SELECT THE ONE BEST ANSWER OR COMPLETION
1. A function of the supraoptic nucleus is regulation of
(A) oxytocin synthesis
(B) food intake
(C) sexual behavior
(D) biological rhythms
(E) thermoregulation
2. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) Monoaminergic fibers are contained within the medial
forebrain bundle
(B) Noradrenergic neural projections are limited in their
distribution
(C) The paraventricular nucleus receives noradrenergic
projections from the substantia nigra
(D) Dopaminergic neural projections are widely distributed
in the brain
(E) Dopaminergic neurons in the arcuate nucleus project to
the globus pallidus
3. Regulation of autonomic neural responses is mediated by
activity in the
(A) fornix
(B) mammillothalamic tract
(C) dorsal longitudinal fasciculus
(D) stria terminalis
(E) ventroamygdalofugal pathway
4. Corticotropin releasing hormone
(A) blocks the secretion of adrenocorticotropin hormone
(B) blocks sympathetic neural responses to stress
(C) functions as a neurohormone as well as a neurotransmitter
(D) is secreted from the neurohypophysis
(E) is secreted from the hypothalamo-spinal tract
5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) The central autonomic network is characterized by
unidirectional connections between brainstem and
forebrain regions
(B) Dopaminergic projections from the locus coeruleus
synapse with spinal preganglionic sympathetic neurons
(C) The nucleus of the tractus solitarius is a major
regulator of the central autonomic network
(D) Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons secrete
norephinephrine
(E) Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons secrete
norepinephrine
6. Exposure to heat produces
(A) hypothermia in subjects with lesions in the posterior
hypothalamic area
(B) hyperthermia in subjects with lesions in the anterior
hypothalamic area
(C) piloerection
(D) increased thyroxine secretion
(E) cutaneous vasoconstriction
7. Recurrent inhibition in the hippocampus involves
(A) decreased conductance IPSPs
(B) dendro-dendritic synapses
(C) excitation of Renshaw cells
(D) granule cells of area CA3
(E) axon collaterals of pyramidal cells
8. Damage to the nondominant hemisphere would lead to
(A) elation
(B) indifference
(C) anger
(D) sadness
(E) irritation
9. Muscle atrophy is a common characteristic of
(A) upper, but not lower motor neuron syndrome
(B) lower, but not upper motor neuron syndrome
(C) both upper and lower motor neuron syndrome
(D) basal ganglia disease
(E) cerebellar degeneration
10. Which of the following statements regarding muscle spindles
is correct?
(A) Alpha motor neurons innervate muscle spindles
(B) Secondary fibers (II) from muscle spindles
innervate monosynaptically alpha motor neurons
(C) Nuclear chain and nuclear bag filaments are
muscle spindle fibers
(D) Extrafusal muscle fibers are smaller than
muscle spindle fibers
(E) There are four types of intrafusal muscle fibers
11. The Golgi tendon organ
(A) innervates monosynaptically intrafusal muscle fibers
(B) sends information to the spinal cord via Ia nerve
fibers
(C) is innervated monosynaptically by gamma dynamic motor
neurons
(D) is innervated monosynaptically by alpha motor
neurons
(E) sends information to the spinal cord, via Ib fibers
12. Stimulation of gamma static motor neurons
(A) elicits contraction of extrafusal muscle fibers
(B) excites the Golgi tendon organ
(C) elicits contraction of intrafusal muscle fibers
(D) inhibits nuclear bag fibers
(E) antagonizes the reciprocal muscle
13. "ON" center bipolar cells
(A) are hyperpolarized by the-neurotransmitter released
from cone photoreceptor cells
(B) are depolarized by glutamate
(C) have bar-shaped receptive fields
(D) send their axons to the lateral geniculate
(E) are contacted by "ON" center photoreceptor cells
14. The initial step which triggers the visual transduction
cascade in rod photoreceptors is:
(A) the isomerization of 11-cis retinal to all-trans
retinal
(B) the phosphorylation of rhodopsin by opsin kinase
(C) activation of the G protein, transducin
(D) an increase in the inward sodium current
(E) hydrolysis of cGMP
15. Injecting calcium into rod outer segments in the dark would
(A) enhance any subsequent light adaptation
(B) activate guanylate cyclase so that more cGMP would be
synthesized
(C) have less effect than in the light because the Na+/Ca2+
channels are normally open in the dark
(D) close sodium channels
(E) open cGMP gated channels
16. Rod photoreceptors are
(A) highly concentrated in the foveal region
(B) highly concentrated in the optic disc region
(C) surrounded by a pigment called macular yellow
(D) important in color discrimination
(E) capable of responding to a single photon of light
17. β Amyloid is hypothesized to produce neuronal degeneration by
(A) directly stimulating the influx of toxic amounts of
calcium
(B) increasing neuronal sensitivity to glutamate
(C) releasing excess amounts of acetylcholine
(D) releasing excess amounts of norepinephrine
(E) increasing the metabolic rate of specific neurons
18. Transmitter release initiated by an action potential in the
synaptic terminal would be decreased in the presence of
(A) curare
(B) TEA
(C) AChE
(D) low concentrations of extracellular Ca2+
(E) low concentrations of extracellular Mg2+
19. A ten-fold decrease in the concentration of e in the
extracellular fluid surrounding a nerve axon would
(A) increase the resting potential by 60 mV
(B) decrease the resting potential by 60 mV
(C) change the equilibrium potential for K+ by 60 mV
(D) increase the overshoot of the action potential by 60 mV
(E) increase the magnitude of the hyperpolarizing afterpotential by 60 mV
20. The probability of a spinal motor neuron initiating an action potential would be increased by
(A) presynaptic facilitation of an inhibitory input to the
motor neuron
(B) increased frequency of IPSPs in the motor neuron
(C) decreased frequency of EPSPs in the motor neuron
(D) presynaptic facilitation of an excitatory input to the
motor neuron
(E) depression of an excitatory input to the motor neuron
21. The EPSP produced in a spinal motor neuron by an action potential in a la afferent fiber is due to an
increase in permeability of the postsynaptic membrane to
(A) Na+
(B) K+
(C) Ca2+
(D) Cl
(E) Na+ and K+
22. Normal skeletal muscle differs from muscle from a patient
with Myasthenia gravis in that the myasthenic neuromuscular
junction has
(A) MEPPs of lower amplitude
(B) MEPPs of lower frequency
(C) EPPs of larger amplitude
(D) less transmitter per quantum
(E) more transmitter per quantum
23. Myelinated axons
(A) are less dependent on the passive electrical properties
of membranes for propagating action potentials than
unmyelinated axons
(B) expend less energy for propagating action potentials
than unmyelinated axons with equivalent diameters
(C) are used primarily to transmit nociceptive information
(D) have lower propagation velocities for action potentials
than unmyelinated axons with equivalent diameters
(E) are shorter than unmyelinated axons
24. The monosynaptic stretch reflex involves all of the
following EXCEPT:
(A) dynamic nuclear bag fiber
(B) group Ia muscle afferent
(C) group IIa muscle afferent
(D) alpha motor neuron
(E) static nuclear bag fibers
25. Which of the following statements regarding muscle spindles
is correct?
(A) Gamma motor neurons innervate muscle spindles
(B) Secondary fibers (II) from muscle spindles innervate
monosynaptically alpha motor neurons
(C) Nuclear chain and nuclear bag filaments are extrafusal
muscle fibers
(D) Extrafusal muscle fibers are smaller than muscle
spindle fibers
(E) There are four types of intrafusal muscle fibers
26. All of the statements concerning the dorsal spinocerebellar
tract are true, EXCEPT:
(A) Enters the cerebellum in the inferior cerebellar
peduncle
(B) Crosses at spinal levels in the anterior white
commissure
(C) Originates from cells of the dorsal nucleus of Clarke
(D) Does not extend below L3 spinal cord levels
(E) Conveys impulses from muscle receptors to the
cerebellum
27. Pain is classified into the following type(s) EXCEPT:
(A) aching
(B) burning
(C) pricking
(D) soreness
(E) itching
28. The gate theory is based on
(A) the observation that noxious input suppresses pain
sensation
(B) the observation that mechanical stimulation produces
postsynaptic inhibition
(C) the concept that mechanical stimulation leads to
presynaptic inhibition
(D) the concept that the first order pain afferents undergo
recurrent inhibition
(E) the observation that descending fibers regulate the
incoming noxious input
SELECT THE ONE BEST ANSWER OR COMPLETION
29. Spinothalamic neurons
(A) mediate fine tactile discrimination
(B) are the most rapidly-conducting fibers in the
somatosensory system
(C) cross as the internal arcuate fibers
(D) are typically damaged in patients with tabes dorsalis
(E) have a functional homologue in the neurons of the
spinal trigeminal nucleus
30. A single column of cells oriented perpendicular to the surface of the primary somatosensory cortex
receives input from
(A) only a single sensory receptor
(B) one modality of sensation from one area of the body
surface
(C) several modalities of sensation from one area of the
body surface
(D) multiple sensory modalities from multiple body regions
(E) the entire body surface with respect to a single
sensory modality
31. Vestibular hair cells
(A) project monosynaptically to Scarpa's ganglion
(B) generate high frequency trains of action potentials
(C) secrete endolymph into the membranous labyrinth
(D) release transmitter even in the absence of a vestibular
P stimulus
(E) all have the same axis of orientation in the utricle
32. The vestibulo-ocular reflex
(A) is mediated primarily by the lateral vestibular nucleus
(B) does not adapt to sustained head rotation in one
direction
(C) would be disrupted by damage to the medial lemniscus
(D) can be modified by retinal input
(E) must be voluntarily suppressed in order to stabilize
retinal images while jogging
33. Injury to adult CNS tissues is associated with
(A) modest cell loss because neurons are capable of cell
replication
(B) transneuronal degeneration
(C) a greater potential for regeneration compared to the
peripheral nervous system
(D) proliferation of Schwann cells which express factors
that stimulate axon growth
(E) chromatolysis in the distal segment of severed axons
34. During development, neuronal differentiation and synapse
formation involve
(A) numerical matching of the number of presynaptic neurons
and the size of postsynaptic targets
(B) preferential retention of synapses that are formed
by pioneer neurons
(C) guidepost cells which stop axon growth
(D) retaining vestigial axons that innervate inappropriate
postsynaptic targets
(E) cell-to-cell adhesion molecules which control the final
recognition events between pre- and postsynaptic
membranes
35. Which statement about hierarchical organization of the motor
system is true:
(A) Each structure in the motor system projects
monosynaptically to the spinal cord
(B) Most motor structures are not somatotopically organized
(C) Different motor structures project in parallel to the
spinal cord
(D) Reflex responses require the participation of both the
highest and lowest hierarchical levels
(E) The highest levels of the hierarchy are concerned
primarily with monitoring sensory details of the
motor response
36. The somatotopic representation of musculature in primary
motor cortex is characterized by
(A) a larger representation of the lower extremity
(B) representation of the head close to the midline
(C) equal representation of all skeletal musculature
(D) discontinuities in the motor map in which no muscles
are represented
(E) a larger representation of hands and face
37. Which statement is true of supplementary motor cortex, but
not of lateral premotor cortex?
(A) Lesions cause apraxias
(B) It is involved in coordination of bilateral movements
(C) Lesions cause muscle weakness
(D) It has monosynaptic connections with primary motor
cortex
(E) Its neurons discharge only after movement
38. The cerebellum plays a major role in
(A) maintaining balance
(B) integrating limbic information with the state of
potential targets
(C) creating a frame of reference for directing movement
(D) coding movement direction
(E) initiating movement
39. Diseases of the basal ganglia are often characterized by
(A) paralysis
(B) akinesia
(C) muscular atrophy
(D) thalamic degeneration
(E) loss of sensory acuity
40. Basal plate derivatives include
(A) cerebellar nuclei
(B) SVA nuclei
(C) the amygdala
(D) the pineal gland
(E) the red nucleus
41. If the foramina of Luschka and Magendie do not develop, the
individual will develop
(A) hydranencephaly
(B) obstructive, communicating hydrocephalus
(C) spina bifida
(D) encephalomeningocele
(E) obstructive, non-communicating hydrocephalus
42. An "OFF" center ganglion cell will be maximally stimulated
when its receptive field is exposed to
(A) uniform darkness
(B) uniform light
(C) a small, white spot centered on a dark background
(D) a small, dark spot centered on a white background
(E) a bar of white light on a dark background
43. An increase in the number of photons absorbed by a rod causes
(A) opening of sodium channels
(B) hyperpolarization of the rod
(C) increased release of glutamate
(D) an increase in inward calcium current
(E) opening of cGMP gated channels
44. In comparison to rods, cones
(A) are more sensitive to light
(B) produce higher amplification of the visual signal
(C) saturate more readily in daylight
(D) have higher acuity
(E) contain more visual pigment
45. Which structure receives information from only the right eye?
(A) area 17 (V1) on the left
(B) layers 3 through 6 of the left lateral geniculate body
(C) the left optic tract
(D) the right optic nerve
(E) Meyer's Loop on the left
46. The cranial nerve(s) required for the accommodation reflex
is/are:
(A) only theEdinger-Westphal portion of cranial nerve III
(B) only thesomatic portion of cranial nerve III
(C) both the Edinger-Westphal and somatic portion of
cranial nerve III
(D) cranialnerves III and IV, coordinated through
fibers in the MLF
(E) cranial nerves III and VI, coordinated through fibers
in the MLF
47. Glutamate receptors
(A) are anion (Cl-) selective
(B) are all integral membrane proteins with seven membrane
spanning segments
(C) mediate the inhibitory postsynaptic potential
(D) mediate increases in intracellular second messengers
(E) are predominately localized to neuronal cell bodies
FOR EACH OF THE NUMBERED ITEMS IN THIS SECTION, ONE OR MORE OF
THE NUMBERED OPTIONS IS CORRECT. ON THE ANSWER SHEET, FILL IN
THE CIRCLE CONTAINING
A. if only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. if only 1 and 3 are correct
C. if only 2 and 4 are correct
D. if only 4 is correct
E. if all are correct
48. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) Stimulation of the lateral hypothalamus (tuberal
region) promotes eating
(2) The medial preoptic nuclei display sexual dimorphism
(3) Lesions in the ventromedial nuclei produce overeating
(4) The suprachiasmatic nucleus receives projections from
the optic nerve
49. The median eminence is the
(1) site of projections from the arcuate nucleus
(2) anatomical interface between the brain and the
adenohypophysis
(3) site of projections from the paraventricular nucleus
(4) region rostral to the optic chiasm
50. The arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus
(1) contains dopaminergic cell bodies
(2) is involved in the regulation of prolactin secretion
from the adenohypophysis
(3) is located in the tuberal region
(4) is located in the base of the third ventricle
51. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) Fever results from an increased temperature set-point
in the hypothalamus
(2) Body temperature displays circadian rhythms
(3) Prostaglandin mediates the pyrogenic effects of
interleukin-1
(4) Thermoregulatory mechanisms are abnormal during fever
FOR EACH OF THE NUMBERED ITEMS IN THIS SECTION, ONE OR MORE OF
THE NUMBERED OPTIONS IS CORRECT. ON THE ANSWER SKEET, FILL IN
THE CIRCLE CONTAINING
A. if only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. if only 1 and 3 are correct
C. if only 2 and 4 are correct
D. if only 4 is correct
E. if all are correct
52. The paraventricular nucleus
(1) synthesizes hypophysiotropic neurohormones
(2) regulates autonomic neural responses
(3) contains magnocellular peptidergic neurons
(4) projects vasopressin containing axons to the spinal
cord
53. Immunologic signals to the brain are mediated by
(1) interleukin-1
(2) tumor necrosis factor
(3) thymic hormones
(4) interferons
54. The immune response is regulated by
(1) bidirectional communication between the immune and
endocrine systems
(2) sympathetic innervation of lymphoid organs
(3) the central nervous system
(4) the ability of the host to cope with stress
55. The operculum of the inferior frontal gyrus is involved in
(1) syntactic aspects of language
(2) programming of finger movements
(3) programming of expressive language
(4) receptive language functions
FOR EACH OF THE NUMBERED ITEMS IN THIS SECTION, ONE OR MORE OF
THE NUMBERED OPTIONS IS CORRECT. ON THE ANSWER SHEET, FILL IN
THE CIRCLE CONTAINING
A if only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B if only 1 and 3 are correct
C if only 2 and 4 are correct
D if only 4 is correct
E if all are correct
56. Damage to the association zones of the parietal lobe of the
dominant hemisphere may lead to deficits in
(1) symbolic reasoning
(2) reading
(3) calculation.
(4) visuospatial construction
57. The Kluver-Bucy Syndrome is characterized by
(1) compulsive oral responses
(2) abnormal EEG activity recorded in the amygdala
(3) decreased aggressiveness
(4) diminished sexual activity
58. Classical conditioning results in
(1) a decrease in the amplitude of the hyperpolarizing
spike after-potential recorded from hippocampal
pyramidal cells
(2) an inhibition of hippocampal pyramidal cell activity
during the presentation of the unconditioned stimulus
(3) an increase in the discharge rate of hippocampal
pyramidal cells during the presentation of conditioned
stimulus
(4) an enhancement of the frequency of slow EPSPs recorded
from basket cells
59. Limbic projections to structures with probable motor
functions include the
(1) nucleus accumbens septi
(2) ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus
(3) ventral pallidum
(4) cerebellum
FOR EACH OF THE NUMBERED ITEMS IN THIS SECTION, ONE OR MORE OF
THE NUMBERED OPTIONS IS CORRECT. ON THE ANSWER SHEET, FILL IN
THE CIRCLE CONTAINING
A if only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B if only 1 and 3 are correct
C if only 2 and 4 are correct
D if only 4 is correct
E if all are correct
60. Retrograde amnesia
(1) involves deficits in memory retrieval
(2) can be eliminated by tests of free recall
(3) involves a difficulty in processing new information
into a more-enduring form
(4) can be produced by head injury
61. Stage 4 sleep is characterized by
(1) delta waves
(2) a desynchronized EEG
(3) relaxed muscles
(4) increased blood pressure
62. The ascending reticular activating system
(1) projects to midline and intralaminar thalamic nuclei
(2) is responsible for maintaining conscious arousal
(3) projects to the thalamus in the central tegmental tract
(4) can be inhibited by stimulating sleep inducing areas in
the pons and medulla
63. Hippocampal pyramidal cells exhibit
(1) large amplitude IPSPs
(2) spatially segregated synaptic input
(3) spike activity that is generated in bursts
(4) large hyperpolarizing spike after-potentials
Neuro final practical
tectospinal tract substantia gelatinosa
dorsal medial lateral olfactory tract
Ventral anterior mammalothalamic tract
postcentral gyrus vestibular cochlear nerve
nodulus satiaty
lateral geniculate body paraventricular nucleus
vertebral art. parahippocampal gyrus
inferior olivary complex genu of corpus callosum
increase heart rate anterior choroidal art.
lateral sulcus precommisural fornix
uncrossed produce CSF
intrinsic muscles of tongue trochlear nucleus
K& F long circumferential branch
ipselateral paralysis and contra hemiplasia no change
corticospinal tract unilateral
motor spinotrigeminal nucleus
pulvinar tuberoinfundibular tract
auditory gustatory and visceral
lateral lemniscus cingulate gyrus
VPL nucleus accumbens septi
nucleus solitary anterior commisure
motor trig. nucleus medial forebrain bundle
muscles of mastication anterior thalamic nucleus
loss of lateral eye movement amygdala
superior oblique muscle hearing
extraocular muscles fornix (body)
cuneate fasciculus
dorsal nucleus of clark
vestibular
ANSWERS:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
A
A
C
C
C
B
E
B
B
C
E
C
A
A
C
E
B
D
C
D
E
A
B
E
A
B
E
C
E
B
D
D
B
A
C
E
B
A
B
E
E
D
B
D
D
C
D
E
A
E
A
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
E
E
E
B
E
B
B
B
D
B
E
A