MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
1. A routine urinalysis can provide information regarding :
A. The state of the kidney
B. The state of the urinary tract
C. Metabolic or systemic (nonrenal) disorders
D. All of the above
2. When performing a urinalysis, all of the following factors are important
except knowledge of :
A. Common interfering substances (false-negative and false-positive
reactions)
B. Any critical steps or considerations in the procedure
C. The clinical application of the substance being tested for and its
correlation to other findings in the urinalysis
D. Appropriate treatment protocols for disorders detected by the urinalysis
3. The functional (working) unit of the kidney is the:
A. Nephron
B. Glomerulus
C. Cortex
D. Medulla
4. Functions of the kidney include all of the following except:
A. Removal of waste products
B. Processing of nutrients
C. Retention of nutrients
D. Acid-base, water, and electrolyte balance
5. The function of the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney is to:
A. Reduce the volume of the urine
B. Maintain water and electrolyte balance
C. Remove acid from the body
D. Both B and C
6. Important factors in the collection and handling of urine include all of the
following except the:
A. Container used
B. Collection procedure
C. Conditions of storage and preservation from the time of collection until
the specimen is tested
D. Use of a sterile container
7. The most desirable type of routine urinalysis specimen is:
A. Sterile
B. First, early morning
C. Random, mid-day
D. 24-hour
8. Urine should be examined ____ collection.
A. Immediately after
B. Within 30 minutes, if not refrigerated or suitably preserved at
C. Within 2 hours if kept at room temperature after
D. Within 24 hours if refrigerated
D
D
A
B
D
D
B
B
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
9. The major contributing factor to the decomposition of urine is:
A. The action of bacteria
B. The formation of crystals
C. Fading of color
D. Change in pH
10. The minimum acceptable volume of urine for routine urinalysis is ____
mL.
A. 5
B. 12
C. 25
D. 50
11. The first part of the routine urinalysis is the ____ examination.
A. Physical
B. Chemical
C. Microscopic
D. Either B or C
12. Urine specimens must be fresh and centrifuged for reagent strip testing.
A. True
B. False
13. The longer a reagent strip is in contact with a urine specimen, the better
the results that will be observed.
A. True
B. False
14. Reagent strips will deteriorate if the cap is kept open for a prolonged
period.
A. True
B. False
15. Reagent strips will deteriorate if exposed to moisture or heat.
A. True
B. False
16. Reagent strips must be used within 1 year of opening the container.
A. True
B. False
17. Reagent strips (e.g., Chemstrips) have a stable reaction color for up to 5
minutes.
A. True
B. False
18. The normal pH of freshly voided urine is:
A. 4 or 5
B. 5 or 6
C. 6 or 7
D. 7 or 8
A
B
A
B
B
A
A
B
B
B
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
19. In the detection and diagnosis of renal disease, the most significant single
finding probably is
A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. pH
D. Ketones
20. In testing for glucose in the urine, all of the following are true except:
A. If the blood glucose concentration becomes too high (usually greater than
180-200 mg/dL), the excess glucose will not be reabsorbed into the blood
and will be eliminated from the body in the urine.
B. The renal threshold is the lowest blood glucose concentration that will
result in glycosuria.
C. The most common condition in which the renal threshold for glucose is
exceeded is diabetes mellitus.
D. The occurrence of glycosuria is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus.
21. Reagent strips for glucose detection use a(n):
A. Enzyme, peroxidase
B. Chemical, hydrogen peroxide
C. Chemical, copper sulfate
D. Both A and B
22. A false-positive urinary glucose result can be observed if:
A. Contamination by bleach or other strong oxidizing agents occurs
B. Reagent strips are exposed to air by improper storage
C. Large urinary concentrations of ascorbic acid are present
D. Both A and B
23. Ketone bodies can be detected in urine in:
A. Lack of adequate insulin control
B. Starvation
C. Extreme dieting
D. All of the above
24. The presence of bilirubin in the urine is an early sign of:
A. Liver disease
B. Pancreatic cancer
C. Intestinal inflammation
D. Various infectious diseases
25. Specimens for bilirubin testing must be
A. Absolutely fresh
B. Less than 2 hours old
C. Less than 8 hours old
D. Less than 24 hours old
26. 0-5/hpf (high-power field) red blood cells
A. Normal
B. Abnormal
27. >10 white blood cells/hpf
A. Normal
B. Abnormal
B
D
D
D
D
A
A
A
B
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
28. Moderate number of squamous epithelial cells
A. Normal
B. Abnormal
29. Moderate number of renal epithelial cells
A. Normal
B. Abnormal
30. Few bacteria in a fresh, nonsterile specimen
A. Normal
B. Abnormal
31. Hyaline cases (20-30/lpf [low-power field])
A. Normal
B. Abnormal
32. Structures that can be confused with red blood cells include:
A. Leukocytes (white blood cells)
B. Yeast
C. Calcium oxalate crystals
D. Both B and C
33. The least pathological type of cast is:
A. Hyaline
B. Finely granular
C. Waxy
D. Fatty
34. Upon standing, red blood cells either swell or become crenated.
A. True
B. False
35. White blood cells rapidly deteriorate in hypotonic solutions.
A. True
B. False
36. Casts disintegrate as urine becomes alkaline.
A. True
B. False
37. The growth of bacteria in urine produces a more acidic solution.
A. True
B. False
MATCHING
A. Any increase in urine volume, even if the increase is only temporary
B. Complete absence of urine formation
C. Abnormally small amount of urine, less than 500 mL/24 hr
D. Excretion of more 400 mL urine at night
E. Consistent elimination of an abnormally large volume of urine
38. Polyuria
39. Diuresis
40. Oliguria
41. Anuria
42. Nocturia
A
B
A
B
D
A
A
A
A
B
ANSWER
38. E
39. A
40. C
41. B
42. D
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
13.
14.
15.
16.
43. Proteins are present without the presence of albumin
A. False positive
B. False negative
44. A blue color forms for the protein reaction, if the urine is exposed to the
reagent strip for too long
A. False positive
B. False negative
45. The reaction for protein may be produced, if a urine specimen is
exceptionally alkaline or highly buffered
A. False positive
B. False negative
46. In the reaction to detect blood in the urine, microbial peroxidase activity
associated with urinary tract infection can produce
A. False positive
B. False negative
47. In the detection of blood in the urine, ascorbic acid in urine specimens
containing more than 25 mg/dL
A. False positive
B. False negative
48. Medications (e.g., azo-containing compounds or dyes that color urine red
or that turn red in an acidic medium when testing for nitrite for the detection
of bacteria in urine)
A. False positive
B. False negative
49. Urinary preservatives in urine testing for leukocyte esterase
A. False positive
B. False negative
MATCHING
A. Exposure to nephrotoxic substances
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Acute pyelonephritis
D. Glomerular damage
50. White blood cell casts
51. Epithelial casts
52. Red blood cell casts and red blood cells
53. Bacterial casts
B
A
A
A
B
A
A
ANSWER
50. B
51. A
52. D
53. C
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
MATCHING
A. Found in acid urine
B. Envelope-shaped, glistening and colorless
C. Coffin lids
D. Colorless slender needles that are strongly birefringent with polarized
light
E. Yellow or reddish-brown shapes (e.g., lemon- or barrel-shaped forms)
54. Amorphous urates
55. Uric acid
56. Calcium oxalate
57. Triple phosphate
58. Acyclovir
1.My 59. Mycology is the study of:
A. Viruses
B. Parasites
C. Yeasts and molds
D. Bacteria
2.What 60. What is the name of the type of infection that is acquired in a hospital?
A. Opportunistic infection
B. Normal flora
C. Community acquired infection
D. Nosocomial infection
61. All of the following are structures found in prokaryotic organisms except:
A. Mitochondria
B. Capsules
C. Ribosomes
D. Cell wall
62. Which of the following systematic designations is correct?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus Aureus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus Aureus
63.What is the biosafety level of most clinical microbiology laboratories?
A. Biosafety Level 1
B. Biosafety Level 2
C. Biosafety Level 3
D. Biosafety Level 4
64.Which of the following is a false statement when considering proper
disinfection processes?
A. The disinfectant should be dried immediately for best results.
B. Phenol and diluted bleach are two effective disinfectants.
C. The work area should be disinfected prior to use and again when work is
completed.
D. Disinfection is an ongoing process.
ANSWER
54. A
55. E
56. B
57. C
58. D
C
D
A
C
B
A
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
65. The technique of killing or destroying all microorganisms including
bacterial spores (endospores) is called:
A. Antisepsis
B. Sterilization
C. Physical disinfection
D. Chemical disinfection
66. Which of the following is a sterilization procedure that uses moist heat
and how is this method effective in killing bacterial spores?
A. Filtration; filters all microbes larger than the filter pore size
B. Boiling; kills all microorganisms and spores at 100C (boiling)
C. Hot-air chamber; kills all microorganisms and bacterial spores at 171C
for at least 1 hour
D. Autoclaving; kills all microorganisms and bacterial spores at 121C for
15 minutes at 15 lb above atmospheric pressure
67. Sending appropriately labeled and collected specimens before antibiotic
therapy to the laboratory is important because:
A. Pathogenic bacteria will be hard to recover because of the effects of the
antibiotic.
B. Improperly labeled specimens will cause erroneous results and possible
serious consequences for the patient.
C. Collection of specimens from around the wound area can result in
contamination of the culture.
D. Collection of a sputum specimen contaminated with saliva could yield a
culture result that reflects normal mouth flora.
E. All of the above.
68.Which of the following specimens can be refrigerated?
A. Urine for routine culture
B. Cerebrospinal fluid
C. Genital culture
D. Culture for meningitis
69.Which of the following methods is appropriate to collect blood for culture?
A. Cleaning the venipuncture site with 70% alcohol
B. Cleaning the venipuncture site with 70% alcohol, followed by povidoneiodine, moving in a circular motion from the intended venipuncture site
outward
C. Cleaning the venipuncture site with 70% alcohol, followed by povidoneiodine, moving in a circular motion beginning at the periphery of the area
to be cleaned inward toward the venipuncture site
D. All of the above methods can be used for collection of blood for culture
70. Which of the following specimen types for culture can be collected in a
clean, nonsterile container?
A. Urine
B. Stool
C. Cerebrospinal fluid
B
D
E
A
B
B
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
71. A growth of bacteria that began as one parent bacterium and divided
multiple times to become a visible aggregate is called a:
A. Culture
B. Pure culture
C. Slant culture
D. Colony
72. .Routine microbiology laboratories have incubators that are set at all of
the following temperatures except:
A. 30 C
B. 35 C
C. 42 C
D. 50 C
73. Which of the following is a differential stain used routinely in
microbiology laboratories?
A. Methylene blue
B. Flagella stain
C. Gram stain
D. Capsule stain
74. The prefix strepto- refers to bacteria in which of the following groupings?
A. Clusters
B. Pairs
C. Chains
D. Singular
75. Why do gram-positive bacterial cells retain the crystal violet–iodine
complex when the decolorizer is added?
A. Gram-positive cells have an outer membrane that traps the complex.
B. Gram-positive bacterial cells have a thinner peptidoglycan layer with
teichoic acid cross-linkages.
C. Gram-positive bacterial cells have a thicker peptidoglycan layer with
teichoic acid cross-linkages.
D. Gram-positive bacterial cells have a thick capsule layer that traps the
complex.
76. What is the color of gram-negative bacterial cells after the decolorization
step?
A. Purple/blue
B. Red/pink
C. Iodine yellow
D. Colorless
77. Which of the following is the “cold” method for staining acid-fast
bacteria?
A. Ziehl-Neelsen
B. Kinyoun
C. Fluorochrome
D. All of the above
D
D
C
C
C
D
B
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
Which 78. Which of the following bacteria are typically stained using the acid-fast
technique?
A. Mycobacteria
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
D. Escherichia coli
Which 79. Which type of microscope is used to observe acid-fast bacteria when they
are stained with auramine and rhodamine?
A. Brightfield
B. Electron
C. Fluorescent
D. All of the above
22.Gro 80. Growth of several colonies originating from a single colony, and thus a
single cell, is known as a:
A. Subculture
B. Primary culture
C. Mixed culture
D. Pure culture
Which 81. Which of the following descriptions refer to colony morphology?
A. Cocci in chains
B. Cocci in pairs
C. Shiny, wet, or mucoid
D. Yellow, dry, rough
E. A and B
AB. C and D
Which 82.Which of the following is an organism that can grow in the presence or
absence of oxygen?
A. Aerobe
B. Anaerobe
C. Facultative anaerobe
D. Microaerophile
Where 83. Where do strict aerobes grow in thioglycolate broth?
A. At the top
B. In the middle
C. At the bottom
D. Throughout the broth
Media 84. Media that have dyes, antibiotics, or other chemical compounds added to
inhibit certain bacteria while allowing others to grow is called _____ media.
A. Enrichment
B. Supportive
C. Selective
D. Differential
A
C
D
AB
C
A
C
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
Media 85.Media that contain factors such as lactose with an indicator present to give
distinctive, recognizable characteristics is called _____ media.
A. Enrichment
B. Supportive
C. Selective
D. Differential
Chocol 86. Chocolate agar contains all of the following except:
A. Antibiotics
B. X factor
C. V factor
D. Lysed blood
29.
87. Which of the following is a selective and differential medium for
the recovery of gram-positive organisms?
A. Columbia colistin-nalidixic acid agar with blood (CNA)
B. Eosin-methylene blue agar (EMB)
C. MacConkey agar (MAC)
D. Xylose-lysine desoxycholate agar (XLD)
30.
88. If a microbiologist wants to add a selective and enriched medium
for the recovery of Neisseria gonorrhoeae from genital specimens,
which of the following would be appropriate?
A. Chocolate agar (CHOC)
B. Sheep blood agar (SBA or BA)
C. Modified Thayer-Martin agar (MTM)
D. Phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA)
89. A microbiologist observes colonies on Hektoen enteric agar (HE)
that appear green. Which of the following organisms should the
microbiologist suspect?
A. Salmonella spp.
B. Escherichia coli
C .Proteus spp.
D. Shigella spp.
90. Which of the following tests identifies Staphylococcus aureus?
A. PYR and catalase
B. Catalase and coagulase
C. Bile solubility and optochin
91. Which of the following is a positive catalase test?
A. Fibrin clot
B. Bubbles of oxygen
C. Visible clumping
D. Blue-green color
92. Which of the following tests is primarily done to presumptively
identify Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Spot oxidase
B. Coagulase
C. PYR
D. Spot indole
D
A
A
C
D
B
B
A
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
39.
93. Which of the following is a rapid method to screen sputum
specimens for the yeast Cryptococcus neoformans?
A. Coagulase
B. Urease
C. Indole
D. Oxidase
94. The microbiologist uses TSI and LIA agars to rule out stool
pathogens, Salmonella and Shigella spp. The reactions observed are
TSI: K/A, H2S+ and LIA: R/A. What should the technologist do next?
A. Report Salmonella spp. recovered.
B. Report Shigella sp. recovered.
C. Report normal stool flora.
D. Repeat all testing.
95. The technologist uses TSI and LIA agars to rule out stool pathogens,
Salmonella and Shigella spp. The reactions observed are TSI: K/A H2S+ and
LIA: K/K. What should the technologist do next?
A. Report Salmonella spp. recovered.
B. Report Shigella spp. recovered.
C. Do further biochemical and serological tests to confirm Salmonella spp.
D. Repeat all testing.
96. Which of the following media contain sodium thiosulfate and
ferric ammonium citrate for the detection of hydrogen sulfide
production?
A .Hektoen enteric agar (HE)
B. Triple sugar iron agar (TSI)
C. Lysine iron agar (LIA)
D. Xylose-lysine-desoxycholate agar (XLD)
E. All of the above
97. A clean-catch midstream urine specimen is sent to the laboratory
for culture. The results of the culture yield three organisms present,
with no predominating organism. What type of workup should the
technologist do?
A. Complete workup of all organisms present
B. No workup because of possible contamination
C. Workup one of the organisms
D. Workup two of the organisms
98. A positive leukocyte esterase and nitrite test (urine rapid-screening
test strips) indicates:
A. Most likely the patient has a UTI.
B. The patient definitely does not have a UTI.
C. A new specimen should be collected because these tests indicate
contamination.
D. The test strips are not reacting properly, and the quality control
should be rechecked.
B
C
C
E
B
A
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
99. If a urine culture was planted using a 0.001-mL loop and 75
colonies were observed, what is the colony-forming units per
millimeter of urine (CFU/mL)?
A. 75 CFU/mL
B. 750 CFU/mL
C. 7500 CFU/mL
D. 75,000 CFU/mL
100. Rapid screening of throat specimens (nonculture method) is done
to detect which of the following pathogens?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Group A ß-hemolytic streptococcus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
101. Which of the following describes alpha hemolysis on sheep
blood agar?
A. Complete clearing around the colonies of the red blood cells in the
medium
B. Partial hemolysis of the red blood cells in the medium appearing as
a green discoloration of the medium
C. Partial hemolysis of the red blood cells in the medium appearing as
a slight clearing around the colonies
D. No hemolysis of the red blood cells in the medium; therefore no
change in the color of the medium
102. Which of the following tests can be used to identify group A ßhemolytic streptococcus?
A. PYR test
B. Bacitracin disk
C. Optochin
D. A and B
E. B and C
103. Which of the following is/are done to identify Streptococcus
pneumoniae?
A. Ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride
B. Optochin
C. Bile solubility
D. Desoxycholate
E. All of the above
104. Which of the following is one cause of bacterial vaginosis and is
best diagnosed by the presence of microscopic “clue cells”?
A. Gardnerella vaginalis
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
D
C
B
D
E
A
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
105. Which of the following is an obligate intracellular pathogen that
is a prevalent sexually transmitted disease?
A. Gardnerella vaginalis
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
106. Which of the following organisms can be routinely detected by
culture and nucleic acid testing?
A. Gardnerella vaginalis
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D.Trichomonas vaginalis
E. A and C
AB. B and C
AC. C and D
107. A progressive syndrome with symptoms of fever, chills, low
blood pressure, respiratory distress, and disseminated intravascular
coagulation is called:
A. Bacteremia
B.Septic shock
C. Transient bacteremia
D. Exotoxin
108. A common gram-negative organism found in blood is:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Coagulase-negative staphylococci
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
109. Which of the following bacteremias can result from possible
wound abscesses and are present for a time in the blood, followed by a
period with no bacteria?
A. Intermittent bacteremia
B. Transient bacteremia
C. Septicemia
D. Continuous bacteremia
110. Which of the following is false about blood cultures?
A. Blood/medium ratio 1:2 to 1:5
B. Blood/medium ratio 1:5 to 1:10
C. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate (anticoagulant)
D. Broth medium
C
AB
B
B
A
A
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
111. Automated methods of culturing blood have replaced traditional
methods in most laboratories because of:
A. More rapid detection time for many pathogens
B. Monitoring of growth without visual inspection or subculture of the
bottles
C. The ability to use the report in conjunction with a computerized
laboratory management information system
D. All of the above
112. The lowest concentration of an antimicrobial agent that will
visibly inhibit the growth of the organism being tested is called:
A. Bacteriostatic
B. Bactericidal
C. Minimal inhibitory concentration
D. Minimum bactericidal concentration
113. Which of the following is an agar disk diffusion method of
testing for antimicrobial susceptibility?
A.Microdilution
B. Macrodilution
C.Kirby-Bauer method
D. Minimum bactericidal concentration
114. How do you interpret no zone of inhibition around an antibiotic
disk in the disk diffusion method?
A.Susceptible
B.Resistant
C.Intermediate
D. Repeat testing; there should always be a zone of inhibition
115. A microbiologist is preparing a Mueller-Hinton agar for disk
diffusion testing and has inoculated the plate with the appropriate
standardized inoculum. The microbiologist is interrupted by a phone
call from a physician that takes 20 minutes to track the requested
information. How should the technologist proceed with the disk
diffusion testing?
A. Continue as planned and place the disks on the agar plate.
B. Continue as planned, but add quality control testing to ensure
proper results.
C. Discard the plate and, with the same inoculum, swab a new
Mueller-Hinton agar.
D. Discard the plate and the inoculum and start anew.
116. All of the following are characteristics of fungi except:
A. Cell wall made of peptidoglycan
B.Hyphae
C. “Fuzzy” or woolly appearance
D.Eukaryotic
D
C
C
B
D
A
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
117. A fungal infection that affects the deeper layers of the skin,
including muscle and connective tissue, is called _____ mycosis.
A. Superficial
B. Cutaneous
C. Subcutaneous
D. Systemic
118. Which is the least desirable specimen for fungal cultures?
A. Hair
B. Skin
C. Sterile body fluids
D. Swabs
119. Which of the following organisms can be detected by India ink
staining and appear as budding yeast surrounded by a large clear area
(capsule)?
A. Nocardia spp.
B. Candida albicans
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Candida spp.
120. Which procedure can identify Candida albicans?
A. India ink stain
B.Germ-tube test
C. Gram stain
D. Acid-fast stain
121. Which of the following are the nematodes?
A. Roundworms
B. Flatworms
C. Tapeworms
D. Flukes
122. Which of the following is the feeding and reproductive stage of
protozoa and what consistency of stool would you usually find them
in?
A. Cysts; loose or watery stool
B. Cysts; formed stool
C. Trophozoites; loose or watery stool
D. Trophozoites; formed stool
123. What is the recommended protocol for collection of stool
specimens for ova and parasite (O&P) detection?
A. Three stool samples 1 or 2 days apart, all within a 10-day period
B. Two stool samples 1 or 2 days apart, all within a 5-day period
C. Three stool samples 1 or 2 days apart, all within a 5-day period
D. Two stool samples 1 or 2 days apart, all within a 10-day period
C
D
C
B
A
C
A
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
124. Which of the following specimens is appropriate for detection of
Plasmodium spp.?
A. Stool
B. Wound
C. Blood
D. Urine
125. Motile trophozoites found microscopically in fresh urine or fresh genital
secretions is diagnostic for which of the following parasites?
A. Plasmodium spp.
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Pneumocystis jiroveci
126. The cellophane tape method is used to detect which of the following?
A. Plasmodium spp.
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Pneumocystis jiroveci
127. What is the diagnosis from the following Gram stain of urethral
discharge from a male:
 Many polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)
 Few gram-negative intracellular diplococci
128. Interpret the following case study:
A 25-year-old female presented to the emergency room with vaginal
discomfort. The physician ordered a hanging drop (wet prep for Trichomonas
vaginalis), KOH prep, Gram stain, culture, and Gen-Probe. The results are:
Hanging drop: no motile trichomonas seen, clue cells present
KOH prep: no fungal elements seen
Gram stain:
Many gram-variable bacilli
Few squamous epithelia
Rare amount gram-positive bacilli
Genital culture: pending
Gen-Probe: negative for Neisseria gonorrhoeae and negative for Chlamydia
trachomatis
129. A fundamental principle of immunology is recognition of:
A. Body cells
B. Molecules
C. Self from non-self
D. Antibodies
130. Serology is the study of:
A. Antigens
B. Antibodies
C. Chemical reactions
D. Infectious diseases
E. Both A and B
C
B
C
Neisseria
gonorrhoeae
Gardnerella
vaginalis
causing
bacterial
vaginosis (BV)
C
E
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
131. Age is a factor that influences an individual’s defense against disease.
A. True
B. False
132. Factors that influence an individual’s defense against disease include
status of general health.
A. True
B. False
133. Factors that influence an individual’s defense against disease include
nutritional status.
A. True
B. False
134. Factors that influence an individual’s defense against disease include
taking mega-doses of vitamins.
A. True
B. False
135. The first line of body defense is:
A. Unbroken skin
B. Normal biota
C. Body fluids (e.g., tears, saliva)
D. All of the above
136. Another name for innate immunity is ____ immunity.
A. Natural
B. Inborn
C. Acquired
D. Both A and B
137. The second line of body defense consists of:
A. Neutrophils, tissue basophils, macrophages
B. Complement and lysozyme
C. Interferon
D. All of the above
138. The third line of defense is:
A. Acquired
B. Adaptive
C. Natural
D. Both A and B
139. Humoral-mediated immunity is associated with:
A. T lymphocytes
B. B lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Monocytes
140. Immediate hypersensitivity reactions are associated with:
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgD
A
A
A
B
D
D
D
D
B
C
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
141. Arrange the stages in an antibody response in the correct sequence.
1 = Log phase
2 = Lag phase
3 = Plateau phase
4 = Decline
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 2, 3, 1, 4
C. 4, 2, 1, 3
D. 2, 1, 3, 4
142. A typical antibody response takes about ____ to develop sufficiently.
A. 24 hours
B. 72 hours
C. 1 week
D. 2 weeks
143. The antibody subclass associated with a primary response is:
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgD
D. IgE
144. The antibody subclass associated with a secondary response is:
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgD
D. IgE
145. An anamnestic response differs from a primary antibody response in
several important aspects. A secondary response has a longer lag phase, a
longer plateau phase, and a more gradual decline in antibody titer.
A. True
B. False
146. An anamnestic response differs from a primary antibody response in
several important aspects. IgG-type antibodies are the principal class of
antibody formed in a primary response.
A. True
B. False
147. An anamnestic response differs from a primary antibody response in
several important aspects. In a secondary response, antibody concentrations
reach a higher titer.
A. True
B. False
148. An anamnestic response differs from a primary antibody response in
several important aspects. The plateau levels in a secondary response are
typically tenfold or more than the plateau levels in the primary response.
A. True
B. False
D
D
A
B
B
B
A
A
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
149. Agglutination is comprehensively defined as:
A. Aggregation of soluble test antigens
B. Aggregation of particulate test antigens
C. The physical attachment of antibody molecules to antigens
D. The establishment of cross-links between sensitized particles
150. A popular method for waived, over-the-counter testing is:
A. Chemiluminescence
B. Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)
C. Signal amplification technology
D. Enzyme immunoassays
151. A convalescent blood specimen should be collected ____ after the onset
of symptoms.
A. 24 hours
B. 72 hours
C. 1 week
D. 2 weeks
152. -HCG can be detected in over-the-counter tests in about ____ after a
missed period.
A. 2 to 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 8-10 days
D. 12 days
153. Testing for ß-hCG is more sensitive if ____ is used as a specimen.
A. Urine
B. Serum
C. Saliva
D. Tears
154. If urine is used for pregnancy testing, it should be:
A. First morning
B. Random
C. 24-hour
D. Sterile
155. A positive reaction when using the MonoSlide rapid slide test for
infectious mononucleosis indicates the presence of:
A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Heterophil antibodies
C. Forssman antibodies
D. Guinea pig antibodies
156. The antinuclear antibody (ANA) assay is specific for systemic lupus
erythematosus.
A. True
B. False
B
157. Rheumatoid factor has been associated with IgM, IgG, and IgA
immunoglobulin classes.
A. True
B. False
A
D
D
D
B
A
B
B
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR
158. Rheumatoid factors are autoantibodies.
A. True
B. False
159. In testing for rheumatoid factor, lipemic or hemolyzed specimens can cause:
A. False positive results
B. False negative results
C. No effect on the test results
A
160. In testing for rheumatoid factor, systemic lupus, syphilis or hepatitis can
cause:
A. False positive results
B. False negative results
C. No effect on the test results
161. In the RPR test for syphilis, the presence of conditions such as
infectious mononucleosis can cause:
A. False positive results
B. False negative results
C. No effect on the test results
Match the term with the appropriate definition.
A. Vaccination
B. Infusion of plasma containing antibodies
C. Obtained from colostrum
D. As a result of suffering from the disease
162. Active natural immunity
163. Active artificial immunity
164. Passive natural immunity
165. Passive artificial immunity
Match the leukocyte type with a specific function
A. Recognition of foreign antigen and antibody production
B. Phagocytosis and antigen-presentation
C. Phagocytosis without antigen presentation
166. Granulocytes
167. Monocytes-macrophages
168. Lymphocytes-plasma cells
Match the antibody response term with the correct description.
A. No detectable antibody
B. Antibody titer stabilizes
C. Antibody is catabolized
D. Antibody titer increases
169. Lag
170. Decline
171. Log
172. Plateau
Match each statement with correct item below.
A. A conjugated antibody is used to detect antigen-antibody reactions.
B. Antibodies can act as antigens and react with antiimmunoglobulins.
173. Direct immunofluorescent assay (DFA)
174. Indirect immunofluorescent assay (IFA)
A
A
A
162.D
163.A
164.C
165.B
166.C
167.B
168.A
169.A
170.C
171.D
172.B
173.A
174.B
MLT 210 Flashcards UNIT FOUR