Geology Assessment
Gale Martin and Dr. Cindy Shroba
Academic Year 2009-2010
Assessment of geology outcomes was performed using exam questions presented
within all five sections of Geol 101. The questions were uniform across all sections
(WC, HN and CY) and distributed throughout three hourly exams and one final exam. A
total of 96 questions were presented as per the outcomes listed below. The final exam
included numerous repeated questions to determine retention percentages for previous
material. Longitudinal testing was preformed in the Academic year of 2009-2010 to
determine if the Academic year of 2008-2009 percentages could be correlated with the
question or student body.
Uniform laboratory exams for both rock/minerals identification and map
interpretation were given in all sections of Geol 101L. Results are given in the attached
table.
The learning outcomes were assessed as follows:
Outcome #1: Students will be asked exam question(s) on the scientific method.
Questions: 1 - 5
Outcome #2: Students will be able to Identify common rocks and minerals with the aid
of classification tables and describe general processes involved with their
formation.
Lab Rock and Mineral Exam
Questions: 6, 7, 9 – 15, 26 - 41
Retention: 6, 14, 26, 28, 30, 34, 35 – 39, 40
Outcome #3: Students will be asked exam question(s) to recognize geologic time and
explain the principles used to correlate rock formations.
Questions: 42 – 46
Retention: 43, 45 - 46
Outcome #4: Students will be asked exam question(s) to describe and apply physical and
chemical properties for the development of landforms using erosion,
transportation and deposition as fundamental earth processes.
Questions: 47 - 82
Retention: 51, 53, 58, 63, 68, 69, 71, 74, 81, 82
Outcome #5: Students will be asked exam question(s) to describe and apply physical
properties as related to the modern Theory of Plate Tectonics, including structural
and seismic processes.
Questions: 8, 16 – 25, 83 - 96
Retention: 8, 16, 22 – 24
Outcome #6: Students will be expected to read and interpret topographic and geologic
maps.
Lab Map Interpretation Exam
Summary of Assessment Data:
Assessment data for the lecture exam questions in contained in the database
attached. The percentage of correct responses varied greatly between outcomes.
Fall 2009
Exam I
Exam II
Exam III
Final
Retention
71%
62%
63%
62%
70%
Spring2010
Exam I
Exam II
Exam III
Final
Retention
69%
57%
63%
62%
68%
Retention rates from the final exam remained above the desired goal of 65%. The
percentages were consistent between semesters (+- 3%).
Interpretations:
Several ideas may be available to explain the trends present in the data. Outcomes
#1 (Scientific Methods) and #5 (Plate Tectonics) are topics that are covered in other
science classes, including high school classes and non-geologic courses. The material
may represent an in depth ‘review’ of familiar topics. The material also represents an
overview of the basic theory behind geology/earth science. This ‘previous knowledge’ of
the topic probably results in higher percentages of correct responses (71% (F09) – 69%
(S10)).
Outcomes # 2 - #4 include presentations of detailed information concerning new
topics unique to the field of geology. This is reflected by the drop in percentages from
Exam I (Outcomes #1 & #5; (71% (F09) – 69% (S10)) to Exam 2 (Outcomes #2 - #3;
(62% (F09) – 57% (S10)). After the initial drop in success rates, a gradual rise in
percentages in seen in Exam 3 (Outcome #4; (63%) and the Final (Outcome #5: 62%; and
retention 69%). This increase in success could arise from several factors including: an
increase in understanding as the semester progresses, development of better study skills
or the loss of students through attrition and or withdrawal (10%).
Goals:
The Introductory geology course, Geol 101, includes several populations of
students including both majors and general education populations. The abilities of our
students varies from students with little to no study skills and poor math, reading and
writing skills to students who are prepared and dedicated to a scientific field of study.
Different goals must be set to address the differences in the student body.
Retention: The foremost goal of the geological sciences is to make the course
available to all levels of individuals. This means that retention is an important aspect of
our area of study. Our goal is to try and maintain a higher percentage of students
throughout the semester. Increases in student numbers and decrease in support (library,
counseling, tutorial services, etc. due to budget cuts) may make retention difficult if the
students are not prepared.
Overall success in the course: The geologic sciences would like to see the overall
average of the course success remain between 60% and 65% success rates.
Tables to follow:
Laboratory Assessment (Outcome #2 & #6)
Lecture Questions for Assessment of Outcomes #1 - #5
Summary of Success Rates for Lecture Questions: (attached)
Fall 2009 & Spring 2010 (Fall 2008 & Spring 2009)
Laboratory Exam Assessment Averages: (attached data)
Fall 2008:
WC & CY
HN
Outcome #2:
Rock and Mineral Identification Exam:
Outcome #6:
Map Interpretation Exam:
Spring 2009:
Combined
62.8%
65.2%
63.8%
83%
81.2%
82.2%
WC
HN & CY
Combined
Outcome #2:
Rock and Mineral Identification Exam:
Outcome #6:
Map Interpretation Exam:
67%
62.2%
64.4%
83.6%
81%
82.2%
Fall 2009:
WC
CY
HN
68.6%
77.1%
66.9%
68.5%
71.4%
84.4%
76.1%
74.2%
Outcome #2:
Rock and Mineral Id Exam:
Outcome #6:
Map Interpretation Exam:
Spring 2010:
Outcome #2:
Rock and Mineral Identification Exam:
Outcome #6:
Map Interpretation Exam:
WC
Combined
HN & CY
Combined
72.8%
58.9%
67.5%
83.6%
58.4%
74.2%
Laboratory examination scores (Outcome #2) increaseed slightly and achieved the
desired 65% success rate. Outcome #6 scores dropped. A new set of questions (computer
skills) were tested in the final lab exam. These skills were based on homework
assignments (Geotours) and reflect the low completion of the assignments.
Lecture Exam Questions for Outcomes #1 – #5:
1)
Read the following scenario regarding a scientific investigation and answer the questions that
follow:
A geologist is told that many landslides have occurred in a particular area. He/She is asked to
investigate what caused a recent landslide. He/She contacts the individuals that reported the most recent
landslide and learns that a major earthquake occurred in the area just prior to the landslide. The geologist
records the following statement in his/her notes: “Earthquakes have something to do with the landslides.”
He/She studies maps and aerial photographs of the area centered around the recent earthquake and finds
evidence of several additional landslides. The most recent landslide can be correlated with the recent
earthquake motion. The other landslides, however, are covered with vegetation. Samples of the slide
debris are sent to a laboratory for radiocarbon dating. The radiocarbon dates correlate with previous
major earthquake event. The geologist records the following in his/her notes: “Evidence suggests that the
recent earthquake correlates with the recently reported landslide event. Similar relationships have likely
taken place in the past.”
A)
What is the original question being investigated by this geologist
B)
Circle, within the paragraph, the statement that represents the hypothesis the scientist used to
answer the question posed.
C)
Was the hypothesis confirmed by the investigation or did it have to be modified?
D)
Describe/explain the method(s) used to test the hypothesis.
E)
Describe the observations that led to the formation of the hypothesis.
2)
After noting a specific occurrence, a scientist develops a hypothesis to explain it. What step
should he/she take next in following the scientific method?
a) Publish the hypothesis and allow other scientists to test and scrutinize it.
b) Test the hypothesis repeatedly to determine its validity, or restate the hypothesis to test results.
c) Continue to gather data to conform to the hypothesis until all variables that could affect the
outcomes of the experiments have been examined.
d) All of the above.
3)
The best definition of a Scientific Theory is:
a)
A generally accepted explanation for a given set of data or observations.
b)
A tentative explanation that fits all the data collected and is expected to account for future
observations.
c)
An educated guess.
d)
An explanation that continues to meet rigorous testing over a long period of time.
4)
Which statement concerning the Scientific Method is incorrect?
a)
A hypothesis can be modified when new data does not support the original idea.
b)
A theory can only be proven incorrect; it can never be proven true.
c)
A hypothesis is a set of ideas that have been tested repeatedly and shown valid.
d)
An experiment is based on a controlled set of variables that are changed one at a time.
5)
The term Theory as used in science refers to:
a)
Principle, assumption and rules derived from the testing of hypotheses devised to explain
related phenomena.
b)
The “Laws of Nature”
c)
Educated speculation, conjecture, assumptions or notions based on abstract reasoning and
expressed with scientific jargon.
d)
A hypothesis or supposition.
e)
Predictive statements about the future based on numerical data and the results of repeated
experimentation.
6)
The eight most common elements in Earth’s crust are, in order of increasing abundance:
a)
Mg, P, S, Ca, Fe, Al, Si, and O
b)
Mn, K, Na, C, Fe, Al, Si, and O
c)
Mg, K, Na, Ca, Fe, Al, Si, and O
d)
Mg, Fe, Pb, K, Na, Al, Si, and O
e)
Mn, Al, K, Na, Co, Fe, Si, and O
7)
The attachment of an atom to one or more adjacent atoms is called
a)
ionizing
b)
coagulating
c)
super glue
d)
bonding
8)
Which of the following is the source of Earth’s internal heat?
a)
friction from the movement of the plates
b)
heat retained from the original formation of the Earth
c)
the single process of radioactive decay melting rock
d)
combustion of coal seams in the Earth’s lower crust
9)
Given a liquid with varying temperatures, the transfer of heat within that fluid is called
a)
Accretion
b)
Radiation
c)
Conduction
d)
Adhesion
e)
Convection
10)
The basic building block of all silicates is
a)
basal sheets
b)
c)
hexagonal prisms
d)
silica tetrahedrons
silicon wafers
11)
What two variables need to be determined to measure a mineral’s density?
a)
color and cleavage
b)
weight and mass
c)
mass and volume
d)
oxygen and silicon content
12)
The most common minerals in the earth’s crust are
a)
oxygen and silicon
b)
feldspar and amphibole
c)
quartz and feldspar
d)
olivine and pyroxene
e)
muscovite and biotite
13)
A naturally occurring inorganic solid having a definite chemical composition and an ordered ionic
arrangement is the definition of a(n):
a) rock
b) ion
c) molecule
d) mineral
e) silicate
14)
Which of the following statements regarding mineral identification is NOT true?
a)
Hardness is determined using Mohs Hardness Scale.
b)
Streak is determined by observing if there are scratches or streaks on the sample.
c)
Luster refers primarily to whether the mineral appears to be metallic or nonmetallic.
d)
Cleavage refers to the tendency of the mineral to break or cleave along distinct planes.
15)
Olivine, plagioclase and muscovite belong to which mineral class (chemical group)?
a)
elemental
b)
carbonates
c)
oxides
d)
silicates
e)
sulfides
16)
The lithosphere is composed of
a)
the crust
b)
the crust, mantle and outer core
c)
the top 100 m of sediment and sedimentary rock
d)
the crust and uppermost rigid mantle rock
17)
A lithospheric plate is a large mobile slab of rock that consists of
a)
upper mantle and lithosphere
b)
oceanic crust and continental crust
c)
continental crust and mantle
d)
crust and upper mantle
18)
Hot spots are caused by
a)
friction due to the lithosphere sliding along the top of the asthenosphere.
b)
unusually dense concentrations of radioactive isotopes at various places under the crust.
c)
Hot mantle plumes that rise up through the lithosphere.
d)
Partial melting of the slab as it is pushed through the asthenosphere.
19)
Hot spots are:
a)
regions where spreading ridges are particularly active, eg. Iceland
b)
sites where melting of descending oceanic crust is very rapid.
c)
sites along spreading ridges where plumes of magma rise from the mantle.
d)
sites within plates or along their boundaries where stationary mantle plumes rise to the
surface.
e)
geological features which cannot be explained by plate tectonics.
20)
At which kind of plate boundary is new lithosphere created?
a)
Divergent
b)
Convergent
c)
d)
Subduction
e)
All of the above
Transform
21)
Divergent Plate Boundaries are the area where:
a)
new continental lithosphere is formed.
b)
new oceanic lithosphere is formed.
c)
two plates come together.
d)
two plates slide past each other.
e)
B and D.
22)
Pangaea is the term applied to the
a)
layer that exists all around earth between the crust and mantle.
b)
ancient supercontinent consisting of today’s separate continents merged into a single
landmass.
c)
fossils found on both the east coast of South American ad west coast of Africa, used to
prove continental drift theory.
d)
global nature of earthquake occurrence and volcanic eruptions.
23)
Alfred Wegener presented all of the following as lines of evidence is support of continental drift
EXCEPT:
a)
the jigsaw puzzle fit of the continents.
b)
the age of sea-floor rocks and sediments.
c)
identical animals, both living and fossil, found on widely separated continents.
d)
ancient climates completely out of place with modern geographical locations.
24)
The three types of plate boundaries are:
a)
continental, oceanic and lithospheric
b)
collision, subduction and divergent
c)
convergent, divergent and conformational
d)
convergent, divergent and transform
e)
convergent, divergent and rifting
25)
The source of the magma for subduction zone volcanism is the
a)
core
b)
blast furnace
c)
partial melting of descending slabs
d)
asthenosphere
26)
The classification of intrusive igneous bodies depends on all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
composition and texture.
b)
orientation with country rock.
c)
size.
d)
shape.
27)
The last minerals to crystallize in a granitic magma are
a)
pyroxene and quartz
b)
c)
amphibole and ca-plagioclase
d)
e)
Ca-plagioclase and quartz
quartz and Na-plagioclase
olivine and muscovite
28)
Which of the following pairs of rock names does NOT represent intrusive and extrusive rocks of
the same chemical composition?
a)
granite-rhyolite
b)
gabbro-basalt
c)
peridotite-pumice
d)
diorite-andesite
29)
Basaltic lavas tend to be
a)
sticky and highly viscous
c)
rich in quartz and feldspar minerals
e)
All of the above
b)
d)
fluid
relatively cool
30)
A volcano with broad slopes between 2 and 10 deg, constructed of solidified lava flows is
a)
a volcanic dome
b)
a cinder cone
c)
a composite volcano
d)
a shield volcano
31)
The predominant kind of volcano in the circum-Pacific belt is the
a)
shield volcano
b)
composite volcano
c)
cinder cone
d)
volcanic dome
32)
Which of the following statements concerning magma is NOT true?
a)
Magma is molten rock that flows within the Earth.
b)
Magma may be completely fluid.
c)
Magma may be a combination of liquid, solid crystals, and dissolved gases.
d)
Magma may be completely solid, but of small enough crystals that it flows like a liquid.
33)
Mechanical weathering can:
a)
change the internal composition of minerals.
b)
transport rock and mineral fragments to different locations.
c)
convert particular minerals into more stable forms.
d)
change the size and shape of rock materials.
34)
Which statement is NOT correct?
a)
iron from the weathering of granite oxidizes into minerals such as hematite
b)
the quartz released from the weathering of granite may eventually become part of a
sandstone
c)
clay minerals released from the weathering of granite may eventually become shale
d)
each of the minerals in a granite weather in approximately the same way
35)
Detrital (clastic) sediment texture is identified on the basis of:
a)
the mineral composition of the particles.
b)
the relative percentages of each of the three categories of particles sizes.
c)
the way the sediments clump together in the formation of sedimentary rocks.
d)
the size, shape, and arrangement of the particles.
36)
The sequence of steps in sedimentary rock formation is
a)
erosion, weathering, deposition and lithification
b)
weathering, lithification, deposition and erosion
c)
weathering, erosion, deposition and lithification
d)
erosion, weathering, lithification and deposition
e)
weathering, deposition, erosion and lithification
37)
Sediment includes
a)
loose material at the earth’s surface
b)
sand on a beach
c)
chemically precipitated solids
d)
organically precipitated material
e)
all of the answers are correct
38)
Metamorphic rocks form through all of the following processes EXCEPT:
a)
chemically changing under the influence of heat.
b)
recrystallizing under tremendous pressure.
c)
chemically changing under the influence of ion-containing fluids.
d)
melting and recrystallizing.
39)
The term foliation in metamorphic rocks refers to:
a)
the inclusion of fossilized plant remains in the rock.
b)
a quantitative measure of the degree of metamorphism.
c)
a consistent orientation of the mineral grains.
d)
folding of the rock by directed pressure.
40)
Which series shows the progression of a metamorphic rock form original deposition to the highest
grade of metamorphism?
a)
mud → gneiss → schist → phyllite → slate → shale
b)
mud → slate → schist → phyllite → shale → gneiss
c)
mud → shale → slate → phyllite → schist → gneiss
d)
mud → schist → phyllite → gneiss → slate → shale
41)
Which of the following is not typically a metamorphic mineral?
a)
garnet
b)
talc
c)
chlorite
d)
olivine
42)
If the half-life of a radioactive isotope is 2 billion years, and we measure the daughter to be 75%
of a particular sample, the age of the sample would be about
a)
2 billion years
b)
1 billion years
c)
4 billion years
d)
3 billion years
43)
Which of the following sequences of geologic time is incorrect?
a)
Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian, Devonian, Mississippian
b)
Permian, Pennsylvanian, Triassic, Jurassic, Cretaceous
c)
Jurassic, Cretaceous, Tertiary, Quaternary
d)
Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic
e)
Devonian, Carboniferous, Permian, Triassic, Jurassic
44)
The largest units of geologic time are
a) eras b) epochs c)eons d) periods
45)
e) columns
Placing geologic events in sequential order as determined by their position in the rock record is
called:
a)
numerical dating
b)
uniformitarianism
c)
relative dating
d)
correlation
e)
historical dating
46)
The age of the Earth is estimated to be:
a) 4 billion years
b) 3.6 billion years
d) 4.6 million years e) 10,000 years
c) 4.6 billion years
47)
An arroyo or wash refers to
a)
the inner bank of a meander, where sediment is deposited.
b)
an earthen levee designed to reduce flooding in a portion of the floodplain.
c)
an intermittent stream channel that only has discharge after rainfall or snowmelt.
d)
a point in a stream channel where it is relatively easy to cross.
48)
The velocity of flowing water in a natural stream channel
a)
depends upon channel shape and roughness
b)
is greatest in the central part of a straight channel
c)
is greatest on the outside of a meander bend
d)
is related to gradient of stream channel
e)
all of the above
49)
A delta forms when:
a)
the sediment load becomes too great
b)
the stream’s velocity decreases rapidly when it flows into a body of water
c)
the discharge becomes too great for the channel area
d)
the stream’s competency increases dramatically
e)
none of the answers are correct
50)
Most caves have been formed by:
a)
air pockets left in the crust of the Earth after the Earth first cooled.
b)
the dissolution of limestone or carbonate bedrock.
c)
the abrasive action of sediment carried by groundwater.
d)
the hydraulic action of rapidly flowing underground streams.
51)
Which of the following statements concerning a stream’s sediment load is NOT true?
a)
The brown color in muddy rivers is caused by a high dissolved load.
b)
Large stones that cannot be carried within a stream’s suspended load can sometimes be
transported by traction in the stream’s bed load.
c)
Fine particles of clay are transported as part of the suspended load.
d)
The suspended load and bed load, but not the dissolved load, are responsible for abrasion
by streams.
52)
The basic conditions necessary for the formation of a glacier is
a)
low temperatures
b)
more fresh snow accumulates than is lost by melting
c)
a change in climate
d)
increased precipitation
e)
high mountains and cold temperatures
53)
Glaciers with more accumulation than ablation will have a terminus that
a)
advances
b)
recedes
c)
remains in about the same location through time
d)
not enough information is given to answer the question
54)
In his studies of the Grand Canyon region in the late 1800’s, J. W. Powell defined base level as the
a)
maximum slope angle that rocks can be piled until failure results
b)
downward limit of groundwater flow
c)
cause of most landslides
d)
lowest elevation that a stream can erode its channel
55)
When discharge from a shallow water well exceeds recharge or the rate of groundwater flow:
a)
a cone of depression is created
b)
subsidence of the ground will occur
c)
saltwater intrusion will occur
d)
the rate of recharge will increase to match the rate of discharge
e)
the rate of groundwater flow will decrease
56)
Dust sediment in the wind’s suspended load;
a)
travels in a narrow layer of dead space along the surface of the ground.
b)
travels at about the same height and distance of the bed load.
c)
travels at about twice the height and distance of the bed load.
d)
can travel in the upper atmosphere for a distance of thousands of kilometers.
57)
V-shaped stream valleys result from the downcutting of stream erosion and
a)
mass wasting on the valley sides b)
isostatic rebound
c)
the “rule of V’s”
d)
conservation of angular momentum
e)
erosion of the sides by glaciers
58)
Deserts that form on the leeward side of mountain ranges are:
a)
subtropical deserts.
b)
rain shadow deserts.
c)
continental interior deserts.
d)
deserts near cold ocean currents.
59)
Which is not a characteristic of deserts?
a)
intermittent streams
c)
rounded topography
b)
d)
internal drainage
well-developed alluvial fans
60)
Water flowing from hot springs
a)
contains more dissolved minerals than water emanating from cool springs
b)
contains less dissolved minerals than water emanating from cool springs
c)
is never hotter than 40 degrees Centigrade, so it is always safe to bathe in
d)
only occurs in regions of active volcanism.
61)
The angle of repose is
a)
the slope angle necessary for mass movement to occur
b)
the maximum slope possible for stable sediment
c)
a horizontal slope
d)
a situation where layered rocks dip parallel to the slope surface
62)
Deserts are defined by
a)
number of sunny days
c)
average annual temperature
e)
amount of sand
b)
d)
amount of precipitation
vegetation
63)
A moraine is
a)
an erosional feature of a valley glacier
b)
an erosional feature of a continental glacier
c)
the general term for all deposits resulting form a glacier
d)
an accumulation of till deposited directly by the action of glacial ice
64)
Any place where groundwater naturally flows from the surface of Earth is termed
a)
a flowing artesian well
b)
hot spring or geyser
c)
spring or seep
d)
recharge region
65)
One of the differences between till and outwash is that:
a)
till is a product of erosion while outwash is a product of deposition
b)
till is deposited by glacial ice while outwash is deposited by glacial meltwater.
c)
till is due to glacial quarrying while outwash is a product of glacial abrasion.
d)
till is deposited by alpine glaciers while outwash is deposited by continental ice sheets.
66)
Continental glaciers are found today
a)
widely distributed all over the world
b)
in the Northern Hemisphere only
c)
on the five major continents
e)
in Greenland and Antarctica
d)
in Alaska
67)
The most recent ice age occurred during the;
a)
Precambrian Eon
b)
Pleistocene Epoch
c)
Mesozoic Era
d)
Cambrian Period
e)
Tertiary Period
68)
In general, the dominant erosional landforms in desert regions are developed by
a)
wind
b)
groundwater
c)
running water
d)
chemical weathering
e)
sand blasting
69)
The Mojave desert of California is so dry because
a)
it is located in the rain shadow of the Sierra Nevada mountains
b)
the Colorado river has been diverted extending desert regions into previously semi-arid
lands.
c)
it is found within the 20-30 degree north latitude zone
d)
cold ocean currents once flowed past this portion of North American and robbed it of its
atmospheric moisture.
70)
The fundamental cause of all mass wastage events is:
a)
sudden rains causing instability
b)
a sudden shock to the ground
c)
material which is inherently unstable
d)
gravity overcoming the slope’s resisting force
e)
the slope’s resisting force overcoming gravitational force
71)
Porosity is;
a)
the size of pores within the rock/sediment
b)
the percentage of open space within the rock/sediment
c)
the inter-connectedness of pores within the rock/sediment
d)
the percentage pore space filled by water
e)
none of the above
72)
Desert pavement is a concentration of
a)
sand left behind as dust is removed by the wind
b)
sand cemented by calcium carbonate
c)
dust or loess remaining after a wind storm
d)
gravel size particles left as wind removes sand and dust
e)
rounded cobbles found within a deflation basin
73)
Water tends to promote mass wasting because:
a)
it adds weight to the slope material
b)
it decreases inter-grain friction (adds buoyancy)
c)
it can lubricate the base of the unstable slope
d)
all of the above answers are correct
e)
mass marketing inundates the area
74)
Which of the following statements about deserts is true?
a)
Desert landscapes consist mostly of sand.
b)
Deserts are commonly devoid of either plant or animal life.
c)
Desert climates are always hot and dry.
d)
Every continent on Earth contains at least one extensive dry region.
75)
Which of the following factors can actually enhance slope stability?
a)
water content
b)
vegetation
c)
overloading
d)
rocks dipping the same direction as the slope
e) none of the answers are correct
76)
Glaciers erode mainly by
a)
wetting and drying
c)
plucking and abrasion
e)
solution and frost wedging
b)
d)
thermal expansion and contraction
ablation and melting
77)
The wind deposit referred to as loess has these properties:
a)
unsorted, mixed angular and rounded cobbles, many with striations
b)
well sorted, mixed angular and rounded gravel, many with striations
c)
poorly sorted sand and clay mixture, sand is angular
d)
well sorted angular silt grains that are interlocking
78)
Natural levees result when:
a)
streams flood their banks and deposit sediment directly on top of the banks.
b)
streams erode downward in their channel, leaving their banks higher relative to the
surface of the stream.
c)
hard, erosion-resistant rocks become part of a stream’s banks.
d)
streams flowing parallel to a main stream deposit material on top of the main stream’s
flood plain.
79)
Major problems affecting the groundwater supply in Las Vegas include:
a)
lowering of the groundwater table and water pressure
b)
ground subsidence
c)
loss of the artesian pressure system
d)
contamination
e)
all of the answers are correct
80)
A drainage basin is:
a)
a geological structure, such as the Illinois Basin, which contains a stream system.
b)
all small streams connected to a large stream
c)
a region bounded by divides, containing all the tributaries of a main stream and carrying
all the runoff from the entire region
d)
a region defined by the four longest streams, each extending in a cardinal direction
e)
a region bounded by sizable bodies of water, such as the Michigan Basin, bounded on
three sides by the Great Lakes
An aquifer is a body or rock or sediment
a)
where every pore space is filled with water
b)
where water can move and yield sufficient water for use
c)
which does not permit passage of water
d)
that has groundwater of exceptional quality
81)
82)
Which of the following is NOT related to low latitude deserts?
a)
latitude of approximately 15-35 degrees
b)
high atmospheric pressure due to sinking air
c)
hot, dry climate
d)
groundlevel wind blowing away from the equator
e)
the Sahara Desert
83)
Which of the following is true of anticlines and synclines?
a)
Anticlines are caused by compressive stress, while synclines are caused by tensional
stress.
b)
In anticlines, the oldest rocks are in the center; in synclines, the youngest rocks are in the
center.
c)
An anticline is present wherever there is a hill; a syncline is present wherever there is a
valley.
d)
Anticlines are a result of plastic deformation, whereas synclines are a result of elastic
deformation.
84)
The three types of stress important to geology are;
a)
compressional, extensional, torsional
b)
shearing, rotational, torsional
c)
conformational, tensional, rotational
d)
compressional, extensional, rotational
e)
compressional, tensional, and shear
85)
If a rock breaks in response to stress, the strain is known as:
a)
elastic strain
b)
plastic strain
c)
d)
duct-tape strain
e)
deformational strain
brittle strain
86)
An orogeny is defined as:
a)
uplift of strata to form mountains
b)
an episode of intense deformation and metamorphism
c)
emplacement of plutons
d)
all of the above
e)
A and B
87)
A force applied over a given area of a rock mass that can change its shape is
a)
stress b)
faulting
c)
fracture
d)
strain
88)
The change is the shape or size of a rock in response to a force acting upon I is
a)
fracture
b)
faulting
c)
stress d)
strain
89)
A fracture in a rock along which displacement has occurred is a
a)
dike
b)
fault
c)
bedding plane
d)
cleavage plane e)
joint
90)
To triangulate the epicenter of an earthquake, a seismologist must use all of the following types of
information EXCEPT:
a)
a distance vs. time plot of both P waves and S waves.
b)
the depth of the earthquake and the type of fault from which it originated.
c)
the difference in travel times between P waves and S waves.
d)
the distance from the epicenter to at least three different seismological stations.
91)
The two primary types of seismic waves are known as:
a)
primary and secondary waves
b)
c)
surface waves and P-waves
d)
e)
shear waves and P-waves
92)
surface waves and body waves
shear waves and body waves
The magnitude of an earthquake is another term for:
a)
its intensity
b)
the damage created
c)
the energy released
d)
the duration of trembling
e)
the motion of the waves
93)
An epicenter is:
a)
the location where rupture begins
b)
the point on the Earth’s surface vertically above the focus
c)
the same as the focus
d)
the location where energy is released
e)
none of the answers
94)
Seismologists now agree that most major earthquakes originate from
a)
large-scale landslides
b)
movement along faults
c)
volcanic activity
d)
convection in the outer core
e)
subsurface magma
95)
The distribution of earthquakes on the planet Earth
a)
clearly indicates plate boundaries
b)
occurs parallel to all folded mountains
c)
is a random throughout the earth
d)
clearly indicates continental margins
e)
is restricted to areas of fault zones in the shield
96)
Which seismic waves can pass through both the inner and outer core?
a)
P-waves
b)
S-waves
c)
both P- and S-waves
d)
surface waves