6th SCW TEST
1.
Standing under power line(s) can make a lensatic compass inaccurate?
a.
True
b.
False
2.
The color black represents what on a map?
a.
roads/highways
b.
swamps/lakes
c.
manmade/cultural
d.
woods/orchards
3.
The only time you ever put your finger on the trigger is when you are sighted on
target
and ready to fire.
a.
True
b.
False
4.
A person is close to a grenade when it explodes, although he doesn’t show any
signs or symptoms or
an injury, he begins to vomit blood several days or hours after the blast, what
may be wrong?
a.
Skull fracture
b.
Punctured lung
c.
Food poisoning
d.
Abdominal injury
5.
There are three (3) ways to purify water for drinking, they are:
a.
Iodine tablets, Filter thru rocks, boiling
b.
Boiling, Let stand in the sun, Iodine tabs
c.
Iodine tabs, Calcium hypochlorite, Boiling
d.
Filter your urine and drink it, See a UT for water, Swipe your buddies
canteen and drink his
6.
In overexposure to heat, a person has dry hot skin, constricted pupils and a very
high body temperature is suffering from?
a.
Heat exhaustion
b.
Heat stroke
c.
Heat cramps
d.
Heat stress
7.
What is the response to a bead window
a.
Roger standby
b.
Roger out
c.
Request advise why bead window received
d.
What part of transmission is bead window
8.
Air Detachments are capable of deploying in how many hours?
a.
24
b.
56
c.
72
d.
48
9.
What Navy’s regulation governs the shipping and handling of hazardous
material?
a.
49 CFR
b.
NAVSUP PUB 505
c.
NAVSEA OPS
d.
AR55-10
10.
What is the designation of the aircraft cargo pallet used by the Air Force?
a.
634L
b.
463L
c.
436L
d.
643L
11.
The usable dimensions of an aircraft pallet are:
a.
84 inches by 104 inches
b.
84 centimeters by 104 centimeters
c.
104 inches by 184 inches
d.
104 centimeters by 184 centimeters
12.
Who is in charge of the point in a tactical situation?
a.
Lead Officer
b.
Escorts
c.
Convoy Commander
d.
Advance officer
13.
Night Observation Devices used by the Seabees allow you to see at night by:
a.
Detecting and amplifying any available ambient light
b.
Making the enemy glow in the dark
c.
Illuminating objects by projecting its own low level light
d.
Both B and C
14. The Final Protective Line (FPL) for a machine gun will always correspond to the
Left or Right Sector
Limit.
a.
True
b.
False
15.
16.
Name 2 things that must be removed to harden a vehicle:
a.
The headlights and the canvas top
b.
The windshield and the canvas top
c.
The windshield and the mud flaps
d.
Both B and C are correct
Which plane is best suited in a tactical situation
a.
C-130
b.
C-5
c.
C-141B
d.
C-17
17.
A convoy using the same route for the same mission is divided up into how many
divisions?
a.
Three
b.
Two
c.
It is not divided
d.
Four
18.
A 463L pallet is designed for?
a.
Trucks
b.
MHE
c.
Tricons
d.
Aircraft
19.
Each gridline in a grid square on a map represents?
a.
10 feet
b.
100 meters
c.
100 feet
d.
1 mile
20
Who is responsible for ensuring that good order and discipline are maintained
within the command?
a.
Commanding Officer
b.
Executive Officer
c.
Command Master Chief
d.
Company Commander
21.
Who attends the monthly safety meeting?
a.
Safety Supervisors
b.
Company Chiefs
c.
Company Commanders
d.
Base Environmental Coordinator
22.
Chemical agents can be deployed in these three forms: liquids, solids and
gas/vapors.
a.
True
b.
False
23.
Who is the key person for a successful NAVOSH Safety Program?
a.
Supervisor
b.
Department Head
c.
Operations Officer
d.
CMC
24.
Which of the following forms is used as a requisition and consumption reporting
document for procuring non-NSN material?
a.
DD 1348
b.
NAVSUP 1250-1
c.
NAVSUP 1250-2
d.
DD 200
25.
The amount of money estimated for a unit to perform its mission is referred to as
the __________?
a.
COSAL
b.
TOA
c.
OPTAR
d.
CESE
26.
The purpose of the ACR is to?
a.
Accept, reclassify and release stock items
b.
Request a change in annual construction reviews
c.
Submit an allowance change to any published allowance list
d.
Submit an allowance change request to the CESE allowance list only
27
What program provides a relieving Battalion with an realistic evaluation of the
condition of the CESE allowance, facilities, tools and materials?
a.
POL
b.
BEEP
c.
CMEO
d.
NAVOSH
28.
The abbreviation CESE stands for:
a.
Construction Engineering Special Equipment
b.
Civil Engineering Support Equipment
c.
Combat Engineer Support Equipment
d.
None of the above
29.
The abbreviation WHE stands for:
a.
Working Hours Extended
b.
Working Heavy Equipment
c.
Weight Handling Equipment
d.
None of the above
30.
Augment equipment is that equipment which is included in the Battalion TOA.
a.
True
b.
False
31.
Emergency service work requires less than how many man hours and less than
what dollar amount?
a.
20 man hours and less than $50 in material costs
b.
10 man hours and less than $50 in material costs
c.
12 man hours and less than $100 in material costs
d.
16 man hours and less than $100 in material costs
32.
Latrines should be located what minimum distance from sleeping areas?
a.
30 yards
b.
100 yards
c.
30 feet
d.
50 feet
33.
NAVFAC P-437, Facilities Planning Guide, contains a complete breakdown of all
items in the:
a.
PHIBCB Air Detachment Deployment Allowance
b.
Table of Allowance
c.
Advanced Base Functional Component System (ABFC)
d.
NMCB Deployment Allowances Only
34. You are the driver of a troop carrying vehicle positioned near the front of a
convoy and drive into an ambush that has light arms fire. Do you:
a.
Apply throttle to achieve maximum speed and drive past ambush
b.
Stop and allow vehicle commander to give orders
c.
Stop, debark troops, assemble security team
d.
Turn vehicle towards enemy and scare them
35.
The Maximum Effective Range of a weapon is:
a.
The greatest distance that the weapon can fire.
b.
How far it can be tossed in the air
c.
d.
accurately
36.
When you see the whites of enemy’s eyes
The greatest distance at which a weapon may be expected to fire
The primary concern for not giving an unconscious person water is:
a.
Bleeding to increase
b.
Putting a person into convulsions
c.
Victim might choke
d.
They might not be thirsty
37.
When purifying one quart of cloudy water, how many tablets of iodine are used
and how long should
you wait before drinking?
a.
1 tab – 3 minutes
b.
2 tabs – 5 minutes
c.
1 tab – 5 minutes
d.
2 tabs – 3 minutes
38
A Skirmisher’s Trench:
a.
is the simplest type of dug-in emplacement
b.
is constructed with heavy timbers
c.
will always have overhead cover
d.
must be three feet deep
39
Authentication is a security measure designed to protect a communications or
command system against fraudulent transmission or simulations.
a.
True
b.
False
40.
What is the highest classification that can be used on the NAVMC-694 Field
Message Book (yellow
canary)?
a.
Secret
b.
Confidential
c.
Unclassified
d.
Top Secret
41.
On the NAVMC-694 Field Message Book (yellow canary) what would you circle
for an immediate precedence message?
a.
I
b.
Z
c.
P
d.
O
42.
What four parts make up a message header?
a.
b.
c.
d.
43.
Precedence, date, time group, from and to
Precedence, date time group, classification and to
Date time group, classification, to and from
What, Where, Why, Whom
In what condition should a weapon be when first acquired?
a.
Slide/bolt locked to the rear, magazine out, chamber empty and safety on
b.
Slide/bolt locked forward, magazine in, chamber empty and safety off
c.
Slide/bolt locked forward, magazine out, chamber empty and safety on
d.
Slide/bolt locked to the rear, magazine out, chamber empty and safety off
44. SC on the mode switch of a PRC-119A stands for?
a.
Single channel
b.
Second channel
c.
Silent channel
d.
Set channel
47.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A Leach field is used to perform what function?
Collect leaches
Draw water from the ground
Dissipate raw sewage
Convert raw sewage into drinkable water
45. Combat Operations Center (COC) is operated under cognizance of whom?
a.
S-2
b.
XO
c.
CO
d.
S-3
46. Serious abdominal injuries require you to do the following immediately.
a.
Probe, remove the debris, push any organs back inside and place
pressure on wound
b.
Probe with surgical gloves, pour water on wound, apply field dressing from
your first aid kit
c.
Evaluate then position casualty, expose wound, apply field dressing from
victims’ first aid ki first and seek medical aid
d.
Evaluate casualty, probe, remove debris, clean wound, apply pressure to
wound, offer cool water to calm injured
47. What special consideration should be given when establishing a COC and an
ACOC in a camp?
a.
Communications
b.
Receiving chow
c.
d.
Lighting
Location
48
The M500 Shotgun is a ________ gauge shotgun:
a.
20
b.
10
c.
12
d.
30/30
49.
What date is observed as the official anniversary of the Seabees?
a.
b.
c.
d.
50.
How many articles are contained in the Code of Conduct for U.S. fighting forces?
a.
b.
c.
d.
51.
Warning Plan
Operation Order
Warning Order
Execution Order
Which of the following reports provides a monthly statement of a command’s
enlisted personnel account?
a.
b.
c.
d.
53.
4
5
6
7
What plan or order gives the authority to initiate supply, personnel and
administrative procedures required by a move?
a.
b.
c.
d.
52.
5 March 1940
5 March 1941
5 March 1942
5 March 1943
MCA
EDVR
EPMAC
BUPERS
Which of the following OPNAV forms is for Unsafe/Unhealthful Working
Condition Reporting?
a. OPNAV 5100/11
b. OPNAV 5100/12
c. OPNAV 5100/13
d. OPNAV 5100/14
54.
Prior to first use, temporary power sources are inspected, certified safe and
________________?
a.
b.
c.
d.
55.
Navy personnel must enter a hearing testing program when they work for an
eight-hour period in a designated hazardous noise area above what decibel
level?
a.
b.
c.
d.
56.
108 dB
104 dB
84 dB
80 dB
What is the purpose of a mishap investigation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
57.
Checked
Locked
Opened
Tagged
To determine person(s) at fault
To prevent similar mishaps
To recover damages
To report the mishap
Which of the following should not be done when examining an injured person?
a.
b.
c.
d.
58.
Keep the victim lying down with their feet elevated slightly above their head
Move the victim no more than is absolutely necessary
Describe the victim’s injuries to him/her in graphic detail
Keep the injured person comfortably warm; warm enough to maintain normal
body temperature
Which of the following can not be used to remove a victim that is in contact with
an energized circuit?
a. Dry stick
b. Your hands
c. Rope or leather belt
d. Blanket
59.
A victim that is shivering, listless, indifferent, and drowsy is most likely suffering
from ________________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
60.
61.
Deep Frost Bite
Superficial Frost Bite
Immersion Foot
Hypothermia
Which of the following is not a method of disinfecting water for drinking in the
field?
a. Iodine Tablets
b. Calcium Hydrochloride Ampoules
c. Boiling
d. Reverse Osmosis
Which of the following are characteristics of the Material Safety Data Sheet
(MSDS)?
a. Communicates to the user the chemical, physical, and hazardous properties
of that material
b. Document generated by the manufacturer about the material
c. Communicates the name, address, emergency contacts, fire and explosive
data, reactivity data, precautions for safe handling, and control measures of
the material
d. All of the above
62.
What is the storage procedure for incompatible materials?
a. Any container can be used as long as the materials are separated
b. Materials may be stored in approved containers within 50 feet of an ignition
source
c. Materials may be stored in approved containers if they are separated
and placed a minimum of 50 feet from an ignition source
d. Flammables, corrosive materials and toxic materials can be stored together
63.
Explain the general procedures to follow when a Hazardous Material / Hazardous
Waste (HM/HW) spill is discovered.
a. Must have response team within 4 hours and some what of a disposal plan
b. Unit must respond whenever they can
c. Reports must be made and tests conducted to ensure no contamination
remains same in the contamination area
d. Respond immediately with approved team, equipment, disposal plan,
reports made and tests conducted for remaining contamination and
disposal within strict guidelines
64.
Booming is an effective means of oil spill containment on calm water.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
65.
What form is used to receive or turn in material to DRMO?
a.
b.
c.
d.
66.
The thirteen digit stock number that identifies items in the federal supply system
is known as the ___________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
67.
APL
AEL
ARP
ACR
The inventory control principle is known as __________?
a.
b.
c.
d.
69.
NIS
AEL
APL
NSN
This ________ lists all repair parts installed in equipment and the components to
which they apply.
a.
b.
c.
b.
68.
DD 1149
SF 364
DD 1348-1A
SF 91
SIM
COG
ROD
AEL
What is the Frequency Range of the AN/PRC-119?
a. 30 to 87.975 kHz in 25 Hz steps
b. 30 to 90 Mhz in 25 kHz steps
c. 30 to 87.975 Mhz in 25 kHz steps
d. 30 to 90 kHz in 25 Hz steps
70.
How many Crypto fills can a KYK-13 hold in its memory?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
71. While monitoring the Battalion Tactical Net, you notice that someone is using
your call sign. What is the correct procedure you should follow?
a. Notify COC and inform them you are changing your call sign
b. Call Beadwindow on that particular net
c. Contact that caller and ask them if they made a mistake
d. Call Gingerbread on that particular net
72.
What is the least secure means of communication?
a. Radio
b. Communication Wire
c. Hand and arm signals
d. Messenger
73.
The TA-312/PT has a range of how many miles?
a. 4 to 7
b. Limited to the length of the wire
c. 14 to 22
d. 2.5 to 10
74.
What three factors effect radio communication?
a. Weather, Terrain, Frequency of transmission
b. Cosmic activity, Wind direction, Temperature
c. Terrain, Wind speed, Sun light
d. Operator, Wildlife, Sideband of transmission
75.
When handling Top Secret information, what is one of the conditions that must
exist?
a. Handler must carry a weapon
b. Briefcase must be handcuffed to carrier
c. Two person integrity
d. Handler must have a minimum clearance of Confidential
76.
What is one of the capabilities of the AN/PRC-119?
a. Long Range Communication
b. Line of Sight Communication
c. Satellite Communication
d. Sideband Communication
77.
What is the primary method of communicating in a defense area?
a.
b.
c.
d.
78.
Which of the following prowords is used to pass extremely
critical messages?
a.
b.
c.
d.
79.
Wire
Semaphone
Radio
Hand signals
Immediate
Flash
Routine
Priority
The safety on any weapon is to remain on safe until you are
actually aiming at a target and ready to fire.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
80.
81.
What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
a. 50m
b. 55m
c. 45m
d. 50yards
What is the maximum effective range of the MK-19 40mm machine
gun?
a. 3490m
b. 2100m
c. 3534m
d. 1500m
82.
What is a delay beyond normal ignition time for round
functioning?
a.
b.
c.
d.
83.
Hangfire
Misfire
Cook-off
Runway round
What are the maximum ranges for point and area targets for the
M203 grenade launcher?
a.
b.
c.
d.
100/250m
150/300m
200/350m
150/350m
84. What is the maximum effective range and the maximum range for the
M2HB.50 Cal?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1100/3725m
1500/2212m
1830/6800m
1630/6800m
85. Which of the following grenades is used to destroy equipment?
86.
a. Chemical
b. Incendiary
c. Illuminating
d. Fragmentation
What is the effective casualty radius of the M-67 fragmentation
grenade?
a.
b.
c.
d.
87.
10m
15m
20m
25m
What type of grenade is used for signaling?
a. Colored Smoke
b. Riot Control
c. White Phosphorous
d. Chemical
88.
What is the theoretical number of rounds a weapon can fire in 1
minute called?
a. Sustained rate of fire
b. Rate of fire
c. Substantial rate of fire
d. Cyclic rate of fire
89.
What does the reddish-brown color signify on a military map?
a. Man made features
b. All relief features
c. Roads
d. Water
90.
How many patrol planning and preparation steps are there?
a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12
91.
If you are a prisoner of war, what information do you give to
your captors?
a. Your name, rank, social security number and title.
b. Name, rank, date of birth and unit.
c. You are required to give nothing at all.
d. Your name, rank, social security number and date of birth.
92.
How many fighting positions are used in a defense?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
93. What basic fire team formation provides good all around security?
a. Wedge
b. Column
c. Skirmishers
d. Echelon
94. Fire commands consist of six necessary elements. The first
letter of the most important word of each of these elements is used to form what
acronym?
a.
b.
c.
d.
95.
SALUTE
KODCOA
ADDRAC
SMEACS
What is the minimum number of Rapid Runway Repair (RRR) command
center personnel a battalion should have qualified?
a. 150
b. 125
c. 72
d. 90
96.
What type of fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire?
a.
b.
c.
d.
97.
What is the most common method of disinfecting drinking water?
a.
b.
c.
d.
98.
TAU
AFFF
Fixed water sprinkling
Portable CO2 extinguisher
Boiling
Filtration
Chlorination
Superchlorination
The M8A1 automatic chemical agent alarm system can be used to
detect a blister agent attack.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
99.
The M8 chemical detector paper detects what chemical agents?
a. Blister
b. G series nerve agent
c. V series nerve agent
d. All of the above
100.
Which of the following chemical agent liquids will M9 paper detect and what color
will the M9 paper show?
a. Blood agent / red
b. Blister agent / Yellow
c. Nerve agent / red
d. Both a and c
Bonus question:
What is the smartest rate in the Navy?
a. UT
b. UT
c. UT
d. All of the above