *Helerovsky's operation
B. Heller's operation
C. Bilroth's operation
D. Cocher's operation
E. Lerishe's operation
Esophagomyotomy is:
A. *Heller's operation
B. Helerovsky's operation
C. Bilroth's operation
D. Cocher's operation
E. Lerishe's operation
What is the most often cause of cicatrical esophageal stricture?
A. *Chemical burns
B. Thermal burns
C. Radial burns
D. Esophagitis
E. Peptic ulcers
What is the I stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. *Stage of acute esophagitis
B. Asymptomatic
C. Stage of chronic esophagitis
D. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
E. Stage of late complications
What is the II stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. *Stage of chronic esophagitis
B. Asymptomatic
C. Stage of acute esophagitis
D. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
E. Stage of late complications
1533. What is the III stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. *Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
B. Asymptomatic
C. Stage of acute esophagitis
D. Stage of chronic esophagitis
E. Stage of late complications
1534. What is the IV stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. *Stage of late complications
B. Asymptomatic
C. Stage of acute esophagitis
D. Stage of chronic esophagitis
E. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
1535. What is the I degree of esophageal burns?
A. *Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
B. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
C. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
E. Asymptomatic
1536. What is the II degree of esophageal burns?
A. *The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
C. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
E. Asymptomatic
1537. What is the III degree of esophageal burns?
A. *The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
C. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
E. Asymptomatic
1538. What is the IV degree of esophageal burns?
A. *The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent
organs.
B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
C. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
D. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
E. Asymptomatic
1539. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus relates to such
degree of esophageal burns:
A. *I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
1540. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus relates to such degree of
esophageal burns:
A. *II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
1541. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus relates to such degree of esophageal
burns:
A. *III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
1542. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs
relates to such degree of esophageal burns:
A. *IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. V
1543. How long has been the risk of esophageal bleeding after the burn?
A. *1-2 months
B. 2-3 days
C. 10-20 days
D. 1-2 years
E. 2 years and more
1544. How long is formed the esophageal stricture after the burn?
A. *1-2 years
B. 2-3 days
C. 10-20 days
D. 1-2 months
E. 2 years and more
1545. What is the roentgenological sign of the esophageal burn of mild degree?
A. *Free passage of barium with maintained peristalsis
B. Filling defects without peristalsis
C. "Rat tail" sign with stagnation of barium
D. "Bird-beak" sign without peristalsis
E. Dilated esophagus with sites of constriction and weak peristalsis
1546. What is the roentgenological sign of the esophageal burn of moderate degree?
A. *Dilated esophagus with sites of constriction and weak peristalsis
B. Filling defects without peristalsis
C. "Rat tail" sign with stagnation of barium
D. "Bird-beak" sign without peristalsis
E. Free passage of barium with maintained peristalsis
1547. What is the main clinical manifestation of the esophageal burn of severe degree?
A. *Clinic of shock
B. Clinic of reflux-esophagitis
C. Clinic of acute abdomen
D. Clinic of hepatic insufficiency
E. Clinic of respiratory insufficiency
1548. What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal stricture?
A. *X-ray examination with barium swallow
B. General blood analysis
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
1549. What solution is used for washing out of acid esophageal burn?
A. *Sodium hydrocarbonatis solution
B. Antiseptic solution
C. Antibiotic solution
D. Glucose solution
E. Vinegar solution
1550. What solution is used for washing out of alkaline esophageal burn?
A. *Vinegar solution
B. Antiseptic solution
C. Antibiotic solution
D. Glucose solution
E. Sodium hydrocarbonatis solution
1551. What is the main prophylaxis of esophageal stricture after the chemical burn?
A. *Esophageal bougienage
B. Spasmolytics
C. Parenteral feeding
D. Pneumocompression
E. Gastrostomy
1552. What complication is typical for esophageal burn?
A. *Disturbances of epiglottic valve
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
1553. What complication is typical for esophageal burn?
A. *Pyloric stenosis
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
1554. What complication is typical for esophageal burn?
A. *Esophageal sticture
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
1555.
1556.
1557.
1558.
1559.
1560.
1561.
1562.
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
What complication is typical for esophageal burn?
A. *Gastrointestinal bleeding
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
What complication is typical for esophageal burn?
A. *Mediastinitis
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
What complication is typical for acute stage of esophageal burn?
A. *Shock
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
What complication is typical for acute stage of esophageal burn?
A. *Renal insufficiency
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
What kind of operation is performed for liquidation of esophageal stricture?
A. *Esophageal plastic
B. Esophagostomy
C. Gastrostomy
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
What kind of esophageal plastic doesn't exist?
A. *Retroperitoneal
B. Subcutaneous
C. Retrosternal
D. Intrapleural
E. Mediastinal
What organ is used for esophageal plastic?
A. *Large intestine
B. Part of vein
C. Prosthetic graft
D. Xsenotransplantat
E. Lyophilized esophagus
What is the predominant manifestations of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Reflux-esophagitis
1563.
1564.
1565.
1566.
1567.
1568.
1569.
B. Achalasia
C. Dysphagia
D. Cardiospasm
E. Pylorostenosis
What is the chief clinical manifestations of reflux-esophagitis?
A. *Heartburn
B. Achalasia
C. Dysphagia
D. Vomiting
E. Coughing
For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. *Pain behind breastbone
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. *Heartburn
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. *Belching by air
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. *Regurgitation
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. *The sign of "lacing shoes"
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. *Nausea and vomiting
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
1570. For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. *Dysphagia
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
1571. What is the roentgenological sign of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Blunt His angle
B. Filling defects
C. "Rat tail" sign
D. "Bird-beak" sign
E. Esophageal dilatation
1572. What is the roentgenological sign of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Lack of air bubble of the stomach
B. Esophageal dilatation
C. Filling defects
D. "Rat tail" sign
E. "Bird-beak" sign
1573. What is the roentgenological sign of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *"Bell" sign
B. "Rat tail" sign
C. Filling defects
D. "Bird-beak" sign
E. Esophageal dilatation
1574. "Bell"-sign is the X-ray sign of:
A. *Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
1575. Lack of air bubble of the stomach is the X-ray sign of:
A. *Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
1576. Blunt His angle is the X-ray sign of:
A. *Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
1577. What is the typical clinic of paraesophageal diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Asymptomatic
B. Achalasia
C. Dysphagia
1578.
1579.
1580.
1581.
1582.
1583.
1584.
1585.
D. Pylorostenosis
E. Reflux-esophagitis
What is the most often complication of paraesophageal diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Strangulation
B. Bleeding
C. Dysphagia
D. Pylorostenosis
E. Reflux-esophagitis
What is the most often complication of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Bleeding
B. Strangulation
C. Dysphagia
D. Pylorostenosis
E. Reflux-esophagitis
What is the most often complication of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Peptic stricture of esophagus
B. Strangulation
C. Dysphagia
D. Pylorostenosis
E. Reflux-esophagitis
What is the most often complication of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Malignancy
B. Strangulation
C. Dysphagia
D. Pylorostenosis
E. Reflux-esophagitis
What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion?
A. *Blockers of proton pomp
B. Spasmolytics
C. Adrenoblockers
D. Blockers of calcium channel
E. Anticoagulants
What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion?
A. *H2-histamin blockers
B. Spasmolytics
C. Adrenoblockers
D. Blockers of calcium channel
E. Anticoagulants
What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion?
A. *Omeprasol, Nexium
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion?
A. *Lansa, Ultop
1586.
1587.
1588.
1589.
1590.
1591.
1592.
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion?
A. *Esomeprasol, Omez
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion?
A. *Quamatel, Ranitidin
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What drugs belong to blockers of proton pomp?
A. *Esomeprasol, Omez
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What drugs belong to blockers of proton pomp?
A. *Lansa, Ultop
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What drugs belong to blockers of proton pomp?
A. *Omeprasol, Nexium
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What drugs belong to H2-histamin blockers?
A. *Quamatel, Ranitidin
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
Quamatel, Ranitidin belong to:
A. *H2-histamin blockers
B. Blockers of proton pomp
C. Adrenoblockers
D. Blockers of calcium channel
E. Anticoagulants
1593. Omeprasol, Nexium belong to:
A. *Blockers of proton pomp
B. H2-histamin blockers
C. Adrenoblockers
D. Blockers of calcium channel
E. Anticoagulants
1594. Lansa, Ultop belong to:
A. *Blockers of proton pomp
B. H2-histamin blockers
C. Adrenoblockers
D. Blockers of calcium channel
E. Anticoagulants
1595. What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from?
A. *Angina pectoris
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
1596. What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from?
A. *Peptic ulcer
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
1597. What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from?
A. *Lung atelectasis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
1598. What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from?
A. *Pleurisy
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
1599. What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from?
A. *Pneumonia
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
1600. What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from?
A. *Hypochromic anemia
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
1601.
1602.
1603.
1604.
1605.
1606.
1607.
1608.
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What is the main treatment of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Conservative treatment
B. Esophagostomy
C. Esophageal plastic
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
What is the main treatment of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
B. Esophagostomy
C. Esophageal plastic
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
What type of operation is used for paraesophageal diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Cruroplasty
B. Esophagostomy
C. Resection of the esophagus
D. Resection of the stomach
E. Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
What type of operation is used for sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
B. Esophagostomy
C. Cruroplasty
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication is used for the treatment of:
A. *Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
B. Esophageal achalasia
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Esophageal diverticulum
E. Pilorostenosis
Nissen's fundoplication is used for prevention of:
A. *Reflux-esophagitis
B. Intestinal obstruction
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Esophageal diverticulum
E. Pilorostenosis
For prevention of reflux-esophagitis is used:
A. *Nissen's fundoplication
B. Helerovsky's operation
C. Heller's operation
D. Cocher's operation
E. Lerishe's operation
What is the roentgenological sign of diaphragmatic relaxation?
A. *High standing of diaphragmatic dome
1609.
1610.
1611.
1612.
1613.
1614.
1615.
B. Filling defect
C. "Rat tail" sign
D. Sign of "nishe"
E. Pneumoperitoneum
What is the X-ray sign of diaphragmatic relaxation?
A. *Restriction of diaphragmatic excursion
B. Filling defect
C. "Rat tail" sign
D. Sign of "nishe"
E. Pneumoperitoneum
What is the X-ray sign of diaphragmatic relaxation?
A. *Inflection of abdominal part of esophagus
B. Filling defect
C. "Rat tail" sign
D. Sign of "nishe"
E. Pneumoperitoneum
What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from?
A. *Diaphragmatic elevation
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from?
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from?
A. *Pyopneumothorax
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from?
A. *Pleurisy
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from?
A. *Diaphragmatic hernia
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
1616. What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from?
A. *Esophageal cancer
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
1617. What operation is performed for diaphragmatic relaxation?
A. *Phrenoplasty
B. Esophagomyotomy
C. Cruroplasty
D. Cruroplasty with Nissen’s fundoplication
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
1618. Phrenoplasty is used for the treatment of:
A. *Diaphragmatic relaxation
B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
C. Esophageal achalasia
D. Esophageal diverticulum
E. Pilorostenosis
1619. What is the cause of acute mediastinitis?
A. *Perforation of esophagus
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
1620. What is the cause of acute mediastinitis?
A. *Chemical burns of esophagus
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
1621. What is the cause of acute mediastinitis?
A. *Injuries of trachea
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
1622. What is the cause of acute mediastinitis?
A. *Injuries of bronchi
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
1623. For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical:
A. *Dyspnea
B. Vomiting
C. Retention of stool and gases
1624.
1625.
1626.
1627.
1628.
1629.
1630.
1631.
D. Portal hypertension
E. Obstructive jaundice
For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical:
A. *Profuse sweating
B. Vomiting
C. Retention of stool and gases
D. Portal hypertension
E. Obstructive jaundice
For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical:
A. *Dysphagia
B. Vomiting
C. Retention of stool and gases
D. Portal hypertension
E. Obstructive jaundice
For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical:
A. *Constant cough
B. Vomiting
C. Retention of stool and gases
D. Portal hypertension
E. Obstructive jaundice
For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical:
A. *Hoarseness
B. Vomiting
C. Retention of stool and gases
D. Portal hypertension
E. Obstructive jaundice
For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical:
A. *Change of cardiac rhythm
B. Vomiting
C. Retention of stool and gases
D. Portal hypertension
E. Obstructive jaundice
The fever to 39-40°С is typical for:
A. *Acute mediastinitis
B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
C. Esophageal achalasia
D. Esophageal cancer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The dyspnea is typical for:
A. *Acute mediastinitis
B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
C. Esophageal achalasia
D. Esophageal cancer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The chest pain is typical for:
A. *Acute mediastinitis
1632.
1633.
1634.
1635.
1636.
1637.
1638.
B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
C. Esophageal achalasia
D. Esophageal cancer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The severe intoxication is typical for:
A. *Acute mediastinitis
B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
C. Esophageal achalasia
D. Esophageal cancer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The dysphagia is typical for:
A. *Acute mediastinitis
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung cyst
What is the roentgenological sign of acute mediastinitis?
A. *Widening of mediastinum, shadowing of its anterior
B. Filling defect
C. The sign of "bell"
D. Lack of air bubble of the stomach
E. High standing of diaphragmatic dome
What sign is typical for anterior mediastinitis?
A. *Intensifying of pain during percussion of breast bone
B. Throbbing chest pain with irradiation in interscapular region
C. Intensifying of pain during vertebral pressing
D. Intensifying of pain at swallowing
E. Sign of compression of azygos and hemiazygos veins
What sign is typical for anterior mediastinitis?
A. *Intensifying of pain when head is unbent back
B. Throbbing chest pain with irradiation in interscapular region
C. Intensifying of pain at swallowing
D. Swelling above clavicle
E. Sign of compression of azygos and hemiazygos veins
What sign is typical for anterior mediastinitis?
A. *Signs of compression of superior vena cava
B. Throbbing chest pain with irradiation in interscapular region
C. Intensifying of pain at swallowing
D. Swelling above clavicle
E. Sign of compression of azygos and hemiazygos veins
What sign is typical for posterior mediastinitis?
A. *Throbbing chest pain with irradiation in interscapular region
B. Intensifying of pain during percussion of breast bone
C. Intensifying of pain when head is unbent back
D. Occurrence of swelling in the region of jugular fossa
E. Signs of compression of superior vena cava
1639. What sign is typical for posterior mediastinitis?
A. *Intensifying of pain during vertebral pressing
B. Intensifying of pain during percussion of breast bone
C. Intensifying of pain when head is unbent back
D. Occurrence of swelling in the region of jugular fossa
E. Signs of compression of superior vena cava
1640. What kind of acute intestinal obstruction the invagination belongs to?
A. *Mixed
B. Paralytic
C. Volvulus
D. Strangulation
E. Dynamic
1641. Invagination much more frequent in:
A. *Children
B. Pregnant
C. Elderly people
D. Teenagers
E. Does not depend on age
1642. What is the most frequent localization of invagination:
A. *The region of cecum
B. Splenic angle
C. Hepatic angle
D. Rectosygmoid angle
E. Patients with the Led's syndrome
1643. The most frequent cause of the large intestinal obstruction is:
A. *Tumours
B. Invagination
C. Volvulus
D. Hemorrhoids of IV degree
E. Errors in the diet
1644. The first phase of the clinical course of acute intestinal obstruction lasts:
A. *To 12 hours
B. To 2 hours
C. To 1 days
D. More than 1 day
E. To 1 hour
1645. The leading signs in acute intestinal obstruction are:
A. *Wave-like pain, vomiting, delay of gases and stool
B. „Knife-like” pain, wooden abdomen, proper anamnesis
C. „Knife-like” pain, wooden abdomen, vomiting
D. Wave-like pain, anaemia
E. Nausea, loss of appetite, metallic taste in the mouth
1646. Name the character of peristalsis in the onset of the acute intestinal obstruction:
A. *Hyperperistalsis
B. Normal peristalsis
C. Absent
D. Variable
E. Heard only in regions upper the obstruction
1647. The Sklyarov's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. *Noise of splash
B. Good heard cardiac tones during auscultation of the abdomen
C. Dullness in the lower regions
D. Sound of falling drop
E. Gaping of anus
1648. The Grekov's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. *Gaping of anus
B. Good heard cardiac tones during auscultation of the abdomen
C. Dullness in the lower regions
D. Sound of falling drop
E. Noise of splash
1649. In acute intestinal obstruction the basic X-ray sign is:
A. *Air-fluid levels, Kloiber's cups
B. Expressed limitation of mobility of the right dome of diaphragm
C. Diffusely dilated loops of bowels
D. Free gas in the abdomen
E. Sklyarov's sign
1650. The Spasokukotsky's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. *Sound of falling drop
B. Good heard cardiac tones during auscultation of the abdomen
C. Dullness in the lower regions
D. Noise of splash
E. Gaping of anus
1651. What are the Kloiber's cups?
A. *Horizontal air-fluid levels
B. Gas bubble of the stomach
C. Folds of intestine
D. Gas sickles under the domes of diaphragm
E. None of mentioned
1652. Name the method of examination which is not obligatory in acute intestinal
obstruction:
A. *All are obligatory
B. General blood analysis
C. General urine analysis
D. Coagulogramm
E. Electrolytes
1653. Is obligatory the X-ray examination at suspicion on acute intestinal obstruction?
A. *Yes
B. No, if you know that acute intestinal obstruction is of obturative origin
C. Yes, if you know that acute intestinal obstruction is of obturative origin
D. No
E. Yes, except for children and pregnant
1654. Is obligatory the digital examination of rectum at suspicion on acute intestinal
obstruction?
A. *Yes
B. No, if you know that acute intestinal obstruction is of obturative origin
C. Yes, if you know that acute intestinal obstruction is of obturative origin
D. No
E. Yes, except for children, pregnant
1655. The purpose of conservative therapy in compensated acute intestinal obstruction:
A. *All mentioned
B. Preoperative preparation
C. Treating
D. Detoxication
E. Diagnostic
1656. The purpose of conservative therapy in decompensated acute intestinal
obstruction:
A. *Preoperative preparation
B. Treating
C. Detoxication
D. All mentioned
E. None of mentioned
1657. What does not belong to conservative therapy of acute intestinal obstruction?
A. *Liquidation of hypervolemia
B. Decompression of gastrointestinal tract
C. The struggle against abdominal-pain shock
D. Detoxication
E. Correction of microcirculation
1658. What does not belong to the fight against abdominal-pain shock?
A. *Performing of siphon enema
B. Paranephral novocaine blockade
C. Neuroleptanalgesia
D. Peridural anaesthesia
E. Spasmolytic therapy
1659. The decompression of gastrointestinal tract includess everything, except:
A. *Lavage of abdominal cavity
B. Endoscopic intubation
C. Enterotomy with aspiration
D. Washing of the stomach
E. Performing of siphon enema
1660. Name duration of conservative treatment of acute intestinal obstruction in the
stage of compensation?
A. *5-7 days
B. 1-2 days
C. 12-24 hours
D. To 12 hours
E. Not less than 2 weeks
1661. Treatment of patients with acute intestinal obstruction in the stage of
decompensation must be:
A. *2-4 hours of conservative, then operative
B. To 24 hours of conservative, then operative
C. Immediately operative
D. During the first days conservative treatment with the gradual increase of
volume of infusion
E. Conservative in ambulatory conditions
1662. The treatment of patients with strangulation acute intestinal obstruction which
accompanied by the manifestations of peritonitis must include:
A. *2 hours of conservative treatment, then operative
B. To 12 hours conservative treatment, then operative
C. Immediately operative without conservative
D. Conservative in ambulatory conditions
E. During the first days conservative with the gradual increase of volume
infusion
1663. The criteria of the efficiency of gastrointestinal tract passage renewal during
conservative therapy of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. *Pulling of gases and stool
B. Normalization of rectal temperature
C. Absence of Shchotkin-Blumberg's sign
D. Feeling of heartburn
E. None of mentioned
1664. To the criteria of permanent renewal of the gastrointestinal tract passage as
efficiency of conservative treatment belongs:
A. *Absence of stagnant content in the stomach
B. Absence of Shchotkin-Blumberg's sign
C. Normalization of rectal temperature
D. Feeling of heartburn
E. None of mentioned
1665. The absolute indication for operative treatment of acute intestinal obstructionє:
A. *III phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
B. II phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
C. I phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
D. The prolonged anamnesis of acute intestinal obstruction
E. Dynamic acute intestinal obstruction
1666. The indication for operative treatment of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. *Mechanical acute intestinal obstruction in inefficient conservative treatment
B. I phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
C. II phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
D. The prolonged anamnesis of acute intestinal obstruction
E. Mechanical acute intestinal obstruction
1667. In what case the drainage of the abdominal cavity is inadvisable in operative
treatment of acute intestinal obstruction?
A. *None of mentioned cases
B. In formation of anastomosis
C. In formation of haematoma
D. In formation of stoma
E. In all these cases
1668. When is the operative intervention for acute intestinal obstruction accompanied
by the drainage of abdominal cavity?
A. *In all mentioned cases
B. In formation of stoma
C. In increased bleeding during dissecting of adhesions
D. In formation of anastomosis
E. None of mentioned cases
1669. Is the programmable laparostomy suitable in the treatment of І-ІІ stage of acute
intestinal obstruction?
A. *No
B. Yes
C. Only in the case of formation of anastomosis
D. Only in strangulation acute intestinal obstruction
E. Only in obturation acute intestinal obstruction
1670. Is the intestinal obstruction suitable in the treatment of І-ІІ stage of acute
intestinal obstruction?
A. *Yes
B. No
C. Only in the case of formation of anastomosis
D. Only in strangulation acute intestinal obstruction
E. Only in obturation acute intestinal obstruction
1671. Optimal access in the operative treatment of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. *Middle laparotomy
B. Phanenstil's
C. Vinkelman's
D. Fedorov's
E. Right pararectal
1672. Choose the correct algorithm of the operative intervation for the II stage of acute
intestinal obstruction :
A. *Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of
abdominal cavity, suturing of the abdomen
B. Laparotomy, liquidation of the source of peritonitis, sanation of abdominal
cavity, suturing of the abdomen
C. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, sanation of abdominal cavity,
suturing of the abdomen
D. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of
abdominal cavity, laparostomy
E. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, liquidation of the source of peritonitis,
intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal cavity, suturing of the abdomen
1673. Choose the correct algorithm of operative intervation for the III stage of acute
intestinal obstruction:
A. *Laparotomy, liquidation of the source of peritonitis, intestinal intubation,
sanation of abdominal cavity, suturing of the abdomen or laparostomy
B. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of
abdominal cavity, suturing of the abdomen
C. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of
abdominal cavity, laparostomy
D. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of
abdominal cavity, suturing of the abdomen
E. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, liquidation of peritonitis, sanation of
abdominal cavity, suturing of the abdomen
1674. Arterial mesenteric acute intestinal obstruction belongs to:
A. *Obturation
B. Strangulation
C. Paralytic
D. Spastic
E. Mixed
1675. What is the essence of arterial mesenteric intestinal obstruction?
A. *Superior mesenteric artery compresses the duodenum
B. Duodenum compresses the superior mesenteric artery
C. Acute intestinal obstruction on the background of mesenteric thrombosis
D. Mesenteric thrombosis caused by obstruction
E. Duodenum compresses inferior mesenteric artery
1676. What treatment is indicated in gall-stones intestinal obturation?
A. *Only operative
B. Only conservative
C. Operative in the case of the development of peritonitis
D. Treatment is not required
E. Tactic depends on the size of stone
1677. The tumour obturation of cecum requires:
A. *Right-side hemicolectomy
B. Resection of cecum
C. Cecostomy
D. Only ileostomy
E. Only intubation of small intestine
1678. What treatment tactic of acute intestinal obstruction, caused by a tumour
obturation is required?
A. *Operative intervation
B. Liquidation of tumour by a chemotherapy
C. Liquidations of tumour by radiotherapy
D. Operative intervation only after chemotherapy
E. Only symptomatic treatment
1679. What is the volvulus?
A. *Torsion of the bowel with its mesentery along longitudinal axis
B. Torsion of the bowel with the mesentery of another loop
C. Invagination of one part of the bowel in another
D. Obturation of the bowel lumen
E. Torsion of the bowel with its mesentery along transverse axis
1680. The most frequently the sygmoid volvulus arises in:
A. *Elderly patients with frequent constipations
B. Females with menstrual arrest
C. Children
D. Elderly patients people with permanent diarrhea
E. New-borns
1681. What is the aim of the operative treatment of volvulus if the bowel „alive”?
A. *Detorsion, decompression, fixing to the abdominal wall
B. Detorsion, resection, fixing to the abdominal wall
C. Detorsion, dilation, decompression, fixing to the abdominal wall
D. Detorsion, dilation, decompression
E. Decompression, fixing to the abdominal wall
1682. The nodulus requires:
A. *Untie the knot, if impossible – resection of the bowel
B. Resection of the bowel
C. Untie the knot
D. To perform the stoma. The second stage the resection of the bowel
E. None of mentioned
1683. A typical sign for invagination in irrigoscopy is:
A. *„Cockades”
B. „Candles”
C. „Rat tail”
D. Spizharny's sign
E. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
1684. The indication for cecopexia in the operative treatment of invagination is:
A. *For the prophylaxis of relapses
B. For self desinvagination
C. For better desinvagination
D. Is not indicated
E. Not performed
1685. The peritonitis, caused by perforation of gastric ulcer is characterised by such
type of obstruction:
A. *Paralytic
B. Spastic
C. Strangulation
D. There is no characteristic type
E. The obstruction can not develop in this case
1686. The peritonitis, caused by perforation of duodenal ulcer is characterised by such
type of obstruction:
A. *Paralytic
B. Spastic
C. Strangulation
D. There is no characteristic type
E. The obstruction can not develop in this case
1687. Describe the Kloiber's cups in small intestinal obstruction:
A. *Wide, not high, maltiple
B. Not wide, high, single
C. Not characteristic
D. Wide, not high, with folds
E. Of different size, localization
1688. Describe the Kloiber's cups in large intestinal obstruction:
A. *Not wide, high, single
B. Wide, not high, maltiple
C. Not characteristic
D. Wide, not high, with folds
E. Of different size, localization
1689. The air-fluid levels (Kloiber's cups) are not characteristic for such type of acute
intestinal obstruction, as:
A. *Spastic
B. Paralytic
C. Obturation
D. Invagination
E. All kinds
1690. The "trident", "crescent" signs are characteristic for such type of acute intestinal
obstruction, as:
A. *Invagination
B. Spastic
C. Obturation
D. Strangulation
E. All kinds
1691. Which type of acute intestinal obstruction is connected with previous operations:
A. *Strangulation
B. Spastic
C. Obturation
D. Invagination
E. All kinds
1692. For strangulation is not typical:
A. *Normal body temperature
B. Tension of abdominal wall
C. Leucocytosis
D. Frequent vomit
E. Wahl's symptom
1693. For strangulation is not typical:
A. *Leucopenia
B. Tension of abdominal wall
C. Frequent vomit
D. Body temperature 37,5°C and higher
E. Wahl's symptom
1694. The contributory factor of the development of strangulation is:
A. *Long intestinal mesentery
B. Stool stones
C. Gall-stones
D. Tumour
E. None of mentioned
1695. The contributory factor of the development of obturation is:
A. *Stool stones
B. Long intestinal mesentery
C. Adhesions in abdominal cavity
D. All of mentioned
E. None of mentioned
1696. Where is the pain localized in acute appendicitis?
A. *Right iliac region
B. Epigastric region
C. Left iliac region
D. Left subcostal region
E. Right lumbar region
1697. Where does the pain arise in the onset of acute appendicitis?
A. *Epigastric region
B. Left iliac region
C. Right iliac region
D. Left subcostal region
E. Right lumbar region
1698. Where does the pain irradiate in acute appendicitis?
A. *Not irradiate
B. Lumbar region
C. Left iliac region
D. Right scapular
E. Perineum
1699. What dyspeptic manifestations are typical for acute appendicitis?
A. *Single nausea and vomiting
B. Constant vomiting and nausea without any relief
C. Vomiting by bile without any relief
D. Absence of peristalsis
E. Constant diarrhea
1700. What objective manifestations are typical for acute appendicitis?
A. *Muscular tension in a right iliac area
B. Abdominal distension
C. Absence of hepatic dullness
D. Absence of peristalsis
E. Rigidity of anterior abdominal wall
1701. What signs are typical for phlegmonous appendicitis in contrast to simple
appendicitis?
A. *Peritoneal signs
B. Signs of gas migration
C. Signs of pain migration
D. Muscular tension in a right iliac area
E. Nausea and vomiting
1702. What sign is typical for phlegmonous appendicitis in contrast to simple
appendicitis?
A. *Blumberg's sign
B. Kocher’s sign
C. Bartomier’s sign
D. Sitkovsky’s sign
E. Dunphy's sign
1703. What sign is typical for phlegmonous appendicitis in contrast to simple
appendicitis?
A. *Voskresenky's sign
B. Sitkovsky’s sign
C. Bartomier’s sign
D. Kocher’s sign
E. Dunphy's sign
1704. What does the Voskresenky's sign mean?
A. *Increase of pain during quick sliding movements by the tips of fingers from
epigastric to right iliac area
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. Increased pain with coughing
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
1705. What does the Rozdolsky’s sign mean?
A. *Painfulness in a right iliac area during percussion
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. Increased pain with coughing
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
1706. What signs are typical for gangrenous appendicitis in contrast to simple
appendicitis?
A. *Signs of intoxication
B. Signs of gas migration
C. Retention of stool or single diarrhea
D. Muscular tension in a right iliac area
E. Single nausea and vomiting
1707. Who usually suffer from gangrenous appendicitis?
A. People of old age
B. *Newborns
C. Children
D. Pregnant women
E. Young men
1708. Where is the pain localized in retrocaecal appendicitis?
A. *Right lumbar region
B. Right iliac region
C. Epigastric region
D. Left iliac region
E. Left subcostal region
1709. What objective manifestations are typical for retrocaecal appendicitis?
A. *Pain and muscular rigidity in a right iliac area during palpation
B. Abdominal distension
C. Absence of hepatic dullness
D. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
E. Rigidity of anterior abdominal wall
1710. иWhat sign is typical for retrocaecal appendicitis in contrast to simple
appendicitis?
A. *Pasternatsky’s sign
B. Kocher’s sign
C. Bartomier’s sign
D. Sitkovsky’s sign
E. Dunphy's sign
1711. имWhat sign is typical for retrocaecal appendicitis in contrast to simple
appendicitis?
A. *Psoas sign
B. Sitkovsky’s sign
C. Bartomier’s sign
D. Kocher’s sign
E. Dunphy's sign
1712. What does the Pasternatsky’s sign mean?
A. *Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. Increased pain with coughing
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
1713. What does the Yaure-Rozanov sign mean?
A. *Painfulness during palpation of Petit triangle
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
D. Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain
E. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
1714. What does the Gabay’s sign mean?
A. *Blumberg’s sign in Petit triangle
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
D. Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain
E. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
1715. What does the psoas-sign mean?
A. *Pain on extension of right thigh
B. Painfulness during palpation of Petit triangle
C. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
D. Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain
E. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
1716. What manifestation is predominant for retroperitoneal appendicitis?
A. *Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
B. Clinic of acute abdomen
C. Dyspeptic syndrome
1717.
1718.
1719.
1720.
1721.
1722.
1723.
1724.
D. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
E. Clinic of acute pancreatitis
What manifestation is predominant for pelvic appendicitis?
A. *Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs (dysuria, pulling rectal pain, tenesmi)
B. Clinic of acute abdomen
C. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
D. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
E. Clinic of acute pancreatitis
What manifestation is typical for pelvic appendicitis?
A. *Absence of muscular tenderness
B. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
C. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
D. Clinic of acute abdomen
E. Clinic of acute pancreatitis
What objective manifestations are typical for retrocaecal appendicitis?
A. *Painfulness of anterior rectal wall and posterior vaginal vault
B. Abdominal distension
C. Absence of hepatic dullness
D. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
E. Rigidity of anterior abdominal wall
Where is the pain localized in left-side appendicitis?
A. *Left iliac region
B. Epigastric region
C. Right iliac region
D. Left subcostal region
E. Right lumbar region
What clinical picture is typical for appendicitis in children?
A. *Clinic of destructive forms of appendicitis and intoxication
B. Abdominal distension
C. Absence of dyspeptic manifestation
D. Absence of muscular tenderness
E. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
What does the examination of infant children in acute appendicitis require to use?
A. *Chloralhydrate enema
B. Contrast enema
C. Siphon enema
D. Cleaning enema
E. X-ray with barium swallow
What complication is typical for acute appendicitis?
A. *Appendicular infiltrate
B. Appendicular bleeding
C. Acute intestinal obstruction
D. Appendicular-intestinal fistula
E. Malignization
What complication is typical for acute appendicitis?
A. *Appendicular abscess
1725.
1726.
1727.
1728.
1729.
1730.
1731.
B. Appendicular bleeding
C. Acute intestinal obstruction
D. Appendicular-intestinal fistula
E. Malignization
What is the treatment of appendicular infiltrate?
A. *Conservative treatment
B. Draining operation
C. Appendectomy
D. Hemicolectomy
E. Caecostomy
Typical complications of the appendicitis are:
A. *infiltrate, abscess, peritonitis, pilephlebitis
B. abscess, phlegmon, paraproctitis, pilephlebitis
C. infiltrate, gangrene, paraproctitis, pilephlebitis
D. abscess, phlegmon, peritonitis, pilephlebitis
E. infiltrate, abscess, osteomyelitis, pilephlebitis
For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. *Rovsing's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. *Sitkovsky’s sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. *Bartomier’s sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. *Dunphy's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
1732. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. *Blumberg’s sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
1733. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. *Voskresenky’s sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
1734. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. *Rozdolsky’s sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
1735. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. *Yaure-Rozanov's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
1736. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. *Gabay’s sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
1737. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. *Psoas sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
1738. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. *Obrastsow's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
1739. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign is typical for:
A. *acute appendicitis
B. acute cholecystitis
C. acute intestinal obstruction
1740.
1741.
1742.
1743.
1744.
1745.
1746.
1747.
D. food poisoning
E. acute pancreatitis
Rovsing's sign is typical for:
A. *acute appendicitis
B. acute cholecystitis
C. acute intestinal obstruction
D. food poisoning
E. acute pancreatitis
Sitkovsky’s sign is typical for:
A. *acute appendicitis
B. acute cholecystitis
C. acute intestinal obstruction
D. food poisoning
E. acute pancreatitis
Bartomier’s sign is typical for:
A. *acute appendicitis
B. acute cholecystitis
C. acute intestinal obstruction
D. food poisoning
E. acute pancreatitis
Dunphy's sign is typical for:
A. *acute appendicitis
B. acute cholecystitis
C. acute intestinal obstruction
D. food poisoning
E. acute pancreatitis
Blumberg’s sign is typical for:
A. *acute appendicitis
B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
Rozdolsky’s sign is typical for:
A. *acute appendicitis
B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
Voskresenky’s sign is typical for:
A. *acute appendicitis
B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
Yaure-Rozanov's sign is typical for:
A. *acute appendicitis
1748.
1749.
1750.
1751.
1752.
1753.
1754.
is:
B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
Gabay’s sign is typical for:
A. *acute appendicitis
B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
Psoas sign is typical for:
A. *acute appendicitis
B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
Obrastsow's sign is typical for:
A. *acute appendicitis
B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
Pain in the iliac region during elevation of the leg - is:
A. *Obrastsow's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
D. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
E. Voskresensky's sign
Pain during sliding of hand on abdominal wall - is:
A. *Voskresensky's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
E. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
Strengthening of pain in right iliac region on the left side - is:
A. *Sitkovsky's sign
B. Obrastsow's sign
C. Voskresensky's sign
D. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
E. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
Pain in the right iliac region during palpation of the iliac region on the left side A.
B.
C.
D.
*Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
Sitkovsky's sign
Obrastsow's sign
Voskresensky's sign
1755.
1756.
1757.
1758.
1759.
1760.
1761.
1762.
E. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
Pain during digital examination of rectum - is:
A. *Kulenkampf's sign
B. Obrastsow's sign
C. Voskresensky's sign
D. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
E. Sitkovsky's sign
Pain during percussion by fingers of anterior abdominal wall - is:
A. *Rozdolsky's sign
B. Obrastsow's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
Pain in the right iliac region by pushing of the left - is:
A. *Rovsing's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
Pain during removing of the hand from abdominal wall after its pressing - is:
A. *Shchotkin-Blumberg's sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric is:
A. *Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
Increased pain with coughing is:
A. *Dunphy's sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
Painfulness during palpation of Petit triangle is:
A. *Yaure-Rozanov's sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
Blumberg’s sign in Petit triangle is:
A. *Gabay’s sign
B. Rovsing's sign
1763.
1764.
1765.
1766.
1767.
1768.
1769.
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
Pain on extension of right thigh is:
A. *Psoas sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
What does the Kocher’s sign mean?
A. *Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the
patient lies on the left side.
E. Increased pain with coughing
What does the Rovsing's sign mean?
A. *Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
B. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
C. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the
patient lies on the left side.
D. Increased pain with coughing
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
What does the Sitkovsky’s sign mean?
A. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the
patient lies on the left side.
D. Increased pain with coughing
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
What does the Dunphy's sign mean?
A. *Increased pain with coughing
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the
patient lies on the left side.
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
What does the Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign mean?
A. *The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when
the patient lies on the left side.
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
What does the Blumberg's sign mean?
1770.
1771.
1772.
1773.
1774.
1775.
1776.
A. T*he sharp increase of pain quick taking off the hand during palpation of
anterior abdominal wall.
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
What does the Voskresenky’s sign mean?
A. T*he increase of pain during quick sliding movements by the tips of fingers
from epigastric to right iliac area.
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
What does the Rozdolsky’s sign mean?
A. *Painfulness in a right iliac area during percussion.
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
What does the Yaure-Rozanov sign mean?
A. *Painfulness during palpation of Petit triangle
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
What does the Gabay’s sign mean?
A. *Blumberg’s sign in Petit triangle
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
What does the psoas sign mean?
A. *Pain on extension of right thigh
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
The sign of gas migration is called:
A. *Rovsing's sign
B. Kocher’s sign
C. Sitkovsky’s sign
D. Bartomier’s sign
E. Dunphy's sign
The Rovsing's sign is typical for:
A. *Simple appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
1777.
1778.
1779.
1780.
1781.
1782.
1783.
1784.
C. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
D. Pelvic appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis
The Sitkovsky’s sign is typical for:
A. *Simple appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
D. Pelvic appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis
The Bartomier’s sign is typical for:
A. *Simple appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
D. Pelvic appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis
The Dunphy's sign is typical for:
A. *Simple appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
D. Pelvic appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis
The Blumberg’s sign is typical for:
A. *Phlegmonous appendicitis
B. Simple appendicitis
C. Retrocecal appendicitis
D. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
The Voskresenky’s sign is typical for:
A. *Phlegmonous appendicitis
B. Simple appendicitis
C. Retrocecal appendicitis
D. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
The Rozdolsky’s sign is typical for:
A. *Phlegmonous appendicitis
B. Simple appendicitis
C. Retrocecal appendicitis
D. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
The Yaure-Rozanov sign is typical for:
A. *Retrocecal appendicitis
B. Phlegmonous appendicitis
C. Simple appendicitis
D. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
The Gabay’s sign is typical for:
1785.
1786.
1787.
1788.
1789.
1790.
1791.
A. *Retrocecal appendicitis
B. Phlegmonous appendicitis
C. Simple appendicitis
D. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
The Pasternatsky’s sign is typical for:
A. *Retrocecal appendicitis
B. Phlegmonous appendicitis
C. Simple appendicitis
D. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
The psoas sign is typical for:
A. *Retrocecal appendicitis
B. Phlegmonous appendicitis
C. Simple appendicitis
D. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
The expressed pain in a right lumbar area is typical for:
A. *Retrocecal appendicitis
B. Phlegmonous appendicitis
C. Simple appendicitis
D. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
The dysuria is typical for:
A. *Pelvic appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Phlegmonous appendicitis
D. Simple appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
The pulling rectal pain is typical for:
A. *Pelvic appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Phlegmonous appendicitis
D. Simple appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
The tenesmi are typical for:
A. *Pelvic appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Phlegmonous appendicitis
D. Simple appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
The absence of muscular tenderness is typical for:
A. *Pelvic appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Phlegmonous appendicitis
D. Simple appendicitis
1792.
1793.
1794.
1795.
1796.
1797.
1798.
1799.
E. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
The painfulness of anterior rectal wall is typical for:
A. *Pelvic appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Phlegmonous appendicitis
D. Simple appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
Painfulness of posterior vaginal vault is typical for:
A. *Pelvic appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Phlegmonous appendicitis
D. Simple appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
The painfulness of the left iliac region is typical for:
A. *Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
B. Pelvic appendicitis
C. Retrocecal appendicitis
D. Phlegmonous appendicitis
E. Simple appendicitis
For the simple appendicitis is typical:
A. *Rovsing's sign
B. Blumberg's sign
C. Yaure-Rozanov sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
For the simple appendicitis is typical:
A. *Sitkovsky’s sign
B. Blumberg's sign
C. Yaure-Rozanov sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
For the simple appendicitis is typical:
A. *Bartomier’s sign
B. Blumberg's sign
C. Yaure-Rozanov sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
For the simple appendicitis is typical:
A. *Dunphy's sign
B. Blumberg's sign
C. Yaure-Rozanov sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:
A. *Yaure-Rozanov sign
B. Rovsing's sign
1800.
1801.
1802.
1803.
1804.
1805.
1806.
1807.
C. Blumberg's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:
A. *Gabay’s sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Blumberg's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:
A. *Pasternatsky’s sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Blumberg's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:
A. *Psoas sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Blumberg's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:
A. *Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
B. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
C. The painfulness of the left iliac region
D. Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs
E. Painfulness of anterior rectal wall and posterior vaginal vault
For the retroperitoneal appendicitis is typical:
A. *Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
B. Peritoneal signs
C. The painfulness of the left iliac region
D. Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs
E. Painfulness of anterior rectal wall and posterior vaginal vault
For the left-side appendicitis is typical:
A. *The painfulness of the left iliac region
B. Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
C. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
D. Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs
E. Painfulness of anterior rectal wall and posterior vaginal vault
For the pelvic appendicitis is typical:
A. *Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs
B. The painfulness of the left iliac region
C. Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
D. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
E. Peritoneal signs
For the pelvic appendicitis is typical:
1808.
1809.
1810.
1811.
1812.
1813.
1814.
A. *Painfulness of anterior rectal wall
B. The painfulness of the left iliac region
C. Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
D. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
E. Peritoneal signs
For the pelvic appendicitis is typical:
A. *Painfulness of posterior vaginal vault
B. The painfulness of the left iliac region
C. Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
D. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
E. Peritoneal signs
Characteristic changes in the general blood analysis in appendicitis:
A. *neutrophil leucocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the left
B. neutrophil lymphocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the left
C. neutrophil eosonophilia with deviation of the differential count to the left
D. neutrophil leucocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the right
E. white cells neutrophilia with deviation of the differential count to the right
The most informing method of instrumental diagnostics of acute appendicitis is:
A. *tomography
B. esophagogastroscopy
C. colonoscopy
D. gastroscopy
E. contrasting roentgenoscopy
The most informing method of instrumental diagnostics of acute appendicitis is:
A. *ultrasound examination
B. contrasting roentgenoscopy
C. gastroscopy
D. esophagogastroscopy
E. colonoscopy
Acute appendicitis in the 1st phase is necessary to differentiate from:
A. *gastric ulcer
B. pancreatitis
C. cholecystitis
D. intestinal obstruction
E. strangulated hernia
Appendicular infiltrate is treated:
A. *conservative therapy, then surgery
B. only conservative therapy
C. puncture
D. drainage
E. only surgical treatment
Appendicular infiltrate is treated:
A. *antibiotics, paranephral blockade, detoxication therapy
B. antiseptics, analgesia, antibiotics, anti-inflammatory therapy
C. antibiotics, diuretics, antispasmodic, anti-inflammatory therapy
D. analgesia, antibiotics, diuretics, anti-inflammatory therapy
E. anti-inflammatory drugs, paranephral blockade, detoxication therapy
1815. Appendicular infiltrate appears after:
A. *3-5 days
B. 1-2 days
C. 5-6 days
D. 7-8 days
E. 8-10 days
1816. Conservative treatment of appendicular infiltrate is going on:
A. *1-2 weeks
B. 1 week
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 1-2 months
E. 2-4 months
1817. Appendectomy after the treatment of appendicular infiltrate performed after:
A. *2-4 months
B. 1-2 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 1-2 months
E. 3-5 days
1818. For appendectomy the most suitable surgical access is:
A. *Volkovich-Dyakonov
B. McBurney
C. Lenander
D. Sprengel
E. Kocher
1819. The removal of appendix from apex - is :
A. *antegrade appendectomy
B. retrograde appendectomy
C. retrocecal appendectomy
D. antececal appendectomy
E. laparoscopic appendectomy
1820. The removal of appendix from the base is:
A. *Retrograde appendectomy
B. antegrade appendectomy
C. retrocecal appendectomy
D. antececal appendectomy
E. laparoscopic appendectomy
1821. On the line between the anterior-superior process of the iliac bone and umbilicus
located the point:
A. *McBurney's
B. Kalk's
C. Kehr's
D. Lenander's
E. Volkovich-Dyakonov
1822. The point through which the Volkovich-Dyakonov access is performed located on
the line between anterior-superior process of the iliac bone and umbilicus:
1823.
1824.
1825.
1826.
1827.
1828.
1829.
A. *between external and middle third
B. between external and internal third
C. in the internal third
D. in the middle
E. in external third
Which method of appendectomy is used in children before age 3?
A. *ligation
B. amputation
C. retrograde
D. antegrade
E. laparoscopic
Modern method of appendectomy is:
A. *laparoscopic
B. microlaparotomy
C. laparocentesis
D. laparotomy
E. ligation
After appendectomy the patient stands out of bed on:
A. *first day
B. second day
C. third day
D. fourth day
E. fifth day
During appendectomy the most frequent complication is:
A. *bleeding
B. infiltrate
C. leak of the sutures
D. infecting
E. peritonitis
After appendectomy to early postoperative complications belongs:
A. *peritonitis
B. intestinal fistula
C. ventral hernia
D. ligature fistula
E. colitis
After appendectomy to late postoperative complications belongs:
A. *intestinal fistula
B. appendicular infiltrate
C. pilephlebitis
D. peritonitis
E. colitis
Appendectomy, as a rule, is performed under such anaesthesia:
A. *intravenous anaesthesia
B. local anaesthesia
C. ether anaesthesia
D. conducting anaesthesia
1830.
1831.
1832.
1833.
1834.
1835.
1836.
1837.
E. endotracheal anaesthesia
Pain during palpation in a lumbar region - is the sign:
A. *Yaure-Rozanov sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
Pain during palpation in the Petit triangle - is the sign:
A. *Yaure-Rozanov sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
Pain during palpation in a lumbar region after taking away of the hand is the sign:
A. *Gabay's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
For retrocecal appendicitis is characteristic the sign:
A. *Yaure-Rozanov sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
For retrocecal appendicitis is characteristic the sign:
A. *Gabay's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
For retroperitoneal appendicitis is characteristic the sign:
A. *Pasternatsky's
B. Sitkovsky's
C. Yaure-Rozanov
D. Rovzing's
E. Koer's
Microhematuria is typical for such kind of appendicitis:
A. *retroperitoneal
B. retrocecal
C. pelvic
D. subhepatic
E. left-side
The pelvic appendicitis manifests by:
A. *dysurination
B. dyspepsia
1838.
1839.
1840.
1841.
1842.
1843.
1844.
1845.
C. hyperthermia
D. hematuria
E. dystrophy
The pelvic appendicitis manifests by:
A. *tenesmi
B. spasms
C. myalgia
D. paresis
E. enuresis
For pelvic appendicitis is characteristic the sign:
A. *Kulenkampf's sign
B. Yaure-Rozanov sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Voskresensky's sign
The pelvic appendicitis manifests by:
A. *diarrhea
B. vomiting
C. constipation
D. nausea
E. colicks
The undiagnosed destructive appendicitis complicated by:
A. *infiltrate
B. fistula
C. adhesions
D. bleeding
E. colic
Causes of the appendicular infiltrate development:
A. *late hospitalisation, misdiagnosed appendicitis
B. aggressive infection, impaired immunity
C. adhesions, increased immunity
D. peritonitis, abscessing
E. surgical trauma, infection
The clinical manifestation of appendicular infiltrate is:
A. *swelling
B. the signs of peritoneal irritation
C. muscular tension
D. high temperature
E. leucocytosis
Tumour with fluctuation are the main clinical manifestation of:
A. *appendicular abscess
B. appendicular peritonitis
C. appendicular infiltrate
D. appendicular mesadenitis
E. appendicular typhlitis
The most frequent complications of appendicitis are:
A. *infiltrate, abscess, pilephlebitis, peritonitis
B. infiltrate, abscess, thrombophlebitis, hepatitis
C. conglomerate, adhesions, cystitis, peritonitis
D. infiltrate, conglomerate, hepatitis
E. abscess, peritonitis, adhesions, phlebitis
1846. The peculiarities of the clinical course of appendicitis in children are caused:
A. *by the bailer form of appendix
B. by the tubular form of appendix
C. by hypertrophy of appendix
D. by atrophy of appendix
E. by the spherical form of appendix
1847. Lymphoid hypoplasia determines the peculiarities of the clinical course of
appendicitis in:
A. *children
B. elderly patients
C. pregnant
D. males
E. females
1848. The pain all over the whole abdomen in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. *children
B. females
C. pregnant
D. males
E. elderly patients
1849. The omental hypoplasia influences on the peculiarities of the course of acute
appendicitis in:
A. *children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
1850. Dyspeptic syndrome is characteristic for acute appendicitis in:
A. *children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
1851. The rapid spread of inflammatory process in acute appendicitis is characteristic
for:
A. *children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
1852. Reduced reactivity of the organism influences on the peculiarities of the course of
acute appendicitis in:
A. *elderly patients
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. children
1853. Rapid destruction of the appendix in the course of acute appendicitis is
characteristic for:
A. *elderly patients
B. children
C. pregnant
D. males
E. females
1854. Inexpressive abdominal pain in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
1854.1.A.1.
*elderly patients
B. children
C. females
D. males
E. pregnant
1855. Inexpressive muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall in acute appendicitis is
characteristic for:
1855.1.A.1.
*elderly patients
B. females
C. children
D. pregnant
E. males
1856. Inexpressive leucocytosis in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. *elderly patients
B. females
C. children
D. pregnant
E. males
1857. The expressed deviation of the differential leukocyte count to the left in acute
appendicitis is characteristic for persons :
1857.1.A.1.
*elderly patients
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. children
1858. The clinical manifestation of acute appendicitis does not relate to destructive
changes in the appendix in:
1858.1.A.1.
*elderly patients
B. children
C. females
D. males
E. pregnant
1859. The destructive changes in the appendix don't relate to the clinical manifestation
of acute appendicitis in:
1859.1.A.1.
*elderly patients
B. children
C. females
D. males
E. pregnant
1860. The clinical manifestation of acute appendicitis in pregnancy depends on:
A. *the term of pregnancy
B. degree of inflammatory changes
C. the relation of appendix to peritoneum
D. the duration of appendicitis
E. the form of appendicitis
1861. The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in the first trimester of the
pregnancy are:
A. *typical
B. atypical
C. expressed
D. unexpressed
E. absent
1862. The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in the second trimester of the
pregnancy are:
A. *typical
B. atypical
C. expressed
D. unexpressed
E. absent
1863. The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in the third trimester of the
pregnancy are:
A. *atypical
B. typical
C. expressed
D. unexpressed
E. absent
1864. The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are characterised
by the changes of:
A. *localization of pain
B. severity of pain
C. irradiation of pain
D. duration of pain
E. character of pain
1865. The changes of clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are
caused by:
A. *distension of anterior abdominal wall by uterus
B. inflammation of uterus
C. irritation of anterior abdominal wall by uterus
D. compression of appendix by uterus
E. inflammation of the right ovarium
1866. The changes of clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are
caused by:
A. *absence of muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall
B. absence of tension of the uterus
C. presence of tension of the uterus
D. expressed muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall
E. presence of tension of peritoneum of anterior abdominal wall
1866.2.
The changes in clinical manifestation of acute appendicitis in pregnancy is
characterized :
A. *by the absence of signs of peritoneal irritation
B. by the presence of signs of peritoneal irritation
C. by the presence of expressed signs of peritoneal irritation
D. by displacement of the signs of peritoneal irritation
E. by the change of the character of signs of peritoneal irritation
1867. What is the medical tactic of the acute appendicitis in pregnant:
A. *to operate
B. to prescribe antibiotics
C. to prescribe conservative therapy
D. to observe
E. to interrupt pregnancy
1867.2.
The changes of clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy
are caused by the displacement of appendix in relation to cecum:
A. *upword
B. lateral
C. downword
D. medial
E. retroperitoneal
1868. What is the lethality in acute appendicitis caused by?
A. *late hospitalization
B. tactical errors
C. concomitant diseases
D. technical errors during an operation
E. severity of disease
1869. The bailer form of appendix is characteristic for:
A. *new-born
B. males
C. females
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
1870. The appendix ends its formation at the age of:
A. *7 years
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 3 years
E. 3 months
1871. The purulent inflammation of portal vein as the complication of acute
appendicitis - is:
A. *pilephlebitis
B. mesadenitis
C. tiphlitis
D. thrombophlebitis
E. adnexitis
1872. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with a basal pleurisy is:
A. *X-ray film
B. percussion
C. tomography
D. auscultation
E. bronchoscopy
1873. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with an epigastric form of
myocardial infarction are the changes in:
A. *ECG
B. hemodynamic disturbances
C. expressed shortness of breath
D. auscultation
E. tachycardia
1874. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with intercostal neuralgia
is:
A. *paravertebral blockade
B. laparoscopy
C. microlaparotomy
D. laparocentesis
E. peridural blockades
1875. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with food poisoning is:
A. *frequent vomit
B. single vomit
C. nausea
D. increased peristalsis
E. slow peristalsis
1876. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with gastric phlegmon is:
A. *esophagogastroscopy
B. roentgenoscopy
C. palpation
D. laparocentesis
E. ultrasound examination
1877. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with perforative ulcer of
duodenum is:
A. *absence of hepatic dullness
B. presence of hepatic dullness by percussion
C. absence of the splenic dullness
D. presence of a high tympanic sound by percussion
E. absence of the gastric dullness
1878. The most informative for the differentiation of appendicitis with cholecystitis is:
A. *ultrasound examination
B. X-ray film
C. anamnesis
D. laparocentesis
1878.1.D.1.
laparoscopy
1879. The most informative for the differentiation of appendicitis with pancreatitis is:
A. *ultrasound examination
B. blockades
C. laparostomy
D. laparoscopy
E. X-ray film
1880. The most informative for the differentiation of appendicitis with intestinal
obstruction is:
A. *X-ray film
B. ultrasound examination
C. blockade
D. laparotomy
E. laparoscopy
1881. What form of the appendicitis results in the developing of fibrosis of the
appendix?
A. *chronic
B. phlegmonous
C. catarrhal
D. gangrenous
E. perforative
1882. What form of the appendicitis results in the obliteration of the appendix??
A. *chronic
B. phlegmonous
C. catarrhal
D. gangrenous
E. perforative
1883. Chronic primary appendicitis - is the development of pathological changes in
appendix after:
A. *without the signs of acute appendicitis in anamnesis
B. acute appendicitis
C. appendicular infiltrate
D. appendicular abscess
E. pilephlebitis
1884. To the chronic secondary appendicitis belongs:
A. *residual
B. catarrhal
C. empyema
D. phlegmonous
E. gangrenous
1885. Chronic residual appendicitis arises up after:
A. *acute appendicitis
B. chronic appendicitis
C. colicks
D. recurrent appendicitis
E. primary chronic appendicitis
1886. Chronic residual appendicitis arises up after:
A. *appendicular infiltrate
B. chronic appendicitis
C. recurrent appendicitis
D. colicks
E. primary chronic appendicitis
1887. Chronic residual appendicitis arises up after:
A. *appendicular abscess
B. colicks
C. chronic appendicitis
D. recurrent appendicitis
E. primary chronic appendicitis
1888. The most prominent clinical sign of chronic appendicitis is:
A. *pain by deep palpation
B. pain by percussion
C. pain by superficial palpation
D. skin hyperesthesia
E. pain by bimanual palpation
1889. What form of appendicitis the signs of peritoneal irritation are absent in?
A. *chronic
B. calculous
C. perforative
D. appendicular infiltrate
E. appendicular abscess
1890. Hyperaemia, thickening, oedema of appendix are the signs of:
A. *catarrhal appendicitis
B. phlegmonous appendicitis
C. gangrenous appendicitis
D. gangreno-perforating appendicitis
E. dystrophic appendicitis
1891. Hyperemia, fibrino-purulent fur, pus the lumen are the signs of:
A. *phlegmonous appendicitis
B. catarrhal appendicitis
C. gangrenous appendicitis
D. gangreno-perforative appendicitis
E. dystrophic appendicitis
1892. Black colour, fibrino-purulent fur, pus in the lumen are the signs of:
A. gangrenous appendicitis
B. phlegmonous appendicitis
C. catarrhal appendicitis
D. gangreno-perforative appendicitis
E. dystrophic appendicitis
1893. Black colour, fibrino-purulent fur, perforation are the signs of:
A. *gangreno-perforative appendicitis
B. phlegmonous appendicitis
C. gangrenous appendicitis
D. catarrhal appendicitis
E. dystrophic appendicitis
1894. The peculiarities of the clinical course of appendicitis in children are caused:
A. *by the bailer form of appendix
B. by the tubular form of appendix
C. by hypertrophy of appendix
D. by atrophy of appendix
E. by the spherical form of appendix
1895. Lymphoid hypoplasia determines the peculiarities of the clinical course of
appendicitis in:
A. *children
B. elderly patients
C. pregnant
D. males
E. females
1896. The pain all over the whole abdomen in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. *children
B. females
C. pregnant
D. males
E. elderly patients
1897. The omental hypoplasia influences on the peculiarities of the course of acute
appendicitis in:
A. *children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
1898. Dyspeptic syndrome is characteristic for acute appendicitis in:
A. *children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
1899. For acute appendicitis typical t° is:
A. *38° С
B. 37° С
C. subfebrile
D. 37-39° С
E. 38-40° С
1900. The rapid spread of inflammatory process in acute appendicitis is characteristic
for:
A. *children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
1901. Reduced reactivity of the organism influences on the peculiarities of the course of
acute appendicitis in:
A. *elderly patients
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. children
1902. Rapid destruction of the appendix in the course of acute appendicitis is
characteristic for:
A. *elderly patients
B. children
C. pregnant
D. males
E. females
1903. Inexpressive abdominal pain in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
1903.1.A.1.
*elderly patients
B. children
C. females
D. males
E. pregnant
1904. Inexpressive muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall in acute appendicitis is
characteristic for:
1904.1.A.1.
*elderly patients
B. females
C. children
D. pregnant
E. males
1905. Inexpressive leucocytosis in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. *elderly patients
B. females
C. children
D. pregnant
E. males
1906. For the acute appendicitis, complicated by appendicular infiltrate, in contrast to
the tumour of caecum, is characteristic:
A. *Tendency to diminishing of the tumour in the process of supervision
B. Long-term anamnesis
C. Excretion of blood from rectum
D. Curvuasier's sign
E. Frequent partial intestinal obstruction in anamnesis
1907. The conditions, which contribute to the formation of appendicular infiltrate
include:
A. *Phlegmonous changes of appendix
B. Chronic appendicitis
C. Meckel's diverticulum
D. Pylephlebitis
E. Perforation of appendix
1908. Only during the operation is possible the differential diagnostics of acute
appendicitis with:
A. *terminal ileitis
B. renal colic
C. acute pyelonephritis
D. acute paraproctitis
E. acute pancreatitis
1909. After appendectomy for pregnant is recommended
A. *Application of abortion prophylaxis.
B. More frequent use of peritoneal dialysis
C. Active postoperative period
D. More rare use of peritoneal dialysis
E. More prolonged draining of the abdominal cavity
1910. The distinctive peculiarities of acute appendicitis in the second half of pregnancy
are:
A. *Weak express of pain syndrome, similar to the ligamentary tension of uterus
B. Absence of Volkovcha-Kocher's sign
C. Expressed signs of peritoneal irritation
D. The express local muscular tension in a right iliac area
E. Expressed of Obraztsov's sign
1911. For the differential diagnostics of acute appendicitis with the urology diseases is
not used
A. *Irrigoscopy
B. Urography
C. Cystochromoscopy
D. X-ray of kidneys
E. Urine analysis
1912. In the diagnostics of pelvic appendicitis the most valuable is:
A. *rectal and vaginal examination
B. laboratory analyses
C. laparocentesis
D. laparoscopy
E. colonoscopy
1913. For the retrocaecal appendicitis is not typical:
A. *Volkovcha-Kocher's sign
B. delayed diagnostics
C. late entrance of patients in the hospital
D. frequent development of destructive forms
E. weak expressed signs of peritoneal irritation
1914. For the perforation of appendix is not characteristic:
A. *Decrease of body temperature
B. Acute pain in a right iliac area, especially expressed after false improvement
C. Tension of the abdominal wall at first in a right iliac area, and then spreading
on other departments
D. Increasing swelling of abdomen
E. Leucocytosis
1915. Initially-gangrenous appendicitis differs from inflammatory-gangrenous form
mostly developing in persons:
A. *of elderly age
B. children of early age
C. pregnant in the first half of pregnancy
D. pregnant in the second half of pregnancy
E. with concomitant diseases
Situational tasks
1. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain
in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by
undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, lung sounds by
percussion, by auscultation crackling rales over the lower lobe of the left lung. On Xray of the chest expressed infiltration of lung tissue with areas of enlightenment in the
center. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Abscessing pneumonia.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess.
D. Pyopneumothorax.
E. Bronchiectatic disease.
2. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain
in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by
undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of
percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation weakened breathing with
amphoric sound, crackling rales. On X-ray of the chest expressed infiltration of lung
tissue with enlightenment in the center with fluid level. What is the primary
diagnosis?
A. *Acute lung abscess.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Abscessing pneumonia.
D. Pyopneumothorax.
E. Bronchiectatic disease.
3. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain
in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 months, the onset is caused by
undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of
percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation weakened breathing with
4.
5.
6.
7.
amphoric sound. On X-ray of the chest the destruction cavity with the fibrous capsule
in the projection of lower lobe of the left lung, infiltration of lung tissue is not
determined. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Chronic lung abscess.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain
in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by
undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of
percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation weakened breathing with
amphoric sound. On the X-ray of chest the destruction cavity with the fluid level,
with a clear thin-walled capsule in the projection of the lower lobe of the left lung.
Infiltration of lung tissue is not determined. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Suppurative cyst of the lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain
in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by
undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, over the left lobe a
dull percussion sound, by auscultation the breathing is absent. On X-ray of the chest
the shadow in the basal parts of the left lung with an oblique upper level along
Damuazo's line. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Pleural empyema.
B. Acute lung abscess
C. Chronic lung abscess.
D. Suppurative cyst of the lung.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain
in the left half of the chest, dyspnea. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by
undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of
percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation the breathing is absent. On Xray of the chest the shadow in the basal parts of the left lung with a horizontal fluid
level and enlightenment over it. Is visible the edge of collapsed lung. What is the
primary diagnosis?
A. *Limited pyopneumothorax.
B. Acute lung abscess
C. Chronic lung abscess.
D. Pleural empyema.
E. Total pyopneumothorax.
Complaints of cough with foul-smelling purulent sputum with streaks of blood,
increased body temperature to 40°C, pain in the left half of the chest, dyspnea at rest.
Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half
of the chest during breathing, with a shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound,
by auscultation moist rales over the left lung. On X-ray of the chest expressed
infiltration of the left lung with multiple sites of destruction. What is the primary
diagnosis?
A. *Gangrene of the lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
8. Complaints of cough with foul-smelling purulent sputum with streaks of blood,
increased body temperature to 40°C, pain in the left half of the chest, dyspnea at rest.
Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half
of the chest during breathing, with a shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound,
by auscultation moist rales over the lower lobe of the left lung. On X-ray of the chest
expressed infiltration of left lung tissue with a giant cavity in the lower lobe with the
level of the fluid. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Gangrenous abscess of lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Gangrene of the lung.
9. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain
in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by
undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of
percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation weakened breathing. On X-ray
of the chest paracostal fusiform shadow in the projection of the left lower lobe of the
lung. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Limited empyema.
B. Wide-spread pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Chronic lung abscess.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
10. In the patient on the fourth day after the chest trauma on X-ray - heterogeneous
shadow in the lower lobe. By puncture received a small amount of light yellow fluid
with blood clots. What treatment are the best for the patient?
A. *Drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Operational - lung decortication
C. Daily puncture
D. Resorbed therapy
E. Antibacterial therapy
11. In the patient, 48 years old, on the seventh day after the onset of a moderate pain in
the chest, severe cough, fever to 39°C appeared the bad-smell sputum. The patient's
condition remains grave, with expectoration more than 600 ml of gray-green sputum,
and hectic fever. On X-ray – on the background of the heterogeneous shadow of the
lower lobe of right lung revealed a cavity with a horizontal level of fluid. What is the
primary diagnosis?
A. *Abscess of the right lung
B. Gangrene of the right lung
C. Acute abscess of the right lung
D. Suppuration cyst of the right lung
E. Suppuration tuberculous cavern
12. In the patient, 35 years old, during the physical exertion appeared severe pain in the
left half of the chest. Objectively: the patient is covered with cold sweat, dyspnea,
pain during inspiration. By auscultation: vesicular breathing on the right side, on the
left - is absent. Tachycardia, pulse 100 beats/min. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Angina pectoris
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Left-sided pleurisy
E. Pneumonia
13. The patient A., age 37, entered with complaints of cough with purulent sputum to 150
ml per day, pain in the right half of the chest, fever to 38°C. Has been ill for two
weeks. The day before the entrance to the clinic during cough attack expectorated to
300 ml of purulent bad-smell sputum. On examination: a shortening of the pulmonary
percussion sound under the right scapula, and the weakening of vesicular breathing.
What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Acute lung abscess
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Exacerbation of chronic abscess
D. Exacerbation of bronchoectatic disease
E. Pleural empyema
14. Patient A., aged 42, had been treated for two months for an acute abscess of the upper
lobe of right lung without improvement. The treatment: intramuscular injection of
antibiotics, sulfanilamidns drugs. Remains the cough with purulent sputum to 80-100
ml per day, fever (37,6°C). What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Chronic lung abscess
B. Acute abscess of the right lung
C. Tuberculous cavern
D. Peripheral lung cancer
E. Suppurative cyst of lung
15. The patient, 78 years old, entered with complaints of pain in the left half of the chest,
coughing, with daily 80 ml of mucopurulent sputum, fever to 37,2°C. The X-rays of
the lower lobe of right lung revealed a cavity with irregular internal border and
outside spicules with minor infiltration around. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Hollow form of lung cancer
B. Chronic lung abscess
C. Suppuration cyst of lung
D. Fibro-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Limited empyema
16. The patient has a pyogenic lung abscess, which was complicated by repeated
bleeding., The patient is undergoing the operative treatment. What antibiotics are the
most suitable for preoperative prophylaxis?
A. *Cephalosporins.
B. Penicillin.
C. Macrolides.
D. Aminoglycosides.
E. Fluorohinolones.
17. The patient with bilateral hydrothorax has undergone the repeat pleural puncture of
both sides. After the last puncture felt the deterioration, fever, pain in the chest.
Therapeutist on the next day during pleural puncture on the right obtained the pus.
What is the mechanism of acute right-side empyema?
A. *Contact-aspirating.
B. Lymphogenous.
C. Hematogenous.
D. Implantation.
E. Airborne.
18. The patient has the pyogenic lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding. What
medicines are the most suitable to stop the bleeding?
A. *Vitamin K.
B. Anticoagulants.
C. Antibiotics.
D. Antiaggregants.
E. Prostaglandins.
19. The patient has the lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding. What
medicines are the most suitable to stop the bleeding?
A. *Dicynon.
B. Heparin.
C. Penicillin.
D. Courantil.
E. Alprostan.
20. The patient has the lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding to 200 ml. How
this bleeding is classified?
A. *I degree
B. 0 degree
C. II degree
D. III degree
E. IV degree
21. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the
right half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the
chest during breathing, crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by
percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation - breathing is absent. What is the
primary diagnosis?
A. *Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic
pneumothorax.
B. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side.
C. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic
hemothorax.
D. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic
subcutaneous emphysema.
E. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic
complicated hemothorax.
22. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the
right half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the
chest during breathing, crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by
percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation - breathing is absent. What additional
examination is the most suitable?
A. *Chest X-ray with contrast of the stomach
B. Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity
C. Esophagogastroscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. Tomography of the chest
23. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the
right half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the
chest during breathing, crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by
percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation - breathing is absent. The primary
diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side.
Posttraumatic pneumothorax. What is the typical treatment of rib fracture?
A. *Novocaine block
B. External fixation of ribs
C. Intrmedullary costal osteosynthesis;
D. Mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure
E. Thoracotomy
24. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the
right half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the
chest during breathing, crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by
percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation - breathing is absent. The primary
diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side.
Posttraumatic pneumothorax. What is the treatment of pneumothorax?
A. *Pleural drainage
B. Pleural puncture
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
25. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the
right half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the
chest during breathing, crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by
percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation - breathing is absent. The primary
diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side.
Posttraumatic pneumothorax. Where the drainage of pleural space in pneumothorax is
performed?
A. *II intercostal space, midclavicular line
B. II intercostal space, scapular line
C. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. VII intercostal space, scapular line
26. The patient received chest trauma 14 days ago. Complains of a moderate pain in the
right half of the chest, dyspnea, fever up to 38,5°C. Lag of the right half of the chest
during breathing, narrowing of the intercostal spaces. By percussion - a shortening of
the percussion sound over the right lung, by auscultation - weakening of breathing.
What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Right-side suppurative hemothorax.
B. Right-side posttraumatic pneumonia.
C. Right-side hemothorax.
D. Right-side pyopneumothorax.
E. Consolidated rib fractures.
27. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult
breathing, chest pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of
respiratory movements - 26-28 per 1 min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is
deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The swelling of soft tissues of the
neck with crepitation. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Mediastinal emphysema.
B. Posttraumatic pneumothorax.
C. Posttraumatic hemothorax.
D. Posttraumatic pneumonia
E. Subcutaneous emphysema.
28. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult
breathing, chest pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of
respiratory movements - 26-28 per 1 min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is
deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The swelling of soft tissues of the
neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis: Mediastinal emphysema. What is the
treatment of mediastinal emphysema?
A. *Drainage of anterior mediastinum
B. Conservative treatment
C. Drainage of pleural cavity
D. Novocaine block
E. Pericardial puncture
29. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult
breathing, chest pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of
respiratory movements - 26-28 per 1 min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is
deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The swelling of soft tissues of the
neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis: Mediastinal emphysema. What is the
main cause of mediastinal emphysema?
A. *Disruptions of trachea, bronchi
B. Rib fracture
C. Pneumothorax
D. Hemothorax
E. Mediastinal tumours
30. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult
breathing, chest pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of
respiratory movements - 26-28 per 1 min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is
deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The swelling of soft tissues of the
neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis: Mediastinal emphysema. What does the
mediastinal emphysema result in?
A. *Cardiac tamponade
B. Hemoptysis
C. Pleural empyema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung atelectasis
31. Female patient, 62 years old, was got in accident. On examination was detected the
region of the right half of the chest, which disengages during inspiration. What are the
most appropriate therapeutic measures?
A. *External fixation of a floating area
B. Introduction of narcotic analgetics
C. Vagosympathetic block by Vishnevsky
D. Tight chest bandage
E. Paravertebral blockade
32. In the patient after the accident with multiple rib fracture during the puncture of
pleural cavity received the gastric content. What additional examination is the most
suitable?
A. *Chest X-ray with contrast of the stomach
B. Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity
C. Esophagogastroscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. Tomography of the chest
33. In the patient on the fourth day after the chest trauma on X-ray - heterogeneous
shadow in the lower lobe. By puncture received a small amount of light yellow fluid
with blood clots. What treatment are the best for the patient?
A. *Drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Operational - lung decortication
C. Daily puncture
D. Resorbed therapy
E. Antibacterial therapy
34. In the patient after blunt chest trauma with a sternum fracture appeared the weakness,
hypotension, cyanosis of the upper half of the body, distension of the neck veins. By
pleural puncture the content is absent. Pulse 120 beats.per min, rhythmic, weakened.
What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Cardiac tamponade
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Contusion of the heart
D. Acute myocardial infarction
E. Coagulated hemopericardium
35. The patient entered in 3 hours after the injury with expressed subcutaneous
emphysema of the upper half of the body, dyspnea, tachycardia, pulse - 120
beats/min. On X-ray the pneumothorax was found out with significantly enlargement
of the mediastinum in both sides. What is the first aid?
A. *Drainage of the anterior mediastinum
B. Puncture of the pleural cavity
C. Drainage of the pleural cavity
D. Thoracoscopy
E. Thoracotomy
36. The patient entered in 3 hours after the injury with expressed subcutaneous
emphysema of the upper half of the body, dyspnea, tachycardia, pulse - 120
beats/min. On X-ray the pneumothorax was found out with significantly enlargement
of the mediastinum in both sides. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Mediastinal emphysema.
B. Posttraumatic pneumothorax.
C. Posttraumatic hemothorax.
D. Posttraumatic pneumonia
E. Subcutaneous emphysema.
37. Patient S., 25 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical
and X-ray examination was diagnosed the left-side tension pneumothorax. What is
the first aid?
A. *Drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Intravenous infusion
C. Oxygenotherapy
D. Intubation
E. Analgesics
38. Patient S., 25 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical
and X-ray examination was diagnosed the left-side tension pneumothorax. Where the
drainage of pleural space in pneumothorax is performed?
A. *II intercostal space, midclavicular line
B. II intercostal space, scapular line
C. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. VII intercostal space, scapular line
39. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical
and X-ray examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. Where the drainage
of pleural space in hemothorax is performed?
A. *VII intercostal space, scapular line
B. II intercostal space, midclavicular line
C. II intercostal space, scapular line
D. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
E. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
40. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical
and X-ray examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. What method is the
most informative in the diagnostic of hemothorax?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. General blood analysis
C. Sputum analysis
D. Auscultation
E. X-ray examination
41. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical
and X-ray examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. What test is used to
determine the continuity of pleural bleeding?
A. *Revilour-Greguar's test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
C. Talman's test
D. Mayo-Pratt's test
E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
42. In the patient, 35 years old, during the physical exertion appeared severe pain in the
left half of the chest. Objectively: the patient is covered with cold sweat, dyspnea,
pain during inspiration. By auscultation: vesicular breathing on the right side, on the
left - is absent. Tachycardia, pulse 100 beats/min. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Angina pectoris
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Left-sided pleurisy
E. Pneumonia
43. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of
neck the appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began
to lose his weight. On X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was
revealed the depot of barium like chicken egg by the size and shape. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. *Diverticulum of the esophagus
B. Esophagotraheal fistula
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Stenosis of the esophagus
E. Esophageal achalasia
44. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of
neck the appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began
to lose his weight. On X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was
revealed the depot of barium like chicken egg by the size and shape. What
complication is probable for this disease?
A. *Diverticulitis
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Lung atelectasis
45. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of
neck the appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began
to lose his weight. On X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was
revealed the depot of barium like chicken egg by the size and shape. What is the
typical treatment of this disease?
A. *Surgical treatment
B. Spasmolytics
C. Analgetics
D. Nonsteroid antiinflammatory drugs
E. Antibiotics
46. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of
neck the appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began
to lose his weight. On X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was
revealed the depot of barium like chicken egg by the size and shape. What operation
is performed in this disease?
A. *Resection of diverticulum
B. Esophagomyotomy
C. Esophagogastric anastomosis
D. Extirpation of esophagus
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
47. To the hospital entered a man in the critical condition: acrocyanosis, dyspnea,
subcutaneous emphysema on the neck and upper part of body. Complains of severe
pain behind the breastbone and epigastrium. The body temperature of 38,9°C, pulse
130 beats/min, blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg. From anamnesis 6 years ago after
drinking appeared the vomit, which resulted in the signatic. What is the primary
diagnosis?
A. *Spontaneous rupture of esophagus
B. Incarceration of paraesophageal hernia
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Perforated ulcer
48. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus,
periodic vomiting. Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food
on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15 kg of body weight. There were constipations,
stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence of the gas bubble of the
stomach. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Achalasia of esophagus
B. Peptic stenosis of the esophagus
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Diverticulum of the esophagus
E. Sliding esophageal hernia
49. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus,
periodic vomiting. Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food
on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15 kg of body weight. There were constipations,
stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence of the gas bubble of the
stomach. What stage of dysphagia relates to such manifestations?
A. *II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
50. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus,
periodic vomiting. Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food
on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15 kg of body weight. There were constipations,
stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence of the gas bubble of the
stomach. What is the roentgenological sign of this disease in contrast X-ray with
barium?
A. *"Rat tail" sign
B. Filling defects
C. "Niche" sign
D. "Bell" sign
E. Blunt His angle
51. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus,
periodic vomiting. Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food
on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15 kg of body weight. There were constipations,
stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence of the gas bubble of the
stomach. What is the main method of diagnostic of this disease?
A. *X-ray examination with barium swallow
B. Pleural punctere
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Irrigoscopy
52. On X-ray of the esophagus in the right lateral projection in the middle third on the
front wall was found out the additional shadow, of round shape with smooth contours
to 2 cm in diameter. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Diverticulum of the esophagus
B. Achalasia of the esophagus
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Chemical burn of the esophagus
E. Diaphragmatic hernia
53. The tool dilation of burn and peptic stricture of the esophagus has a risk of
perforation with the development of purulent mediastinitis and pleural empyema.
What is the least dangerous method for perforation should be applied in the first
attempt of dilation of the stricture?
A. *Dilatation of the stricture by balloon dilatator with a stable diameter of the
cylinder.
B. Bouginage under the control of esophagoscope.
C. Bouginage along the metal conductor.
D. The blind bouginage under local anesthesia.
E. Bouginage under the control of X-ray
54. Female complains of difficult passing of food through esophagus, vomiting by
unchanged food, regurgitation in night and weight loss. Anamnesis about 10 years.
On X-ray study revealed achalasia of esophagus of the IV stage with S-shaped
deformation. What is the optimal treatment?
A. *Operation esophagocardiomyotomy with plastic by the stomach fundus.
B. Cardiodilatation by hard probe.
C. Cardiodilatation balloon probe.
D. Operation esophago-fundoanastomosis by Heyrovsky.
E. Resection of the cardia with esophageal anastomosis.
55. Female complains of difficult passing of food through esophagus, vomiting by
unchanged food, regurgitation in night and weight loss. Anamnesis about 10 years.
On X-ray study revealed achalasia of esophagus of the IV stage. What is the
characteristic feature of the IV stage of this disease?
A. *Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
B. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
C. Asymptomatic
D. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
E. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained
peristalsis
56. Patient 52 entered the clinic with complaints of complete obstruction of the
esophagus, salivation, weakness, t-38,7°C. Dysphagia has been for 8 days, after the
swallowing of piece of the meat with bone. On X-ray the barium delays at the middle
third of the esophagus. On fibroesophagoscopy was found a wedged bone with
hyperemia and edema of the mucous membrane, covered by fibrin. What is the
optimal treatment strategy in this case?
A. *Surgical treatment: thoracotomy, esophagotomy, removal of foreign body
(bone), suturing of the esophagus + gastrostomy.
B. Endoscopic removal of foreign body by rigid esophagoscope
C. Pushing of foreign body in the stomach by bougie.
D. Removal of foreign body by the Fogarty's probe
E. Removal of foreign body by fiberoptic endoscope.
57. Among the methods of esophageal plastic the most physiologic and safe modern
method is:
A. *Isoperistaltic plastic by tube of the greater curvature of the stomach after the
extirpation of the esophagus through a cervical-laparotomy access.
B. Large intestine plastic in antiperistaltic position of the transplant.
C. Large intestine plastic in isoperistaltic position of the transplant.
D. Large intestine plastic with a skin flap.
E. Large intestine plastic by ileocecal segment.
58. The patient has the postburn stenosis of the esophagus. After the next bouginage felt
the fever, tachycardia, pain behind the breastbone. On X-ray: the horizontal level of
fluid in the posterior mediastinum. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Acute posterior mediastinitis.
B. Acute anterior mediastinitis.
C. Diverticulum of the esophagus.
D. Acute pleural empyema.
E. Paraesophageal hernia.
59. Complaints of burning, pain behind the breastbone, loss of weight. Has been ill for 7
months. Last 2 weeks noticed difficult passing of solid food. On contrasting X-ray
was diagnosed: filling defect of lower thoracic part of the esophagus, a "niche" sign
of the lesser curvature of stomach. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Gastric ulcer
B. Paraesophageal hernia
C. Decompensated pyloric stenosis
D. Sliding esophageal hernia
E. Peptic duodenal ulcer
60. Complaints of the pain behind the breastbone, difficult passage of solid food, weight
loss, dizziness. Has been ill for 3 months. Last 2 days disturbs the vomiting after fluid
food, the stagnation of fluid food. On EGDS severe narrowing of the esophagus,
rigidity of the walls, hyperemic mucosa without folds. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. *Esophageal cancer
B. Sliding esophageal hernia
C. Paraesophageal hernia
D. Reflux esophagitis
E. Varicose veins of the esophagus
61. In the patient six months ago appeared the complaints of pain behind the sternum and
a strong burning sensation in the esophagus. Sometimes observed dysphagia. On Xray examination found the presence of diverticulum of the left wall of esophagus at
the level of tracheal bifurcation 3?4 cm, just below the aortic arch. The patient was
not treated. What tactics of treatment should be choused?
A. *Right-side thoracotomy, diverticulectomy.
B. Left-side thoracotomy, diverticulectomy.
C. Right-side thoracotomy, resection of the esophagus.
D. Large intestine plastic of esophagus
E. Large intestine plastic of esophagus
62. The woman aged 52 complains of pain behind the breastbone, difficult passing of
solid food through esophagus, increased salivation. The doctor advised 0,1 % solution
of atropine before eating. After 3 days on X-rays no pathology was revealed. The
doctor should do for this patient:
A. *Send to fibroesophagoscopy
B. Allow the job
C. Control visit after 2 months
D. Treatment by spasmolytics
E. Send to ECG
63. The woman, 38 years old, complains of difficulty passage of solid meal on
esophagus, vomiting by undigested food, night regurgitation (sign of ,,wet pillow"),
loss of weight. Has been ill for 10 years. On X-ray examination with barium the sign
of "rat tail", dilation of the esophagus to 6 cm with maintained peristalsis. What stage
of achalasia is there in this patient?
A. *II
B. I
C. 0
D. III
E. IV
64. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn,
especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum
occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of
consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. *Sliding esophageal hernia, reflux esophagitis
B. Diverticulum of the esophagus
C. Varicose veins of the esophagus
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E. Crohn's disease.
65. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn,
especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum
occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of
consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What
roentgenological sign confirms the pathology?
A. *"Bell" sign
B. "Rat tail" sign
C. Filling defects
D. "Bird-beak" sign
E. Esophageal dilatation
66. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn,
especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum
occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of
consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What drugs
are used for the treatment of this pathology?
A. *Blockers of proton pomp
B. Spasmolytics
C. Adrenoblockers
D. Blockers of calcium channel
E. Anticoagulants
67. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn,
especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum
occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of
consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What disease
should be this pathology differentiated from?
A. *Peptic ulcer
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
68. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn,
especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum
occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of
consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What is the
main treatment of this pathology?
A. *Conservative treatment
B. Esophagostomy
C. Esophageal plastic
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
69. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn,
especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum
occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of
consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What type of
operation is used for treatment of this pathology?
A. *Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
B. Esophagostomy
C. Cruroplasty
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
70. After the birth of the child appeared the signs of respiratory failure. By auscultation
on the left side the breathing is absent. On X-ray expressed mediastinal shift to the
right, the presence of protrusion on the left side. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Left-sided diaphragmatic hernia
B. Hypoplasia of right lung
C. Polycistosis of the left lung
D. Relaxation of the diaphragm
E. Esophageal stricture
71. The patient, 45 years old, complains of retrosternal pain, which increase at night,
heartburn, belching. Has been ill for 4 months. What research is the most appropriate?
A. *X-ray contrast study in Trendelenburg's position.
B. Plain chest X-ray
C. Fibroesophagogastroduodenoscopy
D. Plain X-ray of the abdominal cavity.
E. Computer tomography
72. The patient, 45 years old, complains of retrosternal pain, which increase at night,
heartburn, belching. Has been ill for 4 months. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Sliding esophageal hernia, reflux esophagitis
B. Diverticulum of the esophagus
C. Varicose veins of the esophagus
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E. Crohn's disease.
73. What is the most wide-spread cause of the peptic stricture of esophagus associated
with reflux-esophagitis?
A. *Sliding esophageal hernia.
B. Prolonged nasogastric intubation in the esophagus.
C. Short stay nasogastric intubation.
D. Frequent vomiting of pregnancy.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
74. X-ray signs: the "bell" sign, blunt Hiss angle, absence of gas bubble of the stomach
are characteristic for:
A. *Sliding esophageal hernia.
B. Paraesophageal hernia.
C. Relaxation of the diaphragm.
D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
75. The patient has the pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, which increases after the
meal. Has been ill for 6 months. For 5 days has a black chair. On X-ray examination
revealed the "bell" sign, blunt Hiss angle, absence of gas bubble of the stomach. What
is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Sliding esophageal hernia.
B. Paraezofagalnaya esophageal hernia.
C. Relaxation of the diaphragm.
D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
76. Complaints of heaviness in the epigastric region, nagging pain after eating. When
EGDS pathology identified. On X-ray examination pronounced gas bubble of the
stomach is is visible the to the level III intercostal space on the left. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. *Relaxation of the diaphragm.
B. Paraezofagalnaya esophageal hernia.
C. Sliding esophageal hernia.
D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus.
77. The patients with sliding esophageal hernia mostly complain of:
A. *Heartburn, pain behind the breastbone.
B. Difficult passage of food, loss of weight.
C. The pain behind the breastbone, difficulty in food passage.
D. Pain in the epigastric region with irradiation into the right hypochondrium.
E. Pain in the epigastric region with irradiation into the back.
78. Complications paraesophageal hernias of esophagus:
A. *Incarceration
B. Malignancy.
C. Esophageal stricture.
D. Dysphagia.
E. Reflux esophagitis.
79. In the patient at night appeared a severe pain in the epigastric region, nausea,
vomiting. 6 months ago was diagnosed paraesophageal hernia. What complication
arose?
A. *Incarceration
B. Malignancy.
C. Esophageal stricture.
D. Dysphagia.
E. Reflex esophagitis.
80. In the patient at night appeared a severe pain in the epigastric region, nausea,
vomiting. 6 months ago was diagnosed paraesophageal hernia. What type of
operation is is indicated for this patient?
A. *Cruroplasty
B. Esophagostomy
C. Resection of the esophagus
D. Resection of the stomach
E. Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
81. Complaints of heartburn, pain behind the breastbone, outpour of food. Has been ill for
2 months. On X-ray examination revealed the "bell" sign, blunt Hiss angle, absence
of gas bubble of the stomach. Your tactics?
A. *Conservative therapy.
B. Bouginage of esophagus.
C. Surgical intervention.
D. Large-intestinal plastic of esophageal cardia.
E. Small-intestinal plastic of esophageal cardia.
82. The patient has the postburn stenosis of the esophagus. After the next bouginage felt
the fever, tachycardia, pain behind the breastbone. On X-ray: the horizontal level of
fluid in the posterior mediastinum. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Acute posterior mediastinitis.
B. Acute anterior mediastinitis.
C. Diverticulum of the esophagus.
D. Acute pleural empyema.
E. Paraesophageal hernia.
83. Complaints of burning, pain behind the breastbone. Has been ill for 4 months. On
contrasting X-ray was diagnosed: the "bell" sign, the absence of gas bubble of the
stomach, blunt Hiss angle. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Sliding esophageal hernia
B. Paraesophageal hernia
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Peptic duodenal ulcer
E. Decompensated pyloric stenosis
84. 5 hours ago, after the bouginage of esophageal cicatricle stricture appeared the pain
behind the breastbone, a feeling of compression, subcutaneous crepitation on the
neck, fever to 38,5°C. On examination the weakening of the heart tones by
auscultation. On plain X-ray of chest – mediastinal emphysema, mediastinal
extension of the shadows. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Acute mediastinitis
B. Reflux esophagitis
C. Sliding esophageal hernia
D. Paraesophageal hernia
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
85. A 34-year-old female with hypertension is considering to become a pregnant. Which
of the following medications would be absolutely contraindicated to control her BP
during pregnancy?
A. Methyldopa
B. Metoprolol
C. Labetalol
D. *Captopril
E. Nifedipine
86. A 34-year-old male with isolated essential hypertension came to clinic and it was
found high BP of 180/100 mm Hg after failure of behavioral modifications. What is
the most appropriate next step?
A. Start hydrochlorothiazide
B. *Start hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril
C. Repeat BP in 4 weeks
D. Start amlodipine
E. Start doxazozin
87. A 34-year-old male with isolated essential hypertension came to clinic and it was
found high BP of 180/100 mm Hg item after failure of behavioral modifications.
What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Start hydrochlorothiazide
B. *Start hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril
C. Repeat BP in 4 weeks
D. Start amlodipine
E. Start doxazozin
88. A 40-year-old diabetic patient with a blood pressure (BP) of 145/90 mm Hg item and
proteinuria. Which BP profile represents the best therapeutic goal for this patient?
A. 160/90
B. 140/90
C. 130/85
D. *125/75
E. 140/85
89. A 40-year-old diabetic patient presents with a blood pressure (BP) of 145/90 mm Hg
item and proteinuria. What is the best medication for the initial management of this
patient’s hypertension?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. Beta blockers
C. *ACE-inhibitors / angiotensin receptor blockers
D. Alpha blockers
E. Diuretics
90. A 42-year-old female with chronic obsctructive pulmonary disease is found on
multiple office visits to have elevated BP measurements. Which of the following
medications is contraindicated?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Metoprolol
C. Lisinopril
D. *None of above
E. All of the above
91. A 42-year-old male comes in for a routine physical examination. He is noted to have
impaired glucose methabolism, and a BP of 135/85 mmHg. What is the best treatment
plan for this individual?
A. *Aggressive lifestyle modification
B. Institute thiazide diuretic regimen
C. No treatment at this time
D. Initiate an ACE-inhibitor
E. Initiate a beta-blocker
92. A 45-year-old male comes in for a routine physical examination. He is noted to have
impaired glucose methabolism, and a BP of 140/85 mmHg. What is the best treatment
plan for this individual?
A. *Aggressive lifestyle modification
B. Institute thiazide diuretic regimen
C. No treatment at this time
D. Initiate an ACE-inhibitor
E. Initiate a beta-blocker
93. A 48-year-old male with diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia has a
hypertensive emergency. His arterial pressure is 150/100 mmHg item. Which
medications would be most appropriate therapy for this patient?
A. *Nitroprusside
B. Enteral metoprolol
C. Fenoldopam
D. Intravenous nitroglycerine
E. Any of the above
94. ?A 48-year-old obese male with hypertension, dyslipidemia, and diabetes mellitus
presents to the outpatient clinic for his yearly physical. He has refused medications in
the past, but now is willing to consider treatment. His BP is 145/95 mmHg with a HR
of 80 bpm. His laboratory data are significant for the presence of microalbuminuria.
Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate?
A. Carvedilol
B. Methyldopa
C. *Lisinopril
D. Chlorthalidone
E. Terazozin
95. A 48-year-old obese male with hypertension, dyslipidemia, and diabetes mellitus
presents to the outpatient clinic for his yearly physical. He has refused medications in
the past, but now is willing to consider treatment. His BP is 145/95 mmHg with a HR
of 80 bpm. His laboratory data are significant for the presence of microalbuminuria.
Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate?
A. Carvedilol
B. Methyldopa
C. *Lisinopril
D. Chlorthalidone
E. Terazozin
96. A 56-year-old male on hydralazine, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, and metoprolol
begins to develop a malar rash and arthralgias. Which of the above antihypertensive
agents is known to cause drug-induced lupus?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Lisinopril
C. *Hydralazine
D. Metoprolol
E. None of the above
97. A 53-year-old male on hydralazine, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, and metoprolol
begins to develop a malar rash and arthralgias. Which of the above antihypertensive
agents is known to cause drug-induced lupus?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Lisinopril
C. *Hydralazine
D. Metoprolol
E. None of the above
98. A 60-year old white man consults you with a headache. Examination data are
unremarkable, except that the blood pressure is raised and subsequent measurements
confirm readings of 170/106 mmHg. He is obese, smokes 15 cigarettes per day and
drinks 2 pints of beer per day. His investigations reveal a cholesterol of 6 mmol/l with
a normal blood sugar and electrolyte profile and normal renal function. There is no
evidence of target organ damage.
A. This man needs immediate treatment with antihypertensive drugs, aspirin and
a statin
B. *Initiate antihypertensive therapy with two-drug combination
C. At this age it is far more important to control the hyperlipidaemia than the BP
D. This man’s blood pressure could be wholly ascribed to his alcohol intake
E. This patient can be observed and counseled on maintaining a reasonable BMI
99. A 62-year-old man with isolated essential hypertension, currently taking
hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg PO daily, comes to you for his first clinic visit. He notes
that his BP at home is always less than 140/80 mmHg, but in clinic it is always at
least 155/95 mmHg. What is the next step?
A. Increase dose of thiazide
B. Addition of second antihypertensive medication
C. *Do nothing as he has white coat hypertension
D. Evaluate for secondary causes of hypertension
E. Start metoprolol
100. A 62-year-old man with isolated essential hypertension, currently taking
hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg PO daily, comes to you for his first clinic visit. He notes
that his BP at home is always less than 140/80 mmHg item, but in clinic it is always
at least 155/95 mmHg. What is the next step?
A. Increase dose of thiazide
B. Addition of second antihypertensive medication
C. *Do nothing as he has white coat hypertension
D. Evaluate for secondary causes of hypertension
E. Start metoprolol
101. At a routine examination, an asymptomatic 46-year-old man is found to have a BP
of 150/110 mmHg item, but no other abnormalities are present. What do you do next?
A. Reassure the patient and repeat the physical examination in 12 months
B. Initiate antihypertensive therapy
C. *Obtain repeated BP recordings in your office and/or the patient’s home or
work site
D. Hospitalize patient for renal arteriography
E. Order a 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring
102. For the case below, select the most significant adverse effect of the
antihypertensive and/or cardiac agent in question: a 45-year old female has been on
diuretic, but BP remains elevated at 145/95, leading to the proposed addition of
lisinopril. Which key potential adverse effect should be discussed?
A. Increased triglyceride levels
B. Peripheral edema
C. Lupus-like syndrome
D. *Cough
E. Gynecomastia
103. For the case below, select the most significant adverse effect of the
antihypertensive and/or cardiac agent in question: a 58-year old male truck driver has
significant hypertension, still not controlled on a diuretic plus calcium channel
blocker. Clonidine is being considered as the next medication, but in this patients is
concerned by sedation, sexual dysfunction.
A. Increased triglyceride levels
B. Cough
C. Gynecomastia
D. *Rebound hypertension
E. Urinary retention
104. For the case below, select the most significant adverse effect of the
antihypertensive and/or cardiac agent in question: a 68-year old male with advanced
chronic heart failure and BP 145/90 will have spironolactone therapy, but should be
informed about possible side effect.
A. Increased triglyceride levels
B. Peripheral edema
C. Lupus-like syndrome
D. Cough
E. *Gynecomastia
105. In patients with a history of stroke or TIA the preferred drug combination is:
A. *ACE-inhibitor and diuretic
B. Calcium-channel blocker and beta-blocker
C. Beta-blocker and diuretic
D. Angiotensin receptor blocker and beta blocker
E. Beta- and alpha blocker
106. The initial antihypertensive medication recommended for patients who have no
compelling indications or contraindications is
A. ACE-inhibitor
B. Calcium-channel blocker
C. Diuretics
D. Beta blocker
E. *Any of the above
107. To reduce the patient’s cardiovascular morbidity and mortality, which therapy
would you prescribe?
A. Hydralazine
B. Atenolol
C. *Losartan
D. Doxazosin
E. Clonidine
108. What is the appropriate course of action regarding the patient’s antihypertensive
therapy?
A. Advise a low-sodium diet
B. *Finish doxazosin therapy and consider an alternative agent
C. Advise high dietary intake of calcium and potassium
D. Increase the doxazosin to 4 mg a day
E. Advise magnesium supplements
109. You see a diabetic patient presents with BP readings that are 155/95 or higher. All
of the following statements about the treatment of this patient's hypertension are
correct EXCEPT:
A. Pharmacologic blocade of the renin-angiotensin system reduces the risk of
both microvascular and macrovascular events
B. Aggressive BP control reduces cardiovascular events more in diabetics than in
nondiabetics
C. *Calcium channel blockers show no benefit in reducing cardiovascular events
D. The goal BP for this patient is <130/80 mmHg
E. All the above statements are correct
110. During the operation concerning strangular impassability of bowels, which
conducted under general anaesthesia of i/v with ALV, at a patient the stop of cardiac
diyal-nosti happened 50 years in the moment of mesenretium streching by the
surgeon. What would prevent the stop of heart in this case?
A. *i/v injection atropin
B. i/v injection of cardiac glycozidis
C. Deepening of general anaesthesi
D. Additional injection of relaxants
E. Additional injection droperidol
111. Patient 30 years after a road-transport failure complaints of the acute tahypno
Ob-ly: a skin is pale, cyanosi Hypodermic emphysema in the region of thorax,
stomach, right side of the neck. Auscultative: breathing on the right side is not
conducted; pulse – 130/min., AP – 80/60 mm.mercury., CVP – 140 mm wt., FB – 30
/min., Ht – 0,27, Hb – 90 g/l. Subsequent therapy must include above all things:
A. *punction of pleura cavity.
B. Urgent ALV
C. Massive infusion therapy of the crystalloid solutions
D. Infusion of dofamin, 2-5 mcg/cg/min
E. 100% oxygen
112. Patient has BP - 80/40 mm mercury, pulse - 120 per min, shock index for him:
A. *120/80=1,5
B. 80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
113. Patient N., 47 years, treated in the hospital with the diagnosis: carbuncle of right
kidney. Suddenly general condition deteriorated, body temperature 39.50 C, skin
cold, humid, consciousness kept, expressed choking. Breath deep, noisy, 26/min.
Pulse - 110/min., SC - 90/60 mm.mercury., oliguri Which complications we can
think about?
A. *Infectious-toxic shock
B. Vascular dystonia
C. Epilepsy
D. Anaphylactic shock
E. Orthostatic collapse
114. Patient, 40 years, with the trauma of both thighs is delivered from the scene of
accident by a “passing transport”. Objectively: cyanosys, rubor of the lower half of
the neck, tahypnoe, AP 60/40 mm mer st., HBA=120 /min, in lungs moist wheezes,
diuresis – 20 ml/h., Nb 100 g/l. Which from the offered diagnoses most reliable?
A. *Fatty embolism
B. Traumatic shock
C. Hemorhagic shock
D. Pain shock
E. Tromboembolism
115. The patient 60 years is delivered in the department of intensive therapy with a
diagnosis: bite of bee, anafilactic shock.. Which medicine will be primary and most
effective?
A. Adrenalin
B. Calcium the chloride
C. Prednizolon
D. Dimedrol
E. Suprastin
116. The patient 25 years is hospitalized in the surgical department with a diagnosis:
penetrable wound of abdominal region. Objectively: it is excited, skin covers and
visible mucous shells are pale; peripheral pulse of the weak filling, frequent, AP –
110/60 mm mercury Positive symptom of ”desolation” of peripheral hypodermic vein
Diuresis is lowere How to characterize this state?
A. The compensated shock
B. Preagonia
C. Circulating shock
D. Agony
E. Irreversible shock
117. The patient 36 years with ulcerous of gaster in anamnesis is hospitalized in the
surgical department with complaints on vomiting by "coffee-grounds", diarhea,
moderately expressed thirst. Objectively: a skin is pale, covered by a death-damp, a
tongue is dry, AP – 80/60 mm rt.st., HBA – 120/min., BF – 28/min., diuresis – 25
ml/h. Blood test: Era - 2,8 1012/l, Hb – 98 g/l. What will be most expedient in
medical treatment:
A. *solutions with colloid
B. 5% solution of glucose
C. Whole blood
D. Red corpuscles mass
E. Colloid solutions with red corpuscles mass
118. 118. Patient 48 years the second day in dpartment of intensive therapy concerning
the acute front-partition heart attack of myocardium. During a review “wheezing”
suddenly, non-permanent tonic constricting of muscles is marked, pupils are
extended, pulse on carotis not palpitat What doctor have to do in the first place?
A. Triple Safar method
B. Record of ECG
C. Cardial hit in the area of heart
D. Artificial respiration by the method of Silvester
E. Intracardial injection of adrenalin with an atropine
119. The patient entered the department with a diagnosis: acute intestinal
impassability. Complaints: insignificant thirst, dizziness at an attempt to get up from a
be At a review: patient apathetical, turgor is lowered, eyeballs are soft, tongue is dry
with crack Pulse – 110 min., AP – 80 /60 mm of mer item, diuresis – 25 ml /h.
Electrolyte composition: Na+ - 142 mmol/l, C+ - 4 mmol/l, glucose – 6 mmol/l, urea
– 7 mmol/l. What variant of infusion is most expedient during operation?
A. *Transfusion of crystalloid
B. Transfusion of solution of glucos
C. Transfusion of albumen.
D. Transfusion of native plasm
E. Transfusion of poliglucin.
120. The patient, 28 years, 2 hours ago fell down from the ground floor of hous Sopor,
pale, there are the plural scratches of face, the lacerated hemorhagic wounds on the
left forearm. The closed break of the left shoulder and thigh. Pulse –110, Lc-10T/l,
Hb – 100, AP – 90/40 mm of rt. item In the blood test: red corpuscles – 3,5 g/l. What
infouziyniy serednic does not need to be used for medical treatment of shock?
A. *5% solution of glucose
B. Solution of crystalloids
C. Solutions gelatin
D. Solutions of calcium
E. Solution of albumen
121. Anafilactic shock appeared at a patient. The state heavy and progressively gets
wors HBA – 110 in a 1 minute, AP – 60/30 mm mercury. Prescribe medicine for the
rescue of life of patient above all things?
A. *Adrenalin.
B. Chloride of calcium.
C. Prednizolon.
D. Dofamin.
E. Suprastin.
122. At a patient 20 years on a background the injection of vitamin B1 suddenly there
was excitation, fear of death, falling of AP to 50 mm rt.st., hard breathing. Which of
medicine it is necessary to inject firstly?
A. *Adrenalin
B. Prednizolon
C. Calcium
D. Dimedrol
E. Eufilin
123. At a patient 60 years with the third day after an exterpation uterus acute
insufficiency of breathing developed suddenly, a skin became at first cyanotic, and
then ash-colored color. Tachypnoe, cough with bloody sputum, retrosternal pain. BP
– 100/70 mm. mercury, HR – 120, BR – 32 in 1 min., CVP – 300 mm wt.col. What
most reliable reason of worsening of the state of patient ?
A. *Tromboemboliya of pulmonary artery
B. Bleeding
C. Pain shock
D. Hypostatic pneumonia
E. Heart attack of myocardium
124. At a patient in the ward of intensive therapy you marked appearance on the
monitor of fibrillation of ventricule Your first actions?
A. *To conduct defibrillation three times
B. To inject adrenalin
C. To inject a chloride
D. To begin the closed massage of heart
E. To inject lidocain
125. At a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium best of all to warn
relapsing fibrillation of ventricles with :
A. cordaronum
B. lidocainum
C. ornidinum
D. *electrocardiostimulation
E. there is no right answer
126. At a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium in the region of partition
on a 5th day after the brief episode of loss of consciousness there is reduction of
frequency of pulse to 32 in a minut BP - 80/40 mm Consciousness at the level of
sopor. He immediately needs :
A. to put right a craniotserebral hypothermia, to enter lasics, prednisoloni,
tserebrolizin
B. to enter an atropine, eoufilin, to begin infouziyo of aloupenta
C. *to conduct urgent cardiostimoulation
D. all answers are faithful
E. there is no right answer
127. At a patient, carried to a 2 year ago the heart attack of myocardium, the acute
decline of cholecystyties planned cholecystectomy, signs of electric instability of
myocardium . Actions of anaesthesiologist must include:
A. injection of prednisoloni, lidocaini, hyperventilation, take the ECG
B. *injection of dopamini, after stabilisation of BP - nitroglycerine + infusion
therapy under the control CVP, conducting of neurovegetative defence, take
the ECG
C. injection of streptodecasol, stream infusion of reopoliglyocinum, injection of
lidocainum, increase of dose of analgetics
D. correctly A) and C)
E. all answers are faithful
128. At a patient, that is found on medical treatment in the therapeutic department, the
sudden stopping of circulation of blood happene Medical personnel begun the
reanimation measure Define the most rational way of injection of adrenalin for
renewal of heart abbreviations in default of vein access:
A. *To enter to a 3 ml solution of adrenalin in a trache
B. To enter to a 1 ml solution of adrenalin in muscl
C. To enter adrenalin in muscle, multiplying a dose in 3 time
D. The intracardial injection.
E. Adrenalin can be not entere
129. At a patient, that is found under the permanent electrocardioscopic supervision,
microwave fibrillation of myocardium and diagnosed clinical death develope It is
necessary to do:
A. to inject the solution of calcium in cor
B. *to conduct high-voltage electric defibrillation
C. to inject solution of atropine in cor
D. to inject solution of adrenalin in cor
E. All answers are wrong
130. At the patient operated concerning the festering peritonitis coused by perforation
of gastric ulcer, in a postoperation period appeared: high temperature, frequency of
breathing 35/min., AP – 70/40 mm of mer item, diuresis -20 ml/h temperature of
body to 39 , leucocitosi Transfusion during 12 hours 1,8 of a 0,9% solution of
chlorous sodium and 0,8 of solution of reopoliglucin did not improve general
condition. Central vein pressure – 130 mm wt.st. For stabilization of hemodinamics
will be optimum infusion:
A. *Dopamin
B. Mezaton
C. Adrenalin
D. Noradrenalin
E. Ephedrine
131. At the ventilated patient with the edema of lungs at low pressure and septic shock
intravenous infusion 7,5 mcg/kg/min dopamini will increase
A. RaO2, saturation of oxygen of the mixed vein blood, consumption of oxygen
B. diuresis
C. *cardiac systolic volume
D. right A) and B)
E. faithful all answers
132. In 2 hours after renewal of cardial activity at a patient, that carried the sudden stop
of heart on a background hemorhagic shock (blood lost near 2,5 l) and is found on
ALV, unstable hemorhagia (AP – 80/40 – 90/60 mm of mer item, tahycardia)is
marked, central vein pressure – 5 mm wt.st. It is related to:
A. *By Hypovolume syndrome
B. By cardia insufficiency
C. By the inadequate interchange of gases
D. Vasoplegia
E. By the inadequate anaesthetizing
133. In a clinic a patient with the traumatic tearing of both lower extremities off at the
level of knee-joints is delivere A patient is extremly inert, languid, pale, pulse 140
bmin, threadlike, AP 500. On both lower extremities there are the imposed plait
Bleeding at the receipt is not present. From the words of doctor of first-aid, lost about
3 litres of blood in place of event. What principal reason of heavy of the state of
Patient?
A. Acute hemorrhag
B. Pain shock.
C. Ishemia of extremities as a result of application of tourniquet
D. Fatty embolism
E. acute kidney insufficiency
134. In a clinic a patient with the traumatic tearing of both lower extremities off at the
level of knee-joints is delivere A patient is extremly inert, languid, pale, pulse 140
bmin, threadlike, AP 500. On both lower extremities there are the imposed plait
Bleeding at the receipt is not present. From the words of doctor of first-aid, lost about
3 litres of blood in place of event. What principal reason of heavy of the state of
Patient?
A. *acute hemorrhag
B. Pain shock.
C. Ishemia of extremities as a result of application of tourniquet
D. Fatty embolism
E. acute kidney insufficiency
135. It is typical for:
A. *Negative CVT
B. Erroneous punction of artery
C. Right-side pmeumothorax
D. Edema of lungs
E. Hypodermic emphysema
136. On a 4 day after incompatible (on a group) blood transfusion at a patient acutely
reduced diouresis, anuria developed, the common state became worse acutely, arterial
pressure ros At laboratory research: creatinin plasma – 680 mlmol/l, urea of plasma 24 mmol/l. What illness and what stage of illness it follows to think about in the first
place?
A. Acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
B. Anaphylactic shock, acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
C. Hemotransfusion shock, postrenal acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
D. Posthemoragic acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
E. acute interstitsial nephritis, postrenal anuria
137. Patient 20 years for verification of the functional state of kidneys the X- ray
examination with v/v injection of cardiotrast is conducte At the end of injection the
state of patient acutely became worse, the shortness of breath, hyperemia of skin, itch
appeare AP – 60/20 mm of mer item, HBA – 132/min. A similar research was
conducted 3 months ago, such effects were not observe What most reliable
diagnosis?
A. Medicinal anafilactic shock
B. Acute kidney insufficiency
C. Tromboembolism of pulmonary artery
D. Stress on the conducted manipulation
E. Heart attack miocardium
138. Patient 38 years, native plasma was poure At the end of infusion the state became
worse: Patient confused, excited, cyanosys, hypersalivation. Breathing frequency 36
on 1 min., AP – 70/40 mm of mer item, whistling dry wheeze Which from the
following mediceni must be injected firstly?
A. *Adrenalin.
B. Eufilin.
C. Suprastin.
D. Noradrenalin.
E. Prednizolon.
139. Patient 40 years with the acute gastro - intestinal bleeding a canned blood was
poured in a volume 400 ml after conducting of all tests on compatibility. After
hemotransfusion the state of patient became worse, appeared head pains and pains in
muscles athe temperature of body rose to 38,8 What can explaine the state of
patient?
A. Pyroxene reaction of middle heavy
B. By development of hemotransfusion shock
C. *Allergic reaction
D. By development of bacterial-toxic shock
E. By air embolism
140. Patient 40 years with the acute gastro - intestinal bleeding a canned blood was
poured in a volume 400 ml after conducting of all tests on compatibility. After
hemotransfusion the state of patient became worse, appeared head pains and pains in
muscles athe temperature of body rose to 38,8 What can explaine the state of
patient?
A. Pirogenic reaction of middle heavy
B. *By development of hemotransfusion shock
C. Alergic reaction
D. By development of bacterial-toxic shock
E. By air embolism
141. Patient 62 years the third day of presense in department of intensive therapy
concerning the acute transmural heart attack of myocardium of front-partition
localization. At night woked up from a suffocating cough, feeling of fear and troubl
At a review: cyanosys, FB – 30 after 1 min., HBA – 132/ min., a rhythm is correct,
tones of heart are deaf, accent ІІ tone above a pulmonary artery, AP – 180/110 mm
mercury. There is the loosened breathing above lungs with the far of moist wheezes
in lower fate What probably became the reason of worsening of the state?
A. *Edema of lungs
B. Embolism of pulmonary artery
C. The repeated heart attack miocardium
D. Hypertensive crisis
E. Attack of bronchial asthma
142. Patient L is hospitalized in gynecological department with the temperature of 39
degrees C, with complaints of pain in the bottom of stomach, vomit, diarrhea .
Criminal abortion have been done 4 days befor AP 80/60, breathing is difficult,
psychosomatic excitation. Symptom of Schotkin-blumberg is positiv Uterus is
enlarged as on 9 weeks of pregnancy, limitedly mobile, painles Pus with blood
appeare Your Diagnosis?
A. *septic shock
B. Perforation of uterus
C. Pelvic peritonitis
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Acute adnexia inflammation
143. Patient N., 28 years ol 6 day after the complicated birth The clinical
hematological signs of subacute disseminate intravascular coagulation syndrome
developed after skin hemorrhage and uterine bleeding. The state of patient is very ba
blood: Er-2,7 of T/l, Hb-78 of gm/l, CI - 0,93, L-4,7 of Gm/l, thrombocytes-88 of
gm/l, time of blood cloating - 16 min, prothrombin time - 25 sec, ethanol test +,
fibrinogen-1,4 gramme/l, What preparations should be prescribed ?
A. *freezed plasma
B. Heparinum
C. Reopoliglycin
D. Cryoprecipitate
E. U-aminokapric acid
144. Patient N., 40 years, groom. In anamnesis there is an allergy to nonsteriidal
antiinflammatory. After injection of antitetanus on a method Besredco concerning the
hammered wound of right shin, through 20 mines, there was a acute weakness,
labouring breath, through 10 mines, loss of consciousnes What mechanism of
development of anafilactic form of illness?
A. Sensitization to the albumen of horse whey
B. Low quality of horse whey
C. Breach of the technique of PPS injection
D. Presence in anamnesis of medical allergy
E. Infection of whey
145. Patient N., 40 years, groom. In anamnesis there is an allergy to nonsteroidal
antyinflammatory. After injection of antytetanus on a method Besredco concerning
the hammered wound of right shin, through 20 mines, there was a acute weakness,
labouring breath, through 10 mines, loss of consciousnes What mechanism of
development of anafilactic form of illness?
A. *Sensitization to the albumen of horse whey
B. Low quality of horse whey
C. Breach of the technique of PPS injection
D. Presence in anamnesis of medical allergy
E. Infection of whey
146. Persons 48 years, patient by the heart attack of miocardium, suddenly lost
consciousness, breathing and palpitation. On ECG of highwave fibrilation of
ventricule Conducted defibrilation. Did not pick up normal cardial activity. What
medicine needs to be entered for the rise of sensuality to defibrillation?
A. *Amiodaron
B. Propranolon
C. Lidocain
D. Strofantin
E. Atropini sulfati
147. Pharmacological medicine, that diminish the (afterload) left ventricle at a patient
with the acute heart attack of myocardium, are not included
A. nitroglycerine
B. *strophantine
C. nitroproussid sodium
D. esmolol (brevibloc)
E. nifedipinum
148. Sick 46 years treated oneself in a therapeutic department with pneumonia of
lower dole of right lung. Planned antibacterial therapy - amoxiklav. After 40 min
after intramuscular injection of duty dose, the patients feeled dizziness, pain behind a
breastbon AT 60/40 mm mer , pulse, - 120 a min., rhythmical. During examination of
lungs: wheezes under both lung Temperature is 38,5 What is worsening of the
condition related to?
A. *Anaphylactic shock
B. Infectious toxic shock
C. Collapse
D. Tromboembolia of pulmonary artery
E. Infectious shock
149. The patient 20 years old, delivered to ambulance department on the 2nd day of
illness in a grave condition: temperature of body 39°c, symptoms of intoxication are
expresse On extremities, trunk, buttocks, present hemorrhagic rash as eczema with
necrosis in the center. One day before cut his leg. Now has the wound in that plac In
2 hours the decline of AP is registered from 100/70 to 60/30 mm of Hg, diffused
cyanosi Application of prednisolon of 120 mg and reopolyglucin did not give any
effect. What complication does it follow to think about?
A. acute sub renal failure
B. *Septic shock
C. hypovolemic shock
D. Hemorragic shock
E. Respirator distress syndrom of adults
150. The patient 32 years have infusion of native plasm At the end of infusion the
state became worse: disorientation, cyanosys, excitation, appeared hypersalivation,
tahypnoe, AP =70/40 mm mer st., in lungs – the dissipated dry wheeze What
medicine must be injected firstly?
A. *Adrenalin.
B. Suprastin.
C. Gidrocortizon.
D. Dopamin.
E. Eufilin.
151. To patient P., 50 years, with an unspecific ulcerous colitis with the purpose of
correction of anaemia transfusion of selfgroup blood 500 ml A(ІІ) the Rh(-) was
conducte A doctor went out from a chamber after conducting of necessary tests
before hemotransfusion. In 20 minutes he was quickly asked to the patient. Patient
without consciousnes The cyanosys of upper body part. Irregular breathing with the
selection of a plenty of foamy, with the admixtures of blood, phlegm. Pulse on
peripheries and arterial pressure are not determine Tones of heart are deaf,
unrhythmical. An ampoule and transfusion system is empty. What complication arose
up as a result of hemotransfusion?
A. *Air embolism of pulmonary artery
B. Tromboembolism of pulmonary artery
C. Edema of lungs
D. Heart attack of myocardium
E. Syndrome of massive hemotransfusion
152. To the patient 45 years with suspicion on holecystitis the rentgencontrast i/v is
quickly injecte Tahycardiya, arterial hypotension, cyanosys, shortness of breath
appeared, acute swelling of veins of neck, extension of liver, CVT to 200 mm wt.st.
acute insufficiency of what part of the cardial-vascular system is observed at a
patient?
A. *Right ventricle of heart
B. The left ventricle of heart
C. Both ventricles of heart
D. Vessels
E. Uneffective heart
153. A man 50 years of asymptomatic mixed goiter. At the first stage, it should appoint
A. *only observation
B. thyroid hormones to suppress the function of cancer
C. propylthiouracil
D. subtotal thyroidectomy
E. radioiodine
154. In patient K, aged 26, noted a relapse of hyperthyroidism after medical treatment.
Your tactics.
A. *Surgical treatment
B. Continue medical treatment
C. Outpatient
D. Treatment is not required
E. Is no right answer
155. 1n patients after operations on the thyroid gland have complaints about the
shortness of breath, lethargy, convulsions. What is the cause of these clinical
manifestations?
A. *lower calcium concentration
B. lower content of iodothyronine
C. increasing concentrations of glucose
D. increasing concentration of potassium
E. no right answer
156. On examination, the patient was 32 years reveal the formation of the left lobe of
the thyroid gland size 4x6 cm, painless at palpation. What additional diagnostic
method to assign?
A. *Thyroid gland
B. Radiography of the neck
C. Doppler
D. Rheovasography
E. EEG
157. On examination, the patient was 32 years reveal the formation of the left lobe of
the thyroid gland size 4x6 cm, painless at palpation. What analysis should be
performed in order to clarify the diagnosis?
A. *Thyroid hormones
B. Total blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Immunogram
E. Protein fraction
158. Patient D, aged 39, admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic
goiter. What study be done.
A. *Investigation of iodine hormones in the blood serum
B. EFGDS
C. Is no right answer
D. Rheovasography
E. Doppler
159. Patient J., 57, was admitted to the surgical clinic with a diagnosis: euthyroid
nodular goiter. Choose the correct treatment option.
A. *resection of the thyroid gland with maximal preservation of healthy tissue
and routine histological examination
B. enucleation
C. medication
D. subtotal resection of the thyroid gland
E. excision of the node with the routine histological examination
160. Patient K, aged 49, was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic
goiter. What study be done.
A. *Scanning of the thyroid gland
B. EFGDS
C. Rheovasography
D. Doppler
E. There is no correct answer
161. Patient K., aged 45, lives in the area of iodine deficiency, was admitted to the
clinic with complaints of enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis in
a patient?
A. *goiter
B. acute strumitis
C. sporadic goiter
D. epidemic goiter
E. mass thyrotoxicosis
162. Patient M, 39 years old, was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse
toxic goiter. What study be done.
A. *Thyroid gland
B. EFGDS
C. Rheovasography
D. Doppler
E. Is no right answer
163. Patient M., aged 35, lives in the area of iodine deficiency, was admitted to the
clinic with complaints of enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis in
a patient?
A. *there is no right answer
B. acute strumitis
C. sporadic goiter
D. epidemic goiter
E. mass thyrotoxicosis
164. Patient O., aged 39, on the diffuse toxic goiter performed subtotal resection of the
thyroid gland. One day the patient became restless, twitching of facial muscles
appeared convulsive reduction of hands. Treatment.
A. *the introduction of calcium chloride intravenously
B. introduction Seduxen
C. introduction of iodine
D. infusion therapy
E. introduction of calcium chloride oral
165. Patient O., aged 39, on the diffuse toxic goiter performed subtotal resection of the
thyroid gland. One day the patient became restless, twitching of facial muscles
appeared convulsive reduction of hands. What mated complication of surgery?
A. *Removal of parathyroid glands
B. Iodine deficiency
C. Lack of thyroid tissue
D. Increased thyroid hormone
E. Increased parathyroid hormone
166. ?Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue,
progressive weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class.,
painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. At USD: tissue
homogeneous, tissue hypertrophy hyper. The most likely diagnosis
A. *Toxic goiter
B. Hashimoto struma
C. Acute thyroiditis
D. nodular goiter
E. goiter De Quervain
167. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue,
progressive weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class.,
painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. At USD: tissue
homogeneous, tissue hypertrophy hyper. The most likely diagnosis
A. *there is no right answer
B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C. Acute thyroiditis
D. nodular goiter
E. goiter De Quervain
168. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue,
progressive weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class.,
painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. What additional
diagnostic method to assign?
A. *Thyroid gland
B. Radiography of the neck
C. Doppler
D. Reovazography
E. EEG
169. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue,
progressive weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class.,
painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. What analysis
should be performed in order to clarify the diagnosis?
A. *Total blood
B. Urinalysis
C. Thyroid hormones
D. Protein fraction
E. Immunogram
170. Patients after resection of the thyroid gland have cramps, Hvostek and Trousseau
symptoms. What complication is the patient?
A. *gipoparatireosis
B. laryngeal nerve injury
C. residual effects of thyrotoxicosis
D. thyrotoxic crisis
E. hypothyroidism
171. Patients after resection of the thyroid having convulsions, symptoms by Chvostek
and Trousseau. What a complication arose in a patient?
A. *there is no right answer
B. laryngeal nerve injury
C. residual effects of hyperthyroidism
D. thyrotoxic crisis
E. hypothyroidism
172. Patients after resection of the thyroid having convulsions, symptoms by Chvostek
and Trousseau. What a complication is arose in a patient?
A. *hypoparathyreosis
B. laryngeal nerve injury
C. residual effects of hyperthyroidism
D. thyrotoxic crisis
E. hypothyroidism
173. The patient complaints of excessive sweating, hand tremor, exophthalmos. The
most likely diagnosis.
A. *Strumit
B. Goiter
C. Tireodit
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. Is no right answer
174. The patient diagnosed nodular nontoxic goiter. What operation is indicated the
patient?
A. *resection of the affected lobe with histological examination
B. conservative treatment of thyroxine
C. removal of the affected lobe, isthmus and central lymph node dissection
D. enucleation site
E. subtotal thyroidectomy
175. The patient diagnosed nodular nontoxic goiter. What operation is indicated the
patient?
A. *No right answer
B. conservative treatment of thyroxine
C. removal of the affected lobe, isthmus and central lymph node dissection
D. enucleation site
E. subtotal thyroidectomy
176. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests
the pathology?
A. *Exophthalmos
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
177. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests
the pathology?
A. *Graefe symptom
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
178. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests
the pathology?
A. *Mobius symptom
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
179. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests
the pathology?
A. *Tachycardia
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
180. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests
the pathology?
A. *Tremor of the upper limbs
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
181. The patient diagnosed with an aberrant goiter. Refine the definition of aberrant
goiter.
A. *cancer of the thyroid gland
B. metastases of thyroid cancer in the liver
C. atypical location of the thyroid gland
D. all true
E. all wrong
182. The patient diagnosed with autoimmune thyroiditis. Which of the following
symptoms characteristic of this disease?
A. *increase and thickening of the thyroid gland, hypothyroidism
B. increase and thickening of the thyroid gland, fever
C. increase and thickening of the thyroid gland, hypothyroidism, fever
D. increase and thickening of the thyroid gland,
E. thyrotoxicosis, fever
183. The patient diagnosed with nodular euthyroid goiter left lobe of the thyroid gland.
What is the optimal treatment option.
A. *hemistrumectomy or resection of the lobe of the thyroid gland
B. excision of the node with the routine histological examination
C. enucleation site
D. subtotal thyroidectomy
E. conservative treatment thyroidin
184. The patient lives in the area of endemic iodine. What can be used to prevent
goitre?
A. merkasalil
B. vaccination
C. iodine
D. improving the social life of the population
E. *iodination salt
185. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may
occur in a patient?
A. *Pneumathemia
B. Onychomycosis
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
186. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may
occur in a patient?
A. *Damage to the trachea
B. Onychomycosis
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
187. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may
occur in a patient?
A. *Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Onychomycosis
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
188. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may
occur in a patient?
A. *Bleeding from the wound
B. Onychomycosis
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
189. The patient S., 546 years old, diagnosed with goiter II degree. What is
characteristic of the III degree of increase in thyroid gland?
A. *visible swallowing
B. giant goiter
C. determined only by palpation
D. visible only when swallowing
E. determined only on ultrasound
190. The patient S., 61, suffering for 2 years nodular goiter, recently noted a rapid
increase in the node. On scanning image identified a "cold node". Specify the most
probable cause of this condition
A. *node malignancy
B. cystic degeneration of the node
C. autoimmune
D. all true
E. hemorrhage site
191. The patient S., 61, suffering for 2 years nodular goiter, recently noted a rapid
increase in the node. What method of diagnosis is the most informative?
A. *scanning with radioactive iodine
B. X-ray of the neck
C. Doppler
D. Rheovasography
E. EEG
192. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following postoperative complications can sports a patient?
A. *No right answer
B. Ischemia of the upper extremities
C. Ischemia of lower extremities
D. Ileus
E. Gastric
193. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following
postoperative complications may be sports in the patient?
A. *Hypocalcemia
B. Ischemia of the upper extremities
C. Ischemia of lower extremities
D. Ileus
E. Gastric
194. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following
postoperative complications may be sports in the patient?
A. *Paresis of the recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Ischemia of the upper extremities
C. Ischemia of lower extremities
D. Ileus
E. Gastric
195. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following
postoperative complications may be sports in the patient?
A. *Thyrotoxic crisis
B. Ischemia of the upper extremities
C. Ischemia of lower extremities
D. Ileus
E. Gastric
196. The patient V., age 56, diagnosed with goiter of third degree. What is
characteristic of the III degree of increase in thyroid gland?
A. *visible without swallowing
B. giant goiter
C. determined only by palpation
D. visible only when swallowing
E. determined only on ultrasound
197. The patient was admitted with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What operation
is indicated the patient?
A. *subtotal resection of the thyroid gland
B. thyroidectomy
C. hemistrumectomy
D. strumectomy
E. no right answer
198. The patient was admitted with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What operation
is indicated the patient?
A. *No right answer
B. thyroidectomy
C. hemistrumectomy
D. strumectomy
E. no right answer
199. The patient was planned to study the thyroid gland with radioactive iodine-131.
How much time should not use iodine and thyreostatics?
A. *30 days
B. 50 days
C. 40 days
D. 10 days
E. 20 days
200. The patient was planned to study the thyroid gland with radioactive iodine-131.
How much time should not use iodine and thyreostatics?
A. *No right answer
B. 50 days
C. 40 days
D. 10 days
E. 20 days
201. The patient's 43 years revealed an increase in the left lobe of the thyroid gland.
When scanning in this region found a hot site. Diagnosis.
A. *nodular toxic goiter
B. diffuse non-toxic goiter
C. toxic goiter
D. multinodular toxic goiter
E. non-toxic nodular goiter
202. The patient's 60 years in the last 3 months has been rapidly increasing dense mass
in the left lobe of the thyroid gland. Effects of hyperthyroidism is not. At thyroid scan
revealed a cold junction. Preliminary diagnosis
A. *thyroid cancer
B. lipoma of the thyroid gland
C. cyst
D. metastasis of lung cancer
E. thyroid cyst
203. A Patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of
lower extremities, chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of
research vessels are:
A. *Ultrasound examination
B. Rheovasography
C. Thermometry
D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation
E. Venogram
204. A patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of
lower extremities, chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of
research vessels are:
A. *Arteriography
B. Rheovasography
C. Thermometry
D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation
E. Venogram
205. A patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of
lower extremities, chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of
research vessels are:
A. *No right answer
B. Rheovasography
C. Thermometry
D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation
E. Venogram
206. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the
passage of more than 1000 m. What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency in the
patient?
A. *I
B. II A
C. II B
D. III
E. IV
207. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the
passage of 300 - 400 m. What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency in the
patient?
A. *II A
B. I
C. II B
D. III
E. IV
208. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the
passage of 200 m. What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency is the patient?
A. *II B
B. I
C. II A
D. III
E. IV
209. A patient admitted with complaints of pain at rest. What stage of chronic arterial
insufficiency has the patient?
A. *III
B. I
C. II A
D. II B
E. IV
210. A patient admitted with complaints of pain from intermittent claudication, and
impotence. What is the diagnosis can be suspected in a patient?
A. *Leriche syndrome
B. Obliterating endarteritis
C. Deep vein thrombosis leg
D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis
E. Coarctation of aorta
211. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the muscles of the buttocks and
waist. What is the diagnosis can be suspected in a patient?
A. *Leriche syndrome
B. Obliterating endarteritis
C. Deep vein thrombosis leg
D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis
E. Coarctation of aorta
212. At examination the patient was diagnosedthe absence pulse on femoral arteries.
What is the diagnosis can be suspected in a patient?
A. *Leriche syndrome
B. Obliterating endarteritis
C. Deep vein thrombosis leg
D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis
E. Coarctation of aorta
213. The patient 53 years old admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis
arteries of lower extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. *Obliterative endarteritis
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Iliac vein thrombosis
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
214. The patient 53 years old admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis of
arteries of lower extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. *Diabetic angiopathy
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Iliac vein thrombosis
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
215. The patient aged 53 years admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis of
arteries of lower extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. *Sciatica
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Thrombosis of iliac vein
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
216. The patient admitted to hospital with complaints of pain at rest. What should be
used to block pain?
A. *Epidural block
B. No-shpa
C. Trental
D. Rheopolyglucin
E. Solcosery
217. The patient admitted to hospital with complaints of pain at rest. What should be
used to block pain?
A. *Paravertebral sympathetic blockade
B. No shpa
C. Trental
D. Rheopolyglucine
E. Solcoseryl
218. Patient is in hospital with diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of arteries lower
extremities, chronic arterial insufficiency II stage. To improve the rheological
properties of blood should be used:
A. *Rheopoliglucin
B. Seduksen
C. Actovegin
D. Niacin
E. Papaverine
219. Patient is in hospital with a diagnosis: arterial occlusive disease of the lower
extremities, chronic arterial insufficiency II stage. To improve the rheological
properties of blood should be used:
A. *Trental
B. Seduksen
C. Actovegin
D. Niacin
E. Papaverine
220. Patient is in hospital with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of arteries
lower extremities, chronic arterial insufficiency II stage. To remove vasospasm
should be used:
A. *Papaverine
B. Rheopoliglikin
C. Seduksen
D. Actovegin
E. Niacin
221. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. *Oppel
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
222. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. *Goldflam
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
223. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. *Panchenko
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
224. The patient 47 years old complained on pain in the calf muscles during walking.
What is this symptom:
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Troyanov
C. Oppel
D. Panchenko
E. Kokket
225. At doppler ultrasound study in the patients revealed atherosclerotic changes in
arteries. What method of diagnosis must be pursued to clarify the localization
process?
A. *Arteriography
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of limbs
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
226. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the left popliteal
artery. What diseases can cause embolism?
A. *Rheumatic heart disease
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
227. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the left popliteal
artery . What is the most probable cause of embolism?
A. *Myocardial infarction
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
228. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the right popliteal
artery . What is the most probable cause of embolism?
A. *Cardiac aneurysm
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
229. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the right popliteal
artery . What is the most probable cause of embolism?
A. *Aneurysm of femoral artery
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
230. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the left popliteal
artery . What is the most probable cause of embolism?
A. *Septic endocarditis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
231. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the left popliteal artery.
What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *Severe pain in the limbs
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
232. *The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism right popliteal artery.
What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *Cold extremities
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
233. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right popliteal
artery. What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *Acute weakness in the limbs
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
234. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism left popliteal artery.
What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *Pale skin limbs
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
235. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism, right femoral artery.
What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *The deterioration of the picture subcutaneous veins of the affected limb
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
236. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right femoral artery.
What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *Changing the surface sensitivity on the affected limb
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
237. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right femoral artery.
What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *Changing a deep sensitivity to the affected limb
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
238. In the patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right femoral
artery. What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *The disappearance of pulsation with the level of the femoral artery
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
239. In the patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right popliteal
artery. What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *The disappearance of pulsation with the level of the popliteal artery
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
240. In the patient zone of ischemia grabs both legs and lower abdomen. What are
level of occlusion?
A. *Bifurcation of the aorta
B. Iliac arteries
C. Femoral artery
D. Popliteal artery
E. Arteries foot
241. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the lower extremity to the inguinal
ligament. What are level of occlusion?
A. *Iliac arteries
B. Bifurcation of the aorta
C. Femoral artery
D. Popliteal artery
E. Arteries foot
242. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the lower extremity to the middle third of
the thigh. What are level of occlusion?
A. *Femoral artery
B. Bifurcation of the aorta
C. Iliac arteries
D. Popliteal artery
E. Arteries foot
243. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the lower extremity to the knee joint.
What are level of occlusion?
A. *Popliteal artery
B. Bifurcation of the aorta
C. Iliac arteries
D. Femoral artery
E. Arteries foot
244. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the whole hand. What are level of
occlusion?
A. *Subclavian artery
B. Axillary artery
C. Brachial artery
D. Ulnar artery
E. Arteries hand
245. The patient zone of ischemia grabs his hand to the upper third of the shoulder.
What are level of occlusion?
A. *Axillary artery
B. Subclavian artery
C. Brachial artery
D. Ulnar artery
E. Arteries hand
246. In the patient zone of ischemia grabs his hand to the middle third of the shoulder.
What are level of occlusion?
A. *Brachial artery
B. Axillary artery
C. Subclavian artery
D. Ulnar artery
E. Arteries hand
247. In the patient zone of ischemia grabs his hand to the elbow joint. What are level
of occlusion?
A. *Ulnar artery
B. Axillary artery
C. Subclavian artery
D. Brachial artery
E. Arteries hand
248. A patient admitted to hospital complaining of a sharp intense pain in the limbs.
This symptom is typical for
A. *Embolism
B. Thrombosis
C. Atherosclerotic lesions
D. Varicose
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
249. A patient admitted to hospital complaining of pain in the limbs with a gradual
increase in intensity. This symptom is typical for
A. *Thrombosis
B. Embolism
C. Atherosclerotic lesions
D. Varicose
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
250. The patient admitted to hospital with a stab wound femoral artery. Which type of
injury is this damage?
A. *Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Fire damage
251. The patient was admitted to hospital with a knife wound femoral artery. Which
type of injury is this damage?
A. *Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Fire damage
252. The patient admitted to hospital with chopped wound in the femoral artery. Which
type of injury is this damage?
A. *Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Fire damage
253. The patient admitted to hospital with a shattered wound in the femoral artery.
Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
254. The patient admitted to hospital with a gunshot wound in the femoral artery.
Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
255. The patient admitted to hospital with external bleeding in the femoral artery.
Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Fresh wounds
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
256. The patient was admitted to hospital in a state of shock and damage in the femoral
artery in history. Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Fresh wounds
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
257. The patient was admitted to hospital with gangrene and limb damage in the
femoral artery in history. Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Fresh wounds
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
258. The patient admitted to hospital pulsating hematoma and injuries to the femoral
artery in history. Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Complicated wounds
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
259. The patient was admitted to hospital with bruising and damage to suppuration in
the femoral artery in history. Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Complicated wounds
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
260. The patient admitted to hospital with a blunt injury in the femoral artery in
history. Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Closed injury
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
261. The patient admitted to hospital with a compression of the femoral artery in
history. Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Closed injury
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
262. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to only the femoral artery.
Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Isolated damage
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
263. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the femoral artery and
internal organs. Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Combined injuries
B. Joint damage
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
264. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery in the first
day after injury. To what this type of injury is damage?
A. *Recent damage
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
265. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery on the
second day after injury. To what this type of injury is damage?
A. *Recent damage
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
266. The patient admitted to hospital with damage to the popliteal artery on the fourth
day after injury. To what this type of injury is damage?
A. *Complicated injuries
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
267. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery on the
seventh day after injury. To what this type of injury is damage?
A. *Complicated injuries
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
268. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery in the
second week after injury. To what this type of injury is damage?
A. *Complicated injuries
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
269. A patient admitted to hospital with clinical symptoms of external bleeding in
axillary artery. To whom this type of injury is damage?
A. *Open injury
B. Complicated injuries
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
270. A patient admitted to hospital with clinical symptoms of external bleeding in
axillary artery. To whom this type of injury is damage?
A. *Open injury
B. Complicated injuries
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
271. A patient admitted to hospital with knife wounds in the superficial femoral artery.
Which research method can give the most accurate information?
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the lower extremity
D. Radiography of abdominal
E. Rheovasography
272. A patient admitted to hospital with knife wounds in the superficial femoral artery.
Which research method can give the most accurate information?
A. *Angioraphy
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the lower extremity
D. Radiography of abdominal
E. Rheovasography
273. A patient admitted to hospital with knife wounds in the femoral artery. Which
research method can give the most accurate information?
A. *There is no correct answer
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the lower extremity
D. Radiography of abdominal
E. Rheovasography
274. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins the left lower
extremity. At the examination revealed only varicose saphenous veins of legs without
edema. What stage of varicose veins is in a patient?
A. *I
B. II A
C. II B
D. III
E. IV
275. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower
extremity. At the examination revealed varicose saphenous veins of lower leg with
swelling and pasty. What stage of varicose veins is in a patient?
A. *II A
B. I
C. II B
D. III
E. IV
276. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower
extremity. At the examination revealed varicose saphenous veins with leg edema,
pasty, and induration of the skin ulcer in the lower third of the leg. What stage of
varicose veins is in a patient?
A. *III
B. II A
C. I
D. II B
E. IV
277. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb,
chronic venous insufficiency I degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the best?
A. *Elastic compression
B. Surgical treatment
C. Antihypertensive therapy
D. Anticoagulant therapy
E. Anticholesterol therapy
278. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb,
chronic venous insufficiency II degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the best?
A. *Surgical treatment
B. Elastic compression
C. Antihypertensive therapy
D. Anticoagulant therapy
E. Anticholesterol therapy
279. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb,
chronic venous insufficiency III degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the
best?
A. *Surgical treatment
B. Elastic compression
C. Antihypertensive therapy
D. Anticoagulant therapy
E. Anticholesterol therapy
280. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb,
chronic venous insufficiency of II degree. What drug with venotonics properties
should be appoint?
A. *Detralex
B. Aspirin
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
281. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb,
chronic venous insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with venotonics properties
should be appoint?
A. *Phlebodia
B. Aspirin
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
282. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb,
chronic venous insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with venotonics properties
should be appoint?
A. *Detralex
B. Aspirin
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
283. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb,
chronic venous insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with antiplatelet properties
should be designated?
A. *Aspirin
B. Detralex
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
284. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins, right lower
extremity, chronic venous insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with antiplatelet
properties should be designated?
A. *Cardimagnil
B. Detralex
C. Pentoksiphilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
285. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right
lower limb, chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods
gives the most accurate information about the state of the venous system?
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
286. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right
lower limb chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods
gives the most accurate information about the state of the venous system?
A. *Phlebography
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
287. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right
lower limb chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods
gives the most accurate information about the state of communicative veins?
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
288. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right
lower limb chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods
gives the most accurate information about the state of communicative veins?
A. *No right answer
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
289. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right
lower limb chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods
gives the most accurate information about the state of the venous system?
A. *Flebotonometry
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
290. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the left
lower limb, chronic venous insufficiency of Article III. Which of the following
methods gives the most accurate information about the state of the venous system?
A. *Functional Tests
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
291. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower
extremity, chronic venous insufficiency III drgree. Which diseases should be
differentiate this disease?
A. *Congenital arteriovenous fistula
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
292. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower
extremity, chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be
differentiate this disease?
A. *Obtained arteriovenous fistula
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
293. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower
extremity, chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be
differentiate this disease?
A. *Venous angiodysplasias
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
294. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower
extremity, chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be
differentiate this disease?
A. *No right answer
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
295. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower
limb, chronic venous insufficiency II drgree. What is a contraindication to surgical
treatment?
A. *Obstruction of deep veins
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Past history of pneumonia
D. Past history of angina
E. Cholelithiasis
296. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower
limb, chronic venous insufficiency II degree. What is a contraindication to surgical
treatment?
A. *Angina
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Past history of pneumonia
D. Past history of angina
E. Cholelithiasis
297. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower
limb, chronic venous insufficiency II degree. What is a contraindication to surgical
treatment?
A. *Heart failure
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Past history of pneumonia
D. Past history of angina
298. The patient complains on burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful
dense strand of progress varicose veins in the leg. What is the most likely diagnosis in
a patient?
A. *Thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterating atherosclerosis
D. Occlusive disease
E. Diabetic angiopathy
299. The patient complains of burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful
dense strand of progress varicose veins in the leg with the transition to the lower third
of the thigh. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. *Ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterating atherosclerosis
D. Occlusive disease
E. Diabetic angiopathy
300. The patient complains of burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful
dense strand of progress varicose veins in the leg with the transition to the lower and
middle third of the thigh. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. *Ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterating atherosclerosis
D. Occlusive disease
E. Diabetic angiopathy
301. The patient complains of burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful
dense strand of progress varicose veins on the back of the tibia. What is the most
likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. *Small saphenous vein thrombophlebitis
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterating atherosclerosis
D. Occlusive disease
E. Diabetic angiopathy
302. The patient complains on frequent thrombophlebitis in the zone of varicose great
saphenous vein. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. *Migrating thrombophlebitis
B. Ascending thrombophlebitis
C. Deep vein thrombosis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Erysipelas
303. The patient complains on frequent thrombophlebitis in the zone of varicose great
saphenous vein. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. *No right answer
B. Ascending thrombophlebitis
C. Deep vein thrombosis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Erysipelas
304. 304. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower
extremity. Acute ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Tactics?
A. *Surgical treatment
B. Conservative treatment
C. Physiotherapy
D. Sanatorium treatment
E. Treatment is not required
305. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose saphenous veins left
lower extremity. Acute ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Tactics?
A. *No right answer
B. Conservative treatment
C. Physiotherapy
D. Sanatorium treatment
E. Treatment is not required
306. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins.
Which of the following drugs should be appoint after surgery?
A. *Ciprinol
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin
D. Atenolol
E. Vasilip
307. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins.
Which of the following drugs should appoint after surgery?
A. *Dikloberl
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin
D. Atenolol
E. Vasilip
308. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins.
Which of the following drugs should appoint after surgery?
A. *Detralex
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin
D. Atenolol
E. Vasilip
309. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins.
How long a patient should be advised to use elastic compression?
A. *3 months.
B. 1 month.
C. 1 year
D. 6 months.
E. 2 weeks
310. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins.
How long a patient should be advised to use elastic compression?
A. *There is no correct answer.
B. 1 month.
C. 1 year
D. 6 months.
E. 2 weeks
311. The patient complains on pain in the right leg, increases with foot movements.
What is most likely diagnosis?
A. *Thrombosis of the popliteal vein
B. Thrombosis of the femoral vein
C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
D. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
E. Vein thrombosis aksilyarnoy
312. The patient complains on pain in the right leg, increases with foot movements.
What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis?
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
313. The patient complains on pain in the right leg, increases with foot movements.
What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis?
A. *Phlebography
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
314. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot
and the knee joint. What is most likely diagnosis?
A. *Thrombosis of superficial femoral vein
B. Thrombosis of the popliteal vein
C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
D. Thrombosis of the vena cava inferior
E. Thrombosis Axillary vein
315. The patient complains on pain in the right leg hip, increases with movements in
the foot and the knee joint. What research method is most reliable for further
diagnosis?
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
316. The patient complains on pain in the right leg hip, increases with movements in
the foot and the knee joint. What research method is most reliable for further
diagnosis?
A. *Phlebography
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
317. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot
and the knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. What is most likely
diagnosis?
A. *Thrombosis of common femoral vein
B. Thrombosis of the popliteal vein
C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
D. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
E. Thrombosis Axyllary vein
318. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot
and the knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. What research method is
most reliable for further diagnosis?
A. *Phlebography
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
319. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot
and the knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. What research method is
most reliable for further diagnosis?
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
320. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot
and the knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. Swelling of limbs
throughout and on the buttocks What is most likely diagnosis?
A. *Thrombosis of the iliac-femoral segment
B. Thrombosis of the popliteal vein
C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
D. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
E. Thrombosis Axyllary vein
321. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot
and the knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. Swelling of limbs
throughout and on the buttocks. What research method is most reliable for further
diagnosis?
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
322. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left
lower extremity. The patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, retrosternal
pain. What complication can be suspected in a patient?
A. *Pulmonary embolism
B. Superficial thrombophlebitis
C. Ulcer
D. Pharyngitis
E. Pleurisy
323. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left
lower extremity. The patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, retrosternal
pain. What method diagnosis should be used to refine the diagnosis?
A. *ECG
B. Reovazography
C. Densitometry
D. Ultrasound of internal organs
E. Ultrasound vascular limb
324. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left
lower extremity. The patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, pain with
localized behind the breastbone, a feeling of fear. What complication can be
suspected in a patient?
A. *Pulmonary embolism
B. Superficial thrombophlebitis
C. Ulcer
D. Pharyngitis
E. Pleurisy
325. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left
lower extremity. The patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, retrosternal
pain. What method diagnosis should be used to refine the diagnosis?
A. *Radiography of the chest
B. Reovazogrfiya
C. Densitometry
D. Ultrasound of internal organs
E. Ultrasound vascular limb
326. The patient suddenly appeared retrosternal pain, dyspnea, collapse with increased
sweating, and a sharp V neck veins. Which version of PE is in this patient?
A. *Acute course
B. Subacute course
C. Recidivism during
D. Mixed
E. Combined
327. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods
investigation is required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. *Study of blood coagulation
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
328. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods
investigation is required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. *ECG
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
329. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods
investigation is required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. *Radiography of the chest cavity
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
330. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods
investigation is required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. *Angiopulmonography
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
331. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods
investigation is required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. *Lung scintigraphy
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
332. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods
investigation is required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. *Study of blood coagulation
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Echocardiography
333. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest
cavity. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *The rise of the dome diaphragm
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
334. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest
cavity. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Pleural effusion in the sinuses
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
335. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest
cavity. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *The wedge-shaped shadow atelectases
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
336. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest
cavity. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Breaking vessels near the root of the lungs
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
337. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest
cavity. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Hyperperfusion of the contralateral lung
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
338. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest
cavity. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Dilation of the right ventricle
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
339. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the
following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Advanced, hypokinetic right ventricle
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
340. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the
following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Increased ratio of right ventricle / left ventricle
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
341. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the
following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Dilation of proximal pulmonary arteries
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
342. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the
following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Increasing the speed of blood tricuspid regurgitation> 3.7 m / s
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
343. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the
following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Violation of blood flow from the right ventricle
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
344. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the
following symptoms indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Advanced vena cava inferior, which has persisted for inspiration
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
345. Patients with suspected pulmonary embolism made angiopulmonography. Which
of the following symptoms is direct?
A. *Vascular filling defects
B. Asymmetry of vascular contrast material filling
C. Slow progress or stasis of contrast
D. Increased pulmonary artery trunk and its major branches
E. No right answer
346. A patient complains of a pain in a right iliac area. At first pain appeared in
epigastrium, then relocated in a right iliac area. During examination muscular tension
of anterior abdominal wall and symptoms of peritoneal irritation are detected in a
right iliac area. Leucocytes-8×109. General urine analysis within norm. Your
diagnosis.
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Right-side renal colic
C. Appendicular infiltrate
D. Meckel's diverticulum
E. Perforative ulcer
347. In the patient, aged of 72, 14 hours ago appeared a permanent pain in a right iliac
area. For last 2 hours the pain diminished. Acute appendicitis is diagnosed. What
morphological form of acute appendicitis would result in diminishing of pain
intensity?
A. Gangrenous
B. Phlegmonous
C. Catarrhal
D. Perforative
E. Empyema of appendix
348. A patient was operated 9 days ago for destructive appendicitis with pelvic
position. As a complication – the abscess of Duglas space was developed. At digital
rectal examination the infiltrate was detected with softening in center. Tactic of
surgeon?
A. Punction of the abscess with draining
B. Relaparotomy, draining of the abscess
C. Presacral antibiotic-novocaine blockade
D. Warm small enemas, suppositories with antibiotics
E. Electrophoresis with antibiotics on abdomen
349. A patient complains of a pain in the lower abdomen, mostly on the right side,
dizziness. The mentioned signs appeared suddenly, at night. Last menstruation 2
weeks ago. During examination the skin is pale, pulse 92 /min., t -36°C, AP 100/60
mm Hg. The abdomen is slightly tense, painful in lower areas. The signs of peritoneal
irritation are insignificant. Нв-98 g/l. Your diagnosis?
A. Ovarian apoplexy
B. Renal colic
C. Acute appendicitis
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Bleeding gastric ulcer
350. In what location of appendix the rectal examination is the most informing?
A. Pelvic
B. Retrocaecal
C. Madian
D. Subhepatic
E. Retroperitoneal
351. In patient during the operation for acute destructive appendicitis the appendicular
infiltrate was diagnosed. What the further tactic of surgeon?
A. Appendectomy not performed, draining the abdominal cavity
B. Appendectomy not performed, to suit the wound
C. Performed appendectomy
D. Performed a cystostomy
E. To remove the infiltrate
352. Among the ways of penetration of infection in appendix in acute appendicitis the
most frequent is enterogenic. What microorganisms are revealed more frequent?
A. Colli
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
D. Bacteroids
E. Koch's mycobacterii
353. A patient was operated for acute appendicitis. The condition deteriorated. An
abdominal pain appeared, a temperature rose to 39°C. The signs of peritoneal
irritation are absent. A jaundice joined. What complication is need to think about?
A. Pylephlebitis
B. Diffuse peritonitis
C. Subphrenic abscess
D. Cholecystitis
E. Appendicular infiltrate
354. A diarrhea is not obligatory, but possible in acute appendicitis. In what cases
diarrhea confirms the inflammation of appendix?
A. In pelvic appendicitis
B. On the first day of the disease
C. In fever
D. In retrocaecal appendicitis
E. In retroperitoneal appendicitis
355. The pregnant woman (22 weeks) is delivered in urgent clinic with complaints of
abdominal pain. The onset was acute, a day ago. Pain appeared in epigastrium, then in
the right half of abdomen. There was a single vomiting. The abdomen painful above
the right iliac area. Signs of peritoneal irritation are insignificant. Leucocytosis –
21×109. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Toxemia of pregnancy
C. Threatened abortion
D. Acute pancreatitis
E. Mesenteric thrombosis
356. In patient who underwent the operation of appendectomy on the 5th day at rectal
examination was found the inflammatory infiltrate in small pelvis without the signs of
abscessing. Choose the necessary medical tactic:
A. Conservative treatment
B. Punction of infiltrate
C. Punction of infiltrate and draining.
D. Discharging of infiltrate
E. Operative treatment.