RCS 4240
FINAL EVALUATION
On my honor, I have neither given nor received unauthorized aid in doing this
assignment”
Print Name:_____________________ Signature:___________________________
Please use the scantron sheet provided in class. Please return the scantron sheet plus
the first page only of this final evaluation when you come to class on April 23.
1. The Americans with Disabilities Act of what year addressed potential areas of
discrimination, mandated when employment testing should be done, and
described how testing must relate to the essential functions of the job.
a.
1994
b.
1992
c.
1990
d.
1988
2. Vocational assessment is a comprehensive, __________process of evaluating an
individual’s physical, mental, and emotional abilities, limitations, and tolerances
in order to identify an optimal outcome for the person with a disability or
handicap.
a.
transdisciplinary
b.
time-limited
c.
powered testing
d.
interdisciplinary
3. These are close simulations of actual industrial operations that are no different in
their essentials from what a potential worker would be required to perform on an
ordinary job.
a.
situational assessments
b.
work samples
c.
paper/pencil instruments
d.
vocational training
4. What is the first step and the vital link to all successful rehabilitation activities
according to Power?
a.
observations
b.
client assessment
c.
situational assessment
d.
judgments
5. What depends on the extent to which individuals find adequate outlets for their
abilities, interests, and personality traits according to Super?
a.
work satisfaction
b.
employability
c.
placeability
d.
work skills
6. What refers to someone who possesses the requisite skills and work personality?
a.
work satisfaction
b.
employability
c.
placeability
d.
work skills
7. What refers to the perceived attractiveness of an applicant to an employer
according to Sinick?
a.
work satisfaction
b.
employability
c.
placeability
d.
work skills
8. What can be a pitfall of the assessment process?
a.
adequate safeguards to ensure privacy
b.
frequent or inaccurate labels
c.
broad concept of individual’s abilities
d.
test as mediocre predictor of future successes
9. What movement in rehabilitation suggests a more active role for the rehabilitation
counselor in evaluation functions?
a.
supported employment
b.
transitional planning
c.
case management
d.
independent living
10. One of the evaluator’s roles is described as the development of appropriate
contingencies for training, eventual job placement, or both. This role is that of:
a.
coordinator
b.
planner
c.
counselor
d.
assessor
11. Tests should be administered under what conditions that were established in their
standardization?
a.
similar
b.
normal
c.
same
d.
nominal
12. This criterion refers to the client’s physical and emotional condition, including
endurance capabilities for evaluation involvement.
a.
motivation
b.
expectations
c.
stability
d.
awareness
13. Frequently the selection of assessment approaches and the choice of specific
psychometric tests depends on a person’s
a.
achievement
b.
work history
c.
aptitude
d.
learning style
14. Always communicate test results in whose level of understanding.
a.
counselor
b.
client
c.
coordinator
d.
case manager
15. What type of client usually incurring a disability after years of satisfying work,
generally are younger (30-45), has a strong work ethic and through work has
gained a sense of stability and identity?
a.
restorer-achiever
b.
ambivalent client
c.
secondary gainer
d.
angry -resister
16. These clients make no pretense about their desire to return to work. Usually they
go through an assessment procedure because they are required to do so.
a.
angry-resister
b.
isolated worker
c.
secondary gainer
d.
ambivalent client
17. This client is typified by having been institutionalized for many years. The deinstitutionalization movement in mental health has facilitated the return of many
to the community. Having been in institutions has created dependency problems
and inhibits the assessment process.
a.
ambivalent client
b.
secondary gainer
c.
angry-resister
d.
isolated worker
18. This type of disability creates special concerns and needs in the assessment
process. Behavior and emotional difficulties result from specific damage and
feelings of frustration having to cope with this. This is most closely associated
with
a.
mental illness
b.
traumatic brain injury
c.
spinal cord injury
d.
cerebro vascular accident
19. This type of client has a disability that is complex and controversial. There is lack
of consensus regarding it. Manifestation varies over time based on age and
developmental stage and specific setting. Assessment needs to address a number
of areas.
a.
seizure disorder
b.
mental illness
c.
specific learning disability
d.
traumatic brain injury
20. Farley and Rubin define this as a conversation between a counselor and a client
with a definite mutually acceptable purpose.
a.
intake interview
b.
counseling session
c.
feedback session
d.
group counseling session
21. This type of interviewing includes location of office, where counselor sits and
number of distracters.
a.
personal
b.
contextual
c.
group
d.
ergonomic
22. Carkuff and Anthony identified four communicative skills generally listed in this
order:
a.
Observing, attending, listening, responding
b.
Listening, responding, listening, observing
c.
Attending, observing, listening, responding
d.
Responding, listening, observing, attending
23. To create a mutually understanding climate, seasoned interviewers tend to begin
with
a.
closed questions
b.
structured interview
c.
open-ended questions
d.
direct questions
24. During the interview the rehabilitation worker should identify contradictions in
what the client is saying. This is known as:
a.
timing of reinforcement
b.
effective confrontation
c.
use of silence
d.
controlling the interview
25. When dealing with this population the interviewer should be quite literal and
explicit when talking to the client.
a.
amputee
b.
spinal cord injury
c.
carpel tunnel syndrome
d.
traumatic brain injury
26. What item of client functioning does one assess when observing nonverbal
behaviors; listen to client as he/she talks; ask: How are you feeling now?
a.
general appearance
b.
way of communicating
c.
mental process and context
d.
mood and affect
27. What refers to the group of people on whom an assessment procedure has been
standardized and from whom the scores on a particular test have been obtained to
determine level performance?
a.
random sample
b.
population
c.
norm
d.
probability
28. What validity is representativeness of test items?
a.
content
b.
face
c.
construct
d.
criterion-related
29. What validity is more theoretical and refers to the degree the instrument measures
the hypothetical characteristic
a.
content
b.
face
c.
construct
d.
criterion-related
30. What measurement property measures consistency of performance?
a.
validity
b.
reliability
c.
coefficient alpha
d.
standard error of measure
31. A substantial reliability correlation would be
a.
0.20 to 0.39
b.
0.40 to 0.59
c.
0.60 to 0.79
d.
0.80 to 1.00
32. According to Bolton a validity coefficient of 0.43 is
a.
below average
b.
average
c.
above average
d.
outstanding
33. Approximately what percent of the population is included under the bell shaped
curve from – 3  to 1 ?
a.
68
b.
84
c.
49
d.
34
34. A T score of 60 equates to what SD under the bell-shaped curve?
a.
+2
b.
+1
c.
–1
d.
–2
35. This is an integral part of evaluation
a.
predilection
b.
prediction
c.
presupposition
d.
predisposition
36. According to Super what type of interest is this: The evidence of participation in
our activity, occupation, or task that can be observed by others.
a.
expressed
b.
manifest
c.
tested
d.
rational
37. This points to a potential level of skill or attainment
a.
interests
b.
abilities
38. What type of instrument was developed in mid 1920s as a facilitative response to
an established premise which linked occupational interest with job satisfaction
a.
aptitude
b.
achievement
c.
interest
d.
work values
39. Which instrument is appropriate for persons with low reading skills
a.
WRIOT
b.
SVIB
c.
SDS
d.
CDMS
40. Which instrument was developed on a hexagonal scheme of realistic,
investigative, artistic, social, conventional and enterprising
a.
CDMS
b.
CAI
c.
SDS
d.
SVIB
41. Which instrument has limited usage with 2 years preparation beyond high school
a.
CAI
b.
RFVII
c.
OVIS – II
d.
SDS
42. This area of assessment is an exploration of a client’s capability to solve
problems, adapt to new situations, and show competence when confronted with
new learning demands
a.
intelligence
b.
aptitude
c.
interests
d.
achievement
43. This particular intelligence test is applicable for persons with mental retardation
a.
Quick Test
b.
PPVT-III
c.
Shipley Institute of Living Scale
d.
SIT-R
44. An individual with an IQ in the range of 110-119 is considered to be classified as
a.
low average
b.
average
c.
high average
d.
superior
45. This test has 3 major scale scores with 14 sub tests
a.
16PF
b.
Halstead-Reitan
c.
WAIS-III
d.
Revised Beta III
46. This test involves no reading and is designed for illiterate clients
a.
SIT-R
b.
Beta-III (II)
c.
RPM
d.
OT
47. This test has been developed specifically for Adult Blind
a.
K-BIT
b.
WAIS-III
c.
PPVT-III
d.
HAPTIC
48. For those with disabilities the relationship between this construct and career
development play an important role in vocational evaluation approaches
a.
personality
b.
aptitude
c.
achievement
d.
intelligence
49. The vocational functioning area of successful job performance can best be
measured by this instrument involving the personality trait: toward-self
a.
16 PF??
b.
MMPI-Z
c.
MBTI
d.
TSCS-(2)
50. This instrument is the most widely used personality inventory and consists of 567
items
a.
MBTI
b.
TSCS-2
c.
MMPI-2
d.
EPPS
51. This clinical scale of the MMPI-2 has 40 items showing abnormal suspiciousness
and delusions of grandeur or persecution
a.
psychasthenia
b.
paranoia
c.
schizophrenia
d.
depression
52. A work sample that is replicated directly from a specific job in industry is known
as what type of work sample
a.
trait
b.
simulated
c.
actual
d.
virtual
53. Work samples are usually
a.
criterion-referenced
b.
norm-referenced
54. When a commercial work sample system is not helpful this type of work sample
is sometimes used to reflect jobs in the local labor market
a.
in-school
b.
in-yard
c.
in-jail
d.
in-house
55. This work sample system provides 10 tests of perception and dexterity to measure
gross and fine dexterity, visual and tactile discrimination, and retention of details
a.
Micro Tower
b.
Talent Assessment Program
c.
VALPAR
d.
McCarron-Dial
56. This work sample was demonstrated in class as a measure of manual dexterity by
taking nuts, bolts, and washers apart and reassembling on a wooden jig using
screwdriver and a variety of wrenches
a.
Bennett Hand-Tool Dexterity Test
b.
Crawford Small Parts Dexterity Test
c.
Pennsylvania Bi-Manual Work Sample
d.
Purdue Pegboard
57. Computers have become popular in the rehabilitation process for conducting
a.
job analysis
b.
labor market surveys
c.
job matching
d.
work samples
58. This computer program is highly integrated, modular family of software products
for assessment, work hardening, work sample scoring and database applications
a.
APTICOM
b.
TAP
c.
SIGI
d.
VALPAR (2000)
59. This system provides interactive assistance in career decision-making. It has six
interrelated subsystems that provide value clarification and disseminate
occupational and educational information.
a.
SIGI
b.
APTICOM
c.
VALPAR (2000)
d.
TAP
60. This book contains definitions of jobs with a few traits/characteristics associated
with each
a.
Classification of Jobs
b.
Dictionary of Occupational Titles
c.
Occupational Outlook Handbook
d.
Handbook of Job Analysis
61. This model places a person on a job and then the person receives specific training
a.
traditional vocational rehabilitation model
b.
supported employment model
c.
situational assessment
62. This approach is one of the forms supported employment can take: consists of a
small group (commonly eight individuals) trained and supervised together in the
midst of an ordinary mainstream work environment.
a.
bench work approach
b.
mobile crew approach
c.
enclave-approach
d.
individual placement approach
63. The development of this helped stimulate the growth of way of assisting
assessment.
a.
macro computer
b.
secretary
c.
microcomputer
d.
technician
64. The most fair, reliable, and useful way to evaluate an individual with severe
disabilities is in the
a.
evaluation center
b.
actual work setting
c.
taking of paper/pencil tests
d.
work samples
65. Work samples taken directly from business are designated as
a.
simulated
b.
trait
c.
cluster trait
d.
actual
66. Work samples that key in on one characteristic are designated as
a.
simulated
b.
trait
c.
actual
d.
on-site
67. This type of assessment is essentially the observation of a person in a work
situation.
a.
work sample
b.
situational assessment
c.
on-the-job training
d.
sheltered workshop
68. In preparing the client for assessment the professional should be alert for signs of
this
a.
hesitancy/ambiguity
b.
anger/gaiety
c.
frivolity/seriousness
d.
serendipity/awkwardness
69. What is the first thing that a report should do?
a.
give recommendations
b.
list test results
c.
answer specific questions
d.
name jobs
70. The vocational and rehabilitation process in the sector of human service is based
on models developed by what system?
a.
federal-state
b.
private
c.
insurance
d.
public-private
71. What is the key ingredient in the entire process of working with an injured
worker?
a.
initial interview
b.
accurate job analysis
c.
follow-up
d.
appropriate and timely evaluation
72. The rehabilitation professional must determine whether the industrially injured
worker is prepared
a.
to reenter work or is even motivated to consider RTW
b.
to reenter work or is even postulated to consider RTW
c.
to consider work or is even accommodated for RTW
73. In conducting the interview, which one below is an important and significant
occupational job factor?
a.
kind of job client would like to have
b.
client’s transportation needs
c.
client’s learning capabilities and speed of learning
d.
will client be able to get job
74. What is best situation for client in returning to work?
a.
same job, same employer
b.
different job, same employer
c.
same job, different employer
d.
different job, different employer
75. The client’s emotional response to disability follows a continuum on the average.
Which one below best shows this continuum?
a.
anger, denial, realization, adjustment
b.
realization, anger, denial, adjustment
c.
denial, anger, adjustment, realization
d.
denial, anger, realization, adjustment
76. What is necessary for effective client planning? Choose the most appropriate
according to Powers?
a.
involvement of client, involvement of referral, involvement of doctor
b.
involvement of client, knowledge of job market, secondary gainer
c.
involvement of client, knowledge of job market, acquisition of specific
competencies
77. In collecting and organizing evaluation information Powers suggests the use of
this aptitude test.
a.
General Aptitude Test Battery
b.
Differential Aptitude Tests – Fifth Ed.
c.
Career Ability Placement System
d.
Detroit Tests of Learning Ability
78. The personality type test, Kiersey Temperment Scale, taken in class followed the
same profile as this instrument
a.
MMPI-2
b.
Work Values
c.
Eyseneck Personality Inventory
d.
Myers-Briggs Personality Inventory
79. Accommodations for work situations are based on the
a.
general tasks
b.
essential functions
c.
undue hardship
d.
job title
80. Approximately what percentage of accommodations cost nothing?
a.
65%
b.
55%
c.
45%
d.
25%
81. The first step in career development is:
a.
Decision-making
b.
Preparation
c.
Resources
d.
Awareness
82. To find out what a person wants to do, what type of instrument would you give?
a.
Personality
b.
Achievement
c.
Interest
d.
Aptitude
83. An individual who is given the opportunity to go beyond the normal confines of
the test administration to show what he/she can do has been given what type of
test?
a.
Extended test
b.
Timed test
c.
Powered test
d.
Energized test
84. SVP codes between 3 – 5 represent jobs that are considered to be:
a.
Unskilled
b.
Semi-skilled
c.
Skilled
d.
Skilled –Beyond
85. an environmental condition defined as 1/3 of the work day is designated by what
term below:
a.
frequently
b.
not present
c.
constantly
d.
occasionally
86. What type of test would be given to measure’s a client’s potential?
a.
Intelligence
b.
Personality
c.
Aptitude
d.
Achievement
87. What two physical demands are needed in 90% of all jobs?
a.
Crouching and feeling
b.
Climbing and kneeling
c.
Lifting and pulling
d.
Handling and reaching
88. What is the definition of Light Work?
a.
Lifting in excess of 100 lbs. Occasionally and in excess of 50 lbs
frequently
b.
Lifting up to 20 lbs occasionally and up to 10 lbs. frequently
c.
Lifting up to 50 lbs occasionally and up to 25 lbs frequently
d.
Lifting up to 100 lbs occasionally and up to 50 lbs frequently
89. What book contains definitions of almost all jobs in the labor market?
a.
Occupational Outlook Handbook
b.
Classification of Jobs
c.
Dictionary of Occupational Titles
d.
Guide to Occupational Exploration
90. Descriptive statistics includes measures of central tendency. Which one of the
following is an example of a measure of central tendency?
a.
Standard deviation
b.
Mean
c.
Variance
d.
Measurement of error
91. In the candle exercise used in class what area below was of secondary
importance?
a.
Giving advice
b.
Interpretation
c.
Observation
d.
Making response
92. In the aptitude area, what does K stand for?
a.
Motor coordination
b.
Clerical
c.
Finger dexterity
d.
Numerical
93. Which of the following describes basic job duties that an employee must be able
to perform, with or without reasonable accommodations?
a.
Work details
b.
Essentials functions
c.
Worker’s duties
d.
Job tasks
94. The dependability, consistency, and precision of an assessment procedure refers
to:
a.
Variability
b.
Normal curve
c.
Validity
d.
Reliability
95. A labor market survey should answer which one of the following?
a.
Are there jobs of general nature in the local economy
b.
Are there jobs that exist and are they available locally
c.
Are essentials functions detailed
d.
Are there jobs hat exist and are they available nationally
96. Where is it best to find information on the Department of Labor on the Internet?
a.
www.sba.gov
b.
www.ericacve.org/links.asp
c.
www.dol.gov
d.
www.k12.doleta.gov
97. A physical demand is defined as 2/3 of the workday and is designated by which
term below?
a.
Frequently
b.
Not present
c.
Constantly
d.
Occasionally
98. What would be a pitfall in the vocational evaluation process?
a.
Safeguards
b.
Labeling
c.
Broad focus
d.
Omni-dimensional
99. Which one of the following books contains most of the codes when using the
D.O.T.?
a.
Classification of Jobs
b.
Occupational Outlook Handbook
c.
Guide to Occupational Exploration
d.
Handbook on Job Analysis
100.
a.
b.
c.
d.
In the aptitude area, what does C stand for?
Clerical
Color Discrimination
Motor Coordination
Spatial