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Welcome to the Personal Training Certification Exam Prep
Course
You are about to start an intensive 9-day course covering all the topics you need to know
for the major certification exams. Although the course is designed to be done a little each
day, you can work at your own pace. You can also retake any portion of the course as
many times as you like until you feel comfortable with the subject material.
Access Instructions
The course consists of 28 quizzes and one final exam. Each quiz requires you to login with
a username and password.
IMPORTANT: Your username is your first name (as entered while paying for the course).
Your passwords are shown on page 2 of this document below after the link to each quiz.
Each quiz uses a unique password. Do not use your shopping cart user name or password
on the quizzes.
Before you jump into the first day it is a good idea to check out our tutorial
at
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/znavigating.html
A Note about Different Certifications
Fitness is not an exact science. And in many cases the various certification providers have
different philosophies. We have attempted to identify these differences on each question
where the guidelines differ between certifications. However, if you encounter an answer
which is different than what your certification provider is promoting, please let us know so
we can identify the difference on the quiz. There is a link under each quiz that allows you
to report a problem and add additional information to each question.
Your help is greatly appreciated!
And now onto the course...
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Day 1: Anatomy & Physiology
Quiz 1
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z1a1yn12.html
Password: fitness
Quiz 2
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z1a2wmx4.html
Password: dips
Quiz 3
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z1a3z4et.html
Password: superset
Day 2: Client Assessment
Quiz 1
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z2c12Rs7.html
Password: spindle
Quiz 2
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z2c2Fa61.html
Password: muscle
Quiz 3: Anatomy Review
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z2a4jL8x.html
Password: flexion
Day 3: Program Design
Quiz 1
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z3p1yt5a.html
Password: waiver
Quiz 2
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http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z3p29ds1.html
Password: treadmill
Quiz 3: Anatomy Review
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z3a5j8gf.html
Password: calorie
Day 4: Exercise Technique
Quiz 1
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z4e1zi43.html
Password: joint
Quiz 2
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z4e2i9km.html
Password: tendon
Quiz 3: Anatomy Review
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z4a6h3d2.html
Password: stretch
Day 5: Safety, Legal and Business Issues
Quiz 1
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z5s1d7t5.html
Password: heat
Quiz 2
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z5s2cv35.html
Password: tibia
Quiz 3: Anatomy Review
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z5a7swq9.html
Password: spine
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Day 6: Nutrition
Quiz 1
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z6n1k3s7.html
Password: heart
Quiz 2
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z6n2jf84.html
Password: tricep
Quiz 3: Anatomy Review
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z6a8gw8j.html
Password: skull
Day 7: Training Special Populations
Quiz 1
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z7sp1jh2.html
Password: radius
Quiz 2
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z7sp2d65.html
Password: rotation
4 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
Day 8: Certification Specific Review
For each certification listed below, you can review the exam discussions and then take a quiz
that is focused on that particular certification. For extra practice, you can take all the quizzes.
The password for all Day 8 quizzes is cardio.
ACE – http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z78ace.html
ACSM – http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z71acsm.html
AFAA – http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z72afaa.html
ISSA – http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z73issa.html
NASM – http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z74nasm.html
NCSF – http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z75ncsf.html
NESTA – http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z76nesta.html
NSCA - http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z77nsca.html
Day 9: The Final Exam
Take the Final Exam
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z8f184rt.html
Password: ventricle
A Few Final Words
http://www.viewletcentral.com/vc/viewlet/554210936/
No Password Required
Need Help?
Email support is available for the course is available by sending an email to
support@starting-a-personal-training-business.com
Enjoy the prep course. And good luck on your exam!
- Katie
5 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
Personal Trainer
Certification Exam Prep
Course
By the Personal Trainers at
6 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
Table of Contents
How to Use this Course ............................................................................................9
Accessing the Online Content ..................................................................................9
A Note about Different Certifications ......................................................................9
Day 1, Quiz 1: Anatomy, Physiology, Kinesiology .............................................. 10
Answers .............................................................................................................. 17
Day 1, Quiz 2: Anatomy, Physiology, Kinesiology .............................................. 19
Answers .............................................................................................................. 25
Day 1, Quiz 3: Anatomy, Physiology, Kinesiology .............................................. 27
Answers .............................................................................................................. 34
Day 2, Quiz 1: Client Assessment ......................................................................... 36
Answers .............................................................................................................. 41
Day 2, Quiz 2: Client Assessment ......................................................................... 43
Answers .............................................................................................................. 48
Day 2, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review .......................................................................... 50
Answers .............................................................................................................. 54
Day 3, Quiz 1: Program Design ............................................................................ 55
Answers .............................................................................................................. 60
Day 3, Quiz 2: Program Design ............................................................................ 62
Answers .............................................................................................................. 67
Day 3, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review .......................................................................... 69
Answers .............................................................................................................. 72
Day 4, Quiz 1: Exercise Techniques ..................................................................... 73
Answers .............................................................................................................. 80
Day 4, Quiz 2: Exercise Techniques ..................................................................... 82
Answers .............................................................................................................. 90
Day 4, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review .......................................................................... 92
Answers .............................................................................................................. 94
Day 5, Quiz 1: Safety, Legal and Business Issues ................................................ 95
Answers ............................................................................................................ 101
Day 5, Quiz 2: Safety, Legal and Business Issues .............................................. 103
7 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
Answers ............................................................................................................ 109
Day 5, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review ........................................................................ 111
Answers ............................................................................................................ 113
Day 6, Quiz 1: Nutrition ...................................................................................... 114
Answers ............................................................................................................ 120
Day 6, Quiz 2: Nutrition ...................................................................................... 122
Answers ............................................................................................................ 128
Day 6, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review ........................................................................ 130
Answers ............................................................................................................ 132
Day 7, Quiz 1: Training Special Populations ...................................................... 133
Answers ............................................................................................................ 137
Day 7, Quiz 2: Training Special Populations ...................................................... 138
Answers ............................................................................................................ 142
Day 8: Links to Certification Specific Exam Information .................................. 144
Day 8 ACE Quiz.................................................................................................. 145
Answers ............................................................................................................ 153
Day 8: ACSM Quiz ............................................................................................. 156
Answers ............................................................................................................ 164
Day 8 AFAA Quiz ............................................................................................... 167
Answers ............................................................................................................ 172
Day 8 ISSA Quiz ................................................................................................. 174
Answers ............................................................................................................ 179
Day 8: NASM Quiz ............................................................................................. 181
Answers ............................................................................................................ 188
Day 8 NSCA Quiz ............................................................................................... 190
Answers ............................................................................................................ 197
Day 8 NCSF Quiz................................................................................................ 200
Answers ............................................................................................................ 206
Day 8 NESTA Quiz ............................................................................................. 208
Answers ............................................................................................................ 213
Day 9: The Final Exam ....................................................................................... 215
Day 9: Final Exam Answers ............................................................................ 231
8 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
How to Use this Course
Welcome to the Personal Training Certification Exam Prep Course.
You are about to start an intensive eight-day course covering all of the topics you
need to know for the major certification exams. Although the course is designed
to be done a little each day, you can work at your own pace. You can also retake
any portion of the course as many times as you like until you feel comfortable
with the subject material.
Accessing the Online Content
While this book contains the complete content of the course, you also get access
to our interactive testing engine. Our online tests will automatically keep track of
your score and tell you if you have passed the test. The online tests have full-color
images that are often larger in size than the ones contained here due to the
limitations of book publishing.
The course consists of 754 questions spread over 28 quizzes and one final exam.
A +ote about Different Certifications
Fitness is not an exact science, and in many cases the various certification
providers have different philosophies. We have attempted to identify these
differences on each question where the guidelines differ between certifications.
However, if you encounter an answer that is different than what your certification
provider is promoting, please let us know so we can identify the difference on the
quiz. There is a link under each quiz that allows you to report a problem and add
additional information to each question.
9 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
Day 1, Quiz 1: Anatomy, Physiology, Kinesiology
Welcome to Day 1 of our Certification Prep Course. Over the next eight days you
will review all the topics covered on the certification exams.
Each day will consist of review sessions and quizzes that target a specific topic.
On most days you will take three quizzes. On Day 8, you will have a full-length
practice exam covering all topics.
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
•
•
•
•
•
The Nervous System
The Cardiovascular System
The Respiratory System
ATP
Glycolysis
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Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 1
1. The ability of nerves to communicate with muscles is called:
□
□
□
□
neuromuscular efficiency
proprioception
neural transmitters
nervous system
2. Motor neurons transmit messages from ___________ to effector sites.
□
□
□
□
□
□
□
the brain
the muscles
the joints
the spinal cord
the brain and muscles
the brain and spinal cord
all of the above
3. When the neuromuscular system responds to a stimulus it is called:
□
□
□
□
cause and effect
mechanoreception
motor function
arthrokinematics
4. Which of the following refers to the synchronization of motor units within a
muscle?
□
□
□
□
synapse sequencing
intramuscular coordination
intermuscular coordination
synaptic response
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5. Blood is mostly made up of:
□
□
□
□
water and nutrients
nutrients and globulins
plasma and wastes
plasma and water
6. The opening of the bronchial tubes is consistent with an activation of the:
□
□
□
□
sympathetic nervous system
parasympathetic nervous system
lymphatic system
endocrine system
7. Which system is responsible for immune response?
□
□
□
□
sympathetic nervous system
parasympathetic nervous system
lymphatic system
respiratory system
8. The pulmonary vein delivers blood to the:
□
□
□
□
lungs
aorta
left ventricle
left atrium
9. Smooth muscles are controlled by the:
□
□
□
□
central nervous system
autonomic nervous system
peripheral nervous system
voluntary nervous system
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10. Which of the following statements is true of a blood pH level of 7.5?
□
□
□
□
This is considered within part of the normal range.
Body functions begin to deteriorate at this level.
This is usually fatal.
This is rare but still considered safe.
11. Which of the following statements is true of a blood pH level of 7.85?
□
□
□
□
This is considered within normal range.
Body functions begin to deteriorate at this level.
This is usually fatal.
This is rare but still considered safe.
12. The cells of the nervous system that transmit messages are called:
□
□
□
□
astrocytes
glycogens
proteins
neurons
13. Which type of receptor responds to pressure and movement?
□
□
□
□
chemoreceptors
thermoreceptors
mechanoreceptors
photoreceptors
14. Which of the following is an accurate description of smooth muscle?
□
□
□
□
It has thousands of micro striations.
It is part of the voluntary nervous system.
It contracts the small intestine.
It responds well to resistance training.
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15. A gymnast is most likely to be:
□
□
□
□
hypomobile
hypermobile
hypoflexible
superflexible
16. True or False? The cardiac muscle rests during diastole.
17. Spine and pelvic alignment is aided by:
□
□
□
□
abdominal extension
abdominal contraction
Latissimus Dorsi flexion
Latissimus Dorsi extension
18. Bending your spine backward is an example of:
□
□
□
□
spinal flexion
spinal adduction
spinal abduction
spinal extension
19. True or False? Cardiac threshold is equal to the heart rate times the stroke
volume.
20. Stroke volume is the amount of blood ejected per beat by the ________.
□
□
□
□
left ventricle
femoral artery
aorta
left atrium
21. Anaerobic glycolysis produces:
□
□
□
□
glucose
homeostasis
lactic acid
ADP
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22. What term describes a metabolic pathway that does not use oxygen?
□
□
□
□
ATP
anaerobic
lactic acid
glycolysis
23. Which of the following statements is accurate concerning VO2 Max?
□ VO2 Max is the volume of oxygen you can consume while exercising at
70% target heart rate.
□ VO2 Max is limited by the ability of the cardiovascular and pulmonary
systems to transport the oxygen.
□ VO2 Max can be measured during a brisk walk.
□ VO2 Max is considered healthy if scores do not exceed 30 ml/kg/min.
24. Aerobic activity produces:
□
□
□
□
carbon dioxide
water
heat
all of the above
25. A sprinter gets the most energy from ______ during a race.
□
□
□
□
calories
glucose
ATP
glycolysis
26. The heart pumps an average of _____ liters of blood through the body.
□
□
□
□
2
6
12
18
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27. Which of the following is NOT a bone cell?
□
□
□
□
ostecysts
osteoclasts
osteoblasts
osteocytes
28. The larger, inferiorly located chambers of the heart are known as the:
□
□
□
□
atria
ventricles
aorta
capillaries
29. True or False? The inhalation of air is called inspiration.
30. The smallest vessels where oxygen is exchanged between tissues are the:
□
□
□
□
capillaries
white cells
veins
lungs
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Answers
1. Neuromuscular efficiency
2. The brain and spinal cord
3. Motor function
4. Intramuscular coordination
5. Plasma and water
6. Sympathetic nervous system – The sympathetic nervous system is associated
with the body’s stress response, and the opening of the bronchial tubes is a
stress response.
7. Lymphatic system – The lymphatic system controls the body’s immune
response, including the production of antibodies.
8. Left atrium
9. Autonomic nervous system – Smooth muscles are found in the veins, arteries
and internal organs, like the bladder, and function at an involuntary level.
10. Body functions begin to deteriorate at this level. Normal blood pH range is
7.35 to 7.45. Levels higher than this are dangerous.
11. This is usually fatal. Normal blood pH range is 7.35 to 7.45. A level of 7.85 is
excessively high.
12. Neurons – These cells transmit messages, while nervous system support cells
help the neurons to transmit messages.
13. Mechanoreceptors – Thermoreceptors respond to heat; photoreceptors
respond to light; and chemoreceptors respond to chemicals.
14. Contract the small intestine – Smooth muscle has no striations and is found in
veins, arteries and internal organs, like the small intestine.
15. Hypermobile – While most people are hypormobile (meaning they have
reduced flexibility), gymnasts are usually hypermobile (with increased
flexibility).
16. True – The cardiac muscle rests as the ventricles fill with blood during
diastole and then pumps during systole.
17. Abdominal contraction – Proper contraction and tone of the abdominal
muscles assist in keeping the spine and pelvis properly aligned.
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18. Spinal extension – Since the spine cannot move away from (abduction) or
toward (adduction) the center of the body (because the spine IS the center of
the body), bending the spine backward is an example of an extension.
19. False – Cardiac OUTPUT is equal to heart rate times stroke volume.
20. Left ventricle – The left ventricle ejects blood from the heart. Normally, only
about two-thirds of the blood in the ventricle is put out with each beat. What
blood is actually pumped from the left ventricle is the stroke volume and it,
together with the heart rate, determines the cardiac output.
21. Lactic acid – This is the byproduct of anaerobic glycolysis.
22. Anaerobic
23. VO2 Max is limited by the ability of the cardiovascular and pulmonary
systems to transport the oxygen – The other statements are NOT true because
VO2 Max is the maximum capacity (not 70%) to transport and use oxygen
during exercise, thus VO2 Max cannot be measured during a brisk walk (not
high enough intensity). A score of 45 ml/kg/min is typical for an untrained
adult so levels below 30 ml/kg/min are not necessarily healthy.
24. All of the above – Aerobic activity produces carbon dioxide, water and heat.
25. ATP – This is the main energy source utilized during short bursts of intense
activity such as sprinting.
26. 6 – The body contains 5 to 6 liters of blood on average.
27. Ostecysts
28. Ventricles – The atria are superior to the ventricles and are smaller, while the
aorta and capillaries are blood vessels.
29. True – The technical terms for breathing are inspiration (inhaling) and
expiration (exhaling).
30. Capillaries – Veins are larger than capillaries and transport mostly
deoxygenated blood.
18 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
Day 1, Quiz 2: Anatomy, Physiology, Kinesiology
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
• The Skeletal System
• Kinesiology
Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 2
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Question 1-13. Identify the
bone that each arrow is
pointing to.
Choose from the following:
Clavicle
Fibula
Femur
Humerus
Pelvis
Patella
Phalanges
Radius
Scapula
Sternum
Skull
Tibia
Ulna
Note: A higher resolution,
color image is available at
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z1a2wmx4.html
20 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
14. The shoulder uses the rotator cuff for:
□
□
□
□
rotation
abduction
adduction
hyperextension
15. Lordosis is better known as:
□
□
□
□
□
tennis elbow
jumper's knee
swayback
hunchback
fascia
16. Which of the following contains the most bones?
□
□
□
□
inner ear
middle ear
axial skeleton
appendicular skeleton
17. Which of the following is an example of a sesamoid bone?
□
□
□
□
□
femur
phalanges
patella
clavicle
malleus
18. What provides stability during movement?
□
□
□
□
tendon
muscle
ligament
none of the above
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19. The human hand is made up of:
□
□
□
□
10 phalanges, 10 metacarpals
5 phalanges, 10 metacarpals
15 phalanges, 5 metacarpals
14 phalanges, 5 metacarpals
20. Which of these stores energy for the body?
□
□
□
□
□
calories
proteins
glucose
lipids
red blood cells
21. The joints found between intervertebral discs and spinal bones are known as:
□
□
□
□
□
synovial joints
non-synovial joints
fibrous joints
cartilaginous joints
cartilage
22. Moderate intensity exercise _________ the size and strength of ligaments.
□ increases
□ decreases
□ does not affect
23. Moderate intensity exercise _________ the size and strength of tendons.
□ increases
□ decreases
□ does not affect
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24. A person with a high VO2 level will be able to perform peak intensity activity
_________ compared to a person with lower VO2 levels.
□ for a longer amount of time
□ for a shorter amount of time
□ for the same amount of time
25. True or False? Lactic acid causes fatigue during anaerobic activity?
26. While exercising, diastolic pressure __________ and systolic pressure
_________.
□
□
□
□
remains unchanged, increases
increases, decreases
decreases, decreases
increases, increases
27. Which hormone is most useful in raising calcium levels?
□
□
□
□
calcitonin
parathyroid
estrogen
testosterone
28. Tendons connect bone to:
□
□
□
□
muscle
joints
bones
ligaments
29. The spine, thorax and pelvis are all part of the:
□
□
□
□
core
nervous system
cardiorespiratory system
cardiovascular system
23 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
30. The Golgi Tendon Organ:
□
□
□
□
measures the tension that each muscle contraction builds up
regenerates damaged soft tissues
is responsible for the pain response
is a common cause of “tennis elbow”
24 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
Answers
1. Skull
2. Scapula
3. Clavicle
4. Sternum
5. Humerus
6. Radius
7. Pelvis
8. Ulna
9. Femur
10. Patella
11. Fibula
12. Tibia
13. Phalanges
14. Rotation – The rotator cuff serves to rotate the shoulder.
15. Swayback – Hunchback is the more commonly known term for kyphosis.
16. Appendicular skeleton – The appendicular skeleton consists of all of your
limbs and contains many more bones than the ear and axial skeleton.
17. Patella – Sesamoid bones are typically found in locations where a tendon
passes over a joint, such as in the hand, knee and foot. Functionally, they act
to protect the tendon and to increase its mechanical effect.
18. Ligament – Ligaments hold things together while tendons and muscles serve
to create movement.
19. 14 phalanges, 5 metacarpals. The thumb has one less bone than the other
fingers.
20. Lipids – Lipids are fats and store energy and nutrients for the body.
21. Cartilaginous joints – Intervertebral discs help to form the joints of the spine,
and layers of cartilage attach the intervertebral discs to the spinal bones.
22. Increase
23. Increase
24. Longer – A higher level of VO2 allows for more glucose breakdown, which
allows for longer periods of high-intensity activity.
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25. True – Build up of lactic acid in the muscles causes fatigue during anaerobic
exercise.
26. Diastolic remains unchanged while systolic increases – Systolic pressure
increases because the heart must pump harder during exercise, but diastolic
pressure remains the same because the heart is resting.
27. Parathyroid – Parathyroid is the primary hormone utilized in the regulation of
calcium. Calcitonin can also improve calcium uptake, but it is usually only
effective in children and osteoporosis patients.
28. Muscle
29. Core – The core is the center of the body composed primarily of the spine,
thorax and pelvis.
30. Measures the tension that each muscle builds up – Because a Golgi tendon
organ exists in serial connection with muscle fibers, it can measure the tension
that each muscle contraction builds up.
26 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
Day 1, Quiz 3: Anatomy, Physiology, Kinesiology
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
• The Muscular System
• More Kinesiology
Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 3
27 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
Question 1-9. Identify the muscle that each arrow is pointing to.
Choose from the following:
Adductors
Biceps
Deltoid
Erector Spinae
External Obliques
Forearm
Gastrocnemius
Gluteus Maximus
Gluteus Medius
Hamstrings
Internal Obliques
Latissimus Dorsi
Pectorals
Quadriceps
Rhomboids
Rotator Cuff
Soleus
Tibialis Anterior
Trapezius
Triceps
Note: A higher resolution,
color image is available at
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z1a3z4et.html
28 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
Question 10-21. Identify the muscle that each arrow is pointing to.
Choose from the following:
Adductors
Biceps
Deltoid
Erector Spinae
External Obliques
Forearm
Gastrocnemius
Gluteus Maximus
Gluteus Medius
Hamstrings
Internal Obliques
Latissimus Dorsi
Pectorals
Quadriceps
Rhomboids
Rotator Cuff
Soleus
Tibialis Anterior
Trapezius
Triceps
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22. A sarcomere:
□
□
□
□
□
is responsible for muscle contraction
is the segment between two neighboring Z-lines
gives muscles their striated appearance
all of the above
none of the above
23. Ligaments connect bone to:
□
□
□
□
muscle
joints
bone
tendons
24. Muscle activity that lengthens the muscle is referred to as:
□
□
□
□
eccentric
isometric
concentric
procentric
25. A muscle that aids the action of a prime mover is called a(n):
□
□
□
□
agonist
antagonist
stabilizer
synergist
26. A muscle that relaxes while another contracts is called a(n):
□
□
□
□
agonist
antagonist
stabilizer
synergist
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27. When bending the elbow the triceps are the:
□
□
□
□
agonist
antagonist
stabilizer
synergist
28. A muscle that can move two joints is:
□
□
□
□
articulate
triarticulate
diarticulate
biarticulate
29. The increase of the size of an organ or tissue is referred to as:
□
□
□
□
muscle spindle
hypertrophy
endurance
maximal strength
30. The bicep performs which function?
□
□
□
□
prime mover
motive muscles
stabilizer
all of the above
31. Latissimus Dorsi performs which of the following?
□
□
□
□
shoulder flexion
shoulder adduction
shoulder extension
shoulder adduction and extension
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32. What is the MAIN function of Gluteus Medius?
□
□
□
□
hip flexion
hip extension
hip adduction
hip abduction
33. Posterior Deltoid performs which of the following?
□
□
□
□
shoulder horizontal abduction
shoulder internal rotation
shoulder extension and internal rotation
shoulder horizontal abduction and extension
34. From a normal standing position, pointing your toes to the side is an
example of:
□
□
□
□
knee flexion
hip flexion
hip external rotation
hip extension
35. The muscles of the rotator cuff keep tension on the:
□
□
□
□
deltoids
humerus
rhomboids
latissimus dorsi
36. Which is NOT a muscle of the rotator cuff?
□
□
□
□
supraspinatus
supracapularis
teres minor
all of the above are rotator cuff muscles
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37. Which of the following is characteristic of Type II muscle fibers?
□
□
□
□
resistant to fatigue
aid good posture
slow twitch
fast twitch
38. True or False? Endurance training changes muscle composition from Type II
to Type I.
39. True or False? The synergist controls the joint during movement.
40. Which muscles does the Achilles tendon connect to the calcaneus?
(choose ALL correct answers):
□
□
□
□
hamstring
gastrocnemius
soleus
quadriceps
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Answers
1. Rotator Cuff
2. Deltoid
3. Pectorals
4. Biceps
5. External Obliques
6. Quadriceps
7. Tibilais Anterior
8. Internal Obliques
9. Adductors
10. Deltoid
11. Rhomboids
12. Erector Spinae
13. Hamstrings
14. Trapezius
15. Triceps
16. Latissimus Dorsi
17. Forearm
18. Gluteus Medius
19. Gluteus Maximus
20. Gastrocnemius
21. Soleus
22. All of the above – A sarcomere is the segment between two neighboring
z-lines that is responsible for muscle contraction and gives muscles their
striated appearance.
23. Bone
24. Eccentric – Concentric shortens the muscle, and isometric has no change
in length.
25. Synergist
26. Antagonist – The antagonist opposes the agonist, or prime mover, and
lengthens as the agonist contracts.
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27. Antagonist – When bending the elbow, the biceps contract (agonist) and the
triceps lengthen (antogonist).
28. Biarticulate – Articulate moves one joint; triarticulate moves three joints.
29. Hypertrophy
30. All of the above – The biceps perform different functions according to what
movement is being made. For example, during a barbell curl, the biceps are
the primary working muscles, also known as the motive muscles. However,
during deadlifts the biceps stay stiff and taut to steady the forearm and in
doing so, take on the role of stabilizer.
31. Shoulder adduction and extention – Latissimus dorsi performs shoulder
adduction and extension but not flexion.
32. Hip abduction – Note: If you are studying for Can-Fit-Pro, their Foundations
of Personal Training book lists hip extension as another function of the
Gluteus Medius. In addition, the ACE text states that it performs hip extension
(although not as the main function).
33. Shoulder horizontal abduction and extension
34. Hip external rotation – From a normal standing position, the entire hip is
being rotated toward the outside (external) when you point your toes out.
35. Humerus
36. Supracapularis – This is a made-up choice designed to sound like
subscapularis, which is a rotator cuff muscle.
37. Fast twitch – These fibers are responsible for rapid movement. The other
answers are characteristic of Type I fibers.
38. True – Endurance training can change muscles from fast twitch to slow
twitch. It should be noted, however, that this is a controversial topic and some
certifications like ACE disagree.
39. False – The agonist controls the joint during movement.
40. Gastrocnemius and soleus are BOTH correct.
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Day 2, Quiz 1: Client Assessment
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
•
•
•
•
•
Assessment Tests
Assessment Forms
PAR-Q
Blood pressure
Assessing Flexibility
Step 2: Take Client Assessment Quiz 1
Please answer questions 1-3 using the following information:
1. Your new male client weighs 180 pounds. You measure his body fat and
determine it is 26%. How much of your client's weight is due to fat?
□
□
□
□
40 pounds
47 pounds
66 pounds
insufficient information to calculate
2. What is your client's lean body weight?
□
□
□
□
□
133 pounds
140 pounds
145 pounds
152 pounds
insufficient information to calculate
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3. What is the goal weight if body fat is reduced to 22%?
□
□
□
□
140 pounds
150 pounds
160 pounds
170 pounds
4. If a client can sit and just touch his/her toes when reaching forward, his/her
score on a sit and reach test would be:
□
□
□
□
zero
pass
fail
needs improvement
5. True or False? Sit and Reach test results should not be compared among
individuals.
6. If a client has listed back pain on the PAR-Q form, which assessment test
should NOT be given?
□
□
□
□
timed treadmill
vertical leap
BMI
BORG scale
7. What is the appropriate course of action if a client lists blood pressure medicine
on the PAR-Q form?
□
□
□
□
Obtain physician consent before beginning an exercise program.
Reduce target heart rate by 10%.
Reduce aerobic training duration to no more than 20 minutes.
Train normally but monitor blood pressure during sessions.
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8. Submaximal testing is used to measure:
□
□
□
□
strength
muscle endurance
cardiovascular fitness
cardiac output
9. True or False? Shoulder joint flexibility is a good indicator of overall body
flexibility.
10. The minimum arterial pressure during a full cardiac cycle is referred to as
what kind of pressure?
□
□
□
□
systolic
diastolic
aortic
none of the above
11. Pressure created by contractions of the heart muscle is referred to as what kind
of pressure?
□
□
□
□
systolic
diastolic
aortic
none of the above
12. Which of the following can be calculated by subtracting your age from 220?
(220 - age = ?):
□
□
□
□
target heart rate
maximum heart rate
Karvonen target
Karvonen BMI factor
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13. A female client has a resting heart rate of 80 beats per minute. What is her
target heart rate if she is exercising at 70% of her reserve heart rate?
□
□
□
□
90 beats per minute
140 beats per minute
160 beats per minute
insufficient information to calculate
14. A client with Class IV congestive heart failure wants to train with you. What
is the appropriate course of action?
□
□
□
□
Develop a training program that avoids cardio.
Obtain a medical release from the client’s physician.
Get a signed informed consent form.
Refuse your services.
15. On what form would you most likely see this question: “Are you over 65 and
not accustomed to vigorous exercise?”
□
□
□
□
□
informed consent
medical release
PAR-Q
liability waiver
health history form
16. VO2 max is typically _________ in females compared to males.
□ higher
□ lower
□ the same
17. Which of the following is true of submaximal testing?
□
□
□
□
It requires special equipment.
It is exhausting to the client.
It provides little value.
None of the above
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18. Which of the following factors can distort the results of a submaximal test?
(choose ALL correct answers):
□
□
□
□
Client was up late partying.
Client ate a large breakfast one hour before the test.
Client had a double cappuccino on the way to the gym.
Client’s age
19. During a three-minute step test it is important to ask the client questions to
assess their exertion level. What is the appropriate communication method in
this situation?
□ The trainer can speak, but the client should use only hand gestures.
□ Both the trainer and the client should communicate through hand
gestures only.
□ Normal verbal communication between trainer and client is acceptable.
□ The client can speak, but the trainer should use hand gestures.
20. Which form is considered legally binding?
□
□
□
□
□
informed consent
medical release
PAR-Q
liability waiver
health history form
21. Which are examples of assessment tests that would be run for a new client?
(choose ALL correct answers):
□
□
□
□
standing long jump
blood
skin fold measurements
blood pressure
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Answers
1. 47 pounds – To calculate the weight of body fat in pounds, multiply the
client’s weight (180) by their fat percentage (0.26), which in this case equals
46.8 (rounded up to 47).
2. 133 pounds – Lean body weight can be calculated by subtracting the pounds of
fat (see question #1 = 47) from pounds of total body weight (180). 180-47= 133
3. 170 pounds – To calculate, first determine the desired percentage of lean body
weight (1-0.22 = 0.78). Then divide the current lean body weight (see question
#2 = 133) by the desired percentage of lean body weight (133/0.78 = 170).
4. Zero – Reaching beyond the toes gives a positive score; reaching short of the
toes gives a negative score
5. True – Differences in body length can make comparisons meaningless.
6. Vertical leap – This could place undue pressure on the back and exacerbate the
client’s pain.
7. Obtain physician consent before beginning an exercise program – Blood
pressure medications can cause distortions in heart rate and blood pressure
during exercise so physician consent is needed.
8. Cardiovascular fitness
9. False – Joint flexibility and overall flexibility are independent of each other.
One joint may have a high ROM while another may be restricted.
10. Diastolic – In terms of blood pressure, the diastolic pressure, or minimum
pressure, is exhibited when the heart is NOT pumping.
11. Systolic – The systolic pressure is the pressure measured when the heart is
pumping.
12. Maximum heart rate
13. Insufficient information. You need the client’s age to calculate maximum
heart rate (220 – age) and target heart rate.
14. Refuse your services. Class IV patients have symptoms even while resting.
Any exertion can be fatal. You will be exposed to excessive liability even with
a medical release form.
15. PAR-Q
16. Lower in females
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17. None of the above – Submaximal testing does not require special equipment
and is very useful in determining a client’s level of cardiovascular fitness
without exhausting the client.
18. All choices – Submaximal testing is used to measure cardiovascular fitness.
All of the choices can affect cardiovascular function. The client’s activities
before the test will definitely affect the results, and age is known to affect
VO2 max calculations in older persons.
19. The trainer can speak, but the client should use only hand gestures – The
client should not speak to avoid altering the results of the test, and the trainer
should indicate this to the client before administering the test.
20. Informed consent – Liability waivers are sometimes determined to be invalid
by the courts. While informed consent forms can also be thrown out if the
signer is determined to be unable to comprehend what they are signing, it is
much less likely.
21. Skin fold measurements and blood pressure – Blood tests are unnecessary as
are standing long jump tests. However, be sure to check with state regulations
regarding scope of practice for personal trainers before administering any
tests.
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Day 2, Quiz 2: Client Assessment
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
• Body Mass Index (BMI)
• Coronary Artery Disease
Step 2: Take Client Assessment Quiz 2
1. Cindy, a 50-year-old female client, has a resting heart rate of 80 beats per
minute. What is her target heart rate if she is exercising at 70% of her reserve
heart rate?
□
□
□
□
95 beats per minute
143 beats per minute
160 beats per minute
insufficient information to calculate
2. Cindy, a 50-year-old female client, has a resting heart rate of 80 beats per
minute. If Cindy wants to work out in the aerobic zone, what is the target range
for her heart rate?
□
□
□
□
134 to 143
143 to 152
150 to 160
152 to 161
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3. A client with a BMI of 19 would be considered:
□
□
□
□
underweight
overweight
obese
normal
4. True or False? An athlete with a BMI of 23 can be considered obese.
5. Which of the following is NOT a method for measuring body fat:
□
□
□
□
calipers
hydrostatic weighing
BMI weighting
bioelectrical impedance
6. Which of the following is the most accurate method for measuring body fat?
□
□
□
□
calipers
hydrostatic weighing
BMI weighting
bioelectrical impedance
7. BMI is typically _________ in females compared to males.
□ higher
□ lower
□ the same
8. True or False? The thigh skin fold measurement should be taken midway
between the inguinal crease and the top of the patella.
9. Which of the following is a risk factor for coronary heart disease?
□
□
□
□
□
high HDL
low HDL
hypertension
family history
all of the above
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10. Which of the following activities should NOT be engaged in with a new client
who has a moderate risk for coronary artery disease?
□
□
□
□
maximal testing
submaximal testing
moderate intensity training
all of the above
11. True or False? Measurements of girth are directly related to body fat
percentage.
12. The accuracy of skin fold measurements is dependent on which of the
following? (choose ALL correct answers):
□
□
□
□
client age
trainer skill
blood pressure
type of caliper
13. Which statement is NOT true about ganglion cysts?
□
□
□
□
They usually grow on the ankle and foot.
They often change in size.
They have been known to disappear without treatment.
They are NOT cancerous.
14. A golfer is more likely to suffer from which of the following conditions?
□
□
□
□
lateral epicondylitis
medial epicondylitis
otitis externa
tinea pedis
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15. A new client is going to be a bridesmaid in six weeks and wants to lose 15
pounds. Which of the following would you prescribe for this client?
□
□
□
□
design an aerobic focused program
design a weight training program
design a program with aerobics and weight training
cut caloric intake by 700 calories per day and design an aerobics
program
□ none of the above
16. BMI is a ratio of:
□
□
□
□
body fat to weight
body fat to height
height to weight
girth to height
17. Skin fold measurements are taken on which side of the body?
□
□
□
□
right side
left side
both sides
either side (it doesn't matter)
18. The abdominal skin fold measurement is taken ___________ about _______
centimeters from the umbilicus.
□
□
□
□
□
horizontally, 2
horizontally, 3
horizontally, 4
vertically, 2
vertically, 3
19. Which of the following statements is accurate?
□
□
□
□
1RM measures muscle endurance.
1RM is the weight of the successful lift.
1RM is the weight of the successful lift with at least 3 reps.
1RM is the weight of the unsuccessful lift.
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20. Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor for lower back pain?
□
□
□
□
□
□
smoking
sedentary lifestyle
heavy lifting
drug use
obesity
all choices are contributing factors
21. Obese people have __________ resting metabolic rates as compared to
underweight people.
□ higher
□ lower
□ the same
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Answers
1. 143 bpm – Maximum heart rate is calculated by using the formula 220 – age, so
for Cindy this would be 220 – 50 = 170. Reserve heart rate is calculated by
subtracting resting heart rate from maximum heart rate (170 – 80 = 90). 70%
of her reserve heart rate (90 x 0.7 = 63) plus her resting heart rate (80) = 143.
2. 143 to 152 – The aerobic zone is 70 to 80% of reserve heart rate. Cindy’s
reserve heart rate is 90 (see question #1) so 80% of her reserve heart rate is
(90 x 0.8 = 72) plus her resting heart rate (80) = 152. See question #1 for 70%
to get correct answer of 143 to 152.
3. Normal – Normal BMI is between 18.5 and 24.9.
4. True – Even with a normal BMI the athlete can be considered obese if the
amount of body fat interferes with athletic performance.
5. BMI weighting – BMI does not measure body fat percentage.
6. Hydrostatic weighting – While more convenient methods like calipers and
bioelectrical impedance are reliable enough to be used, the most accurate
method is hydrostatic weighting.
7. Higher in females
8. True
9. All of the above – Although high HDL is a negative risk factor (considered a
good thing) it is still used in the calculation of risk.
10. Maximal testing – You should not perform high intensity training with
moderate-risk clients without physician consent.
11. False – Girth can vary depending on other factors like the size of the skeletal
system and internal organs.
12. Trainer skill and type of caliper – Client age and blood pressure have no
bearing on the accuracy of skin fold measurements.
13. They usually grow on the ankle and foot – This statement is NOT true as
ganglion cysts are usually found on the hand and wrist, not the foot and ankle.
14. Medial epicondylitis – Lateral epicondylitis is tennis elbow; otitis externa is
swimmer's ear; and tinea pedis is athlete's foot.
15. None of the above – It is unsafe to lose 15 pounds in six weeks.
16. Height to weight
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17. Right side of the body – This will help you obtain the most accurate
measurements. Note, however, that some certifications recommend measuring
the right side first and then measuring the left side to ensure accuracy.
18. Vertically about 2 centimeters from the umbilicus
19. 1RM is the weight of the successful lift – 1RM is a measure of muscle
strength.
20. All choices are contributing factors – The back muscles are generally the
weakest muscles in the body and are affected more by lifestyle factors like
smoking and heavy lifting than by other muscles.
21. Higher – It takes more calories to run a larger body than a smaller body.
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Day 2, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
• Be able to identify the planes of motion
Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 4
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Question 1-3. Identify the body planes that each arrow is pointing to.
1. Arrow A points to the
2. Arrow B points to the
3. Arrow C points to the
Choose from the
following:
Frontal Plane
Sagittal Plane
Helvetic Plane
Transverse Plane
4. The proper alignment of the kinetic chain affects which of the following?
□
□
□
□
kinesiology
neuromuscular efficiency
functional efficiency
posture
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5. When one or more synergists take over function for a prime mover it is
known as:
□
□
□
□
synergistic dominance
substitution
Lenin's theory
reciprocal inhibition
Question 6-13. Match the term to its correct definition.
Term
Definition
6. Anterior
A. farther away
7. Distal
B. away from the sagittal midline of the body
8. Inferior
C. toward the sagittal midline of the body
9. Lateral
D. toward the head
10. Medial
E. away from the head
11. Posterior
F. front of the body
12. Proximal
G. back of the body
13. Superior
H. closer
14. Which is NOT a normal effect of the sympathetic nervous system?
□
□
□
□
sweating
constricted pupils
increased heart rate
all of these are normal effects
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15. Testosterone and estrogen are examples of:
□
□
□
□
hormones
inhibitors
conjoiners
accelerators
53 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
Answers
1. A = Sagittal Plane
2. B = Frontal Plane
3. C = Transverse Plane
4. Posture – The correct alignment of the kinetic chain results in better posture.
Any distortion can result in poor posture, which can cause a variety of
musculoskeletal problems such as back and knee pain.
5. Synergistic dominance
6. F – Anterior is the front of the body.
7. A – Distal means farther away.
8. E – Inferior is away from the head.
9. B – Lateral means away from the sagittal midline of the body.
10. C – Medial means toward the sagittal midline of the body.
11. G – Posterior is the back of the body.
12. H – Proximal means closer.
13. D – Superior means toward the head.
14. Constricted pupils – Sweating and increased heart rate are normal effects of
the sympathetic nervous system. Pupils will normally become dilated, not
constricted.
15. Hormones
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Day 3, Quiz 1: Program Design
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
•
•
•
•
•
•
Benefits of proper warm-up techniques
Importance of a cool down
Different types of stretching
Safe and effective weight loss
Effects of detraining
Program design techniques like super setting
Step 2: Take Program Design Quiz 1
1. A proper warm up can:
□
□
□
□
reduce oxygen deficit during intense training
reduce the glycogen effect
increase range of motion
all of the above
2. To improve clients’ flexibility, it is recommended that they stretch each muscle
group 4 times each, 3 times per week for:
□
□
□
□
20 seconds each time
30 seconds each time
90 seconds each time
3 to 5 minutes each time
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3. You observe your client standing with toes pointed outward. Which flexibility
technique would you prescribe?
□
□
□
□
functional
active
inactive
corrective
4. What is the most appropriate flexibility technique to use during the cool down
stage?
□
□
□
□
functional
active
inactive
corrective
5. Anaerobic glycolysis occurs during which of the following? (choose ALL
correct answers):
□
□
□
□
warm up
sprinting
heavy weightlifting
cool down
6. Recommended daily activity for adults is at least ____ minutes of moderate
intensity activity.
□
□
□
□
15
20
30
45
7. If a client’s goal is to lose 1 – 2 pounds per week, the aerobic program you
prescribe should burn how many calories per day?
□
□
□
□
100
300
500
750
56 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.
8. A proper cool down:
□
□
□
□
reduces water loss due to sweating
increases flexibility
prevents blood from pooling in muscles
increases metabolic response
9. Stroke volume _________ after a period of detraining.
□ increases
□ decreases
□ stays the same
10. Muscle atrophy occurs _______ when compared to muscle hypertrophy.
□ at a faster rate
□ at a slower rate
□ at the same rate
11. Limits of Stability can be improved by which of the following?
□
□
□
□
functional flexibility
raising the center of gravity
plantarflexion
training in an unstable environment
12. The principle that states that the body will adapt to the demands placed upon it
accurately describes which of the following?
□
□
□
□
principle of mechanical specificity
principle of overload specificity
principle of metabolic specificity
principle of specificity
13. Changing an exercise program to prevent overtraining is called:
□
□
□
□
rotation
variety
specification
periodization
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14. What is the appropriate course of action for the personal trainer if the client's
chiropractor recommends building strength in the Rhomboids?
□
□
□
□
obtain physician consent before beginning
recommend push ups
recommend squats
recommend dips
15. Bench press followed by dumbbell flies is an example of what kind of
superset?
□
□
□
□
compound superset
pre-exhaustion superset
post-exhaustion superset
isolations superset
16. Leg extensions followed by squats is an example of what kind of superset?
□
□
□
□
compound superset
pre-exhaustion superset
post-exhaustion superset
isolations superset
17. Dumbbell flies followed by cable crossovers is an example of what kind of
superset?
□
□
□
□
compound superset
pre-exhaustion superset
post-exhaustion superset
isolations superset
18. Periodization is a technique used to minimize the effects of:
□
□
□
□
detraining
pretraining
under training
over training
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19. If your client reduces high intensity training to only once per week, his/her
VO2 max will:
□ increase
□ decrease
□ stay the same
20. During stretching routines, the client should feel:
□
□
□
□
no pain
mild discomfort
moderate to intense discomfort
a release of endorphins
21. If your client is suffering from shin splints, what should you add to his/her
program?
□
□
□
□
light stretching followed by 30 minutes of aerobic activity
stretching the hamstrings
stretching the ankle dorsiflexors
stretching gastrocnemius and soleus
22. True or False? In general, single joint exercises should be completed before
multi-joint exercises.
23. What are the effects of stretching?
□
□
□
□
□
improved blood flow
soreness prevention
reduced low back pain
reduced stress
all of the above
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Answers
1. Reduce oxygen deficit during intense training – It is important to note that
including stretching in a warm-up routine can increase range of motion.
2. 30 seconds – This is recommended as the most beneficial amount of time.
3. Corrective – The toes pointing outward would indicate corrective flexibility
techniques.
4. Corrective – You do not want to use active or functional stretching during cool
down.
5. Sprinting and heavy weightlifting – Both sprinting and heavy weightlifting are
anaerobic activities, while warm up and cool down should be aerobic.
6. 30 minutes
7. 500 calories – At least 500 calories must be burned to help create the caloric
deficit needed to lose 1 – 2 pounds per week.
8. Prevents blood from pooling in muscles
9. Decreases – This is especially true for people who do endurance training.
10. At the same rate
11. Training in an unstable environment – This helps the body adapt.
12. Principle of overload specificity
13. Periodization
14. Recommend dips – Chin-ups and dips are good exercises for the rhomboids,
and physician consent is not necessary.
15. Post-exhaustion superset – A post-exhaustion superset starts with the
compound movement and follows that with the isolation exercise
16. Pre-exhaustion superset – A pre-exhaustion superset is composed of two
different exercises for the same muscle group. The first exercise (leg
extensions) is an isolation move, and the second (squats) is a compound
movement. (Compound moves target several muscle groups at once while
isolation moves target specific muscles.)
17. Isolations superset – An isolations superset is composed of two isolation
exercises performed one after another.
18. Over training
19. It stays the same – VO2 max can be maintained by training as little as once per
week.
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20. Mild discomfort – However, it should be noted that the client should NOT feel
moderate to intense pain or discomfort while stretching.
21. Stretching the ankle dorsiflexors – This will help to reduce the pain
experienced with shin splints.
22. False – Multi-joint exercises should be done first.
23. All of the above – Stretching can improve blood flow, prevent soreness and
reduce low back pain and stress.
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Day 3, Quiz 2: Program Design
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
•
•
•
•
•
Effective strength training
Cardiovascular training
Designing endurance training programs
Circuit Training
Dealing with low back pain
Step 2: Take Program Design Quiz 2
1. Your client's goal is to build his/her strength. How often should he/she train per
week?
□
□
□
□
once per week
2 to 3 times per week
3 to 5 times per week
a little every day
2. What is the appropriate course of action for a client suffering from lower back
pain?
□
□
□
□
□
refer him to a doctor
recommend massage therapy
design a program to improve posture
design a program to strengthen the back muscles
design a program to strengthen the stomach muscles
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3. Resistance training should always start with which muscles?
□
□
□
□
small muscle groups
large muscle groups
stabilizer muscles
prime movers
4. Improved performance, posture and range of motion are benefits of which of
the following?
□
□
□
□
strength training
stretching
anaerobic exercise
aerobic exercise
5. Interval training is most appropriate for which of the following goals?
□
□
□
□
improved athletic performance
building strength
carb reduction
all of the above
6. An exercise with high resistance and low reps is best suited for building:
□
□
□
□
muscle endurance
muscle strength
aerobic endurance
cardio flexibility
7. True or False? Walking can reduce lower back pain.
8. If your client wants bigger muscles, how many reps do you need to include in
the training program?
□
□
□
□
□
2 to 4
4 to 6
8 to 12
12 to 15
until exhaustion
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9. If your client wants to build maximal strength, how much rest time do you
allow between sets?
□
□
□
□
less than 30 seconds
1 to 3 minutes
3 to 5 minutes
more than 5 minutes
10. What are the effects of cardiovascular training? (choose ALL correct
answers):
□
□
□
□
□
increased stroke volume
decreased resting heart rate
decreased blood volume
increased HDL levels
increased LDL levels
11. What suggestions would your make to a client who suffers from lower back
pain?
□
□
□
□
build upper body strength
stretch the hamstrings
sleep in the supine position
none of the above
12. Circuit training is an effective way to improve which of the following?
□
□
□
□
overall fitness
strength
muscular endurance
all of the above
13. What is the optimum amount of reps during a circuit-training program?
□
□
□
□
3 to 5
6 to 9
10 to 15
as many as possible
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14. The optimum intensity during circuit training is:
□
□
□
□
50 to 60% THR
60 to 70% THR
70 to 80% THR
50% 1RM
15. Weight training with a high number of reps several times per week is
consistent with:
□
□
□
□
strength training
muscular endurance
flexibility
calcium regeneration
16. Training at 70 to 80% target heart rate is considered training in which zone?
□
□
□
□
aerobic zone
anaerobic zone
recovery zone
unhealthy zone
17. What is the main disadvantage of exercise bands?
□
□
□
□
tension cannot be adjusted
more resistance in parts of the range of motion
requires expensive equipment
requires free weights to be used with them
18. Which should be completed first in a program for a client who has a goal of
strength training?
□
□
□
□
cool down
auxillary lifts
core lifts
none of the above
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19. Your client wants to strengthen his/her serratus muscle. What exercise do you
suggest?
□
□
□
□
calf raises
toe touches
push ups
sit ups
20. Your client is unlikely to experience hypertrophy in the first few weeks of
training due to:
□
□
□
□
hyperplasia
neuromuscular adaptation
detraining
overload principle
21. A new client with little exercise history will experience pain after a heavy
workout due to:
□
□
□
□
□
ATP
DOMS
hypertrophy
hyperplasia
blood pooling
22. To minimize the risk of injury to a new client with little exercise history, you
should design your program to do which of the following?
□
□
□
□
strengthen the quads and hamstrings
stretch the quads and hamstrings
stretch the quads and strengthen the hamstrings
strengthen the quads and stretch the hamstrings
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Answers
1. Two to three times per week – Building strength requires adequate recovery
time (at least 48 hours is recommended). Thus, strength training should only
be done 2 to 3 times per week.
2. Design a program to improve posture – Referring to a doctor is not necessary;
and only strengthening the back or stomach muscles may not have the desired
result. Note: This question is controversial because some certifications may
(cautiously) suggest that a physician's consent is required.
3. Large muscle groups – This reduces the risk of injury and allows for the best
progression of muscle growth and strength.
4. Stretching – None of the other options (strength training, aerobic or anaerobic
exercise) has much bearing on improving posture or range of motion.
5. Improved athletic performance – Athletic performance can be enhanced by
interval training, as it forces the body to adapt to different movements while
still building strength and endurance.
6. Muscle strength – Decreasing resistance and increasing reps is best for building
endurance.
7. True – Walking can improve posture and strengthen muscles, helping to reduce
back pain.
8. Four to six reps – This is the recommended amount of reps for building muscle
strength while 8 to 12+ reps are recommended for increasing endurance.
9. Three to five minutes – For strength athletes, 3 to 5 minutes of rest time
between sets is ideal, allowing for full phosphagen recovery before beginning
the next set. It's only for individuals training with hyperthrophy and endurance
as a focus that 30 to 90 seconds rest time between reps is ideal.
10. Decreased resting heart rate, increased stroke volume and increased HDL
levels
11. Stretch the hamstrings – Much lower back pain is caused by tight hamstrings,
causing the hips and pelvis to rotate back.
12. All of the above – Overall fitness, strength and muscular endurance are all
improved by circuit training.
13. As many as possible within the allowed time – The goal of circuit training is
to do as many reps as possible within the allowed time so that your body does
not have enough time to recover between exercises, thus creating a higher
load on your body.
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14. 50% 1RM – It is not practical to measure THR during circuit training. The
weight will control how hard the client has to work.
15. Muscular endurance – Strength training requires fewer reps, and flexibility
does not require the bearing of weight.
16. Aerobic zone
17. More resistance in parts of the range of motion – This does not provide a
balanced range of motion exercise.
18. Core lifts – Strengthening the core first helps to prevent injury and allows you
do the most difficult exercises while you are not yet fatigued.
19. Push ups
20. Neuromuscular adaptation – Initial strength gains come from building
relationships between the motor neurons and muscles rather than muscle
growth.
21. DOMS (delayed onset muscle soreness)
22. Stretch the quads and strengthen the hamstrings – The quads are usually
stronger than the hamstrings. This imbalance can increase the chance for
injury.
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Day 3, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
•
•
•
•
•
Effective strength training
Cardiovascular training
Designing endurance training programs
Circuit Training
Dealing with low back pain
Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 5
1. Hamstrings perform:
□
□
□
□
knee extension and hip flexion
hip extension and knee flexion
knee extension and hip extension
knee flexion and hip flexion
2. When bending the elbow, the biceps are the:
□
□
□
□
agonist
antagonist
stabilizer
synergist
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3. The quadriceps perform:
□
□
□
□
hip extension
knee flexion
knee extension
ankle flexion
4. Pectoralis Major performs:
□
□
□
□
shoulder external rotation
scapular retraction
shoulder horizontal adduction
scapular elevation
5. Triceps perform:
□
□
□
□
elbow flexion
elbow extension
wrist flexion
shoulder adduction
6. The External Obliques perform:
□
□
□
□
scapular elevation
spinal flexion
spinal rotation
spinal extension
7. Rhomboid Major performs:
□
□
□
□
scapular extension
scapular adduction
scapular abduction
scapular upward rotation
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8. Synovial fluid:
□
□
□
□
strengthens the joint
lubricates the joint
softens ligament tissue
repairs ligament tissue
9. Hyaline cartilage __________ with resistance training.
□ increases
□ decreases
□ stays the same
10. The body's ability to protect the muscle from being injured while contracting
against too heavy a load is called:
□
□
□
□
reciprocal inhibition
relative workload
muscle imbalance
autogenic inhibition
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Answers
1. Hip extension and knee flexion
2. Agonist
3. Knee extension
4. Shoulder horizontal adduction
5. Elbow extension
6. Spinal rotation
7. Scapular adduction – They also perform scapular downward rotation.
8. Lubricates the joint
9. Increases with resistance training
10. Autogenic inhibition
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Day 4, Quiz 1: Exercise Techniques
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
• Kinesiology
• Range of motion for major joints
• Identify the muscles responsible for joint movements (i.e. which muscles
play a role in hip extension)
Step 2: Take Exercise Techniques Quiz 1
Questions 1-5 refer to the video located at:
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z4e1zi43.html
Watch the video and then answer the questions below.
1. With regard to the shoulder joint, which muscle is the agonist during this
exercise?
□
□
□
□
□
rotator cuff
pectoralis major
posterior deltoid
latissimus dorsi
none of the above
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2. With regard to the shoulder joint, which muscle is the antagonist during this
exercise?
□
□
□
□
□
rotator cuff
pectoralis major
posterior deltoid
latissimus dorsi
none of the above
3. With regard to the shoulder joint, which muscle is the synergist during this
exercise?
□
□
□
□
□
rotator cuff
pectoralis major
posterior deltoid
latissimus dorsi
none of the above
4. With regard to the shoulder joint, which muscle is the stabilizer during this
exercise?
□
□
□
□
□
rotator cuff
pectoralis major
posterior deltoid
latissimus dorsi
none of the above
5. The exercise is being performed in which plane?
□
□
□
□
transverse plane
converse plane
sagittal plane
frontal plane
End of video questions.
6. True or False? The muscle that provides the main source of movement is the
antagonist.
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Question 7-18: Match the definition to the correct term
Definition
7. Circular movement (combining flexion, extension,
adduction and abduction) with no shaft rotation
8. Medial movement toward the midline of the body
9. Moving the sole of the foot away from the medial plane
10. Extending the joint beyond its anatomical position
11. Moving the sole of the foot toward the medial plane
12. Moving posteriorly (example: chin in)
13. External rotation resulting in an appendage facing
upward
14. Straightening the joint, resulting in an increase of angle
15. Moving anteriorly (example: chin out)
16. Lateral movement away from the midline of the body
17. Bending the joint, resulting in a decrease of angle
18. Internal rotation resulting in the appendage facing
downward
Terms
Abduction
Adduction
Circumduction
Extension
Eversion
Flexion
Hyperextension
Inversion
Pronation
Protrusion
Supination
Retrusion
19. A muscle that assists another muscle is known as the:
□
□
□
□
agonist
antagonist
stabilizer
synergist
20. Biarticulate refers to:
□
□
□
□
a tendon that attaches to two bones
a muscle that crosses two joints
two ligaments attached to the same bone
a tendon that attaches to two muscles
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21. To build muscle strength, how long must muscles be under tension during an
exercise set?
□
□
□
□
less than 45 seconds
45 to 90 seconds
90 to 120 seconds
120 to 180 seconds
22. During a squat exercise the prime mover is (choose ALL correct answers):
□
□
□
□
rhomboids
quadriceps
gluteus maximus
soleus
23. What is the normal range of motion during shoulder horizontal abduction?
□
□
□
□
20 degrees
45 degrees
90 degrees
150 degrees
24. What is the normal range of motion during elbow flexion?
□
□
□
□
□
20 degrees
45 degrees
90 degrees
135 degrees
180 degrees
25. What is the normal range of motion during wrist extension?
□
□
□
□
10 degrees
70 degrees
120 degrees
180 degrees
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26. What is the normal range of motion during knee extension?
□
□
□
□
10 degrees
45 degrees
120 degrees
180 degrees
27. What is the normal range of motion during ankle plantarflexion?
□
□
□
□
10 degrees
45 degrees
120 degrees
180 degrees
28. The antagonist muscle _______ to allow movement.
□
□
□
□
contracts
stabilizes
relaxes
applies isometric pressure
Questions 29-30 refer to the video located at:
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z4e1zi43.html
Watch the video and then answer the questions below.
29. Rectus abdominis _______________ spinal flexion.
□
□
□
□
accelerates
decelerates
accelerates and decelerates
neither accelerates nor decelerates
30. The obliques _______________ spinal flexion.
□
□
□
□
accelerate
decelerate
accelerate and decelerate
neither accelerate nor decelerate
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End of video questions
31. True or False? Isotonic contraction causes no change in the length of
a muscle.
32. The transverse plane separates the:
□
□
□
□
right from left
top from bottom
front from back
none of the above
Questions 33-37 refer to the video located at:
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z4e1zi43.html
Watch the video and then answer the questions below.
33. With regard to the hip, which muscle is the agonist during this exercise?
□
□
□
□
□
psoas
gluteus maximus
hamstring
transversus abdominis
none of the above
34. With regard to the hip, which muscle is the antagonist during this exercise?
□
□
□
□
□
psoas
gluteus maximus
hamstring
transversus abdominis
none of the above
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35. With regard to the hip, which muscle is the synergist during this exercise?
□
□
□
□
□
psoas
gluteus maximus
hamstring
transversus abdominis
none of the above
36. With regard to the hip, which muscle is the stabilizer during this exercise?
□
□
□
□
□
psoas
gluteus maximus
hamstring
transversus abdominis
none of the above
37. The exercise is being performed in which plane?
□
□
□
□
transverse plane
converse plane
sagittal plane
frontal plane
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Answers
1. Latissimus dorsi
2. Pectoralis major
3. Posterior deltoid
4. Rotator cuff
5. Sagittal plane – The sagittal plane divides your body into two sides, left and
right. When you move along this plane, you are moving forward and backward.
A forward lunge is an example of moving along the sagittal plane.
6. False – The prime mover (or agonist) provides the main source of movement.
7. Circumduction
8. Adduction
9. Eversion
10. Hyperextension
11. Inversion
12. Retrusion
13. Supination
14. Extension
15. Protrusion
16. Abduction
17. Flexion
18. Pronation
19. Synergist
20. A muscle that crosses two joints
21. Less than 45 seconds is required to build muscle strength.
22. Quadriceps and gluteus maximus
23. 45 degrees
24. 135 degrees
25. 70 degrees
26. 10 degrees
27. 45 degrees
28. Relaxes
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29. Accelerates and decelerates
30. Accelerate and decelerate
31. False – Isometric causes no change in muscle length. Isotonic can either
shorten or lengthen the muscle.
32. Top from bottom
33. Gluteus maximus
34. Psoas
35. Hamstring
36. Transversus abdominis – While this is the most correct answer to the question,
some readers have pointed out that you have no real control over the
contraction of it, unlike the other abdominal muscles.
37. Sagittal plane
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Day 4, Quiz 2: Exercise Techniques
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
•
•
•
•
Know your muscle groups
Muscles used during common exercises (exercise mechanics)
Muscular phases (concentric, eccentric, isometric, etc.)
Types of flexibility
Step 2: Take Exercise Techniques Quiz 2
1. When performing a squat exercise, hip extension occurs in which phase?
□
□
□
□
concentric phase
isometric phase
eccentric phase
isotonic phase
2. When pointing your toes like a ballet dancer, which muscles provide stability?
□
□
□
□
gastrocnemius, soleus
anterior tibialis
peroneus longus
hamstring
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3. When pointing your toes like a ballet dancer, which muscles accelerate
plantarflexion?
□
□
□
□
gastrocnemius, soleus
anterior tibialis
peroneus longus
hamstring
4. When pointing your toes like a ballet dancer, which muscles decelerate
plantarflexion?
□
□
□
□
gastrocnemius, soleus
anterior tibialis
peroneus longus
hamstring
5. Rate of force production is the ability to exert maximal force in a minimum:
□
□
□
□
distance
rate
time
repetitions
6. The temporary holding of breath while performing lifts higher than 80% of max
effort is called:
□
□
□
□
Valsalva maneuver
isometric
superman syndrome
pulmonary arrest
7. The maximum amount of weight one can lift in a single repetition for a given
exercise is referred to as:
□
□
□
□
□
VO2 max
maximal strength
1RM
Bryzcki's point
none of the above
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8. Brzycki's equation calculates which of the following?
□
□
□
□
max reps
max load
max heart rate
target heart rate
9. Pectoralis major is active in shoulder (choose TWO answers):
□
□
□
□
abduction
extension
flexion
adduction
10. The following description best describes which exercise? Grasp dumbbell
with arm straight to side. Bend waist to opposite side of dumbbell. Lower and
repeat. Continue with opposite side
□
□
□
□
hack squat
side bends
crunch
side row
11. The exercise described in question 10 targets which muscle?
□
□
□
□
obliques
spinae erector
trapezius
gluteus maximus
12. The following description best describes which exercise? Grasp two
dumbbells. Lie supine on bench. Support dumbbells above the chest with the
arms fixed in a slightly bent position. Lower dumbbells to sides until chest
muscles are stretched with elbows fixed. Bring dumbbells together in a
hugging motion until dumbbells are nearly together. Repeat.
□
□
□
□
bench press
dips
fly
chest press
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13. The exercise described in question 12 targets which muscle?
□
□
□
□
biceps
triceps
pectoralis major
scapula
14. The following description best describes which exercise? Raise heels by
extending ankles as high as possible. Lower heels by bending ankles until
calves are stretched. Repeat.
□
□
□
□
calf raise
leg press
leg curl
standing jump
15. The exercise described in question 14 targets which muscle?
□
□
□
□
soleus
gastrocnemius
gluteus maximus
hamstring
16. Inclining the bench when doing chest presses _______ the chest workout and
________ the shoulder workout.
□
□
□
□
□
increases, increases
decreases, increases
decreases, decreases
doesn’t change, increases
doesn’t change, doesn’t change
17. What acts as the fulcrum of the lever system created by the elbow?
□
□
□
□
□
bicep
tricep
radius
humerus
joint
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18. When performing weight training, you should lower the weight ________
when compared to lifting the weight.
□ at a faster rate
□ at a slower rate
□ at the same speed using even controlled motions
19. During the most intense part of a stretching exercise, you should:
□
□
□
□
exhale
inhale
breathe normally
yell or make a loud grunting noise
20. PNF stretching is a combination of _______ stretching and ________
stretching.
□
□
□
□
active, dynamic
active, isometric
passive, isometric
passive, dynamic
21. Which phase produces force during movement?
□
□
□
□
concentric phase
isometric phase
eccentric phase
isotonic phase
22. The phase where muscles are moving in the same direction as the resistance is
the:
□
□
□
□
concentric phase
isometric phase
eccentric phase
isotonic phase
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23. Which of the following statements about functional flexibility is TRUE?
□ Functional flexibility is designed to improve muscle imbalances.
□ Functional flexibility uses only the tension of the agonists and
synergists while the antagonists are being stretched.
□ Functional flexibility refers to the ability of the pieces of the skeleton to
freely, easily and fluidly float through the ranges of motion.
□ Functional flexibility technique requires exercise equipment to perform
properly.
24. Which of the following statements about active flexibility is TRUE?
□ Active flexibility is designed to improve muscle imbalances.
□ Active flexibility uses only the tension of the agonists and synergists
while the antagonists are being stretched.
□ Active flexibility refers to the ability of the pieces of the skeleton to
freely, easily and fluidly float through the ranges of motion.
□ Active flexibility technique requires exercise equipment to perform
properly.
25. Which of the following statements about corrective flexibility is TRUE?
□ Corrective flexibility is designed to improve muscle imbalances.
□ Corrective flexibility uses only the tension of the agonists and
synergists while the antagonists are being stretched.
□ Corrective flexibility refers to the ability of the pieces of the skeleton to
freely, easily and fluidly float through the ranges of motion.
□ Corrective flexibility technique requires exercise equipment to perform
properly.
26. Which statement is NOT correct?
□
□
□
□
Sweating cools the body.
Sweat absorbs heat from the body.
Evaporation reduces body temperature.
Sweat is a saline solution.
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27. Maximum workload is achieved during crunches when the:
□
□
□
□
hands are behind the back
hands are behind the head
arms cross the chest
arms are over the head
28. While lifting, you should inhale during the ________ phase and exhale during
the _________ phase.
□
□
□
□
concentric, eccentric
isometric, concentric
eccentric, concentric
concentric, isometric
29. The leg curl machine is useful for strengthening which muscle?
□
□
□
□
soleus
hamstrings
gastrocnemius
psoas
30. Which methods are used for measuring exercise intensity? (choose ALL
correct answers):
□
□
□
□
□
□
□
perceived exertion
Karvonen
Borg's RPE
heart rate
maximum heart rate
vertical jump test
cardiovascular endurance
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31. Three exercises performed back to back with minimal rest between is called:
□
□
□
□
□
superset
triset
functional overload
negligence
none of the above
32. When exercising below the _________, any lactate produced by the muscles
is removed by the body without building up.
□
□
□
□
□
lactic point
glucose consumption level
anaerobic threshold
maximal heart rate
none of the above
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Answers
1. Concentric phase
2. Peroneus longus
3. Gastrocnemius and soleus
4. Anterior tibialis
5. Time
6. Valsalva maneuver – It is important to note that it is not recommended for
cardiac patients to use the Valsalva maneuver.
7. 1RM
8. Maximum load
9. Flexion and adduction
10. Side bends
11. Obliques
12. Fly
13. Pectoralis major
14. Calf raise
15. Gastrocnemius
16. Doesn’t change, increases – Inclining the bench places a heavier load on the
shoulders but doesn’t affect the chest workout.
17. Joint – The elbow joint itself acts as the fulcrum for the third-class lever of the
arm.
18. At a slower rate – The muscle does most of the work during the lowering of
weight, the eccentric phase, so a slower rate helps to promote muscle growth
and to avoid injury.
19. Exhale – While you should breathe normally during most of the stretching
routine, it is important to exhale during the most intense part of the exercise.
20. Passive, isometric. A good resource on stretching types is
http://www.cmcrossroads.com/bradapp/docs/rec/stretching/stretching_4.html
21. Concentric phase
22. Eccentric phase
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23. Functional flexibility refers to the ability of the pieces of the skeleton to
freely, easily and fluidly float through the ranges of motion is the TRUE
statement.
24. Active flexibility uses only the tension of the agonists and synergists while the
antagonists are being stretched is the TRUE statement.
25. Corrective flexibility is designed to improve muscle imbalances is the TRUE
statement.
26. The only statement that is NOT true is sweating cools the body. Sweating is
the secretion of a saline solution that will absorb heat from the body. It is the
evaporation of the sweat that actually cools the body.
27. Arms are over the head – Crunches target the abdominal muscles so when
the arms are over the head, more load is placed on the target muscles.
28. Eccentric, concentric
29. Hamstrings
30. Borg's RPE and heart rate – Borg’s Rate of Perceived Exertion and heart rate
are both good indicators of exercise intensity while the other methods listed
are not designed to measure intensity.
31. Triset – A triset is three exercises in a row with no rest between them; a
superset is two exercises in a row with no rest.
32. Anaerobic threshold
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Day 4, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
• Review of skeletal system and major bones
• Understanding the role of joints
• Know the differences between connective tissues
Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 6
1. The flat part of a bone where muscles can attach is called the:
□
□
□
□
depression
joint
spindle
anchor
2. The hard connective tissue that creates a skeletal framework for the body is:
□
□
□
□
□
□
axial skeleton
ligaments
tendons
appendicular skeleton
bones
none of the above
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3. A bone protrusion where connective tissue can attach is called a:
□
□
□
□
depression
process
synovial joint
spur
4. Which of the following refers to joints that are held together by connective
tissue?
□
□
□
□
synovial joints
nonsynovial joints
interjoints
arthrojoints
5. A prime mover is also known as a(n):
□
□
□
□
agonist
antagonist
synergist
stabilizer
6. Muscles that provide support to the body during exercise are called the:
□
□
□
□
agonist
antagonist
synergist
stabilizer
7. Multifidus and intertransverse are muscles of the:
□
□
□
□
abdomen
back
shoulder
none of the above
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8. Hypertrophy is muscle ____________.
□
□
□
□
atrophy
composition
growth
shortening
Answers
1. Depression
2. Bones – Although the appendicular and axial skeletons are part of the skeletal
framework, this question is referring to the tissue.
3. Process
4. Synovial joints
5. Agonist
6. Stabilizer
7. Back
8. Growth
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Day 5, Quiz 1: Safety, Legal and Business Issues
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
•
•
•
•
•
Understand the role of forms and reducing liability
How to properly spot a client during exercise
Identifying the symptoms of dehydration and heat stroke
Common forms of business ownership
Dealing with common injuries
Step 2: Take Safety, Legal and Business Issues Quiz 1
1. Pulling a muscle is an example of a(n):
□
□
□
□
chronic injury
improper warm up
acute injury
tissue shock
2. Which of the following occurs during prolonged submaximal exercise?
□
□
□
□
excess glycogen production
lactic acid depletion
decrease in hydrogen ion concentration
muscle fatigue
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3. Your client experiences painful, brief muscle cramps that occur during exercise
or work in a hot environment. He/she is most likely suffering from which of the
following?
□
□
□
□
□
dehydration
muscle fatigue
heat cramps
heat stroke
heat exhaustion
4. Your client is sweating profusely and complaining of headache, weakness,
thirst and nausea. These are symptoms of which of the following?
□
□
□
□
dehydration
muscle fatigue
heat cramps
heat exhaustion
5. Your client is confused, complaining of dry mouth and dizziness. He/she most
likely is experiencing:
□
□
□
□
dehydration
muscle fatigue
heat cramps
heat stroke
6. What is the best form to use to ensure that your client has an appreciation and
understanding of the implications of training?
□
□
□
□
PAR-Q
waiver
medical release
informed consent
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7. All personal trainers should have what type of insurance?
□
□
□
□
business
liability
professional indemnity
all of the above
8. True or False? A personal trainer can be negligent for not keeping waivers and
informed consent forms on file.
9. A description of any risks associated with personal training should be included
on which form?
□
□
□
□
PAR-Q
waiver
medical release
informed consent
10. What is the simplest form of business ownership?
□
□
□
□
□
partnership
corporation
limited liability company
sole proprietorship
none of the above
11. Which of the following is one of the disadvantages of sole proprietorship?
□
□
□
□
higher tax rates
low dividend yields
unlimited liability
a lot of paperwork to start
12. True or false? Jumper's knee is caused by playing on hard surfaces.
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13. Which of the following statements applies to a client with an exertion level of
10 on the original Borg scale?
□
□
□
□
the client is risking injury
the client is barely moving
the client is overweight
the client is obese
14. What method should you use when spotting a barbell bench press?
□
□
□
□
supinated grip
pronated grip
alternating grip
have hands near the bar but not touching it
15. True or False? The negative effects of dehydration first appear at 5%
dehydration levels.
16. Where should you position yourself while your client is doing a dumbbell
overhead press?
□
□
□
□
behind the client
in front of the client
either side of the client
none of the above
17. Where should you position yourself while your client is doing a dumbbell
bicep curl?
□
□
□
□
behind the client
in front of the client
either side of the client
none of the above
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18. If your client loses consciousness while training in high temperatures, he/she
most likely experienced:
□
□
□
□
heat exhaustion
heat stroke
heat syncope
mild dehydration
19. Tearing of muscle tissue is known as a:
□
□
□
□
strain
kink
knot
sprain
20. Overstretching a ligament is known as a:
□
□
□
□
strain
kink
knot
sprain
21. Stretching the gastrocnemius can help prevent which of the following
conditions?
□
□
□
□
shin splints
tennis elbow
plantar fascitas
stress fractures
22. Wearing shock-absorbing shoes can help prevent which condition?
□
□
□
□
shin splints
tennis elbow
plantar fascitas
stress fractures
23. True or False? You should always spot your client, even when using machine
weights.
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24. True or False? You should always have your hand on the bar when spotting.
25. According to the principle of overload, a normal amount of exercise will
_______ fitness level.
□
□
□
□
increase
decrease
maintain
trigger
26. What is the best method for reducing swelling after an injury?
□
□
□
□
ice
heat
anticoagulants
antihistamines
27. A meniscus tear can be caused by:
□
□
□
□
stretching the hamstrings
twisting the knee
pulling a muscle
inflammation of the tendon
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Answers
1. Acute injury – Chronic injuries are recurring injuries over a period of time so
pulling a muscle is considered an acute injury.
2. Muscle fatigue – Prolonged submaximal exercise can lead to a depletion of
glycogen and lactic acid build-up, causing muscle fatigue.
3. Heat cramps – While muscle cramps can be a symptom of heat exhaustion, if
no other symptoms are present, they are heat cramps.
4. Heat exhaustion – Symptoms of heat exhaustion may include nausea, vomiting,
fatigue, weakness, headache, muscle cramps and aches, and dizziness.
5. Dehydration – Lack of fluids can cause confusion while dry mouth and
dizziness are other symptoms of dehydration.
6. Informed consent – The informed consent form should specifically lay out the
implications of training in plain English and should advise the client to ask the
trainer if they do not understand something.
7. Liability – Liability insurance offers financial protection against legal action
that could be taken against you.
8. False – It is not considered negligent to not keep these forms on file because it
does not hurt the client in any way, but it is a good business practice to keep
adequate records including copies of all waivers and informed consents signed
by clients.
9. Informed consent – The informed consent form is designed to provide the client
with specific information regarding the implications of training including any
associated risks.
10. Sole proprietorship – Since you alone own the business, it is the simplest form
of business ownership but not necessarily always the best.
11. Unlimited liability – Because you alone own the business, you are solely and
completely responsible for any legal action taken against the business.
12. True – The negative effects of the impact with a hard surface on the knee joint
are what causes jumper’s knee.
13. Barely moving – The question refers to the ORIGINAL Borg scale, but the
Borg scale has been revised to be a 0 to 10 scale. Be careful to understand
which scale your certification program uses.
14. Alternating grip – This method is safest and will allow you to best assist the
client if necessary.
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15. False – Negative effects can appear as soon as 2% dehydration.
16. Behind the client – This will put you in the best position to assist the client if
needed.
17. In front of the client – This position will best allow you to monitor the client
and offer assistance if necessary.
18. Heat syncope – Syncope is the medical term for fainting, which is what
happened to the client. Although loss of consciousness can be a symptom of
severe heat exhaustion or heat stroke, other symptoms will present themselves
first.
19. Strain
20. Sprain
21. Shin splints
22. Stress fractures – Stress fractures occur because of the stress, usually caused
by impact, placed on a bone. Shock-absorbing shoes will lessen the effects of
impact on the bones.
23. False – Machine weights don't require spotting if the exercises are performed
properly.
24. False
25. Maintain – You must continually increase the load to increase fitness level.
26. Ice – Swelling occurs because of a rush of blood to the injured area. Applying
ice to the area will help the blood flow out of the injured area and reduce
swelling.
27. Twisting the knee
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Day 5, Quiz 2: Safety, Legal and Business Issues
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
• Recognizing dangerous situations
• Identifying eating disorders
• Safe weight loss
Step 2: Take Safety, Legal and Business Issues Quiz 2
Question 1-5: Match the situation to the correct response (you can use an
answer more than once).
Situation
Response
1. A client is sweating and his/her face is red. Call an ambulance
2. A client has a headache.
Stop the session and send the
client home to rest
3. A client experiences chest pain.
Take a short break and then
continue training
4. A client has a fever.
Push through it
5. A client has arthritis and is complaining of Diagnose his/her symptoms
inflamed joints.
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6. Your client has a fast, weak pulse and a bloated stomach. He/she most likely is
suffering from which condition?
□
□
□
□
□
severe dehydration
muscle fatigue
heat cramps
heat stroke
moderate dehydration
7. Your client has a flushed face and experiences dizziness that gets worse when
standing. He/she most likely is experiencing which of the following?
□
□
□
□
□
severe dehydration
muscle fatigue
heat cramps
heat stroke
moderate dehydration
8. A client is experiencing cramping in the legs and buttocks. This would
indicate:
□
□
□
□
no cause for alarm
symptoms of pulmonary disorder
symptoms of peripheral artery disease
a “charlie horse” from lactic acid build up
9. Excessive exercising may be a sign of which of the following disorders?
□
□
□
□
obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
bulimia nervosa
anorexia nervosa
marital problems
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10. If your client is experiencing ventricular ejection, what is the BEST course of
action?
□
□
□
□
call an ambulance
stop the session and send the client home to rest
take a short minute break and then continue training
push through it
11. Symptoms of SI joint dysfunction include pain in which of the following?
□
□
□
□
back
thigh
buttocks
all of the above
12. What is the appropriate course of action if your client is experiencing tight
muscles and heavy breathing during aerobic exercise?
□
□
□
□
push through it
reduce intensity
monitor blood pressure
monitor heart rate
13. What do you do if your client is showing signs of pallor during a fitness
assessment?
□
□
□
□
push through it
reduce intensity
discontinue the session
monitor heart rate
14. Your client is recovering from abdominal surgery. What exercises would you
recommend?
□
□
□
□
□
crunches
sit ups
bench press
all of the above
none of the above
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15. What is the best amount of weight loss per week for a safe weight-loss
program?
□
□
□
□
1 to 2 pounds
2 to 4 pounds
4 to 6 pounds
6 to 10 pounds
16. Which of the following statements about the Valsalva maneuver is TRUE?
□
□
□
□
It occurs when holding your breath.
It requires forcible exhalation.
It can occur during defecation.
All of the above
17. All of these exercises are considered auxillary lifts except:
□
□
□
□
lat pulldowns
arm curls
dips
sit ups
18. Bench press and squats are examples of what kind of lifts?
□
□
□
□
auxiliary lifts
maximal lifts
core lifts
none of the above
19. Your client experiences pain while exercising that radiates into the jaw, neck
and esophagus. He/she is most likely experiencing:
□
□
□
□
angina
increased cardiac output
cardiac arrest
dehydration
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20. The female athlete triad consists of which of the following? (choose ALL
correct answers):
□
□
□
□
occasional decrease in appetite
high estrogen levels
osteoporosis
lack of menstruation
21. Diagnosing a client's medical condition:
□
□
□
□
is acceptable as long as you insist the client sees a doctor
is negligent
can expose you to liability
should never be done; it is best to ignore any suspicious conditions
22. Your client’s heart rate is remaining steady despite a substantial increase in
exercise intensity. What should you do?
□
□
□
□
take a short break and try again
increase the intensity to 80% THR
refer client to a physician
keep intensity constant but add duration
23. Your client wants to lose 25 pounds. What is the safest timeline for achieving
this goal?
□
□
□
□
15 weeks
25 weeks
30 weeks
50 weeks
24. Chronic fatigue, eating disorders, muscle soreness and joint aches are all signs
of:
□
□
□
□
muscle adaptation
overtraining
anorexia nervosa
reduced cardiac output
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25. Which best describes the recovery position?
□
□
□
□
client lying on back
client sitting up
laterally recumbent
prone
26. A beta blocker is a(n):
□
□
□
□
growth hormone
hypertension medicine
dynamic stretch
enzyme catalyst
27. True or False? Walking can help build bone density.
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Answers
1. Take a short break and then continue training – This is not a dangerous
situation.
2. Stop the session and send the client home to rest – This is not a dangerous
situation, but the client should not continue training at this point.
3. Call an ambulance – This is a potentially dangerous situation.
4. Stop the session and send the client home to rest – This is not a dangerous
situation, but the client should not continue training at this point.
5. Stop the session and send the client home to rest – This is not a dangerous
situation, but the client should not continue training at this point.
6. Severe dehydration – This is a potentially dangerous situation, and professional
medical assistance should be sought.
7. Moderate dehydration – It is important to know the difference between
moderate and severe dehydration. Medical assistance is not necessary for
moderate dehydration.
8. Symptoms of peripheral artery disease
9. Anorexia nervosa – Individuals with this disorder have distorted views of their
bodies and may believe that excessive exercise is necessary.
10. Push through it – Ventricular ejection is a normal part of the cardiac process.
It refers to when blood is ejected from the ventricle.
11. All of the above
12. Reduce intensity – This is the best course of action to take to avoid injury or
over-training and to allow the client to get the most benefit from his/her
aerobic exercise.
13. Discontinue the session – This could be a symptom of something more
serious, and it is recommended that you refer the client to a medical
professional.
14. None of the above – You should consult the client's physician for
recommendations and consent before beginning an exercise program with this
client.
15. 1 to 2 pounds – Many organizations recommend, however, that weight loss
occur at a maximum of 1 pound per week for reasons of health and safety.
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16. All of the above – The Valsalva maneuver can be performed by forcibly
exhaling against closed lips and holding your breath while exerting force into
the abdominal region, as during defecation. It also can cause a temporary
alteration in heart rate and blood pressure.
17. Lat pulldowns
18. Core lifts – The primary force is exerted through the core.
19. Angina – This condition results from a lack of blood flow and causes a feeling
of suffocating pain.
20. Osteoporosis and lack of menstruation – The third element is disorderly eating
patterns (not occasional decrease in appetite). Most female athletes experience
a decrease in estrogen levels due to exercise.
21. Can expose you to liability – You should never diagnose a medical condition
because the client views you as an authority figure and may not seek
additional medical advice.
22. Refer client to a physician – This is a sign of a potentially serious cardiac
problem.
23. 25 weeks (one pound per week) – However, some professionals claim it is
safe to lose up to 2 pounds per week (which would mean 15 weeks is
acceptable). Still, the SAFEST timeline is 25 weeks.
24. Overtraining
25. Laterally recumbent – The recovery position is a first aid technique
recommended for assisting people who are unconscious, or nearly so, but are
still breathing.
26. Hypertension medicine
27. True – Walking is a great activity for older individuals who are at a greater
risk of losing bone density.
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Day 5, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
•
•
•
•
The role and function of neurons
The Kinetic chain
The anatomy of muscle growth
The various types of muscle tissues
Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 7
1. Which statement is NOT true about muscle glycogen depletion?
□
□
□
□
causes injury
causes fatigue
causes muscle growth
is reduced by carbohydrate loading
2. True or False? Different muscle fibers are used for different tasks.
3. Which of the following statement(s) about the diaphragm is/are true?
□
□
□
□
The diaphragm is not a true muscle.
The diaphragm is a voluntary muscle.
The diaphragm is flat when contracted.
The diaphragm contracts the left ventricle.
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4. Neurons that communicate with each other are called:
□
□
□
□
exoneurons
endonuerons
interneurons
intraneurons
5. The Kinetic chain is made up of the:
□
□
□
□
nervous system
muscular system
skeletal system
all of the above
6. A neural end organ (like a tactile receptor) that responds to a mechanical
stimulus (like a change in pressure) is called a(n):
□
□
□
□
sensory neuron
mechanoreceptor
interneuron
electroreceptor
7. Which term refers to a muscle activity with no change in muscle length?
□
□
□
□
eccentric
isometric
concentric
procentric
8. When a muscle is stretched, primary sensory fibers of the ____________
respond to both the velocity and the degree of stretch.
□
□
□
□
muscle receptor
muscle spindle
gamma motorneurons
intrafusal fibers
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Answers
1. Causes muscle growth – Muscles need glycogen to grow and to function
properly. When muscle glycogen is depleted, it can cause fatigue and injury.
Carbohydrate loading can decrease muscle glycogen depletion.
2. True – Muscles can perform a variety of tasks using its different fibers.
3. The diaphragm is flat when contracted is the TRUE statement. The diaphragm
is the muscle used for breathing, and it is an involuntary muscle.
4. Interneurons
5. All of the above – The nervous, muscular and skeletal systems all form the
kinetic chain.
6. Mechanoreceptor
7. Isometric
8. Muscle spindle
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Day 6, Quiz 1: Nutrition
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
•
•
•
•
•
•
Understanding the glycemic index
Safe use of vitamins and supplements
The USDA food pyramid
Understanding food labels
Good and bad cholesterol
Calculating caloric intake
Step 2: Take +utrition Quiz 1
1. The glycemic index is affected by what kind of foods?
□
□
□
□
fats
carbohydrates
proteins
lipids
2. A food with a high glycemic index would cause which of the following
conditions?
□
□
□
□
protein production to rise
diabetic shock
low blood sugar
high blood sugar
3. True or False? Vitamin A supplements should be taken during pregnancy.
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4. Taking too much of which of the following can interfere with the absorption of
other minerals?
□
□
□
□
□
vitamin A
vitamin B12
vitamin D
iron
folic acid
5. Which of the following dietary guidelines is NOT correct?
□ Restrict saturated fats, total fats and transfatty acids and select low-fat
meat and dairy products to reduce the risk of obesity and obesity-related
diseases.
□ Select high-fiber fruits, vegetables and whole grains while limiting
added sugars to ensure adequate fiber intake.
□ Limit sodium and potassium intake to reduce the risk of developing
hypertension.
□ Consume alcoholic beverages responsibly to prevent alcohol-related
illnesses and accidents.
□ Practice safe food handling to reduce the risk of developing food-borne
illnesses.
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Questions 6-10: Refer to the +utrition Label when answering these questions.
6. How many calories per serving are generated
from fat?
□
□
□
□
45
54
65
108
7. What percentage of one serving’s calories
comes from fat?
□
□
□
□
9%
17%
38%
43%
8. How many calories per serving are generated
from carbohydrates?
□
□
□
□
40
90
124
279
9. What percentage of one serving’s calories
comes from protein?
□
□
□
□
5%
8%
12%
18%
+ote: A higher resolution, color image is available at
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z6n1k3s7.html
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10. The % of daily value column (the right column) is ______ for athletes.
□ overstated
□ understated
□ correct for all populations
End Label Questions
11. Which of the following can be caused by anabolic steroids?
□
□
□
□
□
increased LDL
decreased HDL
jaundice
all of the above
none of the above
12. Vitamin B12 and folic acid play a critical role in which bodily function?
□
□
□
□
hormonal secretion
immune response
white cell production
red cell production
13. About half of all cases of anemia can be attributed to which of the following?
□
□
□
□
iron deficiency
excess vitamin A
B12 deficiency
obesity
14. True or False? High glycemic index foods are ideal before a workout.
15. True or False? Vitamins provide the body with energy and essential nutrients.
16. True or False? Vitamin C is fat soluble.
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17. A 500 calorie per day deficit will cause a weight loss of ____ pounds per
week.
□
□
□
□
1 to 2
2 to 3
3 to 4
4 to 5
18. The body requires at least ______ calories per day to get the necessary
vitamins and minerals.
□
□
□
□
1000
1200
1400
1600
19. A calorie is a measurement of:
□
□
□
□
expenditure
weight
heat
resistance
20. Cholesterol levels should be kept below:
□
□
□
□
120 mg/dl
160 mg/dl
180 mg/dl
200 mg/dl
21. True or False? LDL is bad cholesterol; HDL is good cholesterol.
22. The best cooking oil for reducing cholesterol is?
□
□
□
□
coconut
corn
organic butter
palm
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23. A diet full of saturated fats is consistent with which of the following?
□
□
□
□
lower LDL levels
lower HDL levels
elevated LDL levels
elevated HDL levels
24. You have a meal consisting of 6 grams of fat, 12 grams of carbohydrates and
8 grams of protein. How many calories did you consume?
□
□
□
□
□
120
134
144
154
none of the above
25. Which diet is more suitable for a healthy 20-year-old male?
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Answers
1. Carbohydrates – The body processes carbohydrates into sugar more quickly so
they are most affected by the glycemic index.
2. High blood sugar – The glycemic index indicates how much sugar the body can
use from a certain food. Thus, a food with a high glycemic index would most
likely cause an increase in blood sugar.
3. False – Excess amounts of vitamin A can lead to birth defects.
4. Iron – Too much iron can hinder the ability of other vitamins and minerals to
bind to blood cells and be adequately absorbed by the body.
5. Limit sodium and potassium intake to reduce the risk of developing
hypertension – While it is recommended to limit sodium intake, potassium-rich
foods reduce the risk of hypertension and should be eaten regularly.
6. 108 – There are 9 calories per 1 gram of fat. 12 x 9 = 108.
7. 43% – There are 250 calories per serving, 108 of which are from fat (see
question #6). 108 / 250 = 0.43 (43%).
8. 124 – There are 4 calories per 1 gram of carbohydrates. 31 x 4 = 124.
9. 8% – There are 4 calories per 1 gram of protein (5 x 4 = 20). That means there
are 250 calories in one serving, 20 of which are from protein. 20 / 250 = 0.08
(8%).
10. Overstated – Athletes usually require more calories than the 2000 to 2500
used to calculate daily values.
11. All of the above – Anabolic steroid use can cause jaundice, increased LDL
(bad cholesterol) and decreased HDL (good cholesterol).
12. Red cell production
13. Iron deficiency – While vitamin B12 deficiency accounts for some cases of
anemia, iron deficiency is the most common cause.
14. False – Lower and midlevel index foods are preferred to allow for sufficient
energy availability and to avoid the “crash” often associated with high index
foods.
15. False – Vitamins are essential nutrients, but they do not provide energy.
16. False – Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin, meaning it is not stored in the
body and must be replaced daily.
17. 1 to 2 pounds – This is the most weight you can safely lose per week.
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18. 1200 – Any fewer calories and vitamin supplements are required to sustain the
body, which is not healthy and can be potentially be dangerous.
19. Heat – A calorie is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1
gram of water by 1°C. A nutritionist's calorie is a unit of energy-producing
potential equal to this amount of heat that is contained in food and released
upon oxidation by the body.
20. 200 mg/dl – Higher cholesterol levels are unhealthy and could lead to
cardiovascular problems.
21. True
22. Corn oil – Vegetable oils like corn, olive, sunflower and peanut oil are higher
in unsaturated fats than other oils like palm and coconut. Vegetable oils also
promote good cholesterol (HDL) and help to lower bad cholesterol (LDL).
23. Elevated LDL levels – Saturated fats increase LDL levels. While this also
results in lowered HDL levels, the overall cholesterol level is significantly
higher and so LDL levels are more important.
24. 134 – There are 4 calories per 1 gram of protein or carbohydrates and 9
calories per 1 gram of fat. 6 (fat) x 9 = 54. 12 (carbohydrates) x 4 = 48. 8
(protein) x 4 = 32. 54 + 48 + 32 = 134.
25. Diet A
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Day 6, Quiz 2: Nutrition
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
The body chemistry of digestion
Using MET values
Eating disorders
Weight loss techniques
Calculating resting metabolic rate
Proteins and amino acids
Nutritional value of common foods (like eggs)
Step 2: Take +utrition Quiz 2
1. Moving household items and carrying boxes have a MET value of 7, while
moving furniture has a MET value of 6. Which activity will burn more calories
if they are both done for the same amount of time?
□ carrying boxes
□ carrying furniture
□ not enough information to determine
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2. Moving household items and carrying boxes have a MET value of 7, while
moving furniture has a MET value of 6. If a 100 kg man carries furniture for
one hour, how many calories will he burn?
□
□
□
□
□
550
600
630
750
none of the above
3. How many calories will the same man burn if he only works 30 minutes?
□
□
□
□
□
220
268
290
315
none of the above
4. Glucose stored in the muscles is called:
□
□
□
□
glycemia
ATP
lactic acid
glycogen
5. Low to moderate intensity exercise is best suited for:
□
□
□
□
burning fat
burning carbs
athletes
bulking up
6. Which of the following refers to an eating disorder characterized by distorted
body image?
□
□
□
□
anorexia
bulimia
binge eating disorder
anorexia nervosa
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7. Which of the following refers to an eating disorder characterized by recurrent
binge eating without the regular use of compensatory measures?
□
□
□
□
anorexia
bulimia
binge eating disorder
anorexia nervosa
8. A safe weight loss program should consist of a diet of at least ________
calories per day.
□
□
□
□
1000
1200
1400
1600
9. True or False? Egg yolks have more protein calories than fat calories.
10. True or False? Egg whites have more protein calories than fat calories.
11. True or False? Egg yolks have more protein calories than egg whites.
12. Which can be metabolized without the presence of oxygen?
□
□
□
□
protein
fat
carbohydrates
lipids
13. In which system does the body primarily use omega-3 fatty acids?
□
□
□
□
respiratory system
central nervous system
cardiovascular system
lymphatic system
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14. What is the appropriate course of action if your client shows signs of an eating
disorder?
□
□
□
□
provide emotional support
refer him/her to a health care professional
develop a healthy nutrition plan
all of the above
15. Which of the following is responsible for burning the majority of calories
burned in a day?
□
□
□
□
daily activity like going to work or school
moderate intensity exercise
watching TV
RMR
16. Your client is 90 kg (about 200 pounds) and is 188 cm tall (about 6’2”).
His/her RMR would be:
□
□
□
□
□
1450
2000
2160
2380
not sufficient information to calculate
17. What is the total calorie expenditure during a typical day for a 23-year-old
female client who weighs 60 kg, is 170 cm tall and leads a highly active
lifestyle?
□
□
□
□
□
2160
2526
2937
3245
not sufficient information to calculate
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18. What are amino acids linked together by peptide bonds more commonly
referred to as?
□
□
□
□
proteins
carbohydrates
glucose
none of the above
19. Which of the following statements about essential and non-essential amino
acids is TRUE?
□ Essential amino acids are synthesized by the body.
□ Non-essential amino acids must be supplied through diet.
□ There are nine essential amino acids.
20. A(n) ______ protein supplies the body with all essential amino acids.
□
□
□
□
essential
complete
incomplete
complex
21. The highest amount of a nutrient that a healthy person can consume without
endangering his/her health is known as:
□
□
□
□
maximum dietary allowance
recommended dietary allowance
adequate intake level
tolerable upper intake level
22. What percentage of fat is suitable in a diet plan for somebody pursuing fat
loss?
□
□
□
□
0 to 5%
5 to 15%
15 to 30%
30 to 45%
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23. All carbohydrates are broken down into:
□
□
□
□
incomplete proteins
glucose
essential amino acids
ATP
24. Ketosis is caused by:
□
□
□
□
□
overload of carbohydrates
high protein diet
excessive aerobic exercise
low blood sugar
none of the above
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Answers
1. Carrying boxes – This activity has a higher MET score, which means it burns
more calories than carrying furniture.
2. 630 – This is calculated using the equation [(MET x 3.5 x body weight in kg) /
200] x duration in minutes. [(6 x 3.5 x 100) / 200] x 60 = 630 calories burned.
3. 315 – This is calculated using the same equation as question #2. [(6 x 3.5 x
100) / 200] x 30 = 315 calories burned.
4. Glycogen
5. Burning carbs – Burning fat, building muscle (bulking up) and the kind of
exercise that athletes normally need all require higher levels of intensity.
6. Anorexia nervosa – It is important to remember that “anorexia” only refers to
reduced appetite, while “anorexia nervosa” refers to the specific eating
disorder.
7. Binge eating disorder – While it shares the binge-eating symptom of binge
eating disorder, bulimia is characterized by the compensatory measure of
purging to prevent weight gain.
8. 1200 calories – This is the minimum number of calories you can consume in
one day and still receive the necessary vitamins, minerals and nutrients.
9. False – Egg yolks are considered the “cholesterol” of the egg and have more fat
calories than protein calories.
10. True – Egg whites are high in protein calories.
11. False – They both have the same amount of protein calories, but egg yolks
have more fat calories than egg whites.
12. Carbohydrates – The body processes carbohydrates most efficiently, and it is
more difficult to break down proteins or fats/lipids.
13. Central nervous system – Omega-3 fatty acids are especially good for brain
function and assist in forming and lubricating the myelin sheaths necessary for
good neural function.
14. Refer them to a health care professional – Eating disorders require treatment
by an experienced professional. Usually these individuals must be supervised
by a physician while exercising for safety reasons and because excessive
exercise can be a symptom of certain eating disorders.
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15. RMR – Your resting metabolic rate is the minimum number of calories your
body needs to support your biological functions while you are resting and is
responsible for the majority of calories burned in a day.
16. Not sufficient information to calculate – The standard RMR calculation
requires you to know the person’s age since RMR is significantly affected by
age, height and weight.
17. 2526 – First calculate the RMR for a female (9.99 x weight in kg) + (6.25 x
height in cm) - (4.92 x age) - 161. (9.99 x 60 = 599.4) + (6.25 x 170 = 1062.5)
- (4.92 x 23 = 113.16) - 161 = 1387.74 (round to 1388) calories burned during
rest. Then multiply the RMR by a standard Activity Coefficient (for a highly
active female this is 1.82). 1388 x 1.82 = 2526.16 (round to 2526).
18. Protein
19. There are 9 essential amino acids is the only TRUE statement – Essential
amino acids must be supplied through diet as they cannot be synthesized by
the body while the non-essential amino acids can by synthesized by the body
using the essential amino acids.
20. Complete
21. Tolerable upper intake level – This is also referred to as UL.
22.15 to 30% – Normal daily fat intake should be around 30% so someone
pursuing fat loss should not exceed 30%. However, some fat is necessary for
proper body functioning.
23. Glucose
24. High protein diet – Ketosis, the body's starvation response, can also be
induced by a low carbohydrate diet.
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Day 6, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review
Step 1: Review Preparation
This is the last anatomy review quiz. It contains random questions from topics
already covered in this book.
Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 8
1. The longest muscle in the human body is the:
□
□
□
□
latissimus dorsi
soleus
hamstrings
sartorius
2. The iliopsoas are made up of the (choose ALL correct answers):
□
□
□
□
□
psoas major
quadriceps
iliacus
rotator cuff
soleus
3. The study of the action of external and internal forces on the living body,
especially on the skeletal system, is called:
□
□
□
□
kinesiology
biomechanics
performance management
physiology
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4. What is required for aerobic activity to occur?
□
□
□
□
a treadmill
glucose
oxygen
lipids
5. Which muscle acts as the antagonist during ankle movement?
□
□
□
□
soleus
tibialis
gastrocnemius
sartorius
6. Hypertrophy is caused by an increased amount of:
□
□
□
□
sarcomeres
myosin
myofibrils
all of the above
7. Which statement about hyperplasia is true?
□
□
□
□
Hyperplasia is a major factor in muscle growth.
Hyperplasia creates new muscles.
Hyperplasia creates new motor neurons.
Hyperplasia creates new muscle fibers.
8. Calcium ions are an essential part of:
□
□
□
□
bone growth
bone strength
muscle contraction
hyperdisplasia
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Answers
1. Sartorius
2. Psoas major and iliacus
3. Biomechanics
4. Oxygen
5. Tibialis
6. All of the above – Increased amounts of sarcomeres, myosin and myofibrils all
contribute to hypertrophy.
7. Hyperplasia creates new muscle fibers is the TRUE statement – Don't get
hyperplasia confused with hypertrophy. Most muscle growth is due to
hypertrophy.
8. Muscle contraction – Muscles cannot contract without the presence of calcium
ions. They assist with the binding of actin and myosin.
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Day 7, Quiz 1: Training Special Populations
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
• How to deal with common ailments and diseases
• Understanding arthritis
• Dealing with diabetes
Step 2: Take Training Special Populations Quiz 1
1. Rheumatoid arthritis affects the:
□
□
□
□
□
bones
joints
ligaments
tendons
none of the above
2. The immune system attacks bodily tissues in which of the following disorders?
□
□
□
□
□
osteoporosis
cancer
rheumatoid arthritis
diabetes
osteoarthritis
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3. The percentage of the U.S. population with diabetes is:
□
□
□
□
2%
7%
15%
22%
4. Inflammation of the joints is characteristic of which of the following disorders?
□
□
□
□
□
arthritis
cancer
rheumatoid arthritis
diabetes
hypertension
5. Your client has osteoporosis and wants to build bone density in his/her spine.
What exercise would you recommend?
□
□
□
□
calf raise
squat
back extension
hip adduction
6. Elderly people with forward rounded shoulders and body curvature are likely
suffering from which of the following?
□
□
□
□
scoliosis
bulimia
lordosis
kyphosis
7. Gestational diabetes affects:
□
□
□
□
infants
overweight adults
pregnant women
elderly women
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8. Insulin resistance combined with insulin deficiency is indicative of which of
the following?
□
□
□
□
pre-diabetes
Type I diabetes
Type II diabetes
gestational diabetes
9. True or False? An athlete with a BMI of 18 can be considered obese.
10. True or false? Maximum Heart Rate (MHR) increases in people over age 55.
11. The expected range of normal body fat in adults ______ with age.
□ increases
□ decreases
□ stays the same
12. Which of the following is commonly the precursor to osteoporosis?
□
□
□
□
osteopenia
osteoarthritis
elevated bone mass
scoliosis
13. An altered ability to utilize glucose is known as:
□
□
□
□
diabetes
glucoxia
hypertension
bulimia nervosa
14. Muscle size declines quickly after reaching what age?
□
□
□
□
40
50
60
70
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15. Pre-diabetes is a condition marked by which of the following?
□
□
□
□
elevated insulin levels
elevated glucose levels
lowered glucose levels
none of the above
16. The body's failure to produce insulin is characteristic of which type of
diabetes?
□
□
□
□
pre-diabetes
Type I diabetes
Type II diabetes
gestational diabetes
17. Which of the following exercise positions can aggravate hypertension?
(choose ALL correct answers):
□
□
□
□
supine
prone
medial
all of the above
18. True or False? Obese people can benefit from proprioceptive training.
19. Anabolic steroid use in children can cause which of the following?
□
□
□
□
excessive growth
decelerated puberty
skeletal maturation
all of the above
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Answers
1. Joints – Rheumatoid arthritis is an auto-immune disorder that causes
deterioration and pain in the joints.
2. Rheumatoid arthritis – The immune system begins attacking the tissues of the
joints.
3. 7%
4. Arthritis – Inflamed joints are characteristic of arthritis while joint degeneration
is the hallmark of rheumatoid arthritis.
5. Back extension – None of the other exercises mentioned would build bone
density in the spine.
6. Kyphosis – Otherwise known as hunchback, this is a common condition among
elderly people due to degeneration of the muscles and joints.
7. Pregnant women
8. Type II diabetes
9. True – A BMI of < 18.5 is usually defined as being underweight. However, if
the fat hinders athletic performance, the athlete is considered obese.
10. False – Maximum heart rate declines with age as expressed in this formula:
MHR = 200 – age.
11. Increases – The body’s metabolism naturally slows down with age and thus
the body does not burn fat as efficiently.
12. Osteopenia
13. Diabetes – Insulin is the body’s primary glucose regulator and individuals
with diabetes have trouble producing or utilizing it properly.
14. 60
15. Elevated glucose levels – Elevated glucose levels are usually one of the first
warning signs of diabetes.
16. Type I diabetes
17. Supine and prone – Blood pressure changes most drastically when going from
a lying position (supine or prone) to a standing position so exercising in a
medial position is best for hypertension.
18. True
19. Skeletal maturation
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Day 7, Quiz 2: Training Special Populations
Step 1: Review Preparation
These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15
minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to
refresh your memory.
• How to train pregnant clients safely
• Unique characteristics of training children and teenagers
• Physiological changes in older populations and how to train them
effectively
Step 2: Take Training Special Populations Quiz 2
1. Exercise positions that should be avoided by pregnant women in the second
trimester or later include (choose ALL correct answers):
□ supine
□ prone
□ medial
2. Pregnant clients can continue moderate exercise levels until the _______
trimester.
□
□
□
□
□
second
third
fourth
only low intensity exercise is advisable during pregnancy
moderate exercise is safe during all trimesters
3. True or False? Children are able to perform anaerobic activity for longer
periods than adults.
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4. True or False? Children have less tolerance for temperature extremes during
exercise.
5. Pregnant women exercising in the supine position can experience which of the
following?
□
□
□
□
fetal distress
reduced cardiac output
carbon dioxide poisoning
extreme cramping
6. Pregnant women require an extra _____ calories per day.
□
□
□
□
□
300
500
700
1000
no extra calories are required
7. According to the CDC, a 10-year-old girl with a BMI of 28 is considered:
□
□
□
□
underweight
normal
overweight
obese
8. Training activities that are acceptable for children include which of the
following? (choose ALL correct answers):
□
□
□
□
running
bodybuilding
endurance training
1RM lifting
9. Which exercise is more suitable for children?
□ leg press
□ leg curl
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10. Which of the following methods is the best way to increase workload when
training children?
□
□
□
□
increase duration
increase load
increase reps
increase caloric deficit
11. Your new client is pregnant and has no previous experience with a workout
program. What is the appropriate course of action?
□
□
□
□
start a weight training program
start a balanced weight training and aerobic program
refuse your services
none of the above
12. When training, pregnant women should never exceed which of the following?
□
□
□
□
40% of THR
40% of MHR
40% of 1RM
140 bpm heart rate
13. Your client is pregnant and complaining of lower back pain. What should you
recommend? (choose ALL correct answers)
□
□
□
□
avoiding high heel shoes
walking for 30 minutes per day
place a pillow between the knees at night
all of the above
14. Normal weight gain during pregnancy falls within which of the following
parameters?
□
□
□
□
2 to 5 pounds during the first trimester
1 pound per week in the second trimester
1 pound per week in the third trimester
all of the above
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15. Senior citizens should train at:
□
□
□
□
80 to 90% THR
30 to 40% THR
30 to 40% 1RM
40 to 50% 1RM
16. When training elderly clients, you should have them perform _______
compared to younger clients.
□
□
□
□
more weight
more frequency
more reps
more intensity
17. Which population should have a minimum of one hour of moderate intensity
physical exercise per day? (choose ALL correct answers):
□
□
□
□
□
children
healthy adults
injured adults
senior citizens
pre-natal women
18. Strength training in youths can put excess strain on which of the following?
(choose ALL correct answers):
□
□
□
□
muscles
tendons
growth plates
all of the above
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Answers
1. Supine and prone – The prone position can potentially cause injury to the fetus,
and the supine position can place too much weight on the blood vessels and
restrict blood flow.
2. The third trimester – While some experts assert that pregnant women can
continue moderate intensity exercise throughout pregnancy, it is not standard
physician recommendation, and often women are simply too uncomfortable to
continue moderate intensity exercise.
3. False – Children should actually perform less anaerobic activity than adults.
4. True – Children have smaller bodies and less surface area to help them adjust to
temperature extremes, especially heat.
5. Reduced cardiac output – Exercising in the supine position restricts blood flow,
which reduces cardiac output.
6. 300 calories – It is important to note that these are needed calories and should
not be burned off during exercise.
7. Overweight – BMI levels are the same for children as adults so a BMI of 28
would indicate the girl is overweight.
8. Endurance training and running – Children should not engage in bodybuilding
or 1RM lifting as their bodies cannot effectively handle these exercises. It
could also cause serious injury or growth problems.
9. Leg press – Multi-joint exercises are preferable to single joint exercises.
10. Increase reps – Increasing load or duration can place undue stress on a
growing child’s body. You should not increase caloric deficit for children
without the recommendation of a physician or dietician.
11. None of the above – Weight training should not commence while pregnant if
the client has no prior experience, nor should you refuse your services because
there are several workout programs recommended during pregnancy. It should
be noted that NASM's position on this is pregnant women can start a
resistance training program if kept with light resistance loads and is within
their level of flexibility and stabilization.
12. 140 beats per minute heart rate – Once again, NASM's view is a little
different. They allow pregnant women to have a heart rate up to 160 beats per
minute when accustomed to a moderate intensity workout.
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13. All of the above – Each of these measures can help reduce lower back pain in
pregnant women.
14. All of the above – This is the standard progression of weight gain for pregnant
women who were at a normal, healthy weight when they became pregnant. It
should be noted that weight gain progression is slightly different for
underweight or overweight women.
15. 40 to 50% 1RM
16. More reps – Increasing weight, frequency or intensity could cause serious
injury in older adults.
17. Children – Note: NASM only recommends a minimum of 20 minutes of
moderate intensity exercise for children.
18. All answers are correct – It should be noted that this topic is controversial.
NASM has found through studies that resistance training in the 5- to 14-yearold age group has been associated with a decrease in the number of common
injuries and that it is both safe and effective. However, this is not common
practice among other groups.
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Day 8: Links to Certification Specific Exam Information
This section deals with all the differences between the various certifications.
While most certifications have a lot in common, each certification provider has its
own unique philosophy and agenda.
It is important to understand this and adjust for it when taking the exam. For
example, some certifications are ultra conservative when it comes to safety and
liability while others are more liberal.
Study the comments submitted by people who have taken the exams to get a
better understanding of what you are facing. Review the links below for the
certification exam that you are preparing for.
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Day 8 ACE Quiz
1. You are working with a 70-year-old client with borderline hypertension.
Although this client has been cleared by his/her physician, which of the
following precautions should you take?
□ monitor blood pressure and avoid the Valsalva maneuver
□ lower resistance and increase repetitions, avoid the Valsalva
maneuver and monitor blood pressure
□ avoid the Valsalva maneuver and encourage isometric exercise
□ encourage isometric exercise, monitor blood pressure and avoid the
Valsalva maneuver
2. During a discussion, your client is verbally agreeing with your suggestions.
However, you notice that she is sitting with her arms crossed and her eyes
downcast. What is the BEST next step for the personal trainer?
□
□
□
□
go over the exercises she just performed again
ask her how she feels about the program
refer her to a qualified health professional
tell her she needs to get a better attitude
3. Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm?
□
□
□
□
infraspinatus
subscapularis
supraspinatus
teres minor
4. Ed is 55 years old and has a resting heart rate of 76 beats per minute. What is
Ed’s maximum heart rate?
□
□
□
□
135
165
76
88
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5. Using the previous question, what is Ed’s target heart rate?
□
□
□
□
100 to 109
108 to 128
129 to 147
145 to 165
6. The theory that the thin and thick filaments of a myofibril maintain their initial
length while sliding past each other during muscle contraction is known as:
□
□
□
□
myofibril theory
contraction length theory
sliding filament theory
developing myofibril theory
7. When the distal segment of an extremity is free, what kind of exercise is
occurring?
□ open-chain exercise
□ closed-chain exercise
8. Which of the following is an example of a closed-chain exercise?
□
□
□
□
jumping rope
bench press
squat
leg lifts
9. Overly tight hip flexors and lower back muscles are usually indicative of which
postural condition?
□
□
□
scoliosis
lordosis
kyphosis
10. True or False? It is recommended that people exercise at the same level of
intensity when at a high altitude as they would at sea level.
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11. It is a hot day and your 68-year-old client has been exercising for 10 minutes.
Her face is red, she is sweating and she seems to be slowing down although
the level of intensity is low. What is the BEST course of action?
□
□
□
□
motivate her to keep going
ask her if she needs a break and offer her water
stop the session and tell her to go home
request professional medical assistance
12. Tim weighs 235 pounds with 20% body fat. If Tim succeeds in lowering his
body fat to 10%, how much will he weigh then?
□
□
□
□
220 pounds
209 pounds
200 pounds
198 pounds
13. Average cardiac output for a male is:
□
□
□
□
4.5 L per minute
5.0 L per minute
5.5 L per minute
6.0 L per minute
14. Which of the following exercises would NOT be recommended for someone
who suffers from shoulder impingement pain?
□
□
□
□
walking
overhead lifts
squats
leg lifts
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15. A client comes to you and says she wants to lose 15 pounds in 3 weeks for her
college graduation. What would be the BEST course of action?
□
□
□
□
Explain to the client that it is unsafe to lose that much weight in only
three weeks and offer to work with her to lose weight safely.
Increase the intensity and length of her sessions so she’s burning more
calories and can reach her weight loss goal.
Prescribe a new low-calorie diet for her and increase her sessions
from three per week to five per week.
Refer her to a dietician and mental health professional.
16. What is the FIRST thing you should do if you see a client lying unconscious
on the ground?
□
□
□
□
begin chest compressions
tilt client’s head and listen for breathing
check for unresponsiveness and call for help if client does not respond
roll client over on his/her face
17. What kind of stretching includes controlled arm and leg movements that
gently stretch you to the limits of your range of motion?
□
□
□
□
dynamic stretching
PNF stretching
isometric stretching
static stretching
18. The hold-relax technique is an example of what kind of stretching?
□
□
□
□
dynamic stretching
PNF stretching
isometric stretching
static stretching
19. True or False? Overuse of diuretics can induce dehydration.
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20. Which of the following is NOT recommended for progression during circuit
training?
□
□
□
increasing station time
decreasing rest intervals
increasing station time and decreasing rest intervals at the same time
21. How often should someone engage in circuit training?
□
□
□
□
2 to 4 times per week
1 to 2 times per week
5 to 6 times per week
7 or more times per week
22. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic applications of circuit
training?
□
□
□
□
general physical fitness
intense flexibility development
strength endurance development
basic strength development
23. What is the proper way to breathe during weight training?
□
□
□
□
Inhale during the concentric phase of the lift and exhale during the
eccentric phase.
Exhale during the concentric phase of the lift and inhale during the
eccentric phase.
Inhale during the concentric phase of the lift, exhale and inhale again
during the eccentric phase.
Hold your breath.
24. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages associated with over-training
during progressive overload?
□
□
□
□
alarm phase
resistance phase
regression phase
exhaustion phase
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25. Identify the five major weight training phases in the correct progression.
□
□
□
□
endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, peak
endurance, strength, hypertrophy, peak, power
endurance, power, strength, hypertrophy, peak
strength, endurance, hypertrophy, power, peak
26. True or False? Performance improves during the Alarm Phase of over-training
during progressive overload.
27. Which of the following is NOT one of the three conditioning stages of
progression for cardiovascular endurance exercise programs?
□
□
□
□
initial stage
improvement stage
strength stage
maintenance stage
28. How long does the initial conditioning stage of cardiovascular endurance
training generally last?
□
□
□
□
2 to 4 weeks
4 to 6 weeks
16 to 20 weeks
20 to 24 weeks
29. You should gradually overload your muscles in order to get the best
improvement in muscle strength. This adequately describes:
□
□
□
□
the principle of overload
the principle of progression
the principle of strength
the principle of specificity
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30. Which of the following is an example of an overuse injury?
□
□
□
□
ankle sprain
hamstring muscle strain
wrist fracture
shin splints
31. True or False? Training errors are the most common cause of overuse injuries.
32. Overuse injuries are initially treated with R.I.C.E. What does this acronym
stand for?
□
□
□
□
Raising, Ice, Compression, Edema
Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
Room, Inertia, Cold, Elevation
Rest, Inertia, Compression, Edema
33. Which of the following is the most common muscle protein?
□
□
□
□
actin
myosin
lactic acid
albumen
34. True or False? Albumen is the protein mechanism responsible for muscle
contraction.
35. What is a strain?
□
□
□
□
an injury to a ligament
an injury to a muscle or tendon
an injury to a bone
an injury to an organ
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36. What is a sprain?
□
□
□
□
an injury to a ligament
an injury to a muscle or tendon
an injury to a bone
an injury to an organ
37. According to Food Pyramid guidelines, the caloric intake at which weight
maintenance occurs is a person’s:
□
□
□
□
discretionary calories
energy density
energy allowance
glycemic load
38. True or False? You can lose weight through exercise, even if your diet
remains the same.
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Answers
1. Lower resistance and increase repetitions, avoid the Valsalva maneuver and
monitor blood pressure – Due the client’s age and borderline hypertension, you
want to increase endurance rather than strength and should avoid the Valsalva
maneuver, which could lead to a myocardial infarction, as well as monitor
blood pressure to make sure he/she is not being overstrained.
2. Ask her how she feels about the program – Although your client is verbally
agreeing, her body language indicates that something is wrong. Asking the
client how she feels will open the lines of communication and lead to better
results in the long run.
3. Supraspinatus
4. 165 – Maximum heart rate is calculated 220 minus age. 220 - 55 = 165
5. 129 to 147 – Target heart rate is calculated using the Karvonen formula and
should be between 60 – 80% of maximum heart rate. Maximum heart rate for
Ed is 165. 165 – resting heart rate (76) = 89, the maximum reserve rate. 89 x
0.6 (60%) + resting heart rate (76) = 129.4 (low range). 89 x 0.8 (80%) +
resting heart rate (76) = 147.2 (high range).
6. Sliding filament theory
7. Open-chain exercise
8. Squat – Closed-chain exercises occur when the distal segment of an extremity
is fixed, as in a squat where the foot is on the ground.
9. Lordosis – More commonly known as sway-back, lordosis causes the person to
lean backwards due to severely contracted muscles in the lower back and hip
flexors.
10. False – Due to the way the body reacts to higher altitudes, people usually
cannot exercise at the same level of intensity without risk of serious injury or
medical problems.
11. Ask her if she needs a break and offer her water – The body’s ability to
respond to heat decreases with age and thus, older adults have a higher risk of
suffering a heat-related illness. It is important to monitor older adults more
closely on hot days.
12. 209 pounds – If 20% of Tim’s weight is body fat, his lean muscle mass (80%)
is 188. If his new body fat percentage is 10, his lean muscle mass would be
90% (0.9). 188 divided by 0.9 = 208.8 (round up).
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13. 5.0 L per minute – Average cardiac output for males is 5 L per minute and
4.5 L per minute for females.
14. Overhead lifts – Raising the arms during overhead lifts (in addition to the
weight lifted) can severely exacerbate the pain suffered by those with
shoulder impingement.
15. Explain to the client that it is unsafe to lose that much in only three weeks and
offer to work with her to lose weight safely – Physicians recommend no more
than two pounds of weight loss per week for safety and health reasons.
16. Check for unresponsiveness and call for help if s/he do not respond – You
should NOT begin chest compressions or listen for breathing until you have
ascertained that the person is unresponsive.
17. Dynamic stretching
18. PNF stretching – This kind of stretching is intended to increase static-passive
flexibility, as is achieved during a hold-relax muscle movement.
19. True
20. Increasing station time and decreasing rest intervals at the same time – This is
unsafe and could lead to an overload.
21. 2 to 4 times per week – This is the recommended number of times a person
should engage in circuit training to receive the most benefits without overload
or injury.
22. Intense flexibility development – Circuit training is not designed to
significantly increase flexibility and instead is more useful for strength and
endurance.
23. Exhale during the concentric phase of the lift and inhale during the eccentric
phase – This method utilizes oxygen most effectively while lifting.
24. Regression phase – The three stages associated with progressive overload
overtraining are: alarm phase, resistance phase and exhaustion phase.
25. Endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, peak
26. False – Fatigue and general weakness occur during the Alarm Phase, while
performance improves during the Resistance Phase.
27. Strength conditioning phase – During cardiovascular training, the focus is on
building cardiovascular endurance, not physical strength.
28. 4 to 6 weeks – This is the recommended amount of time to build a
conditioning baseline without too much exertion.
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29. The principle of progression
30. Shin splints – Overuse injuries are the result of repetitive trauma, not a single
traumatic event as in the case of strains, sprains and fractures.
31. True
32. Rest – Ice – Compression – Elevation = R.I.C.E.
33. Myosin
34. False – Actomyosin (a combination of actin and myosin) provides the
mechanism for muscle contraction.
35. An injury to a muscle or tendon
36. An injury to a ligament
37. Energy allowance
38. False – You cannot lose weight unless you are burning more calories than you
consume, which means you must intake fewer calories to lose weight. It is
important to note that about 1% of people who lose weight and keep it off
long term have done it with exercise alone, but this is so rare that is not
counted.
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Day 8: ACSM Quiz
1. True or False? The body’s ability to acquire, convert, store and use energy is
referred to as bioenergetics.
2. Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic components of every
education-based personal training session?
□
□
□
□
initial client consultation
motivational preparation
exercise implementation and practice
assessment of achieved objectives
3. Training session preparation has four specific components. What are these four
components?
□ achievable goals, client motivation, client learning style, creative
application
□ client learning style, trainer teaching style, creative application, effective
assessment
□ achievable goals, an intelligent plan, client learning style, effective
assessment
□ trainer teaching style, creative application, effective assessment, achievable
goals
4. SET stands for:
□
□
□
□
Sequential Exercise Training
Safe Exercise Training
System Evaluation Training
Sequential Evaluation Training
5. True or False? Effective, engaging and efficient exercise programs focus on the
needs of the client, not the trainer’s goals.
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6. Visual observation and evaluation of a client’s mastery of skills and exercises
without the use of machines is what kind of analysis?
□ quantitative
□ qualitative
7. Which of the following is NOT one of the three cardinal planes of the body?
□
□
□
□
transverse plane
frontal plane
anterior plane
sagittal plane
8. Which of the following is NOT one of the three axes of the body?
□
□
□
□
longitudinal axis
proximal axis
mediolateral axis
anteroposterior axis
9. The sit and reach test is a valid measure of flexibility for:
□
□
□
□
the biceps
the lower back and hamstrings
the peronei
the triceps
10. Which of the following vitamins is NOT fat-soluble?
□
□
□
□
□
vitamin K
vitamin C
vitamin A
vitamin E
vitamin D
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Please answer questions 11 - 12 using the client example given below.
John is a 35-year-old male wishing to begin a fitness routine. Upon assessment,
his blood pressure was 136/80, and his total serum cholesterol was 235 mg/dl. He
reported a family history of myocardial infarction but no personal history. He
does not smoke, but reported that he has never engaged in an exercise routine
before.
11. According to the ACSM risk stratification guidelines, John is at what level
of risk?
□
□
□
low risk
moderate risk
high risk
12. Which of the following are John’s risk factors?
□
□
□
□
□
elevated serum cholesterol
family history of myocardial infarction
sedentary lifestyle
all of the above
none of the above
13. Risk factor stratification can be modified with which of the following?
□
□
□
□
□
exercise training
risk factor reduction
surgical intervention
stress reduction
all of the above
14. True or False? A physician must be present during a physical or
submaximal test for a moderate risk client.
15. True or False? A cardiac patient can begin a fitness routine while waiting to
get a physical from his/her physician.
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Please answer questions 16 - 19 using the client example given below.
Eloise is a 40-year-old clearly obese woman who wants to lose weight. She has
not consulted a physician about beginning an exercise routine. She has no medical
history of cardiopulmonary disease, but upon assessment had edema around her
ankles, was short of breath after only walking into the room and had elevated
blood pressure.
16. How many risk factors does Eloise have?
□
□
□
□
one
two
three
none
17. Which of the following is NOT one of Eloise’s risk factors?
□
□
□
□
obesity
hypertension
age
signs/symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease
18. According to the ACSM risk stratification guidelines, Eloise is at what level
of risk?
□
□
□
low risk
moderate risk
high risk
19. True or False? You should refer Eloise to her physician to be tested and
cleared to begin an exercise program before beginning to work with her.
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20. What is the most common type of musculoskeletal lever in the human body?
□
□
□
□
first-class
second-class
third-class
fourth-class
21. A resting body tends to remain at rest, but a moving body will continue
moving unless acted upon by an external force. This is an adequate definition
for the law of:
□
□
□
□
gravity
stabilization
inertia
motion
22. Measurement of the pulse during exercise is most commonly done at which
site?
□
□
□
□
femoral
radial
popliteal
dorsal pedal
23. Which of the following is one of the standard sites for the measurement of
circumference?
□
□
□
□
neck
abdomen
ankle
fingers
24. The rear-foot motion called supination results from a combination of:
□
□
□
□
abduction, eversion and dorsiflexion
adduction, inversion and plantarflexion
abduction, inversion and plantarflexion
adduction, eversion and dorsiflexion
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25. Running has which of the following characteristics that walking does not?
□
□
□
□
decreased stride length
increased stride length
period of non-support
period of double-support
26. Nodding the head would be an example of what kind of musculoskeletal
lever?
□
□
□
□
first-class
second-class
third-class
fourth-class
27. Exercise prescriptions are designed to do which of the following?
□
□
□
□
□
enhance physical fitness
reduce risk factors for chronic disease and promote health
endure safety
all of the above
none of the above
28. The components that are essential to a systematic and individualized exercise
prescription are:
□
□
□
□
mode, duration, intensity, progression of physical activity and
frequency
intensity, duration, degeneration, allowance and progression of
physical activity
mode, duration and frequency of physical activity
frequency and mode of physical activity
29. True or False? The five essential components of exercise prescription apply to
individuals of all ages and fitness levels, regardless of health.
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30. According to ACSM guidelines, the typical format of an exercise session
should include:
□
□
□
□
a warm-up period, a stimulus or conditioning phase, an optional
recreational phase and a cool-down period
a warm-up period, a recreational phase and a cool-down period
a stimulus or conditioning phase, an optional recreational phase and
a cool-down period
a warm-up period, a stimulus or conditioning phase and a cool-down
period
Please answer questions 31 – 35 using the following information.
Alice is a 40-year-old woman who wants to start an exercise program to lose
weight. Currently she weighs 155 pounds, is 5 feet 5 inches tall and smokes 3-4
cigarettes per day. She has never engaged in a regular exercise program, but has
no medical conditions or family history of medical conditions that would keep her
from exercise. In addition, when asked about her normal diet, Alice indicated she
had consumed 15 grams of protein, 25 grams of carbohydrates, 45 grams of fat
and 224 grams of alcohol that day and that this was a fair representation of her
overall diet.
31. What is Alice’s BMI?
□
□
□
□
21
23.4
25.7
29
32. According to Alice’s BMI, she is:
□
□
□
□
slightly underweight
at a healthy weight
slightly overweight
obese
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33. How many calories has Alice consumed today?
□
□
□
□
500
1069
2011
2133
34. According to ACSM risk stratification guidelines, what level of risk is Alice?
□
□
□
low risk
moderate risk
high risk
35. As a personal trainer, which of the following would you suggest for Alice?
□
□
□
□
quit smoking
consider decreasing alcohol intake
decrease fat intake and eat more fruits and vegetables
all of the above
36. Which of the following is NOT one of the common indicators of
cardiovascular over-training?
□
□
□
□
altered blood pressure
decreased performance
increased muscle soreness
increased aerobic capacity
37. Which of the following is a function of nutrients?
□
□
□
□
provide energy
promote and sustain growth
regulate body processes
all of the above
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38. Blockages of the arteries in the brain cause:
□
□
□
□
myocardial infarction
stroke
high cholesterol
coronary artery disease
Answers
1. True
2. Motivational preparation – This is not part of the education-based model, and
client motivation is a part of goal reviewing.
3. Achievable goals, an intelligent plan, client learning style, effective assessment
4. Sequential Exercise Training
5. True
6. Qualitative – Quantitative assessments have clearly defined methods and
ranges (i.e., blood pressure, weight, height, etc.)
7. Anterior plane
8. Proximal axis
9. The lower back and hamstrings
10. Vitamin C
11. Moderate risk – John is at moderate risk because he is under 45 and has one or
more risk factors, according to ACSM risk guidelines.
12. All of the above
13. All of the above
14. False – A physician only needs to be present for high risk clients or moderate
risk clients undergoing a maximal test.
15. False – Cardiac patients must be cleared by their physician PRIOR to
beginning any exercise program.
16. Three – Eloise is obese, has signs and symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease
and elevated blood pressure.
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17. Age – Because she is under 55, her age is not a risk factor.
18. High risk – Despite her age, Eloise’s signs and symptoms of cardiopulmonary
disease and her obesity place her in the high-risk category.
19. True
20. Third-class – These levers have the effort, or muscle, instead of the fulcrum,
in the middle. The forearm, pulled by the bicep muscles, is an example of a
third-class lever.
21. Inertia
22. Radial – The easiest pulses to obtain during exercise are the carotid pulse and
the radial pulse.
23. Abdomen – Neck and ankle measurements are unreliable gauges of a person’s
circumference.
24. Adduction, inversion and plantarflexion
25. Period of non-support – While running there is a short period where both feet
are off the ground. Conversely, during walking you have a period of doublesupport where both feet are on the ground.
26. First-class – Nodding the head is an example of the use of a first-class lever.
These levers have the fulcrum in the middle, similar to a seesaw.
27. All of the above
28. Mode, duration, intensity, progression of physical activity and frequency
29. True
30. A warm-up period, a stimulus or conditioning phase, an optional recreational
phase and a cool-down period
31. 25.7 – BMI is calculated by dividing weight (155) by height squared
(65 x 65 = 4225) = 0.036 times 703 = 25.7.
32. Slightly overweight – BMI for normal health weight is between 18.6 and 24.9.
33. 2133 – There are 4 calories per 1 gram of carbohydrates or protein, 9 calories
per 1 gram of fat and 7 calories per 1 gram of alcohol. 15 x 4 = 60. 25 x 4 =
100. 9 x 45 = 405. 7 x 224 = 1568. Total = 2133
34. Moderate risk – Alice is under 55 and has two risk factors: cigarette smoking
and sedentary lifestyle.
35. All of the above – Quit smoking for overall health, consider decreasing
alcohol intake for overall health and weight loss and decrease fat intake and
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eat more fruits and vegetables for overall health and weight loss.
36. Increased aerobic capacity – When cardiovascular over-training occurs,
aerobic capacity can be decreased.
37. All of the above – Nutrients function to provide energy to the body, promote
and sustain growth and regulate body processes.
38. Stroke
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Day 8 AFAA Quiz
1. True or False? Static, or passive, stretching is the safest way to stretch.
2. True or False? If it does not hurt when you are stretching, you are not doing it
right.
3. Which of the following would you NOT recommend when offering nutritional
guidelines to your clients?
□
□
□
□
keep food intake regular—do not skip meals
select a variety of foods from all of the basic food groups
take a lot of energy and dietary supplements
avoid high-sugar and high-fat foods
4. Which of the following is an example of isometric exercise?
□
□
□
□
bent-knee quad sets
leg lifts
push ups
bench press
5. A joint with a ligament instability is also known as a:
□
□
□
□
gliding joint
saddle joint
hypomobile joint
hypermobile joint
6. Which of the following muscles does NOT attach to the scapula?
□
□
□
□
teres major
teres minor
adductor magnus
supraspinatus
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7. Poor blood volume can prevent the heart from pumping enough blood to the
body and can create serious problems during exercise if not properly
considered. What is this condition called?
□
□
□
□
myocarditis
aortic aneurysm
aortic insufficiency
hypovolemic shock
8. The body’s ability to physiologically adjust to an unfamiliar environment and
achieve a new steady state is known as:
□
□
□
□
environment relation
acclimatization
climate shift
evolution
9. The principle of muscle contraction that states that all of the muscle fibers will
maximally contract when a motor unit is activated is known as:
□
□
□
□
the all-or-none principle
the maximizing principle
the activation principle
none of the above
10. Which of the following is an example of an anthropometric assessment?
□
□
□
□
skin fold measurement
weight
circumference measurement
all of the above
11. What is the correct definition of aponeurosis?
□
□
□
□
neural deficiency that causes muscle atrophy
tendinous expansion that connects a muscle to the parts it moves
inflamed neural pathways
none of the above
12. True or False? Antecubital space is the space just in front of the elbow.
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13. The place of junction between two or more bones is known as the:
□
□
□
□
baroreceptor
articulation
point of insertion
point of friction
14. Which of the following methods of determining body composition measures
the body’s resistance to electrical flow?
□
□
□
□
Body Mass Index (BMI)
Bioelectrical Impedance (BIA)
Hydrostatic Weighing
Skin fold measurement
15. Which of the following behaviors is NOT characteristic of an eating disorder?
□
□
□
□
binging and purging
refusing to eat anything at all
cutting back on fats and sugars
none of the above
16. Which of the following clients would most likely engage in carbohydrate
loading?
□
□
□
□
a client wanting to lose weight
a client preparing to run a marathon
a client trying to control his/her diabetes
all of the above
17. What is the active or passive circular movement of a joint called?
□
□
□
□
adduction
abduction
circumduction
flexion
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18. Which of the following foods is an example of a complete protein?
□
□
□
□
eggs
cheese
beef
all of the above
19. Continuous training refers to a conditioning exercise in which the appropriate
intensity is continuously maintained between ____________ of maximal
oxygen consumption (functional capacity).
□
□
□
□
20 to 30%
35 to 50%
50 to 85%
80 to 90%
20. True or False? Delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS) is usually associated
with concentric muscle contractions.
21. True or False? Clients with emphysema do not need a medical release from
their physician.
22. Gait refers to:
□
□
□
□
a doorway
manner or style of walking
disorder of the lymphatic system
none of the above
23. If a person is deficient in potassium they are said to have:
□
□
□
□
hypoglycemia
hypokinesis
hypokalemia
hypotonic
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24. A solution having less effective osmotic pressure equivalency than bodily
fluids is referred to as:
□
□
□
□
hypoglycemia
hypokinesis
hypokalemia
hypotonic
25. Which of the following is an example of isotonic exercise?
□
□
□
□
running
lifting free weights
jumping rope
sit ups
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Answers
1. True
2. False – Stretches are designed to promote flexibility, but this is a gradual
process, and it should not hurt when you are stretching.
3. Take a lot of energy and dietary supplements – A well-balanced diet should
provide all the nutrients you need, even if you are exercising regularly.
Supplements can create nutritional imbalances and even serious medical
conditions.
4. Bent-knee quad sets – Isometric exercises involve contracting the muscles, not
moving weight through space, as with the bench press, leg lifts, or push ups.
5. Hypermobile joint
6. Adductor magnus
7. Hypovolemic shock
8. Acclimatization
9. The all-or-none principle
10. All of the above – Anthropometric assessments measure and analyze human
body parts and include skinfold measurement, weight and circumference
measurement.
11. Tendinous expansion that connects a muscle to the parts it moves
12. True
13. Articulation
14. Bioelectrical Impedance (BIA)
15. Cutting back on fats and sugars – This is a healthy eating behavior and is not
indicative of an eating disorder. Binging and purging and refusal to eat are
characteristics of bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa, two of the most
common eating disorders.
16. A client preparing to run a marathon – Carbohydrate loading is a period of
training intensity and carbohydrate intake manipulation prior to an endurance
event in order to achieve maximum glycogen storage.
17. Circumduction
18. All of the above – All animal proteins, including eggs, cheese and beef, are
complete proteins, meaning they have all nine of the essential amino acids.
19. 50 to 85%
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20. False – Eccentric muscle contractions are usually the cause of delayed onset
muscle soreness (DOMS).
21. False – Emphysema is a chronic lung disease that reduces oxygen levels, thus
clients MUST be cleared by their physicians before engaging in an exercise
program.
22. Manner or style of walking
23. Hypokalemia
24. Hypotonic
25. Lifting free weights – Isotonic exercises are strength training exercises where
the weight or load is constant and the muscle shortens and lengthens, as
occurs while lifting free weights.
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Day 8 ISSA Quiz
1. Which of the following refers to the characteristic of muscle that allows it to
shorten and thicken?
□
□
□
□
eccentricity
flexibility
contractility
mobility
2. Actively closing the glottis and bearing down to create pressure in the chest
results in diminished blood flow to the heart and a decrease in blood pressure.
This is an adequate description of the:
□
□
□
□
Heimlich maneuver
Valsalva maneuver
proper way to breathe
ability to control blood volume
3. In which plane are flexion and extension movements normally performed?
□
□
□
□
anterior
posterior
sagittal
all of the above
4. The elbow is an example of what kind of joint?
□
□
□
□
ball and socket
hinge
pivot
gliding
5. Movement away from the body is known as:
□
□
□
□
adduction
abduction
concentric
eccentric
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6. Which of the following is NOT one of the normal curves of the spine?
□
□
□
□
thoracic
lumbar
sternal
cervical
7. True or False? A prudent personal trainer will recommend dietary or energy
supplements to their clients.
8. What kind of exercise is typically prescribed for effective weight loss?
□
□
□
□
resistance training only
aerobic activity only
moderate intensity, long duration aerobic activity with moderate
resistance training
high intensity, short duration aerobic activity with moderate resistance
training
9. What is the average exercise dropout rate after the first year?
□
□
□
□
10%
25%
35%
50%
10. What kind of cholesterol is referred to as good cholesterol because it reduces
the risk of plaques forming in the arteries?
□
□
□
□
high-density lipoprotein
low-density lipoprotein
tryglycerides
no cholesterol is “good” cholesterol
11. True or False? Bursitis is a chronic condition due to excessive, prolonged
pressure or repetitive movement.
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12. Which of the following is commonly used to assess muscular endurance?
□
□
□
□
□
push ups
pull ups
curl ups
all of the above
none of the above
13. A client measures his heart rate after waking before getting out of bed for
three days in a row. The average of these numbers is known as his:
□
□
□
□
true resting heart rate
sitting heart rate
maximum heart rate
low range heart rate
14. What is the name of the proprioceptor that is found in the tendons of your
muscles and that measures muscle tension?
□
□
□
□
ligamental nerve
golgi tendon organ
neural energy pathway
none of the above
15. A specialized nerve cell that innervates muscle fibers is called a(n):
□
□
□
□
specificity neuron
motor neuron
energy neuron
innervating neuron
16. Which of the following is an example of an endurance activity?
□
□
□
□
kicking a football
body building
pole vault
running a marathon
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17. Which of the following is NOT an example of a complex carbohydrate?
□
□
□
□
baked potato
whole wheat toast
broccoli
pasta
18. True or False? Chromium picolinate will increase muscle mass.
19. Which of the following is a basic element of exercise prescription?
□
□
□
□
□
□
mode
intensity
duration
frequency
all of the above
none of the above
20. True or False? Biological, psychological, emotional, cultural and
environmental factors all influence exercise participation and adherence.
21. Why is the initial fitness assessment useful?
□
□
□
□
It assists in identifying strengths.
It assists in identifying weaknesses.
It provides a basis for setting realistic fitness goals.
All of the above
22. Stretching, twisting and most calisthenics activities are examples of which of
the following?
□
□
□
□
locomotor skills
nonlocomotor skills
gross motor skills
fine motor skills
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23. What kinds of skills are used to move the body from one location to another,
as in running and jumping, for example?
□
□
□
□
gross motor skills
locomotor skills
fine motor skills
nonlocomotor skills
24. The wrist is an example of what kind of joint?
□
□
□
□
hinge
ball and socket
pivot
biaxial
25. True or False? Exercise addiction is a real condition and must be properly
treated by professional psychological counselors.
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Answers
1. Contractility
2. Valsalva maneuver
3. Sagittal
4. Hinge – This type of joint allows extension and retraction of the limb.
5. Abduction – Abduction moves away from the midline of the body, while
adduction moves toward the midline.
6. Sternal – There are three normal curves of the spine: cervical, thoracic and
lumbar.
7. False – Dietary and energy supplements can create nutritional imbalances
leading to health problems and should NOT be recommended by personal
trainers.
8. Moderate intensity, long duration aerobic activity with moderate resistance
training – This exercise prescription has proven most effective for weight loss
as it burns sufficient calories and helps to tone the body at the same time.
9. 50% – Nearly half of all clients lose motivation and will drop out of a regular
exercise program after the first year.
10. High-density lipoprotein – Often found in polyunsaturated fats, high-density
lipoprotein (HDL) is the “good” kind of cholesterol.
11. True
12. All of the above – Pushups, pull ups and curl ups are all commonly used
assessments for measuring muscular endurance.
13. True resting heart rate – The true resting heart rate is taken after a period of
complete rest, preferably at the same time, for at least three days in a row.
14. Golgi tendon organ
15. Motor neuron
16. Running a marathon – The other activities listed (kicking a football,
bodybuilding and pole vault) are examples of power or speed activities.
17. Broccoli – Broccoli is a vegetable; the other examples (whole grains, etc.) are
examples of complex carbohydrates.
18. False – Scientific studies have shown that chromium picolinate has no effect
on muscle mass.
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19. All of the above – Mode, intensity, duration and frequency are the four basic
elements of exercise prescription.
20. True – All of these factors can affect whether or not a person engages in
exercise, to what extent and why.
21. All of the above – Initial fitness assessments allow you to accurately identify
clients’ strengths and weakness and give you a baseline from which to form
goals.
22. Nonlocomotor skills – None of these activities require you to move from one
place to another.
23. Locomotor skills – These are the skills necessary to move from one location
to another.
24. Biaxial – Biaxial joints allow two types of movement in two directions.
25. True
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Day 8: NASM Quiz
1. Exercises that cause the body to use its stabilization mechanisms and internal
balance are typically performed in a controlled, yet unstable environment
called a:
□
□
□
□
personal training environment
stabilization enhancing environment
proprioceptively enriched environment
productive environment
2. Two exercises that are performed without any rest between them are referred to
as a:
□
□
□
□
subset
superset
doubleset
none of the above
3. The cumulative neural input received by the mechanoreceptors that sense limb
movement and body position is called:
□
□
□
□
neuromuscular efficiency
proprioception
stablilization
inert energy
4. What are the five phases of the NASM’s Optimum Performance Training
(OPT) system?
□
□
□
□
stabilization endurance, strength endurance, hypertrophy, atrophy,
deconditioning
stabilization endurance, strength endurance, hypertrophy, maximal
strength, power
stabilization endurance, hypertrophy, minimum strength, maximal
strength, power
stabilization endurance, hypertrophy, power, flexibility, progression
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5. True or False? Stabilization Endurance Training is only for beginning clients
who usually have muscle imbalances and do not have adequate postural
control.
6. Which of the following Optimum Performance Training (OPT) stages most
commonly utilizes a superset?
□
□
□
□
stabilization endurance
strength endurance
hypertrophy
power
7. True or False? Hypertrophy Training focuses on increasing the load placed on
muscle tissues in the body.
8. What are the key areas evaluated during the OPT kinetic chain assessment?
□
□
□
□
□
posture, strength
strength, movement, athletic ability
athletic ability
movement, flexibility, strength
posture, movement, strength, flexibility, athletic ability
9. The OPT method is designed to improve all biomotor abilities and build high
levels of:
□
□
□
□
neuromuscular efficiency
functional strength
dynamic flexibility
all of the above
10. The crucial element that forms the base of the OPT method’s efficiency is that
it:
□
□
□
□
separates the different types of training for results in specific areas
incorporates/integrates different training types for whole body fitness
is unsystematic and unscientific
is useful only for athletes
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Please answer questions 11 - 13 using the following client assessment.
A 37-year-old woman wishes to begin an exercise program and requests a fitness
assessment. She is 5 feet 9 inches tall, weighs 165 pounds and has a waist
circumference of 32 inches. Her resting heart rate is 73 beats per minute.
Additionally, she smokes an average of 7 cigarettes per day and has a family
history of hypertension. She has never engaged in formal exercise training. Her
goals are to tone muscles and lose weight.
11. What is her BMI?
□
□
□
□
29.8
24.3
33.2
39
12. What should her target heart rate be during exercise if you have prescribed her
a 10-30 minute aerobic program to be performed three times weekly?
□
□
□
□
75 to 95
130 to 141
100 to 135
95 to 100
13. As her personal trainer, what generic advice would you give this client?
□
□
□
□
take a weight loss supplement
stop smoking
eat more sugar
eat more fats
14. What is the daily recommended intake of protein for a healthy adult?
□
□
□
□
5 to 10% of total caloric intake
10 to 15% of total caloric intake
15 to 20% of total caloric intake
20 to 25% of total caloric intake
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15. True or False? Approximately 60% of American adults are overweight.
16. The interrelation and combination of the muscular, skeletal and nervous
systems is called:
□
□
□
□
integrative function
progression
kinetic chain
energetic function
17. Arthrokinematics is:
□
□
□
□
movement of the spine
movement of the joints
movement of the muscles
movement of the organs
18. The Davies Test assesses:
□
□
□
□
dynamic flexibility and overall body strength
overall athletic ability
upper extremity stability
lower extremity stability
19. The overhead squat test assesses:
□
□
□
□
dynamic flexibility and overall body strength
overall athletic ability
lower extremity stability
upper extremity stability
20. The Shark Skill Test assesses:
□
□
□
□
overall athletic ability
dynamic flexibility and overall body strength
upper extremity stability
lower extremity stability
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21. What is the OPT repetition range for power adaptations?
□
□
□
□
1 to 10
1 to 12
12 to 25
25 to 30
22. What is the OPT repetition range for stabilization adaptations?
□
□
□
□
1 to 10
1 to 12
12 to 25
25 to 30
23. Which of the following is an example of a multijoint exercise appropriate for
the OPT stabilization level?
□
□
□
□
medicine ball pullover
standing overhead press
bench press
squat jump
24. Which of the following is an example of a total body exercise appropriate for
the OPT power level?
□
□
□
□
single-leg dumbbell curl
bench press
squat jump
standing overhead press
25. True or False? Training volume is always inversely related to training
intensity.
26. True or False? Type I muscle fibers are also known as “fast-twitch” fibers.
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27. Which of the following should only be used with well-conditioned clients and
athletes?
□
□
□
□
biometrics
hypertrophy training
plyometrics
endurance training
28. The step test is designed to measure:
□
□
□
□
cardiovascular endurance and overall aerobic capacity
overall strength and athletic skill
flexibility
upper extremity strength
29. True or False? The personal trainer should have every client perform all of the
physical tests that are part of the initial assessment.
30. Identify the correct recommended order of the fitness assessment tests:
□
□
□
□
Non-fatiguing tests, flexibility tests, agility tests, spring tests, muscular
endurance tests, maximal strength and power tests
Non-fatiguing tests, agility tests, maximal strength and power tests, sprint
tests, muscular endurance tests and flexibility tests
Agility tests, flexibility tests, maximal strength and power tests, sprint
tests, muscular endurance tests and non-fatiguing tests
Agility tests, muscular endurance tests, non-fatiguing tests, maximal
strength and power tests, flexibility tests and sprint tests
31. True or False? Frontside mechanics includes the actions of ankle
plantarflexion, knee extension and hip extension.
32. True or False? Proper agility training improves the structural integrity of
connective tissue, which helps to prevent injury.
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33. Which of the following is NOT one of the three building blocks of training?
□
□
□
□
stabilization
energy
strength
power
34. What phase of training enhances prime mover strength and improves the rate
of force production at the same time?
□
□
□
□
stabilization
strength
endurance
power
35. The period of inadequate oxygen supply when initiating exercise is known as:
□
□
□
□
oxygen capacity
oxygen deficit
oxygen overload
none of the above
36. Training only the part of the body that is overloaded is known as the principle
of:
□
□
□
□
primary loading
specificity
targeting
holding
37. What kind of muscle tissue is best suited for endurance activities?
□
□
□
□
fast-twitch
slow-twitch
long muscles
short muscles
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Answers
1. Proprioceptively enriched environment
2. Superset
3. Proprioception
4. Stabilization endurance, strength endurance, hypertrophy, maximal strength,
power
5. False – Stabilization Endurance Training is important for all clients, as it
prepares them for the higher demands of training in the later stages.
6. Strength endurance – A superset is usually composed of two different types of
exercise and is designed to increase both strength and endurance.
7. False – Hypertrophy Training focuses on increasing volume while minimizing
rest periods to force cellular changes that promote muscle increase. Maximal
Strength Training focuses on load increase.
8. Posture, movement, strength, flexibility, athletic ability
9. All of the above
10. Incorporates/integrates different types of training for whole body fitness
11. 24.3 – BMI is calculated using the following formula: (weight in pounds /
height in inches squared) x 703. (165 / 4761) x 703 = 24.3
12. 130 – 141 – Maximum heart rate is calculated using the formula 220 – age,
which in this case is 183. For aerobic exercise, you want to reach about 75%
(0.75) of that, which is within the range 130 to 141.
13. Stop smoking – Taking a non-prescribed weight loss supplement and eating
more fats and sugars are all activities to be avoided, not recommended.
14. 10 to 15% of total caloric intake
15. True
16. Kinetic chain
17. Movement of the joints
18. Upper extremity stability
19. Dynamic flexibility and overall body strength
20. Overall athletic ability
21. 1 to 10 – Power adaptations are focused on building strength so doing too
many repetitions could result in overworking those muscles.
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22. 12 to 25 – Stabilization adaptations are focused on building stability and
flexibility and create a base for other exercises, so more repetitions are more
effective.
23. Standing overhead press – The medicine ball pullover and bench press are
designed to help build strength and endurance and are not for stabilization.
24. Squat jump – This exercise utilizes the entire body’s muscle system and
requires a certain amount of strength and stability, making it useful for power
adaptations.
25. True
26. False – Type II muscle fibers are also known as “fast-twitch” fibers.
27. Plyometrics – These exercises use explosive movements and are designed to
generate muscular power. If a client is not well-conditioned and very
physically fit, he/she could be injured from these kinds of exercises.
28. Cardiovascular endurance and overall aerobic capacity
29. False – Some clients may have a pre-existing condition that would prohibit
them from performing certain physical tests, and some clients with poor
physical fitness levels may become embarrassed or discouraged at performing
certain tests.
30. Non-fatiguing tests, agility tests, maximal strength and power tests, sprint
tests, muscular endurance tests and flexibility tests
31. False – Backside mechanics includes the actions of ankle plantarflexion, knee
extension and hip extension.
32. True
33. Energy – The three building blocks of training are stabilization, strength and
power.
34. Power
35. Oxygen deficit – Whenever you are not receiving adequate oxygen, there is a
deficit.
36. Specificity – Training only those areas that are overloaded indicates that you
are targeting that specific area to receive maximum benefit.
37. Slow-twitch – These muscle tissues are better suited to endurance, while fasttwitch muscle tissues are better suited to power development.
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Day 8 NSCA Quiz
1. Which of the points along the motivation continuum defined by the selfdetermination theory would indicate a client who engages in behavior to avoid
punishment, not for personal satisfaction?
□
□
□
□
□
integrated regulation
introjected regulation
identified regulation
external regulation
amotivation
2. Which of the following client statements is characteristic of an outcome goal?
□
□
□
□
I want to lose 15 pounds.
I want to do my best to stop drinking soda.
I want to be able to run faster than my friend.
I want to do 20 pushups a minute.
3. True or False? Exercise has anxiety-reducing and anti-depressive benefits.
4. Which of the following is one of the cognitive benefits of exercise?
□
□
□
□
improved neurotransmitter function
increase in genetic variations
decreased oxygen supply to the brain
decreased memory function
5. Offering free sessions to clients who achieve their goals within a predetermined
amount of time is an example of which type of motivational technique?
□
□
□
□
positive reinforcement
intrinsic motivation
achievement motivation
negative reinforcement
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6. A 38-year-old man wishes to reduce his risk of developing metabolic
syndrome. Which of the following changes will effectively help him?
□
□
□
□
improved body composition
increased alcohol intake
higher low density lipoprotein levels
increased insulin resistance
7. A client consumed 450 grams of carbohydrates, 100 grams of protein and 40
grams of fat in one day. What is this client’s total caloric intake for the day?
□
□
□
□
5000 kcals
2560 kcals
2345 kcals
4500 kcals
8. How often should seniors engage in resistance training?
□
□
□
□
2 to 3 nonconsecutive days per week
4 to 5 days per week
every day of the week
seniors should not engage in resistance training
9. What is the acceptable exercise intensity range for senior adults?
□
□
□
□
30 to 40% of maximum heart rate
50 to 60% of maximum heart rate
60 to 90% of maximum heart rate
90 to 100% of maximum heart rate
10. True or False? Maximum heart rate decreases as people age.
11. The primary characteristic of android obesity is:
□
□
greater amounts of body fat in the trunk and abdominal areas
greater amounts of body fat in the hip and thigh areas
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12. The primary characteristic of gynoid obesity:
□
□
greater amounts of body fat in the trunk and abdominal areas
greater amounts of body fat in the hip and thigh areas
13. Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits of including regular
exercise in a weight loss program?
□
□
□
□
decreased insulin resistance
decreased dietary compliance
improved mood
increased energy expenditure
14. True or False? It is recommended that personal trainers develop a diet plan for
obese or overweight clients.
15. In order to facilitate weight loss of 1 to 2 pounds per week, experts
recommend a diet designed to create a deficit of:
□
□
□
□
100 to 500 calories per day
500 to 1000 calories per day
1000 to 1500 calories per day
1500 to 2000 calories per day
16. Which of the following is an example of moderate amounts of physical
activity?
□
□
□
□
raking leaves for 30 minutes
playing volleyball for 45 minutes to an hour
jumping rope for 15 minutes
all of the above
17. A person with extreme obesity (class III) would have a body mass index that
is:
□
□
□
□
less than 25.0
25.1 to 30.0
30.1 to 39.9
greater than 40.0
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18. One of your clients has chronic low back pain resulting from excessive
anterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following should be targeted for flexibility
exercises?
□
□
□
□
hamstrings
hip adductors
gluteals
hip flexors
19. What is Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)?
□
□
□
□
the rate at which the body breaks down food
an individual’s minimum caloric requirement while at rest
a set of constructive metabolic processes
the measurement of a person’s body fat
20. A client who does 12 repetitions with 100 pounds would have a 1RM of:
□
□
□
□
120
140
156
190
21. Which of the following is a determinant of VO2 max?
□
□
□
□
metabolism
neural efficiency
cardiac output
training intensity
22. Which of the following should be avoided when designing resistance training
programs for children?
□
□
□
□
□
squatting exercises
overhead lifting activities
using free weights for resistance
lifting loads greater than 10RM
all of the above
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23. How many calories are in a food that contains 20 grams of carbohydrates,
5 grams of proteins and 10 grams of fat?
□
□
□
□
100 caloires
190 calories
250 calories
300 calories
24. True or False? You have to stop exercising completely whenever you are
injured.
25. What type of exercise is best for people with arthritis?
□
□
□
□
□
range of motion
strengthening
endurance
all of the above
none of the above
26. People with which of the following conditions should NOT exercise?
□
□
□
□
□
arthritis
asthma
diabetes
all of the above
none of the above
27. When should the personal trainer request medical assistance for a client who
is having an asthma attack?
□
□
□
□
immediately
if symptoms persist for more than 30 minutes
if symptoms persist for more than 1 hour
never
28. True or False? Diabetes is purely a genetic disorder and cannot be benefited
by exercise.
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29. Which of the following fitness activities should you NOT recommend for a
client with diabetes?
□
□
□
□
swimming
lifting heavy weights
walking
dancing
30. True or False? People with hypertension should not engage in
cardiovascular/aerobic exercise.
31. True or False? People who suffer from autoimmune disorders cannot exercise.
32. In relation to other types of cells, what is the size of muscle fibers?
□
□
□
They are smaller.
They are larger.
They are the same size.
33. In which of the following exercises can the trainer NOT assess a client’s
1RM?
□
□
□
□
biceps curl
knee extension
seated calf raise
shoulder press
34. Which of the following training goals requires the longest recovery period
between sets?
□
□
□
□
muscular endurance
muscular hypertrophy
muscular atrophy
muscular strength and power
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35. Exercise causes increases in which system’s activity?
□
□
□
□
digestive
endocrine
parasympathetic
sympathetic
36. Which of the following exercises are recommended to increase middle
trapezius strength?
□
□
□
□
lat pulldown
vertical chest press
back squat
flat dumbbell fly
37. Which of the following do NOT contribute to venous return?
□
□
□
□
the respiratory pump
the muscle pump
vasoconstriction
venoconstriction
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Answers
1. External regulation – The client has not yet begun to be motivated by internal
reasons.
2. I want to be able to run faster than my friend – Outcome goals are usually
unattainable as they relate to comparisons among individuals that cannot be
accurately measured.
3. True
4. Improved neurotransmitter function – Neither increases in genetic variations or
decreased amounts of oxygen are a cognitive benefit of exercise.
5. Positive reinforcement – This kind of motivation gives something to the client
(i.e., a free session) to reinforce behavior.
6. Improved body composition – The other three answers are negative side effects
of poor health and body composition.
7. 2560 kcals – Caloric intake is based on 4 calories per 1 gram of protein, 4
calories per 1 gram of carbohydrates and 9 calories per 1 gram of fat. Thus,
450 x 4 = 1800. 100 x 4 = 400. 40 x 9 = 360. 1800 + 400 + 360 = 2560.
8. 2 to 3 nonconsecutive days per week
9. 60 to 90% of maximum heart rate
10. True
11. Greater amounts of body fat in the trunk and abdominal areas
12. Greater amounts of body fat in the hip and thigh areas
13. Decreases dietary compliance – Normally, engaging in a regular exercise
program assists individuals in complying with physician or dietician
recommended dietary plans.
14. False – Obese and overweight clients generally need very specific dietary
adjustments to achieve a caloric deficit that will result in weight loss.
Personal trainers should refer obese and overweight clients to a dietician who
can offer them the nutritional support and guidance necessary to maintain
optimal health throughout the weight loss process.
15. 500 to 1000 calories per day – A smaller caloric deficit (100 to 500 calories)
is not sufficient for weight loss and a greater caloric deficit (1000 to 1500
calories) can lead to losing too much weight too quickly and can be
dangerous.
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16. All of the above
17. Greater than 40.0
18. Hip flexors – Targeting these muscles will help to realign the pelvis and
reduce back pain.
19. An individual’s caloric requirements while at rest
20. 140 – 1RM = [(repetitions / 30) + 1] x weight. In this case,
[(12/30) +1] x 100 = 140.
21. Cardiac output
22. Lifting loads greater than 10RM – This causes too much strain on children’s
growing bodies and could lead to serious injury.
23. 190 calories – Total calories are calculated by 4 calories per 1 gram of
carbohydrate or protein and 9 calories per 1 gram of fat. 20 x 4 = 80. 5 x 4 =
20. 9 x 10 = 90. 80 + 20 + 90 = 190 calories.
24. False – Depending on the severity and location of the injury, exercise can still
be performed under medical or physician supervision.
25. All of the above
26. None of the above – Exercise is recommended as part of a healthy routine for
people with asthma, arthritis and diabetes and can help them manage their
medical condition.
27. If symptoms persist for more than 30 minutes – However, best judgment
should always be utilized in such situations and could necessitate calling for
professional medical help sooner.
28. False – There are many contributing factors to the development of diabetes.
Regular exercise can help to manage diabetes and even play a role in reducing
the risk of developing the disorder.
29. Lifting heavy weights – Diabetics already have excessive strain on their blood
vessels and adding extra strain by lifting heavy weights could cause serious
injury or even death.
30. False – Cardiovascular/aerobic exercise is an important part of strengthening
the cardiovascular system and lowering blood pressure. It is appropriate for
people with hypertension.
31. False – People with autoimmune disorders are encouraged to exercise to assist
in pain relief and to maintain mobility and range of motion. However, they
should receive medical clearance from a physician first.
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32. They are larger – Muscle fibers are much larger than other types of cells and
can span the entire muscle, up to 12 inches.
33. Shoulder press – The shoulder press is not an adequate measure of strength.
34. Muscular strength and power – Due to the strain the muscles must undergo to
build strength and power, a longer recovery time is necessary to avoid overtraining or injury.
35. Sympathetic
36. Lat pulldown – This exercise will effectively work to strengthen the middle
trapezius.
37. Vasoconstriction
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Day 8 NCSF Quiz
1. How are the muscles contracted during the upward movement of a squat?
□
□
□
□
eccentrically
concentrically
isometrically
isokinetically
2. A client who regularly engages in moderate intensity cardiovascular endurance
training will experience which of the following physical adaptations within
their trained muscle tissue?
□
□
□
□
increase in aerobic enzyme concentration
increase in number of capillaries
increase in number of mitochondria
all of the above
3. During the first few weeks of a resistance training program, a client’s initial
strength gains are primarily due to:
□
□
□
□
muscle changes from Type 1 fibers to Type II fibers
increases in the number of muscle fibers
neural adaptations
enzyme concentrations
4. During the health status portion of an initial client consultation, you discover
the client is currently taking medication for hypertension. What is the BEST
next step for the personal trainer?
□
□
□
□
refer the client to his/her physician to receive medical clearance
for exercise before beginning
check the client’s blood pressure, and if it is within normal limits,
allow him/her to start exercising
have the client perform an aerobic level fitness test and if he/she
passes, allow him/her to start exercising
limit the client’s exercises to those that have a limited blood
pressure response
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5. After measuring your client’s body composition, you estimate her body fat to
be 25%. If she currently weighs 175 pounds, what is her predicted total fat
mass?
□
□
□
□
25 pounds
32 pounds
44 pounds
49 pounds
6. During supine abdominal exercises, what action should come before the
contraction of the rectus abdominis?
□
□
□
□
anterior pelvic tilt
posterior pelvic tilt
inferior pelvic tilt
neutral pelvic tilt
7. During which of the following movements’ concentric phase does scapular
retraction occur?
□
□
□
□
bench press
upright row
shoulder press
seated cable row
8. During a 1RM bench press, what is the primary energy source being used?
□
□
□
□
stored adipose tissue
ATP stored in the muscle
aerobic ATP production
glycolysis
9. Excessive weight loss can cause which of the following adverse health effects?
□
□
□
□
depression
infertility
impaired temperature regulation
all of the above
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10. Your client is taking a prescription beta-blocker. How would this affect the
cardiovascular exercise program?
□
□
□
□
□
The client’s blood pressure would increase during exercise.
The client’s maximum heart rate would increase, meaning he/she can
train at a higher intensity.
The client would experience a reduction in heart rate, a decrease in
vigor of myocardial contractions and would have a lower cardiac
output.
The client would experience an increase in heart rate and vigor of
output.
The client would experience an increase in heart rate and vigor of
myocardial contractions, allowing him/her to reach higher intensities
during training.
Please answer questions 11 – 13 with the following information.
A new male client’s 3-day dietary log indicates that he is insufficient in fiber
intake, vitamin C intake and protein intake and currently consumes 4 to 5 highcalorie, sugary snacks per day. In addition, he consumes 3 to 4 alcoholic
beverages and 2 to 3 “energy drinks” daily.
11. Which of the following would you NOT suggest for this client?
□
□
□
□
that he cut back on fats and sugars
that he increase his vitamin C intake
that he drink more “energy drinks”
that he eat more vegetables
12. What food would you suggest he eat to increase his fiber intake?
□
□
□
□
salmon
low-fat cheese
tomatoes
whole grain bread
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13. Which of the following foods would help him increase his protein intake?
□
□
□
□
broccoli
crackers
beans
corn tortillas
14. Which food would you suggest to help him increase his vitamin C intake?
□
□
□
□
carrots
peas
orange juice
flank steak
15. Strength training that consists of performing a predetermined number of a
single set of repetitions until performance failure occurs is known as:
□
□
□
□
circuit training
multi-set
pre-exhaustion
high intensity training
16. A new 42-year-old female client who was previously sedentary, yet is healthy,
wants to lose 5 pounds and increase muscle tone. What is the correct
resistance training system to prescribe?
□
□
□
□
pyramid system
circuit training system
exhaustion system
assisted training system
17. How should the muscles of the lower back be contracted while performing the
Bent-Over Row exercise?
□
□
□
□
isometrically
isolaterally
dynamically
eccentrically
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18. Lower back pain caused by pelvic position can be affected by range of motion
deficiencies in which of the following muscles?
□
□
□
□
biceps femoris
psoas major
semitendinosus
all of the above
19. You are fitting a client for a stability ball for activities in a seated position.
Which of the following positions is correct?
□
□
□
□
the hips and knees should maintain 90 degrees of flexion
the hips should be positioned at the center of the ball
the feet should be together
the ankles should be dorsi flexed
20. The fast-moving body segment of a ballistic movement is decelerated
throughout the recovery phase by which of the following?
□
□
□
□
concentric contraction of the antagonist
concentric contraction of the agonist
eccentric contraction of the antagonist
eccentric contraction of the agonist
21. Identify the NCSF-recommended sequence for engaging a prospective client
in a regular exercise program.
□
□
□
□
health history questionnaire, informed consent, exercise testing,
screening
screening, exercise testing, informed consent, health history,
questionnaire
informed consent, health history questionnaire, screening, exercise
testing
exercise testing, health history questionnaire, screening, informed
consent
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22. What percentage of a normal, apparently healthy adult’s diet should consist of
fats?
□
□
□
□
Less than 30%
30 to 40%
40 to 50%
50 to 60%
23. What percentage of a normal, apparently healthy adult’s diet should consist of
carbohydrates?
□
□
□
□
35 to 40%
55 to 60%
60 to 65%
45 to 50%
24. Why is aerobic exercise an important part of weight control exercise
programs?
□
□
□
□
aerobic metabolism only uses fat
a negative caloric balance is created by caloric expenditure
fat cell numbers can be reduced
all of the above
25. Variations in the training program that occur over a planned period of time in
a systematic process are referred to as:
□
□
□
□
overload
frequency
multi-set
periodization
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Answers
1. Concentrically
2. All of the above – Increase in aerobic enzyme concentration, number of
capillaries and number of mitochondria are all physical adaptations that will
occur with this kind of training.
3. Neural adaptations – During the first few weeks, the exercises are engaging the
neurons and muscles in learning new movements.
4. Refer the client to his/her physician to receive medical clearance for exercise
before beginning – This is the safest, most prudent course since the client has
hypertension.
5. 44 pounds – Total fat mass = weight (175) times body fat (25% or 0.25) =
43.75 pounds (round up).
6. Posterior pelvic tilt
7. Seated cable row
8. ATP stored in the muscle
9. All of the above – Depression, infertility and impaired temperature regulation
are all possible adverse health effects related to excessive weight loss.
10. The client would experience a reduction in heart rate, a decrease in vigor of
myocardial contractions and would have a lower cardiac output
11. That he drink more “energy drinks” – These beverages are often unsafe,
causing sugar crashes and overloading the body with more B vitamins than it
needs.
12. Whole grain bread – Whole grains are an excellent source of fiber.
13. Beans – Beans are a very good source of healthy protein.
14. Orange juice – Oranges are high in vitamin C.
15. High intensity training
16. Circuit training system – Circuit training is the best option among these
systems as it is the most useful for overall physical fitness and minor weight
loss.
17. Isometrically
18. All of the above – The biceps femoris, psoas major and semitendinosus all
affect pelvic tilt, and ROM deficiencies can assist to cause lower back pain.
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19. The hips and knees should maintain 90 degrees of flexion – This will ensure
the ball is fitted correctly and that the exercises performed using the ball will
be beneficial and correctly performed.
20. Eccentric contraction of the antagonist
21. Informed consent, health history questionnaire, screening, exercise testing
22. Less than 30% – Fats should not be more than 30% of a person’s diet.
23. 55 to 60% – Carbohydrates should make up the greater half of a person’s diet.
24. A negative caloric balance is created by caloric expenditure – Aerobic
exercise can assist in burning more calories and thus, assist in losing and
controlling weight.
25. Periodization
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Day 8 NESTA Quiz
1. What is the primary substance that is converted from food to be used by the
body’s cells for energy?
□
□
□
□
ADP
ATP
glucose
amino acid
2. Shrugs are typically performed to enhance or develop which muscle?
□
□
□
□
upper trapezius
middle trapezius
lower trapezius
all of the above
3. Performing an incline-bench chest press and then performing a barbell dead lift
with no rest between them is an example of what kind of training?
□
□
□
□
supersetting
pyramid setting
compound setting
eccentric training
4. Which of the following is a possible consequence of the accumulation of lactate
in the muscles?
□
□
□
□
fatigue
protein degradation
muscle anabolism
increased caloric burn
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5. Use the Karvonen equation to determine the target heart rate at a 60% intensity
level for a 37-year-old client with a resting heart rate of 61 beats per minute.
□
□
□
□
121
134
137
144
6. Which energy source does light aerobic activity primarily utilize?
□
□
□
□
amino acids
fatty acids
glucose
DNA
7. During exercise, the maximum volume of oxygen consumed per unit of time is
called the:
□
□
□
□
residual volume
lactate threshold
aerobic threshold
aerobic capacity
8. The main difference between power and maximum strength is:
□
□
□
□
time
force
load
range of motion
9. Increases in mobility lead to:
□
□
□
□
increases in resistance strength
decreases in resistance strength
increases in stability
decreases in stability
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10. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of cardiovascular training?
□
□
□
□
decreased blood pressure
increased ATP, CP and glycogen stores
decreased number of mitochondria
increased heart rate variability and oxygen utilization
11. The central concept of program design is to obtain tissue adaptations and
achieve client goals through varying the appropriate ____________ and
allowing for sufficient rest or recovery.
□
□
□
□
intensity
frequency
weight
order
12. Which of the four primary movements of the scapula are considered frontal
plane movements?
□
□
□
□
depression and retraction
depression and elevation
retraction and elevation
adduction and abduction
13. During the shoulder extension phase of an over-arm throw, what are the prime
movers, or agonists?
□
□
□
□
triceps
deltoids
brachioradialis
latissimus dorsi
14. A period of training, or training stage, within the entire training year that lasts
a few weeks is known as a:
□
□
□
□
microcycle
macrocycle
mesocycle
level
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15. Which of the following is another name for an entire training year?
□
□
□
□
macrocycle
mesocycle
program
none of the above
16. Which of the following muscles functions to abduct the hip, originating at the
ilium and inserting at the femur?
□
□
□
□
sartorius
gluteus medius
semitendinosus
adductor group
17. All of the following are common anti-hypertensive agents EXCEPT:
□
□
□
□
antihistamines
beta-blockers
diuretics
ACE inhibitors
18. While engaging in cardiovascular training, a client begins to inhale less
through his/her nose, opening the mouth more visibly. In addition, he/she
cannot complete a spoken sentence without pausing. What is happening
internally to the client, in terms of energy production?
□
□
□
□
The aerobic threshold has been crossed.
Energy production is at capacity due to overexertion.
Energy production has moved from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism.
Energy production has moved anaerobic to aerobic metabolism.
19. Which of the following refers to the principle that states that the rate of
change in momentum of a body and its direction are proportional to the force
causing it?
□
□
□
□
drag
acceleration
impulse
Newton’s Second Law
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20. What type of force is a person’s own body weight considered?
□
□
□
□
external force
internal force
eccentric force
concentric force
21. True or False? Warm-up and cool-down periods are not important for wellconditioned clients or athletes.
22. Cooling-down after an exercise session is important because:
□
□
□
□
It helps to gradually decrease body temperature.
It helps decrease the heart rate toward homeostasis.
It induces muscle soreness.
It can increase work capacity and force production.
23. The goal of eccentric muscular actions on joint movement is:
□
□
□
□
atrophy
stabilization
acceleration
negative acceleration
24. Which of the following muscles is the primary mover of glenohumeral flexion
with the forearm in supination?
□
□
□
□
biceps brachii
brachialis
anterior deltoid
middle deltoid
25. True or False? A myocardial infarction is commonly known as a heart attack.
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Answers
1. Glucose
2. All of the above – Shrugs will assist to enhance or develop all of the trapezius
muscles.
3. Supersetting – Doing two exercises, one right after another, with no break is
known as supersetting.
4. Fatigue – Normal amounts of lactate in the muscles are useful for muscle
production, but an accumulation of lactate can cause muscle fatigue.
5. 134 – Maximum heart rate = 183. MHR (183) – RHR (61) = HRH (122).
122 x 0.6 (60% intensity) = 73.2. 73.2 + RHR (61) = 134.2 (round to 134).
6. Glucose – Aerobic activity utilizes oxygen to burn glucose and fat for energy.
7. Aerobic capacity – Also known as VO2max, this is how much oxygen your
body can consume during exercise.
8. Time – Strength refers to how much force or load one can move, and power
refers to how fast one can move that force or load. Thus, time is the primary
difference.
9. Increases in stability – Mobility and stability co-exist so if one experiences an
increase, the other will naturally follow.
10. Decreased number of mitochondria – Mitochondria are the “power houses” of
the cells, and cardiovascular exercise will strengthen and multiply the number
of mitochondria.
11. Intensity – If the muscles are not stressed and then given adequate time to rest,
they will not strengthen or grow.
12. Depression and elevation
13. Latissimus dorsi
14. Mesocycle
15. Macrocycle
16. Gluteus medius
17. Antihistamines – These medications are primarily used to treat allergies, not
hypertension.
18. The aerobic threshold has been crossed – At this point, the body is training at
a higher intensity and more stress is being placed on the cardiovascular
system.
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19. Newton’s Second Law
20. Concentric force – When moving weight, even body weight, amounts that we
can easily control with the least amount of force are considered concentric.
21. False – Warm-up and cool-down periods are important for ALL people
engaging in exercise in order to adequately prepare the body for exercise
without injury and to allow the body to return to its normal state.
22. It helps decrease the heart rate toward homeostasis
23. Negative acceleration – Eccentric movements lengthen muscles, as when
kicking.
24. Anterior deltoid
25. True
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Day 9: The Final Exam
Step 1: Review Preparation
You should have taken all 20 quizzes by this point. If you have not passed them
all, go back and study some more until you can consistently pass each one.
Your scores will improve as you memorize some of the questions. This is a good
thing. You will likely see many familiar questions on your "real" certification
exam.
Once you are ready, you can take our 61 question final exam below. It contains
new questions from all the topics that we have covered so far. The test is NOT
timed, but you should be able to complete it in 90 minutes.
Ready? Good luck!
Part 1: Anatomy and Physiology
1. Nerves, ganglia and receptors are part of which body system?
□
□
□
□
□
central nervous system
peripheral nervous system
autonomic nervous system
voluntary nervous system
none of the above
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2. The condition in which the hemoglobin concentration in the blood is below a
defined level, resulting in a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells
is known as:
□
□
□
□
sickle cellulosis
diabetes
epicondyle
anemia
3. Microglia are part of the:
□
□
□
□
skeletal system
central nervous system
cardiorespiratory system
cardiovascular system
4. Which muscles contribute to good posture? (choose ALL correct answers):
□
□
□
□
erector spinae
rhomboids
abdominis
trapezius
5. ATP is an acronym for which of the following terms?
□
□
□
□
adrenotrypsis
adenosine triphosphate
adrenosine triphosphate
adrenosine diphosphate
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Question 6: Which arrow is pointing to the radius bone?
Question 7: Which arrow is pointing to the ulna bone?
Note: A higher resolution,
color image is available at
http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z1a2wmx4.html
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8. Which muscles are responsible for keeping the spine erect? (choose ALL
correct answers):
□
□
□
□
erector spinae
rhomboids
abdominis
trapezius
9. True or False? Cardiac output is the amount of blood exiting the left ventricle
with each heartbeat.
10. The left lung ________ compared to the right lung.
□
□
□
□
□
has greater capacity
is longer
is wider
all of the above
none of the above
11. Fatty acid oxidation produces _____ amounts of ATP.
□ high
□ low
□ no
12. True or False? The cardiovascular system includes the heart, lungs, blood and
blood vessels.
13. Which of the following is the delivery tool for the body's tissues?
□
□
□
□
lymph
hormones
blood
creatine
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Question 14: Identify the arrow pointing to the Adductors.
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http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z1a3z4et.html
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Question 15: Identify the arrow pointing to the Rhomboids.
Question 16: Identify the arrow pointing to Trapezius.
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17. Muscle activity that shortens the muscle is referred to as:
□
□
□
□
eccentric
concentric
isometric
procentric
18. The hamstrings and gluteus maximus perform which movement?
□
□
□
□
hip extension
hip rotation
hip adduction
hip abduction
Part 2: Client Assessment
19. A female client is trying to reduce her body fat from 25% to 20%. She weighs
165 pounds and her BMI score is 26. What is her target weight?
□
□
□
□
137
148
155
160
20. The Karvonen formula calculates target _____________.
□
□
□
□
heart rate
body fat
resistance load
exercise frequency
21. Which is the most convenient method for measuring body fat?
□
□
□
□
calipers
hydrostatic weighing
BMI weighing
bioelectrical impedance
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22. An adult client with a BMI of 26 would be considered:
□
□
□
□
underweight
normal
overweight
obese
23. The average resting heart rate of a healthy adult in beats per minute is:
□
□
□
□
50 to 70
70 to 80
80 to 90
90 to 100
24. The form best suited to identifying clients who require medical attention
before beginning an exercise program is:
□
□
□
□
informed consent
Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire
medical release
liability waiver
25. The Borg scale measures a client's:
□
□
□
□
fitness level
exertion level
glucose level
flexibility
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Part 3: Program Design
26. You observe your client's knees pointing inward while standing. What stretch
is best suited to this condition?
□
□
□
□
gluteus stretch
gastrocnemius stretch
standing adductor
hamstring release
27. If your client wants to build muscle, how much rest time do you allow
between sets?
□
□
□
□
□
less than 30 seconds
30 to 60 seconds
60 to 90 seconds
90 to 120 seconds
more than 120 seconds
28. What is the maximum heart rate of a 40-year-old male with BMI of 25 and
resting heart rate of 70 beats per minute?
□
□
□
□
□
150
175
180
195
none of the above
29. Larger exercise balls give a _________ workout.
□ more intense
□ less intense
□ no difference, size depends on size of client
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30. Which statements about cross training are true? (choose ALL correct
answers):
□
□
□
□
□
Cross training improves overall fitness levels.
Cross training can help reduce injury.
Cross training can help reduce boredom.
All of these statements are true.
None of these statements are true.
31. Your new client only has time for a 45-minute workout. He/she has been
previously sedentary. What program is best for him/her?
□ 10 minutes of warm up, 10 minutes at 60-70% THR, 10 minutes at 7080% THR, 10 minutes at 80-85% THR, 5-minute cool down
□ 5 minutes of warm up, 30 minutes of weight training, 5-minute cool
down
□ 10 minutes of warm up, 30 minutes at 70-80% THR, 5-minute cool
down
□ 5 minutes of warm up, 30 minutes of brisk walking at 40-50% THR,
5-minute cool down
32. During the initial phase of working with an unconditioned client, workout
frequency should be ____ times per week.
□
□
□
□
1
3
5
7
33. As your client moves into the improvement conditioning phase, ________ of
workouts should increase. (choose ALL correct answers):
□
□
□
□
duration
frequency
intensity
modality
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Part 4: Exercise Technique
34. Performing two exercises in sequence with no rest time in between is called:
□
□
□
□
proprioception
interval training
super setting
functional overload
35. Which is NOT a normal cardiorespiratory adaptation?
□
□
□
□
decreased resting heart rate
increased cardiac muscle strength
decreased stroke volume
none of the above
36. Which of the following terms refers to movement away from the sagittal
plane?
□
□
□
□
supination
flexion
adduction
abduction
37. Attempting to lift an immoveable object is an example of what kind of
movement?
□
□
□
□
isometric
eccentric
procentric
concentric
38. When performing lunges, the main joint action is:
□
□
□
□
hip extension
hip flexion
hip abduction
hip adduction
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39. Which of the following is a benefit of cool down? (choose ALL correct
answers):
□ aids in the dissipation of waste products, including lactic acid
□ reduces the potential for DOMS
□ reduces the chances of dizziness or fainting caused by the pooling of
venous blood at the extremities
□ reduces the level of adrenaline in the blood
□ all of the above
40. You get _______ range of motion with barbells compared to dumbbells.
□ increased
□ decreased
□ the same
41. Turning toward the midline of the body is known as:
□
□
□
□
lateral rotation
medial rotation
intrarotation
interrotation
42. What begins when one foot touches the ground and ends when the same foot
touches the ground again?
□
□
□
□
stride
rotation
repetition
gait
43. The point where loss of control of the center of gravity occurs is known as
the:
□
□
□
□
limit of stability
instability threshold
controlled instability
maximal stability
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44. True or False? Passive joint stabilization is the body's ability to stabilize joints
during movement.
Part 5: Safety, Legal and Business Issues
45. The ability of the body to cool itself is _________ with humidity.
□
□
□
□
increased
decreased
disabled
unchanged
46. True or False? Gentle bouncing is acceptable when stretching.
47. What is the appropriate course of action if a client vomits repeatedly during
your training session?
□
□
□
□
seek immediate medical assistance
stop the session and send the client home to rest
take a short minute break and then continue training
push through it
48. According to the ABC's of CPR, the “A” stands for:
□
□
□
□
ask questions
airway
arteries
none of the above
49. True or False? Asthma can be aggravated by training in cold weather.
50. Degenerative joint disease is another name for:
□
□
□
□
arthritis
osteoarthritis
osteoporosis
cavinitis
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51. How often should exercise equipment be inspected?
□
□
□
□
every day
every week
every month
quarterly
52. True or False? Using knee wraps and supports will help reduce injury.
53. Hyponatremia is caused by:
□
□
□
□
intense exercise after a prolonged period of detraining
micro tears in muscle fibers
decrease in motor neuron efficiency
drinking too much water
Part 6: +utrition
54. Which of the following are food groups according to the USDA food
pyramid? (choose ALL correct answers):
□
□
□
□
□
□
□
fats
grains
milk
meat and beans
extras
dairy
oils
55. Physically active women are at higher risk for which condition?
□
□
□
□
angina
bulimia nervosa
iron deficiency
stroke
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56. Which of the following will create a calorie deficit?
□
□
□
□
increasing activity
reducing calories consumed
decreasing activity and increasing consumption
increasing activity and reducing consumption
57. Women require an average of _____ calories per day.
□
□
□
□
1500
1800
2100
2400
58. You have a meal consisting of 4 grams of fat, 10 grams of carbohydrates and
3 grams of protein. How many calories did you consume?
□
□
□
□
□
88
94
102
118
none of the above
Part 7: Training Special Populations
59. Decreased ability of the lungs to expand is known as:
□
□
□
□
emphysema
lung cancer
restrictive lung disease
obstructive lung disease
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60. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding losing weight during
pregnancy?
□ Weight loss during pregnancy can be toxic to the fetus.
□ Weight loss during pregnancy deprives the fetus of food.
□ Weight loss during pregnancy can be done safely under the supervision
of a doctor.
□ None of the above statements are true.
61. Older populations are more likely to experience which muscle condition?
□
□
□
□
hypertrophy
atrophy
maximothy
dystrophy
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Day 9: Final Exam Answers
Part 1: Anatomy and Physiology
1. Peripheral nervous system
2. Anemia – This condition is caused by a deficiency in iron, which assists in
bonding oxygen to the blood.
3. Central nervous system – Microglia are the primary active immune defense
system in the central nervous system.
4. All of the muscles listed contribute to good posture.
5. Adenosine triphosphate – ATP is the primary source of usable energy and
energy storage in the body.
6. Arrow 6
7. Arrow 8
8. Erector spinae – While the other muscles listed assist in maintaining good
posture, only erector spinae keeps the spine erect.
9. False – The amount of blood exiting the left ventricle with each heartbeat is
known as ventricular ejection. Cardiac output is the volume of blood being
pumped out of the heart per minute.
10. None of the above – In order to leave sufficient room for the heart, the left
lung is smaller and has less capacity than the right lung.
11. High – Large amounts of energy can be stored in fat, and when oxidized this
energy becomes usable.
12. False – The lungs are part of the cardiorespiratory system.
13. Blood – Blood is the body’s means of delivering oxygen, nutrients and
antibodies to different parts of the body.
14. Arrow 9
15. Arrow 11
16. Arrow 14
17. Concentric
18. Hip extension
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Part 2: Client Assessment
19. 155 pounds – To calculate, first determine the client’s current lean body
weight (165 – weight of fat). Weight of fat = 165 x 0.25 = 41.25 So, 165 –
41.25 = 123.75 Then, determine the goal percentage of lean body weight (1 –
0.2 = 0.8). Finally, divide the lean body weight by the goal percentage of lean
body weight (123.75 / 0.8 = 154.68 (round to 155).
20. Heart rate
21. Calipers – Note, however, that this is not the most accurate measurement of
body fat, and accuracy depends largely on the type of caliper and the skill of
the trainer.
22. Overweight – Standard BMI range for overweight individuals is 25 to 29.9.
23. 70 to 80 beats per minute
24. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) – This form is best
because it assesses the client’s current level of physical activity and identifies
any pre-existing or possible medical conditions that could interfere with
normal training.
25. Exertion level
Part 3: Program Design
26. Standing adductor – Toes pointing inward can be brought back to a more
normal position using this exercise.
27. 30 to 60 seconds – Building muscle requires adequate rest between sets, and if
the client wishes to build maximal strength, more than 120 seconds of rest
should be allowed.
28. 180 – MHR = 220 – age. The rest of the information is unnecessary for this
calculation.
29. Less intense – The body does not have to work as hard to perform the same
exercises with a larger ball as compared to a smaller ball.
30. All of these statements are true.
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31. 10 minutes of warm up, 30 minutes at 70-80% THR, 5-minute cool down –
Having been previously sedentary, the client needs a longer warm up time but
can exercise at a normal level of intensity.
32. 3 times per week – This is the recommended frequency to avoid injury and
over-training.
33. Duration, frequency and intensity – At this stage only modality should not
increase.
Part 4: Exercise Technique
34. Super setting
35. Decreased stroke volume – Because the heart is working more efficiently, as
evidenced by a decreased resting heart rate and increased cardiac muscle
strength, stroke volume should increase.
36. Abduction – Abduction is movement away from the body, while adduction is
movement toward the body.
37. Isometric – Isometric movement is defined as the contraction of a muscle
against an immovable force.
38. Hip extension
39. All of the above – Cool down is an important part of the workout because it
assists the body in doing all of these things to prevent injury and promote
health.
40. Decreased
41. Medial rotation – Moving away from the midline of the body is known as
lateral rotation.
42. Gait
43. Limit of stability
44. False – The body’s ability to stabilize joints during movement is considered
active stabilization.
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Part 5: Safety, Legal and Business Issues
45. Decreased – The body’s natural cooling system, primarily sweating, can be
thrown off by too much humidity in the air.
46. False – Gentle bouncing is not recommended during stretching as it does not
provide any benefit and can prevent you from getting the most out of the
stretching exercises.
47. Seek immediate medical assistance – There are a variety of reasons why this
could be occurring, and all of them requiring medical attention. The prudent
trainer will seek medical assistance to avoid serious health consequences to
the client and avoid the possibility of liability or negligence.
48. Airway – The first step is to check the airway to see if it is clear and to clear it
if necessary.
49. True – The bronchial tubes constrict in cold weather, making it more difficult
to breathe and potentially exacerbating existing asthmatic symptoms.
50. Osteoarthritis
51. Every day – This is the SAFEST course of action and will go a long way
toward preventing injury from faulty or broken equipment.
52. False – However, it is important to note that where there is an existing or
previous injury, wraps and braces can make exercise more comfortable and
help reduce the risk of recurring injury.
53. Drinking too much water – Although normally associated with dehydration,
hyponatremia refers to abnormally low levels of sodium in the blood and can
be caused by drinking too much water.
Part 6: +utrition
54. Grains, milk, meat and beans, oils – Other categories include fruits and
vegetables (now separate categories).
55. Iron deficiency – Physically active women use iron more efficiently and more
quickly and are at higher risk for deficiency.
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56. All of the answers EXCEPT decreasing activity and increasing consumption
are correct. To create a calorie deficit you must use more calories than you
consume.
57. 2100
58. 88 – There are 4 calories per 1 gram of carbohydrates or protein and 9 calories
per 1 gram of fat. Therefore, you can calculate the answer as shown:
(4 x 9) + (10 x 4) + (3 x 4) = 88.
Part 7: Training Special Populations
59. Restrictive lung disease
60. Weight loss during pregnancy can be toxic to the fetus – It is NOT
recommended that women try to lose weight during pregnancy even if they
were overweight or obese when they became pregnant.
61. Atrophy – This is muscle loss and degeneration.
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