Libyan International Medical University
Faculty of Dentistry
Pharmacology Final Exam 2010
Date :27/6/2010
Time:120 min
Name:……………………………
Number:……………………
Q1) ENCIRCLE ONLY ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
(1.5 marks each)
1. The advantages of the intravenous route of administration include all following EXCEPT:
a- Maximum bioavailability.
b- Large volume can be given
c- Can be used for irritant drugs.
d- Sterilization is not required.
2. Metabolism of a drug results in the formation of a metabolite that is:
a- More toxic in most cases.
b- More lipid soluble.
c- More water soluble.
d- More reabsorbed by renal tubules.
3. All the following factors affect bioavailability of drugs EXCEPT:
a- Route of administration.
b- First pass effect.
c- Enzyme induction.
d- Surface area through which the drug is absorbed.
4. The maximum response produced by a drug is a measure of:
a- Potency.
b- Efficacy .
c- Safety.
d- Median effective dose.
5. Which of the following is protein kinase receptor?
a- β 1- adrenergic receptor.
b- Muscarinic receptor.
c- Insulin receptor.
d- Corticosteroid receptor.
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6.
Which of following is chemical antagonist?
a- Propranolol.
b- Atropine.
c- Protamine sulphate.
d- Phentolamine.
7. Characteristics of lipid diffusion include all the following EXCEPT:
a- Requires energy.
b- Is not saturable.
c- Enhanced by presence of steroid nucleus.
d- Is not inhibited by other substrates.
8. Nitroglycerin is given sublingually because it :
a- Is irritant .
b- Destroyed by gastric Hcl.
c- Poorly absorbed when given orally.
d- Undergoes 1st pass effect.
9. Which of the following will lead to increased renal excretion of drugs?
a- Absorption.
b- Metabolism.
c- Plasma protein binding.
d- Enterohepatic cycle.
10. All the following increase the elimination half life (T1/2) EXCEPT:
a- Enzyme inhibition .
b- Plasma protein binding.
c- Enterohepatic cycle.
d- Enzyme induction.
11. Conjugation with glucuronic acid:
a- Forms less polar metabolites.
b- Non synthetic reaction.
c- Less common than sulfate conjugation.
d- Is essential for drugs that undergo enterohepatic cycle.
12. Which of the following leads to physiological antagonism?
a- Atropine plus acetylcholine.
b- Phenoxybenzamine plus adrenaline.
c- Heparin plus protamine sulphate.
d- Adrenaline plus histamine.
13. Which of the following mechanism of drug excretion is PH dependent?
a. Glomerular filatration.
b. Biliary excretion .
c. Active tubular reabsorption.
d. Passive tubular reabsorption.
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14. Which of the following drugs is an enzyme inhibitor?
a. Erythromycin.
b. Rifampin.
c. Phenobarbtion.
d. Carbamazepine.
15. Which of the following drugs acts by blocking sodium channels ?
a. ASA.
b. Desferroxamine.
c. Lidocaine.
d. Physostigmine.
16. All the following drugs may lead to addiction except :
a. Morphine.
b. Barbiturates.
c. Warfarin.
d. Diazepam..
17. Which of the following effects is produced by cholinomimetic drugs?
a- Mydriasis.
b- Increased heart rate.
c- Vasodilatation.
d- Decreased secretion.
18. The indication of muscarinic antagonists include all the following EXCEPT:
a- Myasthenia gravis.
b- Parkinsonism.
c- Bronchial asthma
d- Peptic ulcer.
19. All the following drugs are used in treatment of glaucoma EXCEPT:
a- Pilocarpine.
b- Physostigmine.
c- Timolol.
d- Neostigmine.
20. Which of the following muscarinic antagonists is used in treatment of peptic ulcer?
a- Pirenzepine.
b- Ipratropium.
c- Hyoscine.
d- Homatropine.
21. D-Tubocurarine :
a- Is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker.
b- Has short duration of action.
c- Increases blood pressure.
d- Action is reversed by neostigmine.
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22. Adrenaline:
a- Is a non catechal amine.
b- Increases diastolic blood pressure.
c- Increases renin secretion.
d- Is a vasodilator.
23. Clonidine:
a- Is a selective α-1 antagonist.
b- Causes postural hypotension.
c- May produce zerostomia.
d- Increases LDLP.
24. Salbutamol ( ventolin ):
a- Is non selective β agonist.
b- Has long duration of action.
c- Tolerance to its effects may develop.
d- Induces uterine contraction.
25. The adverse effects which limit the use of amphetamine include all the following EXCEPT:
a- Psychosis.
b- Dependence.
c- Insomnia.
d- Respiratory depression.
26. Prazosine:
a- Is non selective α blocker
b- Has long duration of action.
c- Increases plasma cholesterol.
d- May case first dose phenomenon.
27. Propranolol ( Inderal ):
a- Causes positive ionotropic effect.
b- Stimulates rennin release.
c- Has high bioavailability.
d- Aggravates bronchial asthma.
28. The indication of β blockers include all the following EXCEPT:
a- Hypertension.
b- Arrhythmia.
c- Glaucoma.
d- Reynaud’s disease
29. Which of the following muscarinic receptors is present on gastric parietal cells?
a- M1.
b- M2.
c- M3.
d- M4.
30. Pilocarpine is mainly used in treatment of:
a- Myasthenia gravis.
b- Atony of GIT.
c- glaucoma.
d- Pheochromocytoma.
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31. Atropine:
a- Is a selective muscarnic antagonist.
b- Has no C.N.S effects.
c- Is a mydriatic agent.
d- Increases secretions.
32. Neostigmine:
a- Is a choline ester.
b- Is used in treatment of myasthenia gravis.
c- May cause paralytic ileus.
d- Is irreversible inhibitor of choline esterase.
33. Uses of phenylephrine include the following EXCEPT:
a- As nasal decongestant.
b- In combination with local anesthetics.
c- Bronchial asthma.
d- Hypotension.
34. Which of the following ganglionic blockers is used to control hypertension during surgery?.
a- Hydralazine
b- Trimethaphan.
c- Labetalol
d- Diazoxide.
35. Stimulation of parasympathetic nervous system produces all the following except:
a- Miosis
b- Tachycardia.
c- Brnchospasm
d- Salivation
36. Which of the following is the major mechanism of termination of action of noradrenaline :
a- Uptake-I
b- Uptake -II
c- Metabolism by MAO
d- Metabolism by COMT.
37. The clinical uses of adrenaline include all the following except :
a- Acute bronchial asthma
b- Anaphylactic shock
c- Attention deficient hyperkinetic children.
d- Haemostatic in epistaxis
38. The mechanism of action of β2 – agonists in bronchial asthma involve the following except :
a- Bronchodilation
b- Decreased bronchial secretion
c- Inhibition of phospholipase- A2
d- Stabilization of mast cell
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39. The uses of calcium channel blockers include all the following EXCEPT:
a- Angina pectoris.
b- Heart failure.
c- Hypertension.
d- Arrhythmia.
40. Which of the following drugs acts by blocking ADP activation of GP IIb/IIIa receptors in platelets?
a- Aspirin.
b- Clopidogrel.
c- Dipyridamol.
d- Abciximab.
41. Digoxin:
a- Has longer t1/2 than digitoxin.
b- Has negative ionotropic effect.
c- Inhibits Na+ / K+ ATP ase enzyme.
d- Causes tachycardia.
42. The actions of angiotensin II include the following EXCEPT:
a- Vasoconstriction.
b- Decreased aldostrone synthesis.
c- Increased sodium reabsortion.
d- Trophic changes in heart failure.
43. Warfarin:
a- Is active in vivo and vitro.
b- Has rapid onset of action.
c- Activates antithrombin III.
d- Is contraindicated in pregnancy.
44. The indications of heparin include the following EXCEPT:
a- Venous thrombosis.
b- Myocardial infarction.
c- hyperlipidema
d- Hemophilia.
45. All the following are local hemostatics EXCEPT:
a- Human fibrin.
b- Adrenaline.
c- vit K.
d- Oxidised cellulose.
46. Which of the following is used in treatment of iron toxicity:
a- Protamine sulphate.
b- Deferoxamine.
c- Oximes.
d- vit K.
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47. which of the following β- antagonists is used in the treatment of glaucoma:
a- Atenolol.
b- Esmolol.
c- Propranolol.
d- Timolol.
48. The metabolic effects of adrenaline include all the following EXCEPT:
a- Hypoglycemia.
b- Enhanced glycogenolysis.
c- Increased FFA.
d- Hypokalemia.
49. Nifedepine:
a- Blocks receptor operated channels.
b- May cause bradycardia.
c- Is potent vasodilator.
d- Inhibits A-V conduction.
50. All the following are used in treatment of digitalis toxicity EXCEPT:
a- Gastric lavage.
b- Digitalis antibodies.
c- Phenytoin.
d- Lidocain.
Q2) Explain why?
(2 marks each)
1. Alkalinization of urine enhances the excretion of aspirin.
2. Dopamine is the drug of choice in cardiogenic shock.
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3. Adrenaline is used to control bleeding.
4. Efficacy is more important clinically than potency.
5. Atropine is useful in preanesthetic medication.
6. Labetalol is the drug of choice in phaeochromocytoma.
7. Heparin should not be administered by the I/M route.
8. Nitrates can be combined with verapamil.
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Q3) True or False ( T or F )
(1/2 mark each)
1. Adrenaline is the neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system.
(
)
2. Polar drugs attains adequate concentration in C.N.S
(
)
3. Penicillin G can be administered orally.
(
)
4. A drug wih low volume of distribution is confined to the plasma.
(
)
5. An antagonist has affinity and intrinsic activity.
(
)
6. Rifampin is an enzyme inhibitor.
(
)
7. Amphetamine is directly acting sympathomimetic.
(
)
8. Metoprolol is non selective β-blocker.
(
)
9. Digoxin has high therapeutic index.
(
)
10. Succinyl choline is non depolarizing neuromuscular blocker.
(
)
11. Ephedrine can cause tachyphylaxis.
(
)
12. Amphetamine stimulates appetite.
(
)
13. Cocaine inhibits uptake-1 of noradrenaline.
(
)
14. Benzhexol is indicated in treatment of parkinsonism.
(
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15. Atenolol increases cardiac ouyput.
(
)
16. Oximes are used in the treatment of organophosphorous poisoning.
(
)
17. Procaine is hydrolysed by true choline esterase.
(
)
18. GABA receptors are metabotropic receptors.
(
)
GOOD LUCK
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