Please do not write on this test.
Biology Semester 2 Final
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. In natural selection, the selective agent is the
a. humans.
b. mutations.
c. breeders.
d. environment.
7. Which of the following genetic disorders can be
identified through genetic screening?
a. avian influenza
b. tuberculosis
c. cystic fibrosis
d. yellow fever
2. Which of the following is correctly written in the
binomial nomenclature system?
a. Canis lupus
b. Red wolf
c. Ailurus Fulgens
d. kingdom
8. Some organisms that share a common ancestor
have features that have different functions, but
similar structures. These are known as
a. vestigial structures.
b. analogous structures.
c. homologous structures.
d. fossil structures.
3. Which of the following statements about
polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is true?
a. produces RNA segments
b. requires primers and nucleotides
c. builds new polymerases
d. occurs inside bacteria
9. Cladograms are based on
a. nomenclature.
b. dichotomous keys.
c. common ancestry.
d. brain structure
4. Evolution is considered to be one of the most
important theories in science, because it
a. was developed more than 100 years ago.
b. is not supported by the fossil record.
c. unites the fields of biology, geology, chemistry,
and ecology.
d. was discovered by Charles Darwin, a famous
scientist.
10. Cystic fibrosis is an example of a genetic disease
caused by the deletion of a nucleotide. What is the
term for this type of mutation?
a. translocation
b. chromosomal
c. single-gene
d. frameshift
5. Suppose a segment of DNA contains five restriction
sites for a particular restriction enzyme. How many
fragments of DNA will remain after the enzyme is
used to cut the DNA?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 10
11. What characteristic of fungi makes them different
from plants?
a. They grow only in shade.
b. They have a different cell membrane.
c. They do not feed in the same way.
d. They are prokaryotes, not eukaryotes.
12. Which phrase best describes translation?
a. converts mRNA into a polypeptide
b. catalyzes bonds between amino acids
c. produces RNA from DNA molecules
d. recycles tRNA molecules for reuse
6. DNA fingerprinting can be used to
a. assess actual disease risk.
b. prove a family relationship.
c. find all recessive alleles.
d. measure gene expression.
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20. How are viruses used in gene therapy?
a. to attack the immune system
b. to act as vectors to carry new genes into cells
c. to infect disease-causing bacteria
d. to kill cancer cells that have "suicide genes"
13. During each PCR cycle, what happens to the
number of copies of a DNA segment?
a. It stays the same.
b. It doubles.
c. It quadruples.
d. It increases to 1 billion.
21. Which of the following is the site of translation?
a. vacuole
b. lysosome
c. nucleus
d. ribosome
14. Which type of mutation has no effect on
phenotype?
a. silent
b. frameshift
c. point
d. chromosomal
22. The main function of tRNA is to
a. carry a message that, when translated, forms
proteins.
b. form a portion of ribosomes, a cell's protein
factories.
c. string together complementary RNA and DNA
strands.
d. bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the
ribosomes.
15. Which phrase best describes the Linnaean
classification system?
a. Each genus contains one species.
b. The taxa are interchangeable.
c. There is only one kingdom.
d. Each level includes the more specific levels
below.
16. The main purpose of genetic screening is to
a. look for the genes that cause every kind of
cancer.
b. assess the risk of having or carrying a genetic
disorder.
c. prevent carriers from ever passing on genetic
disorders.
d. identify every possible genetic defect in a given
person.
23. Which of the following events takes place in the
ovaries?
a. absorption of estrogen
b. storage of sperm
c. production of ova
d. fertilization of eggs
24. Which part of the digestive system consolidates and
eliminates solid wastes?
a. duodenum
b. small intestine
c. intestinal villi
d. large intestine
17. Which technique is used to separate DNA
fragments by their size?
a. nucleotide sequencing
b. genetic engineering
c. gel electrophoresis
d. gene cloning
25. The function of mammalian mammary glands is to
a. enhance chewing.
b. grow fine hair.
c. produce milk.
d. nourish embryos.
18. Mutations that can affect the offspring of an
organism occur in what cell type?
a. body
b. germ
c. blood
d. brain
26. Generally, mutations that affect a single gene occur
during
a. transcription.
b. replication.
c. translation.
d. operation.
19. Which of the following describes natural selection?
a. It acts on genetic material directly.
b. It acts on existing physical traits.
c. It forms new traits.
d. It forms new genetic material.
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27. The goal of gene therapy is to replace defective or
missing genes in order to
a. make genetic screening easier.
b. improve our adaptability.
c. decrease recessive alleles.
d. treat some genetic disorders.
34. The evolutionary family tree for a group of
organisms is called a
a. cladogram.
b. phylogeny.
c. convergence.
d. taxonomy.
28. Urine produced by the kidneys moves through the
ureter into the
a. bladder.
b. urethra.
c. nephron.
d. medulla.
35. The main purpose of digestion is to
a. convert energy.
b. break down food.
c. eliminate wastes.
d. transport nutrients.
36. Mature sperm leave the epididymis and enter the
a. gall bladder.
b. prostate gland.
c. vas deferens.
d. lower scrotum.
29. The two remaining groups of jawed fish that still
exist are the Osteichthyes and the
a. Agnatha.
b. placoderms.
c. Chondrichthyes.
d. acanthodians.
30. Paleontology is the study of
a. ecosystems.
b. genetics.
c. fossils.
d. rocks and minerals.
37. Which of the following would be considered the
strongest evidence that two species are related to
one another?
a. common structures
b. shared taxon
c. similar genes
d. same extinction pattern
31. Combining the work of other scientists with their
own research, Watson and Crick discovered that
two strands of DNA join together to form a(n)
a. nucleotide.
b. X in a circle.
c. double helix.
d. covalent bond.
38. The process by which nutrients move from the
digestive organs into the circulatory and lymphatic
systems is called
a. respiration.
b. digestion.
c. excretion.
d. absorption.
32. Which cells, created in the thymus gland, work to
destroy body cells infected by a pathogen?
a. T cells
b. B cells
c. basophils
d. phagocytes
39. What is suggested by the similarity of early
embryos of different species of vertebrates?
a. no evolutionary relationship between the
groups
b. recent common ancestry
c. similar environments in the past
d. evolution from a distant common ancestor
33. Which of the following is an example of a vestigial
structure?
a. the wings of red-tailed hawks
b. the hind limbs of a house cat
c. the fins of a shark
d. the wings of an ostrich
40. The process of making new DNA molecules is
semiconservative. This means that every new DNA
molecule is composed of
a. two completely identical strands of DNA.
b. one original and one new strand of DNA.
c. one strand of DNA and one strand of RNA.
d. two strands that mix original and new DNA.
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41. Protein sequences in one organism that resemble
those of another suggest a
a. coincidence.
b. lack of evolutionary relationship.
c. great number of mutations.
d. shared ancestry.
47. Woese separated the kingdom Monera into the
following two kingdoms:
a. Eukarya and Bacteria.
b. Archaea and Prokaryote.
c. Prokaryote and Eukaryote.
d. Eubacteria and Archaebacteria.
42. Which of the following events occurs directly after
a DNA molecule is unzipped?
a. Mismatched nucleotide bases are identified and
replaced.
b. Free-floating nucleotides pair up with exposed
bases.
c. Identical double-stranded DNA molecules are
formed.
d. Enzymes break hydrogen bonds between base
pairs.
48. The central dogma of molecular biology states that
information flows in one direction from
a. nuclei to RNA to cytoplasm.
b. ribosomes to proteins to DNA.
c. genes to nuclei to ribosomes.
d. DNA to RNA to proteins.
49. Bacterial enzymes that cut the DNA of viruses are
called
a. bacterial helicases.
b. restriction enzymes.
c. DNA polymerases.
d. mapping enzymes.
43. Which factor has so far kept gene therapy from
becoming an effective treatment for genetic
disorders?
a. the difficulty of getting new genes to become
part of a cell's DNA
b. the complexity of sequencing the entire human
genome
c. the lack of success in finding genes that are
responsible for genetic disorders
d. the ethical questions about making transgenic
humans
50. The amount of time it takes for half of a radioactive
isotope to decay is known as the
a. isotope.
b. half-life.
c. product.
d. radiocarbon.
51. Which of the following is the basis for the
molecular differences identified by DNA
fingerprinting?
a. each person's entire genome
b. regions of noncoding DNA
c. DNA fragments with genes
d. the X and Y chromosomes
44. Single-celled prokaryotes that are classified by their
ability to survive extreme conditions are
a. fungi.
b. archaebacteria.
c. protists.
d. eukaryotes.
52. The four types of nucleotides that make up DNA
are named for their
a. hydrogen bonds.
b. nitrogen-containing bases.
c. phosphate groups.
d. ring-shaped sugars.
45. Which of the following taxa would generally
contain the most members?
a. order
b. species
c. phylum
d. class
53. What do the bands on a DNA fingerprint show?
a. the genes being expressed
b. DNA sequences
c. locations of damaged genes
d. sizes of DNA fragments
46. How many amino acids are used to make up the all
of the proteins in the human body?
a. 16
b. 20
c. 23
d. 46
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54. Scientists use PCR primarily to
a. amplify DNA.
b. isolate DNA.
c. collect DNA.
d. preserve DNA.
60. What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence
that codes for an amino acid?
a. base
b. codon
c. amine
d. serine
55. A primary difference between transcription and
replication is that transcription
a. happens repeatedly throughout a single cell
cycle.
b. occurs within the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
c. is catalyzed by large and complex enzymes.
d. proceeds according to careful cellular control.
61. When new DNA molecules are formed, almost all
errors are detected and fixed by
a. the correct nucleotide.
b. the sugar-phosphate backbone.
c. DNA polymerase.
d. one DNA strand.
56. The pattern of bands on a DNA fingerprint shows
the sizes of DNA fragments related to the
a. number of repeat sequences.
b. order of genes on a segment of DNA.
c. sequence of nucleotides in a gene.
d. number of restriction sites.
62. Two organisms that are closely related would have
a. very similar DNA sequences.
b. exactly the same DNA sequences.
c. no proteins in common.
d. completely different DNA sequences.
63. The excretory system is a body system made up of
the urinary organs, the skin, and the
a. blood.
b. lungs.
c. heart.
d. liver.
57. After examining the DNA of different organisms,
which of the following did Erwin Chargaff
conclude about the four bases?
a. A = T and C = G
b. A = C = G = T
c. A = C and G = T
d. A + T = C + G
64. The process that makes an exact copy of a cell's
DNA is called
a. conservation.
b. preservation.
c. replication.
d. synthesis.
58. Which of the following events occurs directly after
RNA polymerase recognizes the transcription start
site of a gene?
a. The polymerase strings amino acids into a
polypeptide.
b. Free-floating nucleotides pair up with exposed
DNA bases.
c. A complementary RNA strand detaches itself
from the DNA.
d. The DNA strand begins to unwind, separating
the two strands.
65. If an organism has a vestigial structure, that
structure likely once had a function in a(n)
a. close relative.
b. early ancestor.
c. unrelated organism.
d. embryological stage.
66. Which description distinguishes eukaryotes from
prokaryotes?
a. Eukaryotes have a cell wall.
b. Eukaryotes are multicellular.
c. Eukaryotes are photosynthetic.
d. Eukaryotes have a nucleus.
59. Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand
that would be complementary to the following
DNA strand: GTAGTCA.
a. UATUAGA
b. ACGACTG
c. CAUCAGU
d. CATCAGT
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75. The correct order for the levels of Linnaeus's
classification system, from general to specific, is
a. kingdom, species, class order, family, genus,
phylum.
b. kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus,
species.
c. phylum, kingdom, family, class, order, genus,
species.
d. species, genus, kingdom, family, order, class,
phylum.
67. Which of the following is an example of a
mutagen?
a. repair enzyme
b. triglyceride
c. UV sunlight
d. thymine
68. What are the main functions of DNA polymerase?
a. breaks hydrogen bonds and exposes bases
b. holds DNA strands apart and attracts bases
c. zips and unzips the double-stranded DNA
d. binds nucleotides and corrects base pair errors
69. The first step of PCR is to heat a DNA molecule to
more than 90°C. What is the function of this step?
a. to force DNA ligation to occur
b. to mutate the DNA sequence
c. to allow polymerases copy DNA
d. to separate the DNA strands
70. Nutrients are absorbed primarily in the
a. liver tissues.
b. small intestine.
c. large intestine.
d. stomach.
71. Which phrase is true for a DNA fingerprint?
a. It cannot distinguish among siblings.
b. It is a type of restriction map.
c. It shows a person's phenotype.
d. It focuses on coding regions of DNA.
72. Biogeography is the study of the
a. distribution of organisms around the world.
b. environments around the world.
c. different types of rocks around the world.
d. age of fossils around the world.
73. One limitation of the Linnaean classification
system is that it
a. allows scientists to discuss organisms.
b. is based on physical characteristics alone.
c. organizes organisms into groups.
d. does not use organisms' common names.
74. Which of the following DNA sequences is
complementary to the base sequence ACCGTAT?
a. GTTACGC
b. UCCGTAT
c. TGGCATA
d. CAATGCG
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ID: A
Biology Semester 2 Final
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
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D
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ID: A
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D
B
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B
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B
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