MCD – Genetics 4 - Prenatal diagnosis of genetic diseases Anil Chopra 1. Describe the use of non-invasive tests - maternal serum screening and ultrasound. Indications for Prenatal Testing: • High Risk of Aneuploidy » High risk on Down Syndrome screening » Previous aneuploid foetus » Maternal request e.g. Age • Known Genetic Disorder » Achondroplasia » Cystic Fibrosis » Haemoglobinopathies » X Linked disorder » Parental Balanced Translocation • Structural Anomaly detected in Foetus on Routine Ultrasound Screening Maternal Serum Screening Maternal serum screening – α-fetoprotein – at 16 weeks. High in pregnancies with a neural tube defect. Low in Down’s syndrome pregnancies. However, there is a large overlap between levels in normal and affected pregnancies. Ultrasound Can detect neural tube defects and any gross abnormality. Down’s syndrome – nuchal thickness and translucency detected on ultrasound. Down’s Syndrome Testing α-fetoprotein detects 40% of Down’s babies. triple test (at 16 weeks) also measures unconjugated estriol and human chorionic gonadotropin. Identifies about 70% of cases but with a fairly high false positive rate. This is combined with ultrasound (18 weeks) detecting nuchal fold. Invasive tests then follow on suspected cases or on older mothers. In the screening of Downs Syndrome: - May see Nuchal translucency (be able to see through the tissue just behind the skull) from ultrasound nuchal scan. - Irregular serum markers. - Absent nasal bones on ultrasound. (Limited as some ethnic groups contain no nasal bones). If they see any of these they do a number of different tests: • Triple test 14-21 weeks: AFP, unconjugated oestriol (uE3), and hCG together with maternal age. • Nuchal Translucency Scan (NT scan) 11-136 weeks: measurement of the fold of skin on the back of the foetal neck (Nuchal Translucency) together with the maternal age. • Quadruple test 14-21 weeks: AFP, uE3, free β-hCG (or total hCG) and inhibin-A together with maternal age. • Combined test 10-136 weeks: NT measurement with free β-hCG, PAPP-A and maternal age. • Integrated test - this is the most accurate and reliable. Integration of NT measurement and PAPP-A in the first trimester with serum AFP, β-hCG, uE3 and inhibin A in the second 2. Describe the use of invasive tests – amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling The invasive tests used will show karyotype, allow for DNA analysis and biochemical analysis. They include: Amniocentesis Process of Amniocentesis • Needle applied to abdomen of mother and amniotic fluid drawn out. • Amniocentesis is performed more than 15 weeks into pregnancy. • It is an aseptic technique - gloves, no touch. • There is continuous Ultrasound guidance. • The placenta is avoided. • Uses a 22G needle with a stylet. • The first 2ml is discarded and only the final 15-20ml is aspirated. Complications of Amniocentesis • Has 1% procedure related miscarriage. • There is the complication of Rh (rhesus) sensitivity and so all Rh negative women get Anti D within 72h. • 1.3% procedure-related liquor leakage. • Infection, <0.1%, if suspected do repeat amnio, if GS + suggest emptying uterus Analysis of Amniotic Fluid • Foetal cells concentrated in centrifuge (skin, pulmonary, urogenital, extraembryonic membrane cells). • Cells cultured in multiple cultures (14 days) (Culture failure rate 0.5% (1:200)) • Maternal contamination is rare. • Human error • If mosaicism is seen in only one cell then it is said to be a culture artefact (problem arising from culture). Only if it is in more than one cell can this be significant. Chorionic Villus Sampling CVS The process of chorionic villus sampling. • Parts of the chorionic villus are taken in by needle, cultured and tested on. • CVS is performed from 11 weeks onwards. (an advantage over amniocentesis) • Transabdominal or transcervical – ultrasound guided. • Short term culture - gives count in 48 hours • Ideal for DNA analysis • Tertiary referral unit • Risk of miscarriage 0.5-2%. The risks of chorionic villus sampling are similar to those of amniocentesis apart from: • 2% increased risk from limb defects. Analysis of Chorionic villi • Culture cells for 14 days - Primarily fibroblasts which are derived from inner cell mass and therefore more representative of foetus. • 1:200 Mosaicism - Usually confined placental mosaicism (<10% confirmed in foetus) Foetal Blood Sampling • A transplacental needle is inserted into where the umbilical cord meets the placenta or a transamniotic into the intrahepatic vein. • Transabdominal ultrasound scanner guided. • Done from 18 weeks onward. • Asceptic conditions • CVS and amniocentesis are preferred for karyotype • Primary use if for assessing foetal anaemia. 3. Describe the use of karyotype analysis and FISH for detection of chromosomal abnormalities. FISH Fluorescent in situ hybridisation Fluorescent DNA probes are used and hybridised with the normal DNA. They will bind to those sequences that are complementary to themselves and so show up any similar DNA fragments. 4. Describe the use of PCR for mutation detection with examples PCR involves the use of DNA primer to amplify a specific small region of the genome. DNA in this region can then be analysed for mutations. Advantages of PCR: - very little DNA needed – 1 cell - very fast – 1 day - can be automated Disadvantages of PCR: - easy to get contamination - can only amplify 2kb at a time - need to know precise region you are interested in Detection of CFTR by PCR Allele specific PCR – also known as amplifican refractory mutation system or ARMS test. Uses different set of primers to recognise normal and mutant sequence. For each set up two reactions: - PCR with primer A and the common primer – amplifies normal DNA - PCR with primer C and the common primer – amplifies mutant DNA Just A indicates homozygous normal. A and C indicated heterozygous (carrier) Just C indicates homozygous mutant (CF phenotype) As there are over 1000 different mutations it is hard to test for all of them – generally 5 tested for which picks up 80% of cases. Detection of Deletions in DMD Using PCR, amplify up to 10 exons at once. As long as the products are all different sizes you can detect whether all the exons are present. 5. Outline factors to consider for counselling of genetic disease. Non-invasive screening – generally carried out on all pregnancies and can detect major abnormalities, neural tube disorders and Down’s syndrome Invasive screening – only carried out if there is a high risk detected by screening or due to family history of genetic disease. No population screening programs for genetic disease in place in this country due to: - invasion of privacy – genetic counselling always given prior to testing - stigma attached to carriers – insurance - racism - cost Screening for β-thalasseamia major implemented in Sardinia where it is very common. Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis Superovulate mother. Collect eggs. Fertilise with sperm from father. Culture to 8 cell stage (3 days). Take one cell and assay by PCR – select embryos to implant in mother. Children born almost always normal – no side effects. Can be used to create a saviour sibling with matching MHC for blood transplant from umbilical cord to cure β-thalassaemia. Use of PGD carefully regulated in Britain by Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority (HFEA). Ten clinics hold HFEA licenses for PGD – conditions include: - β thalassaemia - DMD - Cystic Fibrosis - Huntington’s Disease - Haemophilia - Familial adenomatous polyposis In addition one centre has a license for PGD plus tissue typing (to create a saviour sibling). The benefit must primarily be for the unborn child – cannot be tissue typed if not already at risk of disease.