1
1.
Biological techniques are being increasingly misused to produce a. Antibiotics b. Humulin c. Improved varieties of infective agents d. Resistant varieties of plants and animals.
2.
Which of the of the pair is not correctly matched a. Karyology study of nucleus b. Phycology study of algae c. Oncology study of bones d. Palynology study of pollens and spores
3.
Who proposed that protoplasm is the physical basis of life
a. F.Miescher b. Huxley c. Robert Koch d. Purkinji
4.
Study of identification, nomenclature, classification and relationship amongst living organisms is called d. Chronobiology a. Biosystematics b. Phylogeny c. Ontogeny
5.
Which one is not a correct combination a. Historia plantarum b. Origin of species
Aristotle
Darwin c. Genera plantarum d. Micrographica
Linnaeus
Robert Hooke
6.
“ Plants bend towards light because they need light for growth “.This statement is based on a. Serendipity b. Telepathy c. Established observations d. Teleology
7.
The study of living organism, for human welfare is called a. Ecobiology b. Biophysics c. Applied biology d. Cosmology
8.
Who divided taxonomy into alpha, beta and omega taxonomy a. A.P de Candolle b. Julian Huxley c. Heywood d. Turrill
9.
Choose the correct pair a. Apiculture b. Pisciculture
Honey bee
Silkworm c. Sericulture d. Silviculture
Fish
Lac insect
10.
Acarology deals with the study of a. Fossils b. Ticks and Mites c. Molluscs d. Coral reef
11.
Sodium chloride is an important constituent of a. human blood b. bones c. lymph d. skin glands
12.
Which of the following is a polar molecule a. Sodium chloride b. Water c. Carbon dioxide d. Oxygen
13.
Who stated that “ Life results due to a relationship of molecules and not a property of any one molecule “. a. Linus Pauling b. Louis Pasteur c. Aristotle d. R.V. Rosenhof
14.
Energy must be added for a chemical reaction to start. This energy is called as

2 a. entropy b. enthalpy c. oxidation d. activation energy
15.
The correct sequence in increasing order of organizational complexity is a.
Population-Variety-Species-Ecosystem b.
Population-Species-Community-Ecosystem c.
Population-Ecosystem-Species-Community d.
Community-Population-Biosphere-Ecosystem
16.
Saline drip is given to patients suffering from a.
High blood pressure b.
Low blood pressure c.
Heart disease d.
Tuberculosis
17.
Approximate number of chemicals present in the cells of living organisms is a.
50 b.
500 c.
5000 d.
50000
18.
In biological systems, the loss of energy is restored through the input of a.
Free energy b.
Entropy c.
Enthalpy d.
Activation energy
19.
Secretion of sweat glands of mammals is primarily meant for a.
removal of excess water b.
regulation of body temperature c.
removal of excess salts d.
killing of bacteria
20.
The ultimate source of energy for the biological world is a.
Food b.
Glucose c.
ATP d.
Sun
21.
An interesting modification of flower shape for insect pollination occurs in some Orchids in which the male insect mistakes the pattern on the orchid flower for the female species and tries to mate with it, thereby pollinating the flower. This phenomenon is a.
Mimicry b.
Pseudocopulation c.
Pseudopollination d.
Pseudoparthenocarpy
22.
If a person shows production of interferons in his body, the chances are that he has got an infection of a.
Typhoid b.
Measles c.
Tetanus d.
Malaria

23.
Which one of the following is an example of energy transfer a.
Light energy is changed into chemical energy b.
Chemical energy is changed into heat energy c.
Chemical energy is changed into chemical energy d.
Chemical energy is changed into mechanical energy
24.
Which of the following organism is regarded as immortal a.
Paramecium b.
Volvox c.
Tortoise d.
Amoeba
25.
The total number of nerve cells present in human brain is a.
1000 million b.
10000 million c.
11000 million d.
100000 million
26.
Presence of salts in the human body fluids gives the inference that a.
we must eat ample amount of salts b.
we must take saline bath c.
our ancestors lived near the salt lakes d.
life originated in the primitive ocean
27.
The most vital process for the existence of life on earth is a.
Respiration in animals b.
Photosynthesis in plants c.
Communication in animals d.
Reproduction in plants and animals
28.
The water in holy Ganges is pure due to the presence of a.
Cyanophages b.
Hydrophytes c.
Bacteria d.
Bacteriophages
29.
The energy derived from enzyme – substrate interaction is called a.
Constant energy b.
Binding energy c.
Variable energy d.
Activation energy
30.
The total heat constant or potential energy of a system is a.
Entropy b.
Tropical energy c.
Enthalpy d.
Free energy
31.
Saline is given to a person suffering with cholera because a.
it causes lysis of bacterial cell wall b.
cholera results in severe diaorrhoea leading to the loss of salts
3

c.
saline help to produce antitoxins d.
None of these
32.
One of the following plants have not changed for several thousands of years a.
Gnetum b.
Dryopteris c.
Ginkgo d.
Palm
33.
There is no life on moon due to the absence of a.
Oxygen b.
Water c.
Light d.
Temperature
34.
Which of the following is not an adaptive feature a.
Phototropism b.
Geotropism c.
Hibernation d.
Cell division
35.
The most accepted theory of origin of life is a.
Theory of spontaneous theory b.
Oparin – Haldane theory c.
Theory of special creation d.
Theory of eternity of life
36.
Life appeared about a.
3.7 billion years ago b.
5.6 billion years ago c.
4.6 billion years ago d.
3.7 million years ago
37.
The first organisms were a.
Saprotrophs b.
Autotrophs c.
Heterotrophs d.
Autoheterotrophs
38.
Which of the following is first formed a.
Eobionts b.
Coacervates c.
Genes d.
Cells
39.
Which of the following scientists is associated with the naturalistic theory of origin of life a.
Pasture b.
Oparin c.
Miller d.
Darwin
40.
Respiration in the first organism was a.
Aerobic
4

b.
Anaerobic c.
Both aerobic and anaerobic d.
Neither anaerobic and aerobic
41.
The earliest fossils known are a.
Cyanobacteria b.
Protists c.
Viruses d.
Fungi
42.
The first genome is thought to consists of a.
DNA b.
RNA c.
Both DNA and RNA d.
Proteins
43.
Which one was absent in the primitive atmosphere at the time of origin of earth a.
Ammonia b.
Hydrogen c.
Oxygen d.
Methane
44.
The most primitive cell like chemical aggregates capable of growth and division were a.
Chemoautotrophs b.
Eobionts c.
Prokaryotes d.
Coacervates
45.
Which is the age of prokaryotic microbes a.
Precambrian b.
Proterozoic c.
Azoic d.
Palaeozoic
46.
Which of the following compounds had very important role in the prebiotic evolution a.
SO2 b.
NO c.
CH4 d.
SO3
47.
The surprise products in the Miller’s experiment were a.
Peptides b.
Nucleosides c.
Nucleotides d.
Aminoacids
48.
Theory of spontaneous generation was given by a.
Louis pastur b.
Spallanzani c.
F.Reddi d.
Van Helmont
49.
Swan – necked flask experiment was done by
5

a.
Aristotle b.
Francisco Redi c.
Louis Pasteur d.
Robert Koch
50.
Miller and Urey ,by creating environment of primitive earth in their apparatus, by producing amino acids from a.
Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen and Water vapour b.
Hydrogen, Ammonia, Methane and Water vapour c.
Ammonia, Hydrogen, Oxygen and Water vapour d.
Oxygen, Carbon dioxide, Methane and Water vapour
6

1.
Which of the following is not a vestigial organ a.
Rabbit’s nictitating membrane b.
Human nictitating membrane c.
Python’s pelvic girdle d.
Scale leaves of Ruscus
2.
Which of the following is an extinct animal a.
Protopterus b.
Equus c.
Archaeopteryx d.
Columba
3.
Mesozoic era is called the age of a.
Fishes b.
Amphibians c.
Reptile d.
Birds
4.
Galapagos islands are located in a.
Indian ocean b.
Pacific ocean c.
Atlantic ocean d.
Arabian ocean
5.
The type of growth living organisms undergo is a.
Reversible b.
Apical c.
Accretion d.
Intussusception
6.
Ornithorhynchus is a connecting link between a.
Birds and Reptiles b.
Reptiles and Amphibians c.
Reptiles and Mammals d.
Fishes and Amphibians
7.
Some persons can move their pinnae. It is a case of a.
Recapitulation b.
Atavism c.
Over specialization d.
Regeneration
8.
Correct order of evolutionary sequence is a.
Palaeozoic – Archaeozoic – Coenozoic b.
Archaeozoic – Palaeozoic – Proterozoic c.
Palaeozoic – Mesozoic – Coenozoic d.
Mesozoic – Archaeozoic – Proterozoic
7

9.
The primates nearest to humans in the evolutionary line is a.
New world monkeys b.
Gorillas c.
Lemurs d.
Echidna
10.
Which of the following animal has become extinct recently a.
Draco b.
Dinosaur c.
Mammoth d.
Pteriodosperms
11.
Evolutionary convergence is the development of a.
Common set of characters in groups of different ancestory b.
Dissimilar characters in closely related groups c.
Common set of characters in closely related groups d.
Development of characters by random mating
12.
Most primitive fossil is a.
Equus b.
Meryhippus c.
Mesohippus d.
Eohippus
13.
Which of the following represent homologous organs a.
Arm of man and Wing of bat b.
Wing of bird and Wing of moth c.
Gills of fish and Gills of prawn d.
None of these
14.
Two geographical regions separated by high mountains are a.
Oriental and Ausralian regions b.
Palaearctic and Oriental regions c.
Nearctic and Palaearctic regions d.
Neotropical and Ethiopian regions
15.
Presence of Visceral pouches in the embryos of all vertebrates supports the theory of a.
Organic evolution b.
Biogenesis c.
Metamorphosis d.
Recapitulation
16.
In human beings, vestigial organs are a.
Wisdom teeth, Coccyx, Vermiform appendix, Nail, Eyelid b.
Wisdom teeth, Coccyx, Vermiform appendix, Pancreas, Elbow joint c.
Wisdom teeth, Coccyx, Vermiform appendix, Nictitating membrane, Auricular muscles d.
Coccyx, Wisdom teeth, Nail, Auricular muscles
17.
Mammals originated about a.
450 million years ago b.
250 million years ago
8

c.
50 million years ago d.
7.5 million years ago
18.
An organism which is the connecting link between animals and plants is a.
Bacteria b.
Cyanobacteria c.
Euglena d.
Amoeba
19.
Which of the following are homologous a.
Sweet potato and Ginger b.
Passiflora tendril and Bougainvillea thorn c.
Insect wing and Bird wing d.
Tortoise shell and Mollusc shell
20.
Which one of the flowing includes all homologous organs a.
Wing of butterfly, Wing of bird, Wing of bat b.
Forelimb of frog, Wing of bird, Forelimb of rabbit c.
Thoracic leg of cockroach, Hind leg of frog, Forelimb of rabbit d.
Wing of bird, Wing of bat, Wing of flying lizard
21.
The diversity in the type of beak of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the
Galapagos islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for a.
Origin of species by natural selection b.
Intra-specific variation c.
Intra-specific competition d.
Inter-specific competition
22.
Wing of Pigeon, bat and mosquito exhibit the phenomenon called a.
Convergent evolution b.
Divergent evolution c.
Atavism d.
Parallel evolution
23.
Adaptive similarities in different animals living in the same habitat is called a.
Retrogressive evolution b.
Parallel evolution c.
Adaptive radiation d.
Convergent evolution
24.
Development of Petagia in animals is …………….. adaptation a.
Volant b.
Arboreal c.
Aquatic d.
Cave
25.
Darwin finches show one of the following aspects of evolution a.
Bio-geographic evidence b.
Industrial melanism c.
Biochemical evidence d.
Embryological evidence e.
9

10
26.
Evolutionary development of a species can be best studied by a.
DNA analysis b.
Finding age by carbon dating c.
Studying fossils of this species d.
All the above
27.
Evolution can be studied now in action in a.
Sphenodon b.
Archaeopteryx c.
Peppered moth d.
Paramecium
28.
Human evolution originated in a.
Africa b.
Jawa c.
France d.
China
29.
Recapitulation concept was proposed by a.
Von Baer b.
Darwin c.
Haeckel d.
Oparin
30.
In plants like Acasia, the leaves are compound but their seedlings possess simple leaves.
This phenomenon can be explained by a.
Adaptive radiation concept by Darwin b.
Theory of Inheritance of Acquired characters by Lamark c.
Recapitulation concept by Von Baer d.
Mutation theory by De Vris
31.
Hybridized sterile plant can be converted into a fertile species by doubling the chromosomes through induced polyploidy. Such plants are a.
Diploids b.
Tetraploids c.
Amphidiploids d.
Amphitetraploids
32.
Feathers of Archaeopteryx lived in the upper Jurassic period was obtained as fossil. This fossil is a.
Mould b.
Cast c.
Coprolite d.
Impression
33.
The Crossopterygian fish “ Latimaria “ is considered as the ancestor of terrestrial tetrapods.
These fishes evolved into Amphibians during the period a.
Devonian b.
Silurian c.
Ordovian d.
Cambrian

11
34.
Lung fishes and Air breathing animals and Corals predominate during the period a.
Mississippian b.
Silurian c.
Devonian d.
Jurassic
35.
Giant Dinosaurs and Reptiles predominate during the Jurassic period. This period also marked the evolution of higher Insects and Angiosperms, Conifers, Cycads etc. Jurassic period comes under the era a.
Cenozoic b.
Palaeozoic c.
Mesozoic d.
Proterozoic
36.
The Homo erectus evolved about 1.7 million years ago used fire and tools and also used animal hides as clothings. The fossils of Homo erectus were named as a.
Neanderthal man b.
Cro-magnon man c.
Jawa man and Peking man d.
Proconsul
37.
The Anthropoids evolved into a.
Apes, Proconsul and Monkeys b.
Apes, Cro-magnon man and Old world monkeys c.
Proconsul, New world monkeys and Peking man d.
New world monkeys, Proconsul and Homo habilis
38.
Which fossil man is named as “ Handy Man “. a.
Ramapithecus b.
Australopithecus c.
Homo erectus d.
Homo habilis
39.
Human beings belongs to the family Hominidae which evolved about 24 million years ago.
The relative family Pongidae includes a.
Chimbanzee b.
Gorilla c.
Orangutan d.
All these
40.
Homosapiens had two sub species namely Homo sapiens neanderthals and Homo sapiens sapiens ( Cro-magnon man ). Homo sapiens evolved directly from a.
Homo erectus b.
Homo habilis c.
Ramapithecus d.
Proconsul
41.
Closest relative of Modern day man is a.
Chimbanzee b.
Orangutan c.
Apes

d.
Gibbon
42.
Name given to fossil man of Shivalic hills is a.
Australopithecus b.
Pithecanthropus c.
Sinanthropus d.
Ramapithecus
43.
Jawa ape man was discovered by a.
Leaky b.
Davison Black c.
Dubois d.
Cuvier
44.
Zoological name of Jawa man fossil is a.
Sinanthropus b.
Australopithecus c.
Pithecanthropus d.
Ramapithecus
45.
The book “ The Descent of Man “ was written by a.
Malthus b.
Darwin c.
Lamark d.
Spencer
46.
Which one of the following features is not in the direction of the evolution of human species a.
Well developed brain b.
Opposable thumb c.
Binocular vision d.
Raised control ridges
47.
Theory of “ Pangenes “ was put forth by a.
De Vris b.
Lamark c.
Weismann d.
Darwin
48.
Rise of flowering plant occurred during the a.
Tertiary period b.
Cretaceous period c.
Devonian period d.
Cambrian period
49.
The most recent era in geological time scale is a.
Mesozoic b.
Caenozoic c.
Paleozoic d.
Proterozoic
50.
One of the following factors will not allow Hardy- Weinberg principle to operate a. Inreeding b. Mutation c. Gene pool d. None of these
12

13
1.
Hydra is a.
Marine, radial, symmetrical and triploblastc b.
Freshwater, biradial, symmetrical and triploblastic c.
Freshwater, radial, symmetrical and diploblasic d.
Marne, radial, symmetrical and triploblastic
2.
From which stage of silk moth, the silk is obtained a.
Adult moth b.
Egg c.
Silkworm larva d.
Cocoon
3.
Typhlosol in earthworm helps in a.
Secretion of enzymes b.
Digestion c.
Absorption of food d.
Excretion
4.
Indicate the correct statement pertaining to Ascaris a.
Snail act as the second host of Ascaris b.
The eggs of Ascaris containing second stage juvenile larva when swallowed by man become infective c.
A larval stage of Ascaris is swallowed by cattle which inturn infects human beings d.
Once inside the intestine, the Ascaris larva develops directly into adult without entering other organs of the host
5.
Choanocytes or Collar cells in Sponges are concerned with a.
Excretion b.
Gamete formation c.
Intracellular digestion d.
Protection
6.
The hypothetical sponge called “ Olynthus has the larval form Parenchymula but its relative forms like Leucosolenia, Ascon and Sycon sponges have the typical larval form called a.
Amphiblastula b.
Planula c.
Trochophore d.
Veliger
7.
In Hexactinella like Eupectella and Hyalonema ( Glass- rope sponge ) the spicules are
Silicious. Name the sponge without spicule but contain only spongin a.
Cliona ( Boring sponge ) b.
Spongilla ( Fresh water sponge ) c.
Euspongia ( Bath sponge )

14 d.
None of these
8.
Gemmules found in Spongilla ( Fresh water ) and Asperella ( Marine ) sponges are composed of a.
Choanocytes b.
Pinacocytes c.
Amoebocytes d.
Collar cells
9.
One of the following larval form is formed from Coenoblastula and Stereogastrula and has the phylogenic significance as it is the ancestor of Bilateria. Name the larval form a.
Amphiblastula b.
Parencymula c.
Veliger d.
Planula
10.
In Hydra the nematocysts are a.
Penetrant and Glutinent b.
Penetrant and Volvant c.
Volvant ant Glutinent d.
Penetrant only
11.
Physalia is called as “ Portuguse man of war “ since its appearance is similar to that of the ancient ship. Which part of the body gives the appearance a.
Polyp b.
Pnematophore c.
Gasrozooids d.
Dactylozooids
12.
In which of the Coelenterate, the Planula larva transforms into Ephyra during development a.
Hydra b.
Aurelia c.
Physalia d.
Sea anemone
13.
The marine coelenterate Alcyonium is commonly called as “ Deadman’s Finger “. It belongs to the class a.
Hydrozoa b.
Anthozoa c.
Scyphozoa d.
Ctenophora
14.
Choose the incorrect one
Fungia
Meandrina
Mushroom coral
Brain coral
Madrepora
Gorgonia
Stag-horn coral
Red coral
15.
In coral formation, the single polyp in the colony is called Corallite and the colony is called
Corallum. The Corullum is formed of a.
Silica b.
Calcium carbonate

15 c.
Calcium oxalate d.
Silica and Calcium carbonate
16.
Some of the common names of marine coelenterates are given below. Pick out the wrong one a. Sea feather b. Sea pen c. Sea fan
Pennatula
Virgularia
Gorgonia d. Sea flower Fungia
17.
Which place is formed as Coral Island a.
Lakshadeep b.
Rameswaram c.
Fiji d.
All these
18.
Adamsia, the common sea anemone exhibits Proto co-operation with a crustacian. Name it a.
Lobuster b.
Eupagurus c.
Scacculina d.
Cyclops
19.
The Ctenophores are commonly called as “ Sea walnuts or Comb jelly “. They possess 8 ciliary bands and Apical sense organs in the body. The peculiar larva of Ctenophores like
Pleurobranchia and Ctenoplana is a.
Rhabditis b.
Cydippid c.
Onchophore d.
Lovens
20.
Name the larval form of Polyclads ( Marine turbellaria – Platyhelminth ) a.
Lovens larva b.
Planula larva c.
Cercaria d.
Muller’s larva
21.
Liver fluke is a parasitic Trematode found in the bile duct of sheep. It is a hermaphrodite with cross fertilization and the “ Laurer’s “ canal receives the sperm. The “ Mehlis glands present in the reproductive system is concerned with a.
Shell secretion b.
Activation of sperm through secretion c.
Attracts sperms through secretion d.
Makes sperms as a clump
22.
The body cavity of platyhelminthes is acoelom and is filled with a.
Coelomic fluid b.
Colourless blood c.
Parenchyma cells d.
Tissue fluid
23.
Fasciola hepatica, the liver fluke is a digenetic parasite and its intermediate host is the pond snail Limnea. The larval stages of Fasciola occurs in the order

16 a.
Miracidium – Redia – Cercaria – Metacercaria b.
Redia – Cercaria – Metacercaria – Miracidium c.
Miracidium – Cercaria – Redia – Metacercaria d.
Metacercaria – Miracidium – Redia – Cercaria
24.
Blood fluke, Schistosoma lives in a.
Portal, Pelvic and Visceral veins of man b.
Lymph glands c.
Sinisoids of liver d.
Spleen
25.
Taenia solium is the common Pig tape worm and its body has many Proglottids. The anterior segments contain male reproductive organs and middle segments contain fully developed reproductive organs. The hind segments called Gravid segments contain a.
Fertilized eggs b.
Unfertilized eggs c.
Gametes d.
Hexacanth embryo
26.
Hexacanth embryo or Onchosphere with 6 hooks is the infective stage of Tape worm.
Which of the following statement is correct a.
Hexacanth embryo enters the body of man through the skin b.
Hexacanth embryo enters the pig and becomes Cysticercus or Bladder worm c.
Hexacanth embryo has no covering and dies if it remains in the soil d.
Hexacanth embryo remains in the body of man for long periods
27.
Which is the larval form of Ascaris a.
Rhabditis b.
Rhabditiform c.
Hydatid d.
Miracidium
28.
In the life history of Ascaris, the larva shows migration through various organs and the last larval moulting takes place in the heart. Pickout the correct sequence of “Extra intestinal migration “. a.
Intestine – Liver – Heart – Lungs – Intestine b.
Stomach – Oesophagus – lungs – intestine c.
Intestine – Liver – Lungs – Heart – Intestine d.
Intestine – Duodenum – Stomach – Heart
29.
The common Hook worm Ancylostoma duodenale lives in the Jejunum of man. Its infection occurs through the skin of foot and enters the Lymph vessels and shows extra intestinal migration. Which larval form is found in Hook worm a.
Rhabditis and Filariform larva b.
Rhabditis and Onchophore larva c.
Rhabditis only d.
Onchophore only
30.
Filarial infection leads to Elephantiasis and the preliminary symptom is periodic fever. It is due to a.
Toxin form the parasite

17 b.
Blocking of lymph c.
Secondary infection by Steptococcus or Staphylococcus d.
Production of excess WBC
31.
Heteronereis is the sexual form which has two regions namely Epitoke and Atoke in the body. It lays eggs after “ Swarming “ and the eggs develop into a.
Veliger b.
Trochophore c.
Hydatid d.
Glochidium
32.
Which animal is commonly called as “ Sea Mouse “ a.
Tomopteris b.
Chaetopteris c.
Aphrodite d.
Polynoe
33.
Green glands are the excretory organs of Prawn which are located a.
at the base of Antennules b.
at the base of antennae c.
near the stomach d.
at the base of thelycum
34.
Hepatopencreas is the digestive gland of prawn and is analogous to human a.
Pancres b.
Liver c.
Gastric gland d.
Intestinal glands
35.
Biramous appendage is the typical appendage of prawn. How many appendages are present in prawn a.
12 pairs b.
6 pairs c.
19 pairs d.
14 pairs
36.
Petasma is the modified first abdominal appendage of Prawn used to transfer the sperms in the female receptacle called Thelycum located below the a.
first abdominal segment b.
last abdominal segment c.
last thoracic segment d.
first thoracic segment
37.
Which of the following animal is used in ayurvedic treatment a.
Hirudinaria granulose b.
Hirudo medicinalis c.
Haemodipsa d.
Cattle leech
38.
Botryoidal tissue is present in the body cavity of Hirudinaria and this animal has …… number of body segments a.
20

18 b.
23 c.
26 d.
33
39.
Polygordius is a fresh water Archiannelid without parapodia and with syncytial epidermis.
It is a marine burrowing form and its larval form is a.
Mullers larva b.
Veliger larva c.
Lovens larva d.
Glochidium larva
40.
Pick out the incorrect pair a. Daphnia b. Streptocephalus c. Lepas
Water flea
Fairy shrimp
Goose barnacle d. Cyclops Rock barnacle
41.
Sacculina is a parasitic crustacean exhibiting Parasitic castration in which it changes the sex of male crab ( host ) into female. Sacculina is the example for the extreme degeneration of body parts due to parasitic mode of life. The nauplius larva of Sacculina that enters to the blood of crab and becomes a.
Cypris and Kentrogen b.
Metanauplius and Zoea c.
Zoea and Cypris d.
Kentrogen and Zoea
42.
The typical larva of crab is a.
Cypris b.
Zoea c.
Megalopa d.
Meta nauplius
43.
Which is the larval form of Squilla a.
Nauplius b.
Bipinnaria c.
Alima d.
Echinopluteus
44.
Peripatus belongs to the class Onychophora and is evolutionary significant. Which of the following makes it for a good tool for the study of evolution a.
Discontinuous distribution and found only in Himalayan valley, Burma and Srilanka b.
Connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda c.
Living fossil retaining the primitive characters d.
All these
45.
The Centipede Scolopendra is a highly carnivorous nocturnal animal and it kills the animals by injecting toxins called a.
Formic acid b.
Hirudin c.
Hylaronidase d.
Venom

19
46.
Cochroach and Prawn have Compound eyes with Ommatidia. The image formed in the compound eyes during day light is a.
Mosaic image b.
Apposition image c.
Mosaic and Apposition images d.
Clear image
47.
Dragon fly is a carnivorous insect and its aquatic nymph is called a.
Maggot b.
Caterpillar c.
Wriggler d.
Niad
48.
Cicada produces sound using a.
Wings b.
Legs c.
Antennae d.
Opercula
49.
Tachardia lacca is the Lac insect giving Shell-lac. Another economically important insect
Cochineal insect produces a.
Silk b.
Dye c.
Honey d.
Pheromone
50.
Bombyx mori is the Mulberry silkworm producing high quality Silk. The silk is formed of proteins Fibroin and Sericin. Which of the following is a Non- Mulberry silk worm a.
Eri b.
Tasar c.
Muga d.
All these
51.
Honey bee queen is the only fertile female in the bee hive and it produces a pheromone called “ Queen’s substance” to attract other bees to maintain the hive. Honey is formed by mixing nectar and saliva in the crop of worker bees. Which of the following variety is used as domestic Honey bee a.
Apis dorsata b.
Apis florae c.
Apis indica d.
Apis mellifera
52.
In Mosquitoes only the anterior pair of wings is functional and the posterior pair is rudimentary. It is called a.
Vestigeal wings b.
Pseudo wings c.
Halters d.
None of these

20
53.
Pick out the incorrect statement a.
Mouth parts of Honey bee is Siphoning type b.
Mouthparts of Mosquito is Piercing and Sucking c.
Mouth parts of House fly is Sponging type d.
Mouth parts of Flea is Piercing and Siphoning type
54.
Which of the following Arthropod has 4 pairs of legs a.
Butterfly b.
Stick insect c.
Peripatus d.
Spider
55.
Xenopsilla is the Rat flea spreading the germ Pasteurella pestis causing Bubonic plague . A similar flea is found biting man also. It is a.
Tick b.
Mite c.
Pulex d.
Cimex
56.
Limulus the “ King crab “ has evolutionary significance as it a Living Fossil and shows discontinuous distribution. It is a Viviparous Arachnid giving birth to a larva called a.
Zoea b.
Nauplius c.
Trilobite d.
Ammocoetus
57.
Itch Mite causes “ Scabies “ in man and Ticks lives in man as a.
Endoparasite b.
Ectoparasite c.
Symbiont d.
Commensal
58.
Which Molluscs is considered as Living fossils a.
Pila and Unio b.
Teredo and Solen c.
Monoplacophora and Neoplina d.
Neoplina and Chiton
59.
The Rotifers commonly called as “ Wheel Amnimalcules “ belongs to the phylum a.
Annelida b.
Arthropoda c.
Aschelminthes d.
Mollusca
60.
One of the following animal belongs to the class Amphineura of Phylum Mollusca and has the important characters like 8 plates in the shell, dorso ventrally compressed body and flat sole like foot. a.
Dentalium b.
Chiton c.
Pila d.
Fresh water mussel

21
61.
Which animal is popularly called as “ Elephants tusk shell “ a.
Chiton b.
Solon c.
Dentalium d.
Nautilus
62.
“Adductor muscles” in Mussels are used to close the bivalved shell and “Osphradium” is used as sense organ to detect the purity of water. Which of the following organ is excretory in Bivalves. a.
Malpighian tubules b.
Organ of Bojanus and Keber’s organ ( Pericardial gland ) c.
Nephridia d.
Solenocytes
63.
In Bivalves like Pearl Oysters ( Pinctada vulgaris ) the pearl is secreted from ……. Layer of shell a.
Periostracum b.
Prismatic c.
Nacreous d.
Mantle
64.
Mytilus is the marine Mussel and Lamellidens is its freshwater relative. Which larval form of Bivalves leads a parasitic mode of life beneath the scales of fishes. a.
Veliger b.
Trochophore c.
Glochidium d.
Planula
65.
“Torsion” is the asymmetric arrangement of internal organs in Gastropod Molluscs.
Gastopods usually respire using Ctenidia( gills ) and Pulmonary sacs ( lungs ). Due to the presence of areal and aquatic respirations, some Molluscs are Amphibious. Which one is it. a.
Fresh water mussel b.
Pila globosa c.
Pinctada vulgaris d.
Haliotis
66.
The common names of some important Molluscs are listed below. Select the incorrect pair a. Limpet Patella b. Sea hare Aplysia c. Ear shell Haliotis d. Pond snail Pila globosa
67.
Cephalopods are Molluscs with head modified for locomotion. One of the following
Cephalopod found in Indian and Pacific ocean has many chambered shell and is a Living
Fossil. Select it. a.
Octopus b.
Nautilus c.
Loligo d.
Sepia

22
68.
Echinoderms are Radially symmetrical animals with Bilaterally symmetrical larvae. They use Pedicellaria to clean the body surface and Tube feet for locomotion, respiration and feeding. They have Mandriporite on the dorsal side of the body for the entry of water in the
Water vascular system. Which are the larval forms of echinoderms like Sea urchin and
Brittle star respectively. a.
Echinopluteus and Ophiopluteus b.
Echinopluteus and Bipinnaria c.
Ophiopluteus and Tornaria d.
Bipinnaria and Tornaria
69.
“Aristotle’s Lantern” is found in Sea Urchins and are used as a.
Excretory organ b.
Masticatory organ c.
Reproductive organ d.
Locomotory organ
70.
Brittle stars show extreme power of Regeneration and Sea cucumber shows “Eviceration”.
What is the mechanism behind Evisceration a.
Regeneration b.
Removal of internal organs c.
Removal of external organs d.
Autotomy of body parts

23
1.
Which animal is commonly called as Tongue worm a.
Ascidia b.
Myxine c.
Balanoglossus d.
Petromyzon
2.
The following are some important characters of an animal. Pick out its name from the choices
1. Small fish like body 2. Persistent notochord 3. Presence of Solenocytes
4. Numerous pharyngeal gill slits. 5. Dorsal, ventral and caudal fins continuous
6. Presence of Endostyle a.Ascidia
7. Presence of Myotomes. 8. Ciliary feeder
b. Balanoglossus c. Petromyzon d.Amphioxus
3.
Ascidia is a sessile Urochordate with a Test made up of Tunicin ( Poly saccharide ). Its larva shows full complement of chordate characters but notochord is present only in the tail. Name the larval form a.
Ammocoetus b.
Lancelet c.
Appendicularia d.
Tadpole
4.
The important characters of Cyclostomata are
1. Eel like body 2. Cranium and vertebral column cartilaginous 3.Adhesive tentacles around the mouth. 4. Larval form is Ammocoetus.
Which of the following animals belonging to the group Cyclostomata a.
Lamprey and Hagfish b.
Branchistoma and Herdmania c.
Salpa and Doliolum d.
Balanoglossus and Congo eel
5.
Ampullae of Lorenzini is present in Fishes. It is a a.
Reproductive duct b.
Sense organ c.
Digestive gland d.
Excretory organ
6.
Which of the following is the important character of Cartilage fishes a.
Subterminal and ventral mouth b.
Hetreocercal tail c.
Naked gill slits d.
All these
7.
Which of the following Scale of fishes resembles the Mammalian tooth in structure a.
Cycloid scale

24 b.
Ctenoid scale c.
Placoid scale d.
Gnanoid scale
8.
Shagreen is prepared from which part of Shark a.
Muscle b.
Liver c.
Skin d.
Skeleton
9.
In Ascidia, blood contains a.
Haemoglobin in RBC b.
Haemoglobin in Plasma c.
Haemocyanin in Haemolymph d.
Vanadium in Vanadocytes
10.
Which of the following is a free swimming Urochordate a.
Salpsa b.
Doliolum c.
Botryllus d.
All these
11.
Which of the Urochordate is Phosphorescent a.
Salpa b.
Pyrosoma c.
Doliolum d.
Ascidia
12.
Hatschek groove is a ciliated groove present on the roof of Vestibule of Amphioxus is a.
Sensory b.
Excretory c.
Feeding organ d.
Circulate water
13.
Endostyle present in Amphioxus is considered as the ancestor of mammalian a.
Pituitory b.
Thyroid c.
Thymus d.
Pineal
14.
Brown funnels and Solenocytes are the excretory structures of Amphioxus. Kollikers pit is concerned with a.
Touch receptor b.
Smell receptor c.
Photosensitive d.
Acoustic
15.
In Amphioxus, cleavage is a.
Holoblasic b.
Meroblastic c.
Incomplete d.
Oblique

25
16.
Name the epithelial derivative a.
Nail b.
Enamel c.
Salivary gland d.
All these
17.
Musculo tendinous junction of vertebrates is formed of a.
Yellow fibrous b.
Cartilage c.
White collagen d.
Elastic
18.
Patella present in the leg of mammals is a.
Sesmoid bone in tendon b.
Cartilage modification c.
Bone modification d.
Synuvial space
19.
Which of the following movement is concerned with down ward movement of palm by rotation a.
Adduction b.
Abduction c.
Pronation d.
None of these
20.
Cardiac muscle has both the characters of Striated and non striated muscle. Which of the following character makes the cardiac muscle different from striated and non striated muscles a.
Thin Sarcolemma b.
Centrally placed Nucleus c.
Presence of Intercalated discs d.
All these
21.
Blood vessels have three layers. Innermost layer is the smooth Endothelium, Middle Tunica media composed of Elastin, Collegen and Muscles, while the outermost layer Tunica externa is made of a.
Collagen and Elastin b.
Mainly collagen c.
Mainly muscles and Elastin d.
Only Elastin
22.
Air breathing fishes have lungs or accessory respiratory organs in the body. Protopterus is a typical lung fish and which is the lung fish without internal nostrils a.
Periophthalmus b.
Polypterus c.
Clarius d.
Both a and b
23.
Meckels cartilage is found in a.
Cranium b.
Upper jaw

26 c.
Lower jaw d.
Hind leg
24.
Jaw suspensorium of vertebrate includes Autostylic, Hyostylic Amphistylic etc. Which of the following suspensorium has articulation with the skull a.
Autosylic b.
Hyosylic c.
Amphistylic d.
All these
25.
Sella turcica is the depression in which the Pituitory gland is located. Which bone in the skull has this depression a.
Sphenethmoid b.
Squamosal c.
Palatine d.
Basiphenoid
26.
Which is the name of the fifth digit of mammals a.
Pollex b.
Hallux c.
Minimus d.
Great toe
27.
Spleen is a lymphoidal organ without a duct and it has the endothelial network for the filtering of germs and dead RBC. To which part of the alimentary canal it is directly attached to the general circulation a.
Duodenum b.
Colon c.
Ileum d.
Oesophagus
28.
Swim bladder is present in bony fishes like Lepidosteus and Polypterus and is homologous to the lungs. What is its function a.
Hydrostatic b.
Pressure register c.
Acoustic and Resonation d.
All these
29.
“ Red Bodies “ of Eel is analogous to a.
Mammalian thyroid b.
Avian air sac c.
Reptilian eye d.
Swim bladder of bony fishes
30.
Ductus Cuvieri is the scientific name of a.
Hepatic portal vein b.
Renal portal vein c.
Precaval vein d.
Postcaval vein
31.
Crocodiles and Alligators are the reptiles with completely divided heart. Which of the following fish has completely divided heart

27 a.
Dipnoi b.
Elasmobranchi c.
Coelocanth d.
Shark
32.
Which of the following receptor is concerned with the signelling of internal body movements a.
Exteroceptive b.
Interoceptive c.
Visceroceptors d.
Proprioceptors
33.
Schneiderian membrane is present in a.
Organ of Corti b.
Olfactory sac c.
Cochlea d.
Taste buds
34.
Most of the nocturnal mammals have night vision due to the excess number of Rods in the retina. Some have light reflective structure called Tapetum lucidum in the retina to give clear vision. Tapeutum lucidum contains a.
Rods with light reflective cells b.
Light reflective membrane c.
Guanine crystals d.
Cones with light reflective cells
35.
The Cochlea is the only hearing part of mammalian eye. It is the modified part of the membreneous labyrinth of lower vertebrates. Which part is modified into cochlea a.
Utriculus b.
Sacculus c.
Semicircular canal d.
Lagena
36.
Sacculus vasculosus is an outgrowth of the infundibulam of the brain of fishes. Its function is a.
Hormone secretion b.
Pressure detection c.
Thermoregulation d.
Light detection
37.
Columella Auris is a small bone present in the Tympanic cavity of Amphibians, Reptiles and Birds. Which Ear Osscicle of Mammalian ear corresponds to the columella a.
Malleus b.
Incus c.
Stapes d.
Fenestra ovalis
38.
Placoderms are primitive animals with Heavy body armor and appeared during Silurian period and flourished in Devonian and Carboniferous periods. It is a a.
Fish b.
Reptile

28 c.
Bird d.
First jawed vertebrate
39.
Chimaera is called as “King of Herrings “ or “ Rat Fish “ and it is the relative of a.
Clarius and Ophiocephalus b.
Exocoetus and Sipsilurus c.
Shark and Ray d.
Labeo and Cutla
40.
“ Great White shark” is the “ Man eating Shark “ and a similar dangerous fish attacking man is a.
Piranha b.
Narcine c.
Devil ray ( Diamond fish ) d.
Octopus
41.
Select the pair that is mis matched a.
Stickle back b.
Mud skipper c.
Porupine fish
Gasrosteus
Periophthalmus
Diodon d.
Globe fish Fistularia
42.
“ Rete mirabile “ is the plexus of blood vessels and form a gland like organ in some fishes.
Its function is a.
Secretion of enzymes b.
Secretion of hormones c.
Respiration d.
Excretion
43.
Leptocephalus or “ Glass fish “ is transparent due to the absence of Haemoglobin in the blood. It is the larva of a.
Clarius b.
Hippocampus c.
Anguilla d.
Shark
44.
Aglomerular kidney is found in a.
Eel b.
Narcine c.
Mullet d.
Toad fish
45.
Lung fishes are living Dipnoi arose as offshoot from Crosopterigyan stem and have lungs in addition to gills. Which of the following lung fish has only one lung a.
Neoceratodus b.
Protopterus c.
Lepidosiren d.
All these
46.
Which of the fish has Vestigeal pelvic girdle a.
Hippocampus b.
Anabas

29 c.
Gold fish d.
Polypterus
47.
Which of the following frog is nick named as “ Obstetric toad “ and is carrying the eggs in the hind legs a.
Bufo b.
Hyla c.
Alytes d.
Rhacophorus
48.
Toxins present in the parotid glands of Toad is a.
Bufotalin b.
Bufogin c.
Venom d.
Both a and b
49.
Which of the following Amphibian emit light when the animal leaps a.
Hyla b.
Newt c.
Amblystoma d.
Phyllosoma
50.
Which of the following has Amphicoelous vertebrae as Fishes a.
Frog b.
Salamander c.
Toad d.
Newt
51.
Which of the following animal is called as “ Fire Toad “ a.
Amblystoma b.
Bombinator c.
Gegenophis d.
Ureotyphlus
52.
Animals with out tongue are a.
Newts and Salamaners b.
Frogs and Toads c.
Gegenophis and Ichthyophis d.
Xenopus and Pipa
53.
Which of the following animal is used as “ Pregnancy indicator “ a.
Salamaner b.
Xenopus c.
Pipa d.
Hyla
54.
Ductus Botalli is a small blood vessels found in Urodeles between a.
Pulmonary and Systemic arches b.
Systemic and Carotid c.
Pulmonary and Carotid d.
Systemic and Subclavian
55.
“ Biders organ “ present in Bufo melanosticus is

30 a.
Respiratory b.
Excretory c.
Endocrine d.
Reproductive
56.
Which of the following group is considered to be arose from fish ancestory during
Devonian period and became Amphibians a.
Labyrinthodontia b.
Seymouria c.
Salentia d.
Ichthiosauria
57.
Which of the following group is called as “ Stem reptiles “ which disappeared in late
Triassic a.
Cotylosaurus b.
Rhyncocephalia c.
Squamata d.
Chelonia
58.
Which of the following was the cause for the extinction of Giant Dinosaurs a.
Wide spread elevation of earth’s surface together with changes in temperature and vegetation b.
Increased Aridity c.
Absence of defending mechanism to protect eggs from predaceous mammals d.
All these
59.
Following are the characters of a primitive reptile. Identify it
1.
Belongs to Rhyncocephalia
2.
Only living representative of Lepidosaurian reptiles
3.
Possess Amphicoelous vertebra and Acrodont teeth
4.
Living fossil a.
Tortoise b.
Turtle c.
Dinosaur d.
Sphenodon
60.
Which pair is mismatched a. Sqamata Lizards and Snakes b. Chelonia Turtles and Tortoises c. Crocodelia Alligator d. Ichthyosauria Sphenodon
61.
“ Chevron bone “ is a bone present in reptiles. Locate its position a.
Caudal vertebra b.
Pectoral girdle c.
Pelvic girdle d.
Thoracic vertebra
62.
“ Autotomy “ or Self Mutilation is a defensive mechanism found in reptiles. It is due to a.
Stimulation of sympathetic system b.
Controlled by segmentally arranged caudal muscles

31 c.
Breaking of caudal vertebrae d.
Action of Lysosomes
63.
Heloderma is the only poisonous lizard and the poison is secreted from a.
Skin b.
Nose c.
Salivary glands ( infra labial ) d.
Infra orbital glands
64.
Sinus venosus is the accessory chamber present in the heart of Amphibians. It is absent in
Reptiles , Birds and Mammals. But one reptile retains the Sinus venosus. Name it a.
Turtle b.
Sphenodon c.
Crocodile d.
Varanus
65.
How many cranial nerves are found in Reptiles a.
10 pairs b.
12 pairs c.
14 pairs d.
6 pairs
66.
Which of the following Reptilian skull has single vacuity on each sides a.
Diapsid b.
Synapsid c.
Both a and b d.
None of these
67.
Giant Tortoises ( Testudo ) are found in a.
Madagascar b.
North America c.
Galapagos d.
Newzealand
68.
Which of the following group was fully marine fish like reptiles appeared in Triassic , flourished in Jurassic and disappeared in Cretaceous. a.
Mesosauria b.
Synaptosauria c.
Cotylosauria d.
Ichthyosauria
69.
Which animal is called as “ Slow Worm “ a.
Anguis b.
Anguilla c.
Antedon d.
Amphiuma
70.
Select the Reptile belonging to the order Squamata a.
Gila monster b.
Komodo dragon c.
Heloderma d.
All these

32
1.
The major morphological difference in which male cockroach differs from female one is a.
Male has a pair of segmented anal cerci ( 10 th segment ) and a pair of un segmented anal styles in the 9 th segment and female has a pair of many segmented anal cerci only b.
Male has only anal styles c.
Male has un segmented anal cerci and segmented anal styles d.
Male has segmented anal cerci and segmented anal styles in the 10 th segment
2.
In Cockroach a few anterior segments are fused to form the head. This is called a.
Metamerism b.
Segmentation c.
True metamerism d.
Heteronomous metamerism
3.
Top of the head between the compound eyes of Cockroach is called a.
Vertex b.
Elytra c.
Halter d.
Scape
4.
In some Insects, the head is connected to thorax at Ninety degree angle and this arrangement is called as Hypognathous. Which of the following insect shows this a.
Mosquito b.
Butterfly c.
Cockroach d.
Leaf insect
5.
Three segments are present in the Thorax of Cockroach. They are arranged in the order a.
Metathorax-Mesothorax- Prothorax b.
Prothorax- Mesothorax- Metathorax c.
Metathorax- Prothorax- Mesothorax d.
Prothorax- Metathorax- Mesothorax
6.
There are 5 segments in the leg of Cockroach. These are arranged in the order from the base a.
Coxa-Trochanter-Femur-Tibia-Tarsus b.
Trochanter-Coxa-Femur-Tibia-Tarsus c.
Tarsus-Tibia-Femur-Trochanter-Coxa d.
Coxa-Femur-Trochanter-Tibia-Tarsus
7.
Which is the strongest segment in the leg of Cockroach is Femur while the longest one is a.
Trochanter b.
Coxa c.
Tibia d.
Pulvilus
8.
A Cockroach cannot move on smooth surfaces when its ……… is removed

33 a.
Pulvillus b.
Plantulae c.
Elytra d.
Both a and b
9.
Elytra are the thick, leathery second pair of wings of Cockroach which are not useful in flight but are protecting the membrane wings. To which place the Elytra are attached a.
Mesothorax b.
Metathorax c.
Prothorax d.
Abdomen
10.
Which of the mouth parts of Cockroach is Biramous a.
Labrum b.
Labium c.
Mandible d.
Maxillae
11.
Galae and Lacinia are the parts of a.
Maxilla b.
Mandibles c.
Labrum d.
Labium
12.
Mandibles are the “ Jaws “ of Cockroach and which part act as “ Accessory jaws “. a.
Hypopharynx b.
Labrum c.
Labium d.
Maxillae
13.
Amarium and Stomodaeal valves are present in the ………. of Cockroach a.
Colon b.
Gizzard c.
Crop d.
Midgut
14.
In Cockroach, digestion and absorption takes place in a.
Crop b.
Gizzard c.
Mesenteron d.
Hepatic caeca
15.
Hepatic caeca are the tubular structures found at the anterior end of mesenteron of
Cockroach. They secrete digestive enzymes and analogous to mammalian liver. How many hepatic caeca are found in Cockroach a.
4-5 b.
4-6 c.
6-8 d.
8-10

34
16.
The Haemolymph of adult female Cockroach is slightly Orange in colour due to the presence of Vitellogenin protein synthesized by the Fat bodies for the egg. Vitellogenin contains a.
Haemoglobin b.
Carotinoid c.
Haemocyanin d.
Haemerythrin
17.
Which on is the characterestic “ Sugar “ of insect blood a.
Glucose b.
Fructose c.
Mannose d.
Trehalose
18.
“ Alary muscles “ attached to the Pericardial sinus of Cockroach are responsible for the blood circulation in Cockroach. Total number of Alary muscles is a.
10 pairs b.
12 pairs c.
6 pairs d.
8 pairs
19.
There are 10 pairs of Spiracles in Cockroach. Of these 2 pairs are located in a.
Head b.
Abdomen c.
Thorax d.
Neck
20.
All the Spiracles of Cockroach take part in inspiration and it is called Holopneustic condition. Inspiration is carried out by Non- valvular spiracles a.
First and Third spiracles b.
Second and third spiracles c.
Third and Fourth spiracle d.
First and Last spiracles
21.
Intima is the smooth inner lining and Taenidia are the spiral thickening found in the trachea of Cockroach. These are meant for a.
Inspiration b.
Preventing collapsing of trachea c.
Easy flow of air d.
Giving moisture to trachea
22.
Tracheoles do not have chitinous lining and are lined with a protein called a.
Fibroin b.
Trachein c.
Acin d.
Fibrin
23.
Respiration in Cockroach is effected by a.
Spiracles b.
Trachea c.
Alary muscles

d.
Tergosternal muscles
24.
Fat bodies are called as the Liver of Cockroach and are concerned with the synthesis of a.
Urea b.
Yolk protein Vitellogenin c.
Albumin d.
Haemolymph
25.
Cockroach is a.
Ammonotelic b.
Ureotelic c.
Uricotelic d.
Both ammonotelic and ureotelic
26.
Total number of Ganglia present in the double ventral cord of Cockroach is a.
10 b.
9 c.
12 d.
6
27.
Mushroom gland of male Cockroach is concerned with a.
Storage excretory b.
Active excretory c.
Endocrine d.
Both a and b
28.
Conglobate gland of male cockroach is responsible for a.
Hormone secretion b.
Secreting fluid which covers the spermatozoa c.
Secretion of Ootheca d.
Excretion
29.
Collaterial gland of female Cockroach is responsible for a.
Hormone secretion b.
Secretion of Ootheca c.
Secreting sperm activating fluid d.
None of these
30.
The total number of fertilized eggs present in the Ootheca of cockroach is a.
16 in 2 rows b.
16 in 1 row c.
8 in 2 rows d.
12 in 2 rows
31.
It is proved that a Cockroach can live up to one month without head. It is due to a.
Cockroach respire through spiracles and trachea b.
There is no control of brain in respiration c.
One feeding can provide energy for many days d.
All these
32.
In Earthworm, the Spermathcae are located in the segments a.
6,7,8,9 b.
5,6,7,8
35

36 c.
7,8,9,10 d.
8,9,10,11
33.
In Earthworm, one pair male genital openings are found in the segment 18 th while the female genital opening is located in the segment a.
12 b.
14 c.
16 d.
10
34.
In Earthworm, Testes are present in the 10 th and 11 th segments while the Seminal vesicles are located in the segments a.
11,12 b.
10,11 c.
14,16 d.
6,7
35.
In Earthworm, Oesophagus is located in the 5 th, 6 th and 7 th segments and Gizzard in the 8 th segment. The lateral oesophageal hearts are found in the segments 12 th and 13 th while
Lateral hearts are found in a.
7 th and 9 th segments b.
8 th and 9 th segments c.
10 th and 11 th segments d.
14 th and 15 th segments
36.
in Pheretima posthuma, Pharyngeal nephridia are located in the segments a.
3,4,5 b.
7,8,9 c.
4,5,6 d.
5,6,7
37.
The function of blood glands in Earthworm is a.
Maintenance of blood volume b.
Maintenance of blood circulation c.
Production of blood corpuscles and Hemoglobin d.
Production of Phagocytes
38.
The dorsal side of Pheretima is brown in colour due to the presence of a.
Melanin b.
Porphyrin c.
Blood d.
Deoxygenated blood
39.
Copulation in Earthworm is completed in a.
One hour b.
Two hours c.
Four hours d.
One week
40.
Which of the blood vessel of Earthworm has valves a.
Ventral b.
Lateral

37 c.
Dorsal d.
Integumentary
41.
Chloragogen cells of Earthworm are excretory as well as storage cells and are similar to a.
Spleen b.
Liver c.
Kidney d.
Pancreas
42.
Setae are absent in the first, last segments and in the Clitellar region of Earthworm. Setae are made of a.
Chitin and Scleroprotein b.
Gelatin and Scleroprotein c.
Keratin and Chitin d.
Chitin only
43.
Body cavity of Earthworm is formed by the splitting of embryonic mesoderm. It is called a.
Pseudocoel b.
Schizocoel c.
Metacoel d.
Acoel
44.
Pharyngeal nephridia of Earthworm are called Enteronephric as they open into the alimentary canal. They are located in the segments a.
4 th ,5 th ,6 th b.
5 th ,6 th ,7 th c.
8 th ,9 th ,10 th d.
12 th ,14 th ,15 th
45.
Septal nephridia are enteronephric and are found in a.
12 th segment b.
15 th segment onwards c.
10 th segment onwards d.
8 th segment onwards
46.
Photoreceptors in Earthworm consists of a small lens called Phaosome and neurofibrills.
Photoreceptors are restricted on the dorsal surface and a.
Prostomium and Peristomium b.
Prosomium only c.
Peristomium only d.
Absent in prostomium and Peristomium
47.
Fertilization in earthworm is a.
Cross fertilization b.
Self fertilization c.
Reciprocal cross fertilization d.
All these
48.
Earthworm cannot fertilize its own eggs because a.
Testis mature earlier than Ovary b.
Ovary mature earlier than Testis c.
Testis and Ovary mature simultaneously

d.
Testis degenerate before ovary matures
49.
Which match is correct a. Humerus b. Femur c. Axis d. Floating rib
Acetabulum
Glenoid cavity
Odontoid process
Sternum
50.
Scala media of Cochlea is filled with a.
Perilymph b.
Endolymph c.
Lymph d.
Tissue fluid
51.
Perilymph is derived from a.
Endolymph b.
CSF c.
Lymph d.
Blood
52.
Thoracic duct of lymphatic system arises from a.
Lacteals b.
Lymph nodes c.
Cisterna chili d.
Right lymphatic duct
53.
Epidermis of Rat originates from ectoderm, while dermis develop from a.
Ectoderm b.
Mesoderm c.
Endoderm d.
Both a and c
54.
Eye of Rat has a.
Lacrimal glands b.
Harderian glands c.
Both a and b d.
Sudoriferous glands
55.
The liver of Rat has a.
2 lobes b.
4 lobes c.
3 lobes d.
1 lobe
56.
Which of the following set of animals lack Gall bladder a.
Whale- Rat – Horse b.
Cat- Lion- Tiger c.
Porcupine- Musk deer- Rabbit d.
Rat- Mouse- Pig
57.
Dental formula of Rat is a.
1003 / 1003
38

b.
1203 / 1203 c.
1002 / 1002 d.
1003 / 1002
58.
Which blood vessel is absent in Rat a.
Left aortic arch b.
Right aortic arch c.
Systemic arch d.
Subclavian artery
59.
In new born Rat, Alveoli are totally absent and the adult has a.
3 lobes in the right lung and 1 lobe in the left lung b.
1 lobe in the right lung and 3 lobes in the left lung c.
2 lobes in each lung d.
2 lobes in the right lung and 1 lobe in the left lung
60.
In Rat, Gland of Tyson is present in a.
Female reproductive system b.
Male reproductive system c.
Digestive system d.
Endocrine system
61.
Gestation period of rat is a.
60 days b.
22 to 23 days c.
30 to 33 days d.
12 to 15 days
62.
Total number of Spinal nerves in Rat is a.
12 pairs b.
32 pairs c.
34 pairs d.
10 pairs
63.
Scientific name of Brown Rat is a.
Rattus rattus b.
Ratus norvegicus c.
Rattus domesticus d.
None of these
64.
Meibomian glands are a.
Sweat glands b.
Oil glands c.
Modified oil glands d.
Tear glands
65.
Vibrissae are concerned with a.
Tactile sensation b.
Pressure sensation c.
Temperature sensation d.
Pain sensation
39

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Most of the fat digestion occurs in a.
Stomach b.
Duodenum c.
Oesophagus d.
Small intestine
Inhibition of Gastric and stimulation of Gastric, Pancreatic and Bile secretions are controlled by a.
Gastrin, Secretin, Pancreozymin and CCK b.
Enterogastrone, Gastrin, Pancreozymin and CCK c.
Gastrin, Enterogasrtone, CCK and Pancreozymin d.
Secretin, Enterogastrone, Gastrin and Enterokinin
Enterokinase or Enteropeptidase take part in the conversion of a.
Pepsinogen to Pepsin b.
Trypsinogen to Trypsin c.
Proteins to Polypeptides d.
Caseinogen to Casein
Gall bladder is attached to liver in the region of a.
Quadrate lobe b.
Caudate lobe c.
Right lobe proper d.
Left lobe
Which one is absorbed in the alimentary canal without any breakdown a.
Proteins b.
Polysaccharides c.
Fat soluble vitamins d.
Egg albumin
Destruction of intestinal bacteria by Antibiotics leads to a.
Night blindness b.
Tired feeling c.
Reduced synthesis of B complex and K vitamins d.
Abdominal pain and diarrhoea
When Bile duct gets chocked a.
Faeces become dry b.
Acidic chyme will not be neutralized c.
There will be little digestion in the intestine d.
Little absorption of fat
On removal of Pancreas, the compound which remains undigested is a.
Lactose b.
Carbohydrates c.
Fat d.
Proteins
Contraction of Muscle and Nerve requires a.
Sodium and Potassium b.
Calcium and Potassium c.
Potassium only d.
Calcium only
40

10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Enzyme that does not directly act upon food substances is a.
Trypsin b.
Lipase c.
Enterokinase d.
Amylopsin
Vitamin D is synthesized in skin by the action of Sunlight on a.
Cholesterol b.
7- hydroxy cholesterol c.
Cephalo cholesterol d.
All these
Layer of cells that secrete Enamel of tooth is a.
Osteoblast b.
Ameloblast c.
Odontoblast d.
Dentoblast
In case of taking food rich in Lime juice, the action of Ptyalin on starch is a.
Enhanced b.
Reduced c.
Unaffected d.
Stopped
Part of alimentary canal thrown into transverse folds is a.
Rectum b.
Oesophagus c.
Stomach d.
Intestine
Gaucher’s disease is related to a.
Abnormal fat metabolism b.
Vitamin deficiency c.
Disturbed carbohydrate metabolism d.
Abnormal protein metabolism
Hormonal induction of Succus entericus is due to a.
Secretin b.
Secretin and CCK c.
Insulin d.
Glucagon
Maximum amount of energy is available on complete oxidation of a.
Glucose b.
Fat c.
Protein d.
Organic acids
Fat absorbed from gut is transported in blood as a.
Micelles b.
Liposomes c.
Chyle d.
Chilomicrons
In small intestine, active absorption occurs in case of a.
Glucose b.
Amino acids c.
Sodium ions d.
All these
Proteolytic enzymes do not corrode lining of alimentary canal as a.
They are secreted in inactive form
41

21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
b.
Lining layer of alimentary canal does not contain protein c.
The enzymes are not capable of digesting fat d.
None of these
Which one is associated with Vitamin D a.
Tocopherol b.
Ergosterol c.
Cholesterol d.
Both b and c
Where does Hepatopancreatic duct open a.
Ileum b.
Duodenum c.
Jejunum d.
Junction of Jejunum with Duodenum
Which one is Lophodont a.
Incisors and Canines b.
Canines and Premolars c.
Premolars and Molars d.
Incisors and Premolars
Valves of Kerckring occur in a.
Between right auricle and right ventricle b.
Between left auricle and left ventricle c.
Stomach and Duodenum d.
Intestine
Aurbach’s plexus occurs a.
Amongst Podocytes of Bowman’s capsule b.
Inner to Muscular interna c.
In Muscular Externa and made of nerves d.
Below dermis and made of muscles
Secretion of Gasrtic juice is controlled by a.
Enterogastrone b.
CCK c.
Gasrtrin d.
Villikinin
When all the peptide bonds of proteins have been broken down, the result would be a.
Polypeptides b.
Oligopeptides c.
Peptides d.
Amino acids
HCL of Gastric juice a.
Inactivates Ptyalin and activates Pepsin b.
Activates Ptyalin and inactivates Pepsin c.
Inactivates both Ptyalin and Pepsin d.
Activate both Ptyalin and Pepsin
Chyme of a person who has consumed only starch will show the presence of a.
Maltose and Glucose b.
Dextrin and Maltose c.
Starch, dextrin and Maltose d.
Starch, Dextrin and Glucose
Vitamin Nicotinamide can be synthesized in our body from a.
Tyrosine b.
Tryptophan c.
Valine d.
Phenylalanine
42

31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
Rennin act on Milk protein and changes a.
Caesinogen into Caesin b.
Caesin into Paracaesin c.
Caesinogen into Paracaesin d.
Paracaesin into Caesinogen
Hydrolytic enzymes which act at low pH are a.
Alpha amylases b.
Proteases c.
Hydrolases d.
Peroxidases
During prolonged fasting, the sequences of organic compounds used by the body is a.
Carbohydrates, Fats and Proteins b.
Fats, Carbohydrates and Proteins c.
Carbohydrates, Proteins and Lipids d.
Proteins, Carbohydrates and Lipids
Continued consumption of diet rich in Butter, Red meat and Eggs over long periods may lead to a.
Vitamin A toxicity b.
Kidney stones c.
Hypercholesterolemia d.
Urine laden with Ketone bodies
Which of the following is a non – pathogenic bacteria of Colon a.
Escherichia coli b.
Balantidium coli c.
Entamoeba coli d.
Enterobius vermicularis
A person described to live on Milk, Bread, and Eggs. He would suffer from a.
Night blindness b.
Rickets c.
Scurvy d.
Beri-Beri
Pepsin differs from Trypsin in that it digests a.
Protein in alkaline medium in stomach b.
Protein in acidic medium in duodenum c.
Protein in acidic medium in stomach d.
Protein in alkaline medium in duodenum
Gastric juice contains a.
Pepsin, Lipase and Rennin b.
Trypsin, Lipase and Rennin c.
Trypsin, Pepsin and Lipase d.
Trypsin, Pepsin and Rennin
Zymogen cells of Gastric glands secrete a.
Pepsinogen b.
ChymoTrypsinogen c.
Pepsin Trypsin
HCL is secreted by a.
Zymogen cella b.
Oxyntic cells c.
Kupffer cells d.
Mico villi
How many teeth of Human normally grow twice a.
32 b.
12 c.
20
43

42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
d.
16
Glisson’s capsule is found in a.
Liver of Frog b.
Pancreas c.
Liver of Rabbit d.
Kidney
Vitamin K is required for a.
Synthesis of Prothrombin b.
Conversion of Prothrombin to Thrombin c.
Formation of Thromboplastin d.
Formation of Prothrombinase
Brunner’s glands are found in a.
Stomach b.
Ileum c.
Colon d.
Duodenum
Which one is an accessory digestive organ a.
Liver b.
Oral cavity c.
Oesophagus d.
Rectum
Which of the following functions is not performed by Incisors a.
Cutting b.
Chopping c.
Gnawing d.
Shearing
Enamel which caps the crown of teeth is composed of a.
Calcium carbonate b.
Calcium phosphate c.
Magnesium phosphate d.
Dentine
Which one is applicable to human teeth a.
Thecodont b.
Diphyodont c.
Acrodont d.
Both a and b
Which of the following gland is largest one a.
Parotid b.
Sublingual c.
Sub maxillary d.
Sub mandibular
Role of Caecum in man is a.
Digestion of Cellulose b.
Absorption of Water c.
Absorption of Food d.
Vestigeal organ
The lining of alimentary canal from inside out is a.
Mucosa- Muscularis externa- Serosa- Submucosa b.
Mucosa- Submucosa- Serosa- Muscularis externa c.
Sub mucosa- Mucosa- Muscularis externa- Serosa d.
Mucosa- Submucosa- Muscularis externa- Serosa
The intestinal villi are supplied with
44

53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
a.
Artery b.
Vein c.
Lacteals d.
All these
Crypts of Leiber are a.
Goblet cells of GIT b.
Invaginations of epithelium into the sub mucosa in GIT c.
Invaginations of epithelium but not reaching the sub mucosa d.
Glands present in the stomach
The bony attachment of the tongue is a.
Styloid process b.
Hyoid c.
Pterygoid d.
Both a and b
Which of the phases of swallowing is voluntary a.
Cephalic b.
Luminal c.
Buccal d.
All these
Food is prevented to move back from stomach to oesophagus is by a.
Muscle tone of stomach b.
Thin lumen of Oesophagus c.
Oesophageal sphincter d.
Shape of stomach
Which of the component of saliva act as Ant-imicrobial agent a.
Ptyalin b.
Hydrogen ions c.
Bicarbonate ions d.
Thiocynate ions
Percentage of starch digested in mouth is a.
25 % b.
30 % c.
5 % d.
40 %
Role of mucous secreted by Goblet cells a.
Lubricant b.
Protection of epithelium from HCL c.
Protection from digestion of epithelium from Pepsin d.
All these
Parietal cells secrete a.
HCL b.
Intrinsic factor c.
Pepsinogen d.
Both a and b
Pepsinogen is secreted by a.
Peptic cells b.
Chief cells c.
Zymogen cells d.
All these
The pro enzyme activated by Enterokinase which in turn after activation, activates other pro enzymes a.
Trypsinogen b.
Chymotrypsinogen c.
Pro carboxypeptidase
45

63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
d.
Pepsinogen
Secretion of mucoid fluid from Brunner’s glands is initiated by a.
Vagus stimulation b.
Secretin c.
Enterokinase d.
Both a and b
Enterocytes secrete a.
Mucus b.
Water and Electrolytes c.
Enzymes d.
All these
Carboxy peptidase is present in the secretion of a.
Pancreas b.
Brunner’s glands c.
Crypts of Lieberkuhn d.
Liver
Alcohol when absorbed from small intestine is absorbed by a.
Simple diffusion b.
Facilitated diffusion c.
Osmosis d.
Active transport
Facilitated diffusion occurs via a.
Carrier + against concentration gradient b.
Use of ATP + carrier + against concentration gradient c.
Carrier + down the concentration gradient d.
ATP + down the concentration gradient
Simple diffusion is not applicable to a.
Amino acids b.
Fructose and Cholesterol c.
Cholesterol d.
Fatty acids
The bacterium in the colon, E.coli, produces a.
Vit. B12, Vit. K b.
Thiamine, Vit. B12, Vit. K c.
Vit. B12, Vit. K, Riboflavin d.
Thiamine, Riboflavin, Vit. B12 , Vit. K
Vitamin C can be synthesized from a.
Glucose b.
Fructose c.
Sucrose d.
Both a and b
Hypercholesterolemia can be a result of excessive consumption of a.
Ghee and Butter b.
Red meat and Eggs c.
Vegetable oils d.
All these
Consumption of which supplement is contraindicated during the beginning of pregnancy a.
Iron b.
Calcium c.
Folic acid d.
Thiamine
Digestive glands are present in
46

74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
a.
Man, Rabbit and Cockroach b.
Man only c.
Man and Rabbit only d.
Cockroach only
Deficiency of Iron causes a.
Macrocytic anemia b.
Murocytic anemia c.
Pernicious anemia d.
Hemolytic anemia
Rugae are foldings of the stomach and are visible when a.
Stomach is distended b.
Stomach is empty c.
Stomach secrete gastric juice d.
Stomach is contracting
S- shaped part of the alimentary canal is a.
Duodenum b.
Jejunum c.
Pelvic colon d.
Rectum
In which of the lingual papillae, taste buds are absent a.
Filiform b.
Fungiform c.
Vallate d.
Both and b
Mushroom shaped papillae present at the tip of tongue are a.
Filiform b.
Fungiform c.
Vallate d.
Both b and c
Periodontal ligament that connects the tooth with the socket is a.
Collagen b.
Elastin c.
Fibrous d.
Cartilage
In the alimentary canal, “ Antrum “ refers to a.
Pyloric stomach b.
Cardiac stomach c.
Jejunum d.
Ileum
Which is the Recemose gland a.
Gastric glands b.
Salivary glands c.
Pancreas d.
Liver
Sphincter of Oddi is present a.
At the opening of pyloric stomach to duodenum b.
At the opening of hepato pancreatic duct to the duodenum c.
At the opening of duodenum to the jejunum d.
At the opening of oesophagus to the cardiac stomach
Semi indensible amino acids are a.
Lysine and Leucine b.
Arginine and Histidine c.
Valine and Tyrosine
47

84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
d.
Isoleucine and Aspartic acid
Keratomalacia is due to the deficiency of a.
Ascorbic acid b.
Tocopherol c.
Phylloquinone d.
Retinol
Menadione is a synthetic vitamin used to accelerate blood clotting after surgery. It is a.
Vitamin A b.
Vitamin E c.
Vitamin K d.
Vitamin C
Which vitamin requires the assistance of “ Castle’s intrinsic factor “ for absorption a.
Vitamin K b.
Vitamin B12 c.
Vitamin B6 d.
Vitamin B2
Dental formula of man is 2123 / 2123. The milk dentition is a.
2102 / 2102 b.
2103 / 2103 c.
2102 / 2103 d.
2103 / 2102
The right lobe of Liver is largest and liver secretes about 500 – 1 litre bile per day. Bile contains a.
Lecithine and Alkaline phosphatase b.
Bile salts c.
Bile pigments d.
All these
Pepsin is a protein digesting enzyme, but it can not digest a.
Nails b.
Hair c.
Meat fibre d.
Both a and b
Which of the following substance is absorbed in the stomach a.
Aspirin b.
Alcohol c.
Common salt d.
All these
Enterokinin is a GI hormone secreted by the intestinal mucosa and act on the small intestine to a.
Release Succus entericus b.
Increase paristalsis c.
Increase absorption d.
Inhibit gastric secretion
Maximum number of teeth ( 50 numbers ) is found in a.
Rat b.
Porcupine c.
Opposum d.
Echidna
Micelles are water soluble droplents in the intestinal epithelium that contain a.
Fatty acids, Glycerides, Sterols b.
Fatty acids, Glucose, Amino acids c.
Amino acids, Vitamins, Glycerol d.
Cholesterol, Vitamins, Glucose
Absorption of Vitamin D in intestine is helped by
48

49
95.
96.
97.
a.
Calcium b.
Potassium c.
Manganese d.
Iron
Limiting amino acids in Wheat are a.
Methionine and Lysine b.
Lysine and Threonine c.
Threonine and Methione d.
Arginine and Lysine
Iron content of human milk is a.
0.1 mg b.
0.3 mg c.
0.5 mg d.
0.7 mg
Select a Myxotrophic animal a.
Paramecium
98.
b.
Euglena viridis c.
Euglena racilis d.
Both b and c
Seborrheic dermatitis or Dandruf is due to the deficiency of a.
Thiamine b.
Riboflavin c.
Niacin d.
Folic acid
99.
Oedema, Stunted growth, Mental retardation, Wrinkled skin, Thin legs and Protruded belly are the symptoms of a malnutrition disease. Which one is it a.
Beri Beri b.
Marasmus c.
Rickets d.
Kwashiorkor
100.
Flabby body ,Elevated ribs, Dry skin etc are the symptoms of a.
Scyrvy b.
Marasmus c.
Osteomalacia d.
Rickets
101.
In which of the following types of Anemia , large immature nucleated RBC are present in the blood a.
Pernicious anemia b.
Megaloblastic anemia c.
Sickle cell anemia d.
Macrocytic anemia
102.
Bow leg is an indication of a.
Scurvy b.
Rickets c.
Kwasiorkor d.
Marasmus
103.
The first and largest chamber of Ruminant stomach is a.
Rumen b.
Reticulam c.
Omasum d.
Abomasum
104.
Cellulose digestion occurs in which chamber of Cow a.
Abomasum b.
Rumen

50 c.
Reticulam d.
Both b and c
105.
Which chamber of Ruminant contains enzymes and HCL and is considered as True stomach a.
Rumen b.
Reticulam c.
Omasum d.
Abomasum
106.
Camel and Deer lack a.
Rumen b.
Reticulum c.
Omasum d.
Abomasum
107.
Microbes present in the Rumen and Reticulum of Ruminant stomach digests Cellulose using Cellulase and
Cellobiase enzymes and convert it into a.
Glucose b.
Starch c.
Acetic acid and Propionic acid d.
Fructose and Sucrose
108.
When the Chyme enters the Duodenum, the activity of Pepsin is a.
Increases b.
Decreases c.
Unaffected d.
None of these
109.
Rennin is the Milk curdling enzyme but in adult man HCL is responsible for milk curdling. Pepsin in the stomach converts curdled milk into a.
Polypeptides b.
Peptones c.
Amino acids d.
Dipeptides
110.
Which of the following Pancreatic enzyme is responsible for the digestion of Milk protein a.
Erepsin b.
Chymotrypsin c.
Carboxy peptidase d.
Amino peptidase
111.
Carboxy peptidases from Pancreas are Proteases which act on the polypeptide chain to a.
break terminal peptide bond to release terminal amino acid b.
break all the peptide bonds simultaneously c.
break first peptide bond to release peptones d.
act on all proteins to release peptides
112.
Enzymes hydrolyzing fats are known as a.
Aldolases b.
Dehydrogenases c.
Esterases d.
Deaminases
113.
Which of the following organic compound digests very slowly and the digestion never completes a.
Polysaccarides b.
Starch c.
Lipids d.
Cellulose
114.
Absorption of Sodium ions from the intestine is through a.
Passive transport b.
Diffusion c.
Sodium pump

d.
Endocytosis
115.
Dyspesia refers to a.
Malnutrition b.
Over eating c.
Loss of appetite d.
Indigestion
116.
Which pair is incorrect
Elephant 1003 / 0003
Rat
Sheep
1003 / 1003
0033 / 3133
Rabbit
117.
Cholesterol is
2033 / 2033 a.
One of the most important animal steroid b.
Insoluble in water and chemically un reactive c.
Synthesized from acetyl Co A or Acetate in Liver d.
A dietary essential and largely found in plants
118.
Identify the vitamins with their correct deficient disorder a. Pyridoxine - deficiency causes Dermatitis, anemia etc. b. Ascorbic acid - its deficiency causes Scurvy c. Phylloquinone - its deficiency causes haemorrhage d. Niacin - its deficiency causes Sterility
119.
Mattil and Conclin are associated with the discovery of a.
Vitamin A b.
Vitamin C c.
Vitamin D d.
Vitamin E
120.
Bile salts help in the absorption of a.
Vitamins A, C, E, K b.
Vitamins A, D, E, K c.
Vitamins A, B, C, K d.
Vitamins A, C, D, K
51

52
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Foetal hemopoesis occurs in the blood islands of a.
Yolk sac and Liver b.
Spleen c.
Bone marrow d.
All these
Which of the following act as the precursor of A and B antigens a.
Rh antigen b.
M antigen c.
N antigen d.
H antigen
Thromboplastin is present in a.
Plasma b.
RBC c.
Platelet d.
WBC
Wintrobe method is used to measure ESR and normal ESR is 3-5mm / Hr in male and 7-12 mm / hr in female
ESR above 20 mm / hr indicates a.
Low hemoglobin b.
Infection of TB c.
High blood sugar d.
Low blood sugar
Which of the following is used as artificial anticoagulant to store blood a.
Sodium oxalate b.
Sodium citrate c.
EDTA d.
All these
Which one is in correct a. Polycythemia b. Microcytic anemia c. Aplatic anemia d. Pernicious anemia
High RBC count
Lack of Iron
Destruction of bone marrow
Deficiency of Magnesium
Which of the following techniques is used to measure the size and Hb content of RBC a.
Wintrobe method b.
Red cell indices c.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate d.
TLC
Transferrins are a.
Proteins present in WBC b.
Proteins transporting Iron c.
Proteins producing Antibodies d.
Proteins causing Histamin production
Haptoglobins are responsible for a.
Transport of urea b.
Transport of Hb products c.
Transport of Cobalt d.
Transport of Iron
Which of the following is responsible for short life span of RBC

11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
a.
Absence of Nucleus b.
High rate of Oxygen transport c.
Anaerobic respiration d.
Small size and active metabolism
Select a motile Phagocyte from the list a.
Eosinophil b.
Lymphocyte c.
Thrombocyte d.
RBC ghost cell
Azurophilic granules are found in a.
RBC b.
Platelets c.
Lymphocyte d.
Neutrophil
Artificial blood is made of a.
Sodium citrate b.
Globulin – Plasma mixture c.
Perflurocarbon d.
Chloroflurocarbon
Artificial blood will not coagulate in the recipients body because a.
It is made artificially b.
It has no antigens c.
It has no antibodies d.
It is chilled and mixed with anticoagulant heparin
Myloma is a form of cancer affecting a.
Muscle b.
Plasma cells c.
Bone marrow d.
Lymph glands
Which one is the character of Null cells or Natural Killer cells a.
Lymphocytes present in Lymphoid organs b.
They have Cytotoxic properties and destroy tumour cells c.
They do not have Surface markers d.
All these
Antartic fish is the only fish with colour less blood. Which is the only insect with red coloured blood a.
Locust b.
Dragon fly c.
Chironomous d.
Drosophila
Antibodies A and B develop in new born baby a.
At the time of birth b.
During the foetal life c.
Only after 4-8 months after birth d.
One week after child birth
A vertebrate without heart is a.
Lung fish b.
Gecko c.
Amphioxus d.
Salamander
Average weight of human heart is a.
100 – 150 gm b.
200 – 250 gm c.
250 – 300 gm
53

54
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
d.
500 gm
Which of the following substance accelerate the heart beat when in excess a.
Sodium b.
Calcium c.
Chloride d.
Potassium
Tread Mill Test or TMT is used to a.
Measure the heart rate b.
Measure the rate of blood flow c.
Measure the rate of muscle metabolism d.
Measure the efficiency of heart
Thebesius valve is present in a.
Aorta b.
Opening of Precaval vein c.
Opening of Coronary sinus d.
Opening of Post caval vein
Lubb sound is produced when AV valve closes and it is a long duration sound ( 0.15 seconds ) with a frequency of 25 – 45 Hz. But the frequency of the second sound Dupp is a.
50 Hz b.
20 Hz c.
30 Hz d.
12 Hz
Pulse pressure is the difference between Systolic and Diastolic pressures. Its normal value is a.
40 mm.Hg b.
50 mm. Hg c.
20 mm.Hg d.
120 mm. Hg
Which part is nick named as “ Heart of Heart “ a.
Coronary artery b.
Sinus venosus of Frog c.
SA node of mammals d.
AV node of mammals
Fossa ovalis is the depression found in the inter auricular septum. It is the remnant of foetal a.
Fenestra rotunda b.
Foramen triossum c.
Foramen ovale d.
Foramen magnum
Eustachian valve is present a.
at the opening of Eustachian tube b.
at the opening of Inferior venacava c.
at the opening of Carotid artery d.
at the opening of Ureter
Bio prosthetic valves are transplanted to human heart and are taken from a.
Rabbit b.
Dog c.
Sheep d.
Pig
Regular use of anticoagulants is necessary following a Metal heart valve transplantation because a.
Metal valve will corrode b.
Platelets adheres on the metal valve c.
RBC hemolyse on contact with the metal valve d.
Heparin production decreases followed by the Heart surgery

31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
Stenosis refers to a.
Blood poisoning b.
Blue coloured blood due to Carbon monoxide poisoning c.
Improper closing of heart valves d.
Technique used to widen the arteries
Myocardium forms the “ Cardiac Skeleton “ and is formed of a.
Cardiac muscle b.
White fibrous tissue c.
Yellow fibrous tissue d.
Collagen mixed with cardiac muscles
Frank – Starling Law shows the relation between a.
Blood flow and size of artery b.
Heart expansion and quantity of blood pumped c.
Heart size and rate of blood flow d.
Rate of metabolism and rate heart beat
Which of the following hormone regulate heart beat a.
Thyroxine b.
Epinephrine c.
Nor epinephrine d.
All these
Acetylcholine causes slow heart rate or Brady cardia because a.
It hyper polarize the SA node and slows impulse formation b.
It hyper polarize AV node and slows impulse formation c.
It affects the Purkinji system and slows inpulse conduction d.
It affects Ventricular wall and prevent the contraction
Which one is responsible for Tachycardia a.
High blood CO2 and low O2 b.
High body temperature c.
Low thyroxine and High Adrenaline d.
All these
Waller in 1887 recorded the first ECG and Eithoven is considered as the “ Father of Electrocardiography “
A normal ECG contains 5 waves represented as PQRST. Select the incorrect pair from the list a. P wave b. QRS c. PQ d. RS
De polarization of Atria
Depolarization of ventricles
Repolarization of Ventricle
Spread of excitation from AV node to purkinji system
Hepatic portal vein is formed of a.
Gastric vein b.
Intestinal vein c.
Splenic vein d.
All these
Important functions of Hepatic portal system is a.
Removal of nutrients b.
Deamination of extra amino acids and conversion into urea and ammonia c.
Detoxification of chemicals d.
All these
Rena portal system is well developed in a.
Retiles and Birds b.
Fishes and Amphibians c.
Birds and Mammals d.
Prochordates and Fishes
Which of the following group lacks renal portal system a.
Birds
55

42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
b.
Reptiles c.
Mammals d.
Fishes
Hypophysial portal system is a minor portal system found in higher vertebrates and it a.
Collects blood from Hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary b.
Collects blood from Hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary c.
Supply blood to the anterior pituitary d.
Carry hormones from anterior pituitary
Lowest level of Glucose is found in the Hepatic portal vein while highest level of Amino acids is found in a.
Pancreatic artery b.
Hepatic portal vein c.
Renal portal vein d.
Hypophysial portal vein
Vasa Vasorum is the blood vessel supplying blood to a.
Kidney b.
Gonads c.
Spleen d.
Blood vessel
In Mammals Trunchus Arteriosus divides into a.
Pulmonary and Systemic arches b.
Carotid and Pulmonary arches c.
Systemic and Cutaneous arches d.
Systemic and Carotid arches
Pick out the function of Spleen a.
Filtration of dead RBC and Storage of Live RBC b.
Formation of Agranulocytes and Production of Antibodies c.
Storage of Iron and Production of Foetal RBC d.
All these
Which one is the Vascular shunt in the foetus a.
Ductus venosus b.
Foramen ovale c.
Ductus arteriosus d.
All these
If the Foetal Vascular shunt persists after birth , it leads to a.
Still birth b.
Blue baby c.
Pulmonary oedema d.
Cardiac problems in baby
Phrenic Artery gives blood to a.
Abdominal peritoneum b.
Ovaries c.
Diaphragm d.
Spleen
Urinary bladder is supplied with a.
Femoral vein b.
Sciatic vein c.
Jugular vein d.
Vesicular vein
Haemolytic Disease of New born or HDN is due to a.
Rh incompatibility b.
Antigen deficiency c.
Heart valve problem d.
Rheumatic fever
56

52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
RhoGAM is the vaccine used to prevent a.
Hepatitis B b.
Erythroblastosis foetalis c.
German meseals d.
SCID
JARVIK – 7 is an Instrument designed by Robert K. Jarvik in 1980. It is a a.
Artificial lung b.
Artificial heart c.
Artificial Kidney d.
Artificial Limb
ABIOCOR is the device functions like a.
Heart valve b.
Heart c.
Kidney d.
Blood vessel
Which of the following cells present in the Sponge body helps to circulate water a.
Amoebocytes b.
Pinacoderm c.
Choanocytes d.
Interstitial cells
The route of water circulation in the Sponge body is a.
Osia – Canals – Spongocoel – Osculam b.
Osculam – Spongocoel – Canals – Ostia c.
Ostia – Spongocoel – Canals – Osculam d.
Osculam - Canals – Spongocoel Ostia
Which protein is highest in concentration in the Blood plasma a.
Globulins b.
Fibrinogen c.
Albumins d.
Lipoproteins
One RBC can carry approximately ………….. molecules of Hemoglobin in its life time a.
1000 billion b.
1120 million c.
100 million d.
112 million
Platelet Derived Growth Factor or PDGF produced by the Platelets causes a.
Plaque formation in Coronary artery b.
Plaque formation in Renal artery c.
Dissolving of Blood clot d.
Aggression of RBC
Vector Cardiography is used a.
To study the internal structure of Heart b.
To study the functioning of Heart valves c.
To get Three Dimentional pictures of electrical activities of Heart d.
To study the rate of blood flow
Which one of the aspect is wrong regarding the Lymph a.
It is colour less b.
It contains high concentration of Proteins c.
It lacks RBC d.
It contains less nutrients
Normal blood urea of Blood is a.
45 mg / 100 ml b.
40 mg / 100ml
57

63.
64.
65.
c.
34 mg / 100 ml d.
20 mg / 100 ml
Normal level of Bilurubin in blood is 0.2 – 1.2 mg / 100 ml. If it increases, the condition is called as a.
Jaundice b.
Hepatitis c.
Cirrhosis d.
Liver failure
Normal diameter of Human RBC is a.
5 Microns b.
3 Microns c.
7.2 Microns d.
6.2 Microns
Following are the characters of a blood cell. Identify it
1.
Bi lobed nucleus with narrow connection
2.
Stained red with Wrights stain
3.
Large Chromophilic granules
4.
Average number 4-8 % a.
Lymphocyte b.
Neutrophil c.
Eosinophil
66.
d.
Basophil
Which one is the correct sequence of Cascade reaction of Blood clotting a.
Thromboplastin – Prothrombinase – Thrombin – Fibrin b.
Prothrombinase – Thromboplastin – Fibrin – Thrombin
67.
68.
c.
Thromboplasti – Thromboplastin – Thrombin – Fibrin d.
Fibrinogen – Fibrin – clot
Anti-thrombin is concerned with a.
Formation of Fibrinogen b.
Prevent clotting in the blood vessels c.
Formation of Heparin d.
Formation of Tromboplastin
Which pair is Mismatching
69.
70.
a. Stephen Hale b. William Harvey c. Weiner d. Christian Bernard
Hemostat is used
Blood pressure
Blood circulation
Blood clotting
Heart Transplantation a.
To prevent bleeding b.
To assist circulation during Open heart surgery c.
As Heart – Lung machine d.
To measure Hemoglobin content
DLC is used to a.
Count RBC b.
Count WBC c.
Identify and Count WBC d.
Identify, Count Blood cells
58

59
1.Mammalian RBC respire anaerobically because a.
It has stroma inside b.
It has Haemoglobin c.
It lacks Mitochondria d.
It has bicarbonate ions inside
2. Tracheal respiration is found in a.
Insects and Millipedes b.
Scorpion and Prawn c.
Pila and Lobuster d.
Starfish and Sea cucumber
3. Wall of Larynx is supported by the cartilage a.
Cricoid b.
Thyroid c.
Artynoid d.
All these
4. Residual volume of the lung is a.
1200 ml b.
1500 ml c.
4500 ml d.
500 ml
5. Partial pressure of O2 in the inspired air is 156 mm Hg and that of CO2 is a.
0.3 mm Hg b.
0.5 mm Hg c.
140 mm Hg d.
46 mmHg
6. Chlorocruorin is a copper containing blood pigment found in some annelids like Sabella. Its colour in both oxygenated and deoxygenated states is a.
Blue b.
Red c.
Green d.
Blue red
7. Expiratory muscles contract at the time of a.
Deep inspiration b.
Normal inspiration and Expiration c.
Forceful expiration d.
Normal expiration
8. Inflamation of the lung covering causing severe chest pain is a.
Emphysema b.
Pleurisy c.
Asphyxia d.
Hypoxia
9. Tidal volume in Man is a.
500 ml b.
1500 ml c.
1200 ml d.
4500 ml
10. Partial pressure of Oxygen in the inspired and expired air is respectively a.
158 and 116 mm Hg

b.
158 and 40 mm Hg c.
100 and 95 nn Hg d.
40 and 95 mm Hg
11. In human beings , partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the inspired and expired air respectively a.
0.3 and 40 mm Hg b.
0.3 and 32 mm Hg c.
40 and 46 mm Hg d.
40 and 0.3 mm Hg
12. Respiratory Quotient is not less than one in a.
Carbohydrates b.
Proteins c.
Fats d.
Normal diet
13. The impulse for voluntary muscles for forceful breathing starts in a.
Medulla ( Pons ) b.
Vagus nerve c.
Cerebral hemispheres d.
Spinal cord
14. Fick’s law of diffusion is related to a.
Diffusion and Surface area b.
Diffusion and membrane potential c.
Diffusion and water content d.
Diffusion and pore diameter
15. The Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium lining the trachea is composed of a.
Goblet cells b.
Macrophages c.
Fibroblast d.
All these
16. The chief difference between Trachea and Bronchioles is a.
Trachea lacks cartilage b.
Bronchiole lacks cartilage c.
Trachea is long d.
Bronchiole is small
17. Diaphragm is supplied with Phrenic nerve and is involved in a.
Inspiration b.
Parturition c.
Micturition and Defecation d.
All these
18. Dead air is not involved in respiration because a.
It is very low quantity b.
It is trapped in nasal passage c.
It contains less Oxygen d.
It is present deep in the lungs
19. Pulmonary ventilation is a.
Tidal volume + Respiratory rate b.
Tidal volume + Vital capacity c.
Tidal volume + Residual volume d.
Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume
20. Pneumotaxic center is a.
Inhibitory b.
Accelatory c.
Activating d.
None of these
60

61
21. Hering Breur Reflex serves as a protective mechanism to prevent a.
Tracheal collapsing b.
Excess lung inflation c.
Excess oxygenation d.
All these
22. Oxygen dissociation curve shows the relation between a.
Oxyhemoglobin saturation and Oxygen tension b.
Oxyhemoglobin saturation and Carbon dioxide level c.
Oxyhemoglobin formation and dissociation d.
Partial pressure of Oxygen and Partial pressure of Carbon dioxide
23. Hemoglobin affinity for Oxygen is ………………….to the P50 ( O2 tension that produces 50% saturation of Hb ) a.
Directly related b.
Inversely related c.
Not related d.
Related
24. When Bohr effect occurs due to increased CO2 tension, Oxygen affinity of Hb decreases . The reason for increased
CO2 tension is a.
Increase in P50 b.
Decrease in P50 c.
High CO2 content d.
High O2 content
25. Chloride shift occurs from the plasma to the RBC and is meant for a.
Formation of Hemoglobinic acid b.
Formation of Bicarbonates c.
To keep electrostatic neutrality of RBC menbrane d.
To transport CO2
26. Haldane effect refers to a.
Increased CO2 uptake to minimize CO2 tension b.
Increased O2 tension c.
Decreased CO2 tension d.
Decreases O2 tension
27. Bohr effect shifts the O2 – Hb dissociation curve to right a. To promote oxygenation of Hb in lungs b.
To increase O2 concentration c.
To decrease CO2 concentration d.
To decrease the pH of blood
28. Foetal hemoglobin has great affinity than adult hemoglobin because a.
It binds 2,3 DPG less avidity by Gamma polypeptide chain than HbA b.
Its concentration is very high c.
Foetal blood gets oxygen from the mother d.
Its polypetide chains bind very fast with Oxygen
29. 2,3 DPG ( Diphospho glycerate ) is an important molecule that compete for Oxygen binding sites of Hemoglobin. It is
present in a.
Blood Plasma b.
Erythrocytes c.
Leucocytes d.
Blood of lungs
30. 2,3 DPG causes shifting of Oxygen dissociation curve in Adult Hb to Right because a.
It increases Oxygen affinity for Hemoglobin b.
It binds to Beta chain of Hb c.
Its concentration is high in adults d.
It lacks Hb binding sites
31. Methamoglobin is the oxidized form of Hemoglobin that can not deliver oxygen and has a Bluish colour that impart a

62
Cyanotic hue to tissues. It appears when a.
In the genetic deficiency of Glucose – 6 phosphate dehydrogenase b.
At the time of Asphyxiation c.
At the time of Diving d.
Both a and b
32. Double Bohr effect ( Oxygen curves for maternal and foetal Hb move apart in opposite directions ) occurs in a.
Foetal circulation b.
Maternal circulation c.
In the Placenta operating in both maternal and foetal circulations d.
In the uterine wall
33. Advantage of Double Bohr effect is a.
Reciprocal exchange of Oxygen for Carbon dioxide b.
More Oxygenation of Foetal blood c.
More removal of Carbon dioxide d.
All these
34. Foetal hemoglobin has a Sigmoid dissociation curve which is shifted to left relative to adult Hb because a.
Foetal Hb has higher P50 b.
Foetal HB has lower P50 ( 18-20 mm Hg ) than Adult Hb ( 26.6 mm.Hg ) c.
Foetal Hb readily accept Oxygen d.
Foetal Hb easily remove Carbon dioxide
35. 2,3 DPG is synthesized from 3- phosphoglyceraldehyde through a.
Embden – Meyerhof pathway b.
Krebs – Hensleit cycle c.
Hexose monophosphate shunt d.
Cori cycle
36. At high altitude, the number of RBC increases a.
To trap O2 from rarefied air having low PO2 b.
To adapt with the oxygen deficiency c.
To remove more CO2 d.
To increase metabolism
37. Which of the following Hormone is secreted in excess when a person climbing a mountain a.
Anti Natriuretic Factor b.
Adrelaline c.
Erythropoietin d.
Thyroxine
38. TB skin test is called “ Scatch test or Mantoux test “ in which Tuberculin Purified Protein Derivative ( PPD ) is injected sub cutaneously
This test is based on a.
Delayed Hypersensitivity b.
Production of antibodies c.
Production of Tubercle toxin d.
All these
39. Which one is a Non – reversible pulmonary disease in which the bronchi are blocked with mucous and infection and
rupture of alveoli a.
Silicosis b.
Asphyxia c.
Emphysema d.
Embolism
40. In which part of the body Mycobacterium tuberculosis affects a.
Lungs b.
Skin and Meninges c.
Intestine d.
All these

63
41. The common drugs used against TB is a.
Para amino salicylic acid ( PAS ) b.
Ethambutol c.
Steptomycin d.
All these
42. Most of the Antibiotics against Tb are not effective as the Tubercle bacterium has a resistive covering. One of the
following drug is effectively used to control TB a.
Ethambutol b.
Streptomycin c.
Rifampicin d.
Penicillin
43. Bovine tuberculosis is transmitted from cow to man through a.
Contact b.
Milk c.
Contamination of water with infected urine d.
Meat
44. Carbonic anhydrase in the RBC is the fastest enzyme and it decompose in one second for fast action. Its concentration
in the blood due to the presence of a.
Plasma b.
Carbon dioxide c.
Sodium ions d.
Hemoglobin
45. Respiratory alkalosis is the increase in blood Ph and can be treated using the drug Acetazolamide which blocks
Carbonic anhydrase enzyme. The main cause of Respiratory alkalosis is a.
Hypoventilation b.
Hyperventilation c.
Low Carbon dioxide level d.
High HB content
46. In Carbon monoxide poisoning, Hemoglobin shows about 250 times greater affinity with CO2 than oxygen and
Carbonmonoxyheamoglobin( COHb ). This causes Oxygen starvation and Asphyxia. The immediate remedy is a.
Giving pure Oxygen b.
Dialysis c.
Giving pure Oxygen – Carbon dioxide mixture d.
Transfusing blood
47. Which of the following gas mixture is used by Divers to prevent Oxygen toxicity a.
Oxygen and Co2 b.
Oxygen and Nitrogen c.
Oxygen and rare gases d.
Oxygen, CO2 and Nitrogen
48. Myoglobin is a muscle hemoglobin which exhibits Hyperbolic oxygen dissociation curve indicating its great affinity
towards Oxygen ( Non cooperative binding ). The Hyperbolic nature of the curve is due to a.
Single polypeptide ( 153 amino acids ) and Monomeric nature b.
High concentration in the muscle c.
Muscle protein d.
Quarternary structure
49. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease ( COPD ) includes a.
Emphysema b.
Bronchitis c.
Asthma d.
All these
50.Hiccup is due to a.
Increased inspiration b.
Irritation of Phrenic nerve

51.
c.
Expanded stomach d.
Acidity in the stomach
Pinnaglobin is a brown coloured blood pigment present in the plasma of the mollusk Pinna. It contains a.
b.
c.
d.
Iron
Copper
Manganese
Vanadium
52.
53.
Cloacal respiration is found in a.
Snake b.
c.
Turtle and Tortoise
Crocodile d.
Frog
Rectal respiration is seen in a.
b.
c.
Cockroach
Spider
Niads of Dragon fly
54.
55.
56.
d.
Water flea
Plastron is the air bubble carrying respiratory air in the abdomen of a.
b.
Belostoma
Nepa ( Water boat man ) c.
d.
Chironomous
Mosquito
Opercular gills are found in a.
Lepidosteus a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
Polypterus
Anabas d.
Both a and b
Spirometry is used
To detect the amount of Hemoglobin
To detect the air flow through the respiratory system
To check the respiratory quotient
None of these
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
The Bronchial tree is connected with the brain by a.
Trochlear nerve b.
c.
d.
Trigeminal nerve
Phrenic nerve
Vagus nerve
Tachypnoea means a.
Rapid shallow breathing b.
Rapid deep breathing c.
d.
Slow and shallow breathing
Slow and deep breathing
The combination of Hemoglobin with Oxygen in the blood can be promoted by a.
Decreasing O2 concentration b.
Increasing O2 concentration c.
d.
Increasing CO2 concentration
Decreasing CO2 concentration
Semilunar cartilage inside the Laryngo tracheal chamber is a.
Arytenoid b.
c.
Cricoid
Sternohyal d.
Petrohyal
The Alveolar epithelium is lined with
64

62.
a.
b.
c.
Non- ciliated Squamous epithelium
Ciliated Squamous epithelium
Ciliated epithelium d.
Ciliated Columnar epithelium
During transportation of Carbon dioxide, blood will not become acidic, because a.
b.
c.
It contains hemoglobin
It contains Hemoglobinc acid
It contains Buffers d.
It contains high CO2
65

1.Alecithal egg is found in animals with intrauterine development. Select the animal a.
Frog b.
Man c.
Bird d.
Reptile
2. Centrolecithal egg is characterized with central y placed yolk with surrounding cytoplasm. In
which group, Centrolecital egg is present a.
Bird b.
Insects c.
Reptiles d.
Mammals
3. Cleidoic eggs are the characterestic to a.
Mammals and Amphibians b.
Birds, Reptiles and Insects c.
Man d.
Birds only
4. Zona radiata is the Primary egg membrane found in a.
Shark b.
Mollusc c.
Mammals d.
Bird
5. Secondary membrane is added around the egg by the follicular cells. One example is Chorion of
insect egg. Which one is the Tertiary membrane a.
Albumin of bird’s egg b.
Shell membrane c.
Shell d.
All these
6. Fertilizin is a Glycoprotein while Antifertilizin is a.
Phosphoprotein b.
Acidic amino acids c.
Hydrolase d.
Lytic enzyme
7. Select the substance present in the Acrosome of Sperm a.
Hyaluronidase b.
Neuraminidase c.
Zona lysins d.
All these
8. Ovum is activated ( Capacitation ) when the sperm enters to it and undergoes second meiotic
division and release the second polar body. At which stage the ovum under goes second
meiotic division
66

a.
Oogonium b.
Secondary Oocyte c.
Primary Oocyte d.
Primordial germ cell
9. For making Test tube babies, the zygote is stimulated to develop invitro at a.
24 cell stage b.
32 cell stage c.
Secondary Oocyte stage d.
None of these
10. Somatic fertilization is common in a.
Ascaris b.
Angiosperms c.
Birds d.
Molluscs
11. Synthetic Progesteron called “ Progestin “ is an Oral contraceptive which prevent pregnancy by a.
Inhibiting ovulation b.
Killing sperms c.
Reducing the chance of implantation d.
Inactivating sperms
12. Commonly used IUD, the Copper T releases Cuptic ions into the uterus and a.
Kill the sperms b.
Inactivate sperms c.
Prevent implantation d.
Destroy embryo
13. Equal holoblatic cleavage is found in a.
Star fish b.
Amphioxus c.
Man, Rabbit and Marsupials d.
All these
14. Discoidal cleavage ( Meroblatic ) is seen in a.
Reptiles b.
Birds c.
Monotremes d.
All these
15. Superficial cleavage ( Meroblastic ) is a peculiarity in a.
Insects and Arthropods b.
Birds and Reptiles c.
Man and Apes d.
Lizards and Fishes
16. Spiral cleavage is seen in a.
Nematode and Turbellaria b.
Annelida and Rotifers c.
Mollusca except Cephalopods d.
All these
67

17. Solid mass of cells after cleavage is called “ Morula “ and it is formed after 5 th cleavage and
contains a.
28 cells b.
16 cells c.
36 cells d.
32 cells
18. Trophoblast cells are the outermost cells of Morula and they give rise a.
Amnion and Chorion b.
Chorion and Allantois c.
Allantois and Amnion d.
Allantois and Chorion
19. Cells of Rauber are found in a.
Ovary b.
Testis c.
Trophoblast d.
Gastrula
20. Coeloblastula is a.
Blastla without a cavity b.
Blastula with blastocoel c.
Blastula before implantation d.
Blastula after implantation
21. Morula is the stage at which implantation takes place and it happens after ……… days of
fertilization a.
5 b.
4 c.
7 d.
10
22. Fate map technique was developed by Wather Vogt in 1925 to study a.
Fate of various germ layers b.
Fate of embryo c.
Fate of Foetus d.
Path of movement of sperm
23. Select the in correct pair a. Animal pole b. Dorsal side c. Vegetal side d. Lateral side
Presumptive ectoderm
Presumptive Notochord
Presumptive endoderm
Presumptive Neural crest
24. Match the following
1. Epiboly
2. Emboly
3. Involution
4. Invagination
A. Upward movement of cells
B. Descending of dividing cells
C. Inward folding of cells
D. Inward migration of cells
68

69
5.
Delamination a.
1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C b.
1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – D c.
1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – C d.
1 – A , 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B
25. Archenteron is the cavity of Gastrula and in becomes the future a.
Ear b.
Alimentary canal c.
Brain cavity d.
Lung
26. Neurulation is the formation of a.
Brain b.
Brain and Spinal cord c.
Alimentary canal d.
Sense organs
27. Primitive streak appears in the blastodisc of birds and reptiles and represents a.
Presumptive ectoderm b.
Presumptive mesoderm c.
Presumptive endoderm d.
Neural canal
28. Hensen’s node is found in a.
Anterior tip of Primitive streak b.
Middle portion of Primitive streak c.
Posterior region of Primitive streak d.
None of these
29. Which one is an Ectoderm derivative a.
Adrenal medulla b.
Posterior pituitary c.
Nasal epithelium d.
All these
30. Which of the following Foetal membrane is formed of Mesoderm on outside and Ectoderm inside
and lacks blood vessels a.
Chorion b.
Allatois c.
Amnion d.
Yolk sac
31. Which Extra embryonic membrane take part in the formation of Placenta and functions as
Excretory organ a.
Amnion b.
Chorion c.
Yolk sac d.
Allantois
32. Allantois is concerned with a.
Respiration

b.
Nutrition c.
Excretion d.
All these
33. Amniocentesis is used to detect the chromosomal abnormalities of developing Foetus and
is usually done a.
Between 15 and 17 weeks of pregnancy b.
Immediately after implantation c.
After 6 months of pregnancy d.
Just before child birth
34. Which one not a hormone of Placenta a.
Human chorionic gonadotrophin b.
Oestrogen c.
Prolactin d.
Placental lactogen
35. Karl E. Von Baer is related to a.
Discovery of Mammalian ovum and Modern embryology b.
Discovered fertilization in Frog c.
Conducted Nuclear transplantation experiments d.
Conducted artificial insemination in animals
36. Ectopic pregnancy usually occurs a.
In the Ovary b.
In the Uterus c.
In the Fallopian tube d.
In the Cervix
37. In embryology, the term Induction refers to a.
Transmission of chemical signals by one tissue that influence the development of other
Tissue b.
Induced ovulation c.
Stimulation of Cleavage by artificial means d.
Chemical stimulation of Parthenogenesis
38. Tissue Competence is a.
Ability of tissues to develop naturally b.
Ability of cells for multiplication c.
Ability of cells react and develop according to induction d.
Ability of cells to give rise to an organism
39. Which one is found in Avian egg a.
Nucleus of Pander b.
Neck of Latebra c.
Chalazae d.
All these
40. Imaginal Discs are found in the body of a.
Insect larva b.
Frog tadpole c.
Amphioxus
70

d.
Sea urchin
41. Organizer is the part of embryo that is concerned with a.
Stimulation development b.
Inhibition of development c.
Chemical induction of development d.
All these
42. Non- flagellate sperm without Acrosome is found in a.
Frog b.
Rabbit c.
Ascaris d.
Tape worm
43. Teratology deals with a.
Study of Embryo b.
Study of abnormal embryo c.
Study of infection d.
None of these
44. Chorio – Allantoic is the true placenta found in a.
Marsupial b.
Rat c.
Pig d.
Cat
45. Which one is the mismatching pair a. Chorio Vitelline placenta b. Diffuse placenta c. Cotyledonary placenta d. Discoidal placenta
46. Zonary placenta is seen in
Kangaroo
Horse, Pig
Cat, Dog
Rat, Rabbit, Bat a.
Cat, Dog, Elephant, Tiger and Lion b.
Cow, Sheep, Goat and Buffalo c.
Horse and Pig d.
Mammals
47. Human placenta is a.
Haemochorial, Non deciduous and Meta discoidal b.
Endotheliochorial and Discoidal c.
Epitheliochorial and Deciduous d.
Haemochorial, Deciduous and Non discoidal
48. The Gestation periods of some mammals are given. Select the pair that is not matching a. Man 280 days b. Rat 21 days c. Rabbit 30-32 days d. Elephant 700 days
49. Which is true about cleavage in fertilized egg of Humans a.
Meroblatic b.
Starts when egg reaches uterus
71

1.
c.
Starts in Fallopian tube d.
It is identical to normal mitosis
51.
First step in the activation ovum durinf fertilization is a.
Formation of fertilization membrane b.
Fertilizin – Antifertilizin reaction c.
Penetration of sperm d.
Formation of fertilization cone
52.
Meroblatic cleavage is a.
Horizontal b.
Partial c.
Total d.
Spiral
53.
Termination of Gastrulation is marked by a.
Obliteration of Archenteron b.
Closure of Neural tube c.
Obliteration of Blastocoel d.
Closure of Blasopore
54.
Fertilizin and Antifertilizin acts as a.
Antagonistic b.
Lock and Key c.
Repulsive d.
None of these
55.
During cleavafe, the Nucleocytoplamic ratio is a.Maintained b.Decreased c.Increased d.Variable
56.
A Blatula which is solid is a.
Stereoblastula b.
Coeloblastula c.
Superficial blastula d.
Discoblatula
57.
Prenatal development is a.
Embryonic development in egg or Uterus b.
Post embryonic development c.
Development of premature gonad d.
None of these
58.
Villi form girdle in a.
Zonary placenta b.
Diffused placenta c.
Cotyledonary placenta d.
Discoidal placenta
72

1.Simple binary fission is found in a.
Paramecium b.
Sponge c.
Euglena d.
Amoeba
2. Paramecium and Planaria exhibit a.
Simple binary fission b.
Transverse binary fission c.
Longitudinal binary fission d.
Oblique binary fission
3. Which of the following animal show Longitudinal binary fission a.
Euglena and Vorticella b.
Opalina and Monocystis c.
Volvox and Chlamydomonas d.
Entamoeba and Trypanosoma
4. Fin Dorset Lamp and Boar Calf are produced through a.
Artificial insemination b.
Cloning c.
Cross breeding d.
All these
5. Amitosis is the division of cell without chromosome duplication. Which animal shows it a.
Paramecium b.
Monocystis c.
Euglena d.
Both a and b
6.Sporulation is common in a.
Plasmodium b.
Monocystis c.
Amoeba d.
Both a and b
7. Typical method of asexual reproduction in Plasmodium is a.
Sporulation b.
Gemmulation c.
Fission d.
Budding
8. Endogenous budding or Gemmule formation is seen in a.
Spongilla b.
Sycon
73

74 c.
Ascon d.
Both a and b
9. In Rotifers males are absent and the animal resort on a.
Self fertilization b.
Budding c.
Parthenogenesis d.
Sporulation
10. Tunica albuginea is a tough collagenous connective tissue covering of a.
Ovary b.
Testis c.
Seminiferous tubule d.
Ovarian follicle
11. The cells of Seminiferous tubule is a.
Spermatogenic cells b.
Sertoli cells c.
Leydig cells d.
All these
12. Rete testis is the structure receiving all the seminiferous tubules and its function is a.
Actvate spermatozoa b.
Storage of Sperms c.
Passage of sperms to the Epididymis d.
Secretion of Prostaglandins
13. Prostate glands, Seminal vesicles and Cowpers glands are the male accessory glands and the
the fluid secreted by the seminal vesicle contains energy substance a.
ATP b.
Glucose c.
Fructose d.
Lactose
14. The tail or flagellum of sperm arises from a.
Proximal centriole b.
Distal centriole c.
Middle piece d.
Tip of middle piece
15. The non motile sperm from the seminiferous tubules become active when they are in contact with a.
Secretion of Seminal vesicle b.
Secretion of Prostate gland c.
Secretion of Cowpers gland d.
Secretion of Rete testis
16. The function of Germinal epithelium is a.
Protection of Ovum b.
Production of Ovum c.
Secretion of Oestrogen d.
Secretion of Progesterone
17. Zona pellucida covering the Primary oocyte is

a.
Proteinaceous b.
Mucopolysaccharide c.
Gelatin d.
Glycolipid
18. Fate of Corpus albicans or White body is a.
Remains in the ovary b.
Secrete hormones and degenerate c.
Degenerate at end of menstrural cycle d.
Again become active
19. One of the important reason of Spontaneous abortion is a.
Sudden rise in Progesterone secretion b.
Sudden rise in Oestrogen level and fall in Progesterone level c.
Sudden fall in Oestrogen level d.
Sudden stop of Gonadotrophins
20. Which one of the following organ is considered as “ Life Supporting Organ “ a.
Heart b.
Brain c.
Uterus d.
Lungs
21. The diameter of human ovum is around a.
20 Micrometer b.
100 Micrometer c.
50 Micrometer d.
10 Micrometer
22. Vitellus in the human ovum is a.
Corona radiata b.
Zona pellucida c.
Nucleus d.
Cytoplasm
23. Each Primordial germ cell give rise one ovum and three polar bodies. First meiotic division
give rise one polar body and Secondary Oocyte. The second polarbody is formed a.
Before fertilization b.
After fertilization c.
Along with first polar body d.
At the time of fertilization
24. Which one is a Haploid cell a.
Primary germ cell b.
Spermatogonia c.
Secondary spermatocyte d.
Primary spermatocyte
25. Which of the following hormone stimulate ovarian follicles to mature and formation of ovum a.
LH b.
FSH c.
LTH
75

d.
Progesterone
26. The important function of Progesterone is a.
Prepares reproductive organs b.
Accelerate blood flow to endometrium c.
Stimulate mammary glands for milk production d.
All these
27. The Hypothalamic hormone that induce the production of FSH and LH is a.
GnRH b.
ADH c.
Oxytocin d.
THRH
28. Ovarian Oestrogen is concerned with a.
Keeps Endometrium soft, moist and thick b.
Repairs Uterine wall after Menstruration c.
Stimulate Follicle development d.
All these
29. The only Protein hormone secreted fro ovary is a.
Oestrogen b.
Progesterone c.
Relaxin d.
Steroid
30. Role of LH in reproduction is a.
Secretion of Progesterone from Corpus luteum and Ovulation b.
Preparation of Uterine wall for implantation c.
Follicle enlargement d.
Production of Milk
31. Which of the following statement is Correct a.
Amount of LH and FSH gradually increases towards ovulation and diminishes b.
Oestrogen is maximum during gestation period c.
Progesterone is maximum during Pre ovulatory phase d.
Corpus luteum degenerates immediately after ovulation
32. The main reason for Ovulation is a.
Rupture of Follicle b.
Sudden fall in Oestrogen c.
Sudden rise in LH d.
Both b and c
33. Menstrural cycle restarts by the influence of a.
Progesterone b.
Oestrogen c.
CGH d.
Prolactin
34. In which part of the Fallopian tube, fertilization occurs a.
Ampulla b.
Infundubulum
76

c.
Isthmus d.
Uterine part
35. Naturally occurring and biologically most active Oestrogen is a.
Estrone b.
17-b- Estradiole c.
Estriole d.
All these
36. Which form of Oestrogen is not synthesized in ovary but synthesized by the Placenta and Liver a.
Estrone b.
Estadiole c.
Estriole d.
None of these
37. Which of the following male accessory gland is analogous to the Female’s Bartholin’s gland a.
Prostate gland b.
Cowpers gland c.
Seminal vesicle d.
Perineal gland
38. MTP refers to a.
A test used to detech CHG b.
Legalized abortion c.
A test used to detect Foetal abnormalities d.
A test used to detect the level of Ostrogen
39. All the Pregnancy tests incuding “ Gravindex test “ detect the presence of a.
Oestrogen b.
Progesterone c.
Chorionic gonadotrophin d.
LH
40. Chorionic gonadotrophin appears in the blood of Female a.
After parturition b.
Immediately after implantation c.
During post ovulatory phase d.
During ovulation
41. Ramet is a.
Product of asexual reproduction b.
Inactive sperm c.
Unfertilized ovum d.
Ruptured follicle
42. Arrehenotoky is a method of Parthenogenesis found in Arachnids and in involves a.
Production of only males b.
Production of only females c.
Production of both males and females d.
Production of sterile males
43. Antrum is a.
Ruptured follicle
77

b.
Fluid filled cavity of follicle c.
Corpus albicans d.
Outer covering of ovary
44. Corpus luteum is yellow in colour due to the presence of a.
Albumin b.
Haemoglobin c.
Progesterone d.
Lutein
45. Germ hill is found in a.
Sperm b.
Ovum c.
Graffian follicle d.
Ovary
46. Subtentacular cells are found in a.
Testis of mammals b.
Ovary of mammals c.
Testis of Ascaris d.
Testis of Frog
47. Natural Parthenogenesis is seen in a.
Honey bee b.
House fly c.
Silk moth d.
Butterfly
48. Estrus cycle is found in a.
Primates only b.
Anthropoids only c.
All mammals excepts Anthropoids d.
None of these
49. Vasectomy is done in a.
Oviduct b.
Vas deference c.
Ureter d.
Fallopian tube
50. In which of the mammal, testis do not descend a.
Bat b.
Whale c.
Opossum d.
All these
78

79