PROPAEDEUTIC PEDIATRICS
(For the Students of the Medical Faculty, the 3rd Year of Study)
TESTS REVIEW
MODULE 1. DEVELOPMENT OF A CHILD
1. The main developmental achievement of toddlers is:
A. Sexual maturation
B. Stabilization of body temperature
C. Ill-proportion body appearance
D. Ability to walk and to speak
E. Complete dependence on others
2. Emotional problems are observed more often among:
A. Toddlers
B. Infants
C. Neonates
D. Preschoolers
E. School-age children
3. Leading cause of preschoolers’ death is:
A. Accident
B. Sepsis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Congenital malformation
E. Anorexia nervosa
4. All of the following are characteristics of the premature’s skin, except for:
A. Thin and delicate
B. Redness
C. Absence of lanugo
D. Vernix covers whole body
E. All of the above
5. The respiratory rate for a normal full-term infant is ____ per minute:
A. 10
B. 16
C. 20
D. 35
E. 50
6. A newborn is evaluated 60 sec after delivery and exhibits: heart rate of 80, slow and irregular respiration, some flexion of
the extremities, grimacing when a catheter is placed in nostril, pink body and blue extremities. The Apgar score is:
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
E. 10
7. A newborn, under normal conditions, stops losing weight by the _ day:
A. 3rd
B. 5th
C. 7th
D. 12th
E. 15th
8. A low birth weight baby weighs no more than _______ grams at birth:
A. 1500
B. 1850
C. 2500
D. 2800
E. 3000
9. Which one of the following is not an indication of prematurity:
A. Ear lobes lack cartilage and are pliable
B. Scalp hair is thick and long
C. Breast nodule is not palpable before 36th week
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D. Testes are not fully descended, scrotum is small
E. Soles of feet show only the transverse creases
Most full-term infants regain their birth weight by the age of:
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 10 days
D. 3 weeks
E. 4 weeks
Neonatal physiologic weight loss is characterized by:
A. Infants regain their birth weight by 3rd day
B. Weight loss correlates with birth weight
C. Weight loss does not exceeds 8 %
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Physiologic jaundice of the newborn is characterized by:
A. Maximum is evident by the 5th day
B. Is due to immature function of the liver
C. Is the result of intensive erythrocyte destruction after the birth
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
The mean birth weight for a mature newborn of 38 wk gestation:
A. 2390
B. 2510
C. 2630
D. 3050
E. 4280
Most full-term infants regain their birth weight by the age of:
A. 1 day
B. 3 days
C. 10 days
D. 3 weeks
E. 4 weeks
Full-term infants usually double their birth weight by:
A. 1 mo
B. 2 mo
C. 5 mo
D. 8 mo
E. 9 mo
By 4 mo the head circumference is about:
A. 35 cm
B. 38 cm
C. 41 cm
D. 44 cm
E. 47 cm
During the second year a child will gain about __________ kg:
A. 1,0
B. 1,5
C. 2,5
D. 3,5
E. 4,0
9 mo old boy normally has a head circumference of:
A. 35 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 45 cm
D. 50 cm
E. 52 cm
During the first six months of life the head circumference increases to about:
A. 1,50 cm
B. 1,75 cm
C. 2,00 cm
D. 2,50 cm
E. 2,75 cm
Failure to thrive of I stage is characterized by weight deficiency:
А. 5 – 10%
В. 10 – 15%
С. 10 – 20%
D. 20 – 30 %
Е. 25 – 30%
21. Subcutaneous fat disappears completely in failure to thrive of IInd stage from:
А. Face, abdomen
В. Abdomen, trunk, extremities
С. Face
D. Extremities
Е. Abdomen, trunk, face
22. Congenital failure to thrive means:
А. Low birth weight
В. Prematurity
С. Low birth weight in correspondence to the body length
D. Low birth weight in correspondence to gestational age
Е. None of the above
23. Excess weight in infants is termed:
А. Failure to thrive
В. Eutrophia
С. Atrophy
D. Overnutrition
Е. Undernutrition
24. Obesity of IIIrd stage is characterized by excess weight about:
А. 10 – 15%
В. 20 – 30%
С. over 30%
D. 50 – 100 %
Е. over 100%
25. Following is seen in pituitary dwarfism:
А. Weight deficiency, mental retardation
В. Short limbs, normal IQ
С. Excess weight, mental retardation
D. Normal body proportions, mental retardation
Е. Normal body proportions and IQ
26. Which one of the following achievements would not be expected in a 3-mo old:
A. Follow an object through an arc of 180 degrees
B. Smile on social contact
C. Attempt to make contact with an offered object
D. Produce some sounds of pleasure, on social contact
E. Show a preference for the person giving him the most care
27. By 6 mo the infant should be able to:
A. Change the orientation of his body in order to extend hand toward a toy
B. Assume a standing position without help
C. Take some steps with hands held
D. Perform all of the above
E. Accomplish none of the above
28. Shows fear of strangers; appearance of family love; quick changes from crying to laughing – best describes the child
from:
A. 4 – 8 wk
B. 5 – 6 mo
C. 7 – 8 mo
D. 12 – 14 mo
E. 18 – 20 mo
29. All of the following are characteristics of the 5 yr-old, except for:
A. Appetite is usually good, may be slow in eating
B. Loves his home and family
C. Fears of losing mother
D. Good memory for past events
E. Understands rules of “right” and “wrong”
30. Sits steady; plays pat-a-cake; holds own bottle, says “Mama”, “Dada” – best describes the child from:
A. 7 – 8 mo
B. 8 – 9 mo
C. 10 – 11 mo
D. 12 – 13 mo
E. 14 – 15 mo
31. At 12 mo of age a child should:
A. Carry out 4 directions with a ball
B. Turn pages of book singly
C. Feed self well
D. Names 1 or more colors correctly
E. Walks with 1 hand held
MODULE 2. ANATOMICAL AND PHYSIOLOGICAL PECULIARITIES AND METHODS OF
ASSESSMENT OF ORGAN SYSTEMS OF CHILDREN. SEMIOTICS OF PEDIATRIC
DISEASES
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Irritation of meningeas is characterized by following, except:
А. Headache
В. Positive Kerning’s sign
С. Stiff neck
D. Photophobia
Е. Positive Babinskij sign
Hyperacousia is seen in:
А. Convulsive disorders
В. Epilepsy
С. Irritation of meningeas
D. Coma
Е. Stupor
Congenital hydrocephalus is characterized by following, except:
А. Microcephalus
В. Mental retardation
С. Ptosis
D. Dilated scalp veins
Е. Widening of the scalp sutures
Slow movements, consisting of alternating supination-pronation of the limbs are defined as:
А. Athetosis
В. Тics
С. Тremor
D. Chorea
Е. Seizures
Composition of CSF of a healthy child:
A. Cells – 10, proteins – 0,33 g/L, glucose – 2,0 ммоl/L
B. Cells – 20, proteins – 1,33 g/L, glucose – 2,0 ммоl/L
C. Cells – 30, proteins – 1,5 g/L, glucose – 0,6 ммоl/L
D. Cells – 500, proteins – 5,5 g/L, glucose – 1,0 ммоl/L
E. Cells – 1000, proteins – 0,33 g/L, glucose – 1,0 ммоl/L
Irritation of meningeas is characterized by following, except:
A. Headache
B. Vomiting
C. Ptosis
D. Hyperesthesia
E. Neck stiffness
CSF pressure of a healthy child is (mm of water (H2O lateral decubitus):
A. 50 – 70
B. 80 – 150
C. 150 – 180
D. 20 – 50
E. 5 – 10
Tetanus is characterized by following, except:
A. Tonic seizures
B. Clonic seizures
C. Laryngeal spasm
D. Hypocalciemia
E. Hyperphosphatemia
Febrile seizures mostly are seen within:
A. First three months of life
B. 6 mo – 3 yr
C. 3 yr – 5 yr
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D. 5 yr – 10 yr
E. Puberty period
Asymmetry of facial movements is seen in dysfunction of one of the following pair of cranial nerves:
А. V
В. VII
С. IX
D. XI
Е. XII
Central paralysis is characterized by:
А. Hypotonic muscles
В. Diminished reflexes
С. Pathological reflexes
D. Weakness of muscles
Е. Fibrillations of muscles
“Setting-sun” sign is seen in:
А. Meningitis
В. Epilepsy
С. Hydrocephalus
D. Cerebral palsy
Е. Arachnoiditis
Kerning’s sign is seen in:
А. Toxicosis
В. Central paralysis
С. Epilepsy
D. Convulsive disorders
Е. Meningitis
Convulsions are seen in following cases, except:
А. Vitamin D deficient tetanus
В. Encephalitis
С. Hyperthermia
D. Brain tumor
Е. Early neonatal period
Cerebellum function is assessed by one of the following test:
А. Neck stiffness
В. Accommodation test
С. Test for stereognosis
D. Romberg’s test
Е. Brudzinskij test
All of the following are characterized by a maculopapular eruption, except:
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Smallpox
D. Acne vulgaris
E. Infectious mononucleosis
Sclerema neonatorum is characterized by following, except:
A. Skin is stony and cold
B. Mask-like expression of the face
C. Is associated with serious illness
D. Is seen primarily in preterm, sick infants
E. Lesions enlarge peripherally, finally produce crippling contractures
Cyanosis is seen in:
A. Hepatitis
B. Lupus erythematosus
C. Anemia
D. Asthma
E. Addison disease
Brown fat tissue is characterized by following, except:
A. Comprises the bulk of the body fat
B. Can provide baby with heat during 1-2 days
C. Contains a dark pigment
D. Prominent in back-neck area, around thyroid gland
E. Prominent in the newborn
Circumscribed solid elevation of skin < 1cm is named:
A. Macula
B. Vesicle
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C. Nodule
D. Pustule
E. None of above
Circumscribed elevation containing serous fluid or blood, < 1 cm is named:
A. Papule
B. Vesicle
C. Nodule
D. Tumor
E. Macula
“Butterfly rash” is seen in:
A. Henoch- Schönlein purpura
B. Adrenal insufficiency
C. Lupus erythematosus
D. Albright syndrome
E. Measles
Scales are defined as:
A. Retained accumulations of blood, serum, pus, epithelial debris on the surface of a weeping lesion
B. Layers of stratum corneum cells that are retained on the skin surface
C. Splittings or cracklings, those occur in dry skin
D. Lesions, composed of fibrous connective tissue
E. Excavations of necrotic or traumatized tissue
Dry, flaking, wrinkled skin is seen in following diseases, except:
A. Dehydration due to excessive fluid loss
B. Hypovitaminosis A
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Scleroderma
E. Diabetes
Following lesions are defined as primary, except:
A. Scales
B. Nodule
C. Pustule
D. Papule
E. Bullae
Craniotabes is usually found in the:
A. Occipital and parietal bones along lambdoidal sutures
B. Temporal bones over the mastoid
C. Temporal and occipital bones at lateral margins
D. Frontal bones over superciliary ridge
E. Frontal and temporal bones
The first deciduous teeth to erupt are the:
A. Lower central incisors
B. Upper central incisors
C. Upper lateral incisors
D. Lower lateral incisors
E. Lower bicuspids
The first permanent molars usually erupt during the ________ yr of life:
A. 4th
B. 6th
C. 8th
D. 9th
E. 10th
Ossification occurs first in the:
A. Clavicle
B. Radius
C. Tibia
D. Humerus
E. Femur
The mandibular deciduous first molars should erupt by _________ mo:
A. 20 – 30
B. 10 – 16
C. 16 – 20
D. 5 – 7
E. 7 – 10
The deciduous maxillary first molars are shed by _________ yr:
A. 7 – 8
B. 11 – 12
C. 12 – 13
D. 10 – 11
E. 8 – 9
32. The permanent mandibular cuspids erupt by ________ yr:
A. 6 – 7
B. 11 – 13
C. 10 – 12
D. 12 – 13
E. 9 – 11
33. The first permanent teeth to erupt are the:
A. Second premolars
B. Central incisors
C. Second molars
D. First molars
E. Cuspids
34. The anterior fontanel usually closes by:
A. 10 to 16 mo
B. 4 to 6 mo
C. 20 to 24 mo
D. 8 to 9 mo
E. 24 to 28 mo
35. All of the following are associated with osteogenesis imperfecta, except:
A. Child appears normal at birth
B. Bones of extremities are long and thin
C. Healing is very slow
D. Blue sclera
E. Repeated dislocations
36. Arachnodactyly is associated with all of the following, except:
A. Tall and thin patients
B. “Spider fingers”
C. Hyperextennsible joints
D. Microcephalia
E. Abnormally long toes
37. Which one of the following is the least reliable sign associated with congenital dysplasia of the hip?:
A. Asymmetry of skin folds
B. Positive Ortolani sign
C. Acetabulum angle > 40 degrees
D. Lateral displacement of upper end of femur
E. Persistent limitation of abduction of flexed hip
38. Premature closure of the sagital suture of the skull results in:
A. Caput quadratum
B. Mesocephaly
C. Oxycephaly
D. Scaphocephaly
E. Craniotabes
39. All of the following deformities of the chest are seen in rickets, except:
A. Barrel chest
B. Funnel chest
C. Pigeon chest
D. Harrison groove
E. Rachitic rosary
40. For 2 yr old child abnormal is:
A. Marked lumbar lordosis
B. Outward rotation of the hips
C. Feet appear to be flat
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
41. Nasal passages of neonates are:
A. Narrow
B. Wide
C. Developed
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
42. In front of the right side of the body following lobes of the lung are detected by percussion:
A. Superior and inferior lobes
B. Superior and middle lobes
C. Middle and inferior lobes
D. All lobes
E. Only superior lobe
43. Mucous and purulent sputum is seen in:
A. Croup syndrome
B. Pneumothorax
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung abscess
E. All of the above
44. Hacking cough is associated with:
A. Pleurisy
B. Pneumothorax
C. Hydrothorax
D. Pertussis
E. Enlarged paratracheal lymphnodes
45. Increased whispering pectoriloquy is noted in:
A. Pneumonia
B. Pneumothorax
C. Pleural effusion
D. Bronchitis
E. Lung agenesis
46. Excursion of the diaphragm is limited in:
A. Emphysema
B. Meteorism
C. Peritonitis
D. Ascites
E. All of the above
47. Dull sound on percussion is noted in:
A. Bronchitis
B. Pneumothorax
C. Emphysema
D. Pleural effusion
E. Lung cavities
48. Laryngitis usually is manifested by all of the following except:
A. Hoarseness
B. Aphonia
C. Barking cough
D. Stridor
E. Expiratory dyspnea
49. Respiratory failure is characterized by all of the following except:
A. Obvious effort of the accessory muscles
B. Tachypnea
C. Cyanosis
D. Tachycardia
E. Cough
50. Bronchoscopy is recommended in case of:
A. Recurrent cough
B. One side dullness on percussion
C. One side hyperresonance on percussion
D. Croup syndrome
E. All of the above
51. Frontal sinuses are completely developed until:
A. Rarely after the birth
B. 1 – 2 yr
C. 3 – 5 yr
D. 6 – 7 yr
E. 13 – 15 yr
52. Bronchi of infants are characterized by:
A. Perfect development of elastic tissue
B. Perfect vascularization
C. Moisty mucosa
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
53. Hoarseness is noted in:
A. Chronic rhinitis
B. Uvula paralysis
C. Pharyngitis
D. Laryngitis
E. Bronchitis
54. Rhythmic changing of the respiratory depth with regularly recurring periods of apnea is defined:
A. Biot’s respiration
B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
C. Grocco-Frugoni respiration
D. Kussmaul’s respiration
E. Gasping respiration
55. Dull sound on percussion over affected area is noted in:
A. Emphysema
B. Pneumothorax
C. Cyst cavity
D. Diaphragmatic hernia
E. None of the above
56. Nasal quality of the voice is noted in:
A. Pharyngitis
B. Spasmodic croup
C. Retropharyngeal abscess
D. Tonsillitis
E. Adenoids
57. Patient diseased with left side pleural effusion assumes one of the following positions:
A. On the left side
B. On the right side
C. Supine
D. Orthopnea
E. Passive
58. Hydrothorax is associated with all of the following except:
A. Hypoproteinemia
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Staphylococcal pneumonia
E. Cirrhosis
59. Atelectasis can be caused by:
A. Diaphragmatic hernia
B. Neuromuscular abnormalities
C. Pleural effusion
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
60. Pulmonary function testing in case of obstructive respiratory diseases shows:
A. ↓vital capacity, ↓total lung capacity
B. ↑residual volume, ↓flow rates
C. ↓vital capacity, normal flow rates
D. ↓vital capacity, normal residual volume
E. normal vital capacity, ↑flow rates
61. When does the heart become deviated into a typical four-chambered structure?
A. by the 22nd day of gestation
B. during the 3-4 week of gestation
C. during the 4-7th week
D. by the 8-10th week
E. by the 12-14th week
62. What are the peculiarities of the cardiovascular system in infancy?
A. the size of the heart in relation to total body size is larger
B. the ventricle walls are equal in thickness at birth
C. decreasing blood pressure
D. increasing heart rate
E. all of the above
63. When is the ductus arteriosus closed functionally?
A. by the 12 hr
B. by the 4th day
C. 1 wk
D. 3-4 mo
E. 5-6 mo
64. When does the ductus arteriosus anatomicaly obliterate?
A. by the 1-2nd wk
B. by the 3-4th wk
C. 1-3 mo
D. 5-6 mo
E. by 1yr
65. At rest sleep examination of 1-yr-old child the heart rate 150 beats per minute are found. Heart sounds are clean, rhythm is
correct. Are these findings normal? If not, how do you interpret them?
A. normal
B. bradycardia
C. sinus arrhythmia
D. tachycardia
E. pulsus paradoxus
66. Tall, narrow, and spiked P wave in ECG is associated with
A. large ventricular septal defect
B. mitral ctenosis
C. hyperkalemia
D. pulmonary stenosis
E. patent ductus arteriosus
67. Widened P wave, bifid and sometimes biphasic indicates
A. hyperkalemia
B. hypokalemia
C. mitral ctenosis
D. pulmonary stenosis
E. left ventricular enlargement
68. Palpable vibrations most commonly produced by the flow of blood from one chamber of the heart to another through a
narrowed or abnormal opening are
A. point of maximum impulse
B. pericardial friction rubs
C. murmurs
D. thrills
E. none of the above
69. What heart sound is the result of vibrations produced during ventricular filling?
A. S1
B. S2
C. S3
D. S4
70. What heart sound is the result of the closure of the pulmonic and aortic valves?
A. S1
B. S2
C. S3
D. S4
71. What statement is false? Innocent murmurs generally are
A. systolic, they occur with or after S1
B. of short duration
C. have no transmission to other areas of the heart
D. grate III or less in intensity
E. Not variable in relationship to position, respiration and activity
72. Determinate the grade of the intensity of heart murmur – loud, audible in all positions, but not accompanied by thrill
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
73. Which of the following is the most common congenital heart defect in infants and children (excluding the neonatal
period)?
A. ASD
B. VSD
C. PDA
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D. Coarctation of the aorta
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
A 4-month-old infant is noted to have a grade 4 holosystolic murmur that is harsh over the left parasternal border. Results
of both the chest radiograph and ECG are normal, and the child is otherwise asymptomatic. The most likely cause of this
murmur is
A. large VSD with 3:1 shunt
B. an ASD secundum defect
C. a small VSD
D. pulmonic stenosis
E. pink tetralogy of Fallot
A 1-day-old newborn is noted to be cyanotic. Physical examination reveals a grade 2-3/6 systolic murmur and a single
loud second heart sound. The chest radiograph reveals a normal-sized heart and decreased pulmonary vascular markings.
The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals left ventricular dominance. The most likely diagnosis is
A. persistent pulmonary hypertension
B. transposition of the great arteries
C. truncus arteriosus
D. pulmonary atresia
E. total anomalous venous return
A 3-day-old presents with fussiness and poor feeding. On examination, the heart rate is noted to be 250. The ECG reveals
a rate of 250, a QRS of 0.07 second, and no visible P waves. The most likely diagnosis is
A. ventricular tachycardia
B. supraventricular tachycardia with aberrant conduction
C. supraventricular tachycardia
D. heart block
E. none of the above
A previously well 3 1/2-month-old presents with poor feeding, diaphoresis during feeding, and poor growth. Vital signs
reveal respirations of 70, pulse of 175, and blood pressure of 90/65 mm Hg in the upper and lower extremities. The cardiac
examination reveals a palpable parasternal lift and a systolic thrill. A grade 4 holosystolic murmur and a middiastolic
rumble are noted. The chest radiograph reveals cardiomegaly. The most likely diagnosis is
A. cardiomyopathy
B. myocarditis
C. VSD
D. coarctation of the aorta
E. transposition of the great arteries
A 12-year-old female is noted to have a blood pressure of 170/110 mm Hg during a routine grade physical examination for
school sports participation. She is asymptomatic but has been noted to have a grade 1-2/6 short systolic murmur at the left
sternal border. The next important step in her evaluation should include
A. chest radiograph
B. ECG
C. funduscopic examination
D. lower extremity blood pressure
E. a tilt test
By what week of gestation palatal fusion is completed?
A. 4 wk.
B. 8 wk
C. 12 wk
D. 16 wk
E. 20 wk
When does bile secretion begin?
A. 8 wk
B. 12 wk
C. 20 wk
D. 24 wk
E. 28 wk
In what term of gestation is meconium present in bowel?
A. 4 wk
B. 8 wk
C. 12 wk
D. 16 wk
E. 24 wk
In what term of gestation do enamel and dentin deposite?
A. 10 wk
B. 16 wk
C. 20 wk
D. 24 wk
E. 30 wk
83. Chose the wrong statement about newborn stomach.
A. capacity of the stomach is 10-20 ml
B. the stomach lies horizontally
C. cardiac sphincter is flexed
D. emptying time of the stomach is 2.5-3 hours
E. the acidity of gastric juice is low
84. What enzyme does saliva contain?
A. pepsin
B. amylase
C. lactase
D. lipase
E. peptidase
85. All of the following gastrointestinal symptoms may be normal in an infant EXCEPT
A. regurgitation
B. frequent stools
C. green-brown transition stools
D. jaundice in neonates
E. melena
86. All following factors are suggesting a nonphysiologic cause of jaundice in neonatal EXCEPT
A. it appears on the 2nd day
B. serum bilirubin is greater than 12 mg/dl in full-term newborn
C. jandice persists after the 2nd wk of life
D. pallor; hepatomegaly; splenomegaly;
E. dark urine positive for bilirubin
87. All following nondigestive tract disorders can produce vomiting EXCEPT
A. increased intracranial pressure
B. infection (e.g. urinary tract)
C. adrenal insufficiency
D. botulism
E. meningitis
88. All of the following disorders can produce constipation EXCEPT
A. hypothyroidism
B. opiate use
C. dehydratation
D. hypokalemia
E. adrenal insufficiency
89. Dysphagia in infants and children may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT
A. diphtheria
B. botulism
C. cerebral palsy
D. achalasia
E. gastroesophageal reflux
90. Small volume, frequent, bloody stools with tenemus and urgency is the predominant symptom of
A. enteritis
B. gastritis
C. gastroenteritis
D. colitis
E. pancreatitis
91. What disease should you suspect in case if a catheter used at berth for resuscitation cannot be inserted into the stomach,
the infant has excessive oral secretions, if choking, cyanosis or coughing occurs with an attempt at feeding?
A. gastroesophageal reflux
B. achalasia
C. esophageal atresia
D. pyloric stenosis
E. Meckel diverticulum
92. A 3-week-old male has nonbilious romiting following each feeding. After feeding there is a visille gastric peristaltic wave
that progresses across the abdomen. The most likely diagnosis in this child is
A. chalasia
B. achalasia
C. esophageal atresia
D. intussusception
E. pyloric stenosis
93. A 2-year-old child has abdominal destention, pale, foul-smelling, bulky stools, muscle wasting, poor weight gain and
growth retardation. The most likely diagnosis is
A. malabsorption
B. ulcerative colitis
C. Corhn disease
D. Hirchsprung disease
E. Meckel diverticulum
94. Clinical manifestations of liver disease may be all of the following symptoms EXCEPT
A. ascites
B. jaundice
C. pruritus
D. encephalopathy
E. diarrhea
95. What biochemical tests are highly sensitive indices of hepatic excretory dysfunction?
A. ALT (alanine aminotraasferase)
B. AST (aspartate aminotransferase)
C. unconjugated fraction of serum bilirubin
D. hypoglycemia
E. hypoalbuminemia
96. The most common explanation for colic in an infant is
A. formula intolerance
B. otitis media
C. constipation
D. teething
E. none of the above
97. Oliguria is frequently a manifestation all of the following EXCEPT:
A. acute renal failure
B. hypovolemia
C. hypotension
D. DIABETES INSIPIDUS
E. cystitis
98. Polyuria (excessive urine output) is the most common symptom all of the following EXCEPT:
A. diabetes insipidus
B. diabetes mellitus
C. psychogenic polydipsia
D. nephritic syndrome
E. INTAKE DIURETIC AGENTS
99. Heavy proteinuria is associated with:
A. kidney infection
B. acute renal insufficiency
C. NEPHROTIC SYNDROME
D. urinary tract infection
E. cystitis
100. The most common cause of acute prerenal failure is:
A. glomerulonephritis
B. SHOCK
C. nephrotoxicity (e.g., from heavy metals)
D. renal venous obstruction
E. obstruction urine flow by stones
101. The most common cause of acute renal parenchymal failure is:
A. hypotension
B. renal artery occlusion
C. dehydration
D. GLOMERULONEPHRITIS
E. hypovolemia
102. A 5-year-old has 1 day of cola-colored urine with red blood cell casts and blood pressure above the 95 th percentile for age.
Two weeks ago, he had a culture-positive streptococcal infection. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. ACUTE GLOMERULONEPHRITIS
B. acute pielonephritis
C. acute renal failure
D. nephrotic syndrome
E. chronic renal insufficiency
103. A 2-year-old girl presents fever and vomiting. Urinalysis is found leukocyte 60, and bacteria. The most likely diagnosis
is:
A. glomerulonephritis
B. PYELONEPHRITIS
C. acute renal failure
D. nefrotic syndrome
E. renal venous obstruction
104. An infant of a mother with insulin dependent diabetes has a hematocrit of 68%. On the 3-rd day of life, he suddenly
manifests gross hematuria and a flank mass on the left. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. meconium plug
B. pyelonephritis
C. RENAL VENOUS THROMBOSIS
D. hydronephrosis
E. adrenal hemorrhage
105. A healthy, 14-year-old black girl experiences the sudden onset of gross hematuria, which persists for 2 days. All of the
following are reasonable immediate steps in the evaluation of this patient EXCEPT:
A. hemoglobin electrophoresis to exclude hemoglobin S
B. cystoscopy to establish the site of bleeding
C. blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine measurement
D. urine culture
E. renal ultrasonography to assess renal anatomy
106. In infants with urinary tract infection the most common manifestation is
A. FEVER
B. dysuria
C. frequency
D. costovertebral angle tenderness
E. incontinence
107. The most common abdominal mass in a neonate is
A. renal dysplasia (hydronephrosis)
B. Wilms’ tumor
C. neuroblastoma
D. Meckel diverticulum
E. Ovarian teratoma
108. Which of the following statements characterizes the diagnosis of urinary tract infection in children best of all?
A. The presence of fever localized the infection to the renal parenchyma
B. The diagnosis is likely if there is pyuria with more than 10 white blood cells per high-power field
C. The diagnosis is likely if a clean-catch specimen shows 10 5 organisms of a single species
D. Diagnosis is difficult because the typical causative organisms grow poorly in culture
E. Vesicoureteral reflux localized the infection to the lower urinary tract
109. Dysuria, frequency, urgency are the most common signs of:
A. Cystitis
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Renal failure
E. Diabetes insipidus
110. The granulocyte with two lobes that responds phagocytically to allergens and parasites is:
A. macrophage
B. eosinophil
C. basophil
D. leucocyte
E. erythrocyte
111. The most common cause of macrocytic anemias is:
A. defects of heme synthesis
B. iron deficiency
C. nutritional
D. vitamin B 12 deficiency
E. chronic inflammation
112. The most common anemia in children is:
A. sideroblastic anemia
B. thalassemias
C. hemolytic anemias
D. vitamin B 12 deficiency
E. iron deficiency anemia
113. The microcytic anemias is associated with:
A. hemolytic disordes
B. iron deficiency
C. due to toxins
D. nutritional (chronic inflammation)
E. folic acid deficiency
114. A 5-year-old white female has multiple bruises on her lower extremities and oral-mucosal bleeding of 3 days duration.
Two weeks before these signs, she had a mild respiratory tract infection. Physical examination reveals multiple
ecchymoses and petechiae; no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly is noted. The next diagnostic step is
A. COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT
B. prothrombin time
C. bleeding time
D. partial thromboplastin time
E. antinuclear antibody titer
115. The most likely diagnosis for the patient described in Question 6 is
A. leukemia
B. neuroblastoma
C. aplastic anemia
D. IDIOPATHIC THROMBOCYTOPENIA
E. systemic lupus erythematosus
116. A 10-month-old white male presents with a 1-day history of persistent bleeding after cutting his lip slightly. The family
history is unremarkable, and the patient is receiving no medications. Laboratory data reveal a hemoglobin value of 11
g/dL, platelets of 350,000, a prothrombin time of 11.8 seconds, and a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 100 seconds,
which is corrected by mixing of normal plasma. The most likely diagnosis is
A. von Willebrand disease
B. HEMOPHILIA A
C. Hageman factor deficiency
D. aplastic anemia
E. thrombocytopenia
117. A 5-day-old full-term male presents with intense cyanosis, tachypnea, and tachycardia. Physical examination reveals
cyanosis of the skin and mucous membranes; the lungs, heart, pulses, and general examination show no abnormalities.
Arterial blood gas determination reveals a PaO2 of 95 while breathing room air. The most likely diagnosis is
A. transposition of the arteries
B. pulmonary atresia
C. pulmonary hypoplasia
D. METHEMOGLOBINEMIA
E. hemolytic anemia
118. A 1-year-old presents with pallor of 3 months' duration. Past medical history reveals neonatal hyperbilirubinemia that was
treated with phototherapy for 1 week and a father who had a splenectomy at the age of 2 years for unknown reasons. On
physical examination, the child is pale and has splenomegaly (4 cm below the left costal margin). The most likely
diagnosis is
A. sickle cell anemia
B. thalassemia
C. paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
D. SPHEROCYTOSIS
E. iron deficiency anemia
119. A former 28-week premature infant presents with pallor and reduced activity at the age of 14 months. The diet includes
cow's milk and juices. The mother had a history of anemia during pregnancy. The child's CBC reveals a hemoglobin value
of 5.2 g/dL and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 50. The platelet and WBC counts are normal. The reticulocyte
count is 3.2%. The most likely cause of this child's anemia is
A. thalassemia
B. haemoglobin F
C. IRON DEFICIENCY
D. sickle-thalassemia
E. lead poisoning
120. A 3-month-old white female presents with pallor and poor feeding of 1 month's duration. Past medical and neonatal
history are unremarkable, as is the review of systems. She has no history of hematemesis or melena. Physical examination
reveals a heart rate of 170, a grade 2/6 systolic ejection murmur, and triphalangeal thumbs. She has no
hepatosplenomegaly or lymphadenopathy. The most important test to perform as part of the initial assessment is
A. iron and iron-binding capacity
B. ferritin
C. COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT
D. electrocardiogram
E. chest radiography
121. Hemolysis may be characterized by:
A. shortened RBC life span
B. accelerated RBC destruction
C. increased reticulocyte count if the marrow is not suppressed
D. hemoglobinemia ± hemoglobinuria
E. all of the above
122. Coagulation of factor VIII has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. reduced activity in hemophilia A
B. reduced activity in classic von Willebrand disease
C. NEEDED FOR NORMAL PLATELET ADHESION
D. reduced levels in disseminated intravascular coagulation
E. normal level in liver disease
123. The prothrombin time, which is a test of the extrinsic or tissue coagulation pathway, is abnormally prolonged in:
A. hemophilia A
B. von Willebrand disease
C. congenital factor XIII deficiency
D. CONGENITAL FACTOR VII DEFICIENCY
E. congenital factor XI deficiency
124. Coagulation studies on a patient with a bleeding disorder show factor VIII coagulant activity of 10 units/dL, factor IX
coagulant activity of 60 units/dL, and von Willebrand factor activity of 100 units/dL. (Normal range for all three tests is 70
to 150 units/dL.) The bleeding time was 6 minutes (normal <10 minutes). These findings are diagnostic of:
A. liver disease
B. von Willebrand disease
C. HEMOPHILIA A
D. hemophilia B
E. thrombasthenia
125. In differentiating hemophilia from vitamin K deficiency, the most useful laboratory test is
A. PTT (partial thromboplastin time)
B. PROTHROMBIN TIME
C. platelet count
D. fibrinogen concentration
E. bleeding time
126. A 1-day-old full-term neonate manifests ambiguous genitalia. The infant has complete labial fusion and a phallus that
resembles a small penis with hypospadias. No gonads are palpable. The vital signs including the blood pressure are
normal, and the serum electrolytes reveal no abnormalities. The laboratory evaluation of this patient should include
A. karyotype
B. pelvic ultrasonography
C. serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone
D. daily electrolyte determinations
E. all of the above
127. Cushing syndrome in children is associated with all of the following EXCEPT
A. trucal obesity
B. rounded “moon” face
C. purple striae and acne
D. hypertension
E. height is above the 95th percentile
128. All of the following are associated with diabetes mellitus EXCEPT
A. polyuria
B. weight loss
C. polydipsia
D. hyperdlycemia
E. retardation of skeletal maturation
129. A 12-year-old Tanner stage 2 female has weight loss, polyuria, and polydipsia. Her blood glucose level is 1000 mg/dL,
and her blood urea nitrogen (BUN) value is 75 mg/dL. She is tachypneic and has a serum bicarbonate level of 5. It is
estimated that she is 15% dehydrated. Therapy is begun with insulin and aggressive fluid management. Five hours later,
she complains of a headache, has double vision, and quickly becomes unresponsive. The most likely new problem is:
A. hypoglycemia
B. hyponatremia
C. uremia
D. cerebral edema
E. cerebral hemorrhage
130. Long-term complications of type I diabetes include all of the following EXCEPT
A. hypoglycemia
B. retinopathy
C. neuropathy
D. nephropathy
E. hypocalcemia
131. A 12-year-old female has muscle cramps and tingling of her hands and feet unrelated to exertion. When she grabs a door
handle to open the door, she is unable to release her grasp because her hand is in spasm. The most important laboratory
test is:
A. serum glucose determination
B. serum calcium determination
C. electromyography (EMG)
D. nerve conduction velocity testing
E. arterial blood gas determination
132. Physical findings in Graves disease include all of the following EXCEPT
A. motor hyperactivity:
B. cold intolerance
C. tremor
D. weight loss
E. tachycardia
F. smooth, flushed, warm skin
133. Ocular manifestations of Graves disease include all of the following EXCEPT
A. lid lag
B. exophthalmos
C. impaired convergence
D. infrequent blinking
E. detached retina
134. All of the following are commonly associated with congenital hypothyroidism EXCEPT
A. constipation
B. absence of symptoms at birth
C. frequent prolongation of physiologic jaundice
D. temperature instability
E. a palpable goiter
135. A 2-month-old has a temperature of 39.9°C, severe dehydration, but no history of vomiting or diarrhea. He also has
constipation and is constantly crying for his bottle. His serum sodium level is 167 mEq/dL and urine specific gravity is
1.001. The most likely diagnosis is
A. acute tubular necrosis
B. diabetes insipidus
C. diabetes mellitus
D. hydronephrosis
E. adrenal insufficiency
136. Constitutional growth delay is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
A. normal length at birth
B. growth below the third percentile after 1 year of age
C. delayed bone age
D. positive family history
E. insulin resistance
137. A mother and her 14 1/2-year-old daughter come to you because the girl has not begun to menstruate. Findings on her
medical history and complete physical examination are normal. Breast development and pubic hair have been present for
18 months and are normal. Which would be most appropriate?
A. Reassurance that she likely will begin menstruating within the year
B. Laboratory evaluation for systemic disease
C. Urinary estriol determination
D. Buccal smear
E. Referral for psychologic counseling
138. A child is below the third percentile for height. Growth velocity is normal, but chronologic age is greater than skeletal age.
This condition is called
A. primary hypopituitarism
B. secondary hypopituitarism
C. constitutional delay in growth
D. genetic short stature
E. primordial dwarfism
139. An infant is brought to the emergency room with vomiting, lethargy, dehydration, and failure to thrive. Intravenous
administration of fluids is begun. Serum electrolyte values are sodium 124 mEq/L, chloride 88 mEq/L, and potassium 6.8
mEq/L. Serum glucose level is 35 mg/dL. The child is hypotensive and has areas of depigmentation. The most likely
diagnosis is
A. Addison disease
B. Thyroiditis
C. congenital adrenal hyperplasia
D. Cushing syndrome
E. Waterhouse-Fridrichsen syndrom
140. A 6-year-old is shorter than all his classmates. Diagnostic testing supports a diagnosis of isolated growth hormone (GH)
deficiency. All of following are expected clinical findings in this patient EXCEPT
A. normal body proportion
B. a growth velocity of 3 cm/yr
C. mild truncal obesity
D. hypertension
E. delayed skeletal maturation
MODULE 3. FEEDING OF INFANTS AND CHILDREN OVER ONE YEAR OF AGE
1. Benefits of the breast milk composition include:
A. Contains proteins, fats, carbohydrates and minerals in optimal ratio
B. Contains valuable antibodies from mother that may help baby resist infections
C. Contains microelements in necessary amounts
D. Provides the digestive enzymes, vitamins, and hormones that infants need
E. All mentioned above
2. Secretion of colostrum takes place during:
A. The first day after birth of a baby
B. First three days after birth
C. First week after birth
D. Two weeks after birth
E. Three month after birth
3. Compared with mature milk, colostrum contains:
A. More proteins
B. More fats
C. More carbohydrates
D. More water
E. All of the above mentioned
4. Content of proteins in mature human milk is about
A. 0.5-1.0 g/100ml
B. 0.8-1.2 g/100ml
C. 1.1-1.5 g/100ml
D. 1.8-2.5 g/100ml
E. 2.0-3.2 g/100ml
5. Whey proteins/casein ratio in mature human milk should be
A. 20/80
B. 40/60
C. 50/50
D. 60/40
E. 80/40
6. Proteins of breast milk are characterized by:
A. Never cause allergic reactions
B. Contain all essential amino acids for a baby
C. Contain lactoferrine
D. Contain biologically active secretory IgA
E. All of the above mentioned
7. Content of fats in mature human milk is about
A. 3.5-4.5 g/l
B. 4.5-5.5 g/l
C. 5.5-6.5 g/l
D. 6.5-7.5 g/l
E. 7.5-8.5 g/l
8. Content of carbohydrates in mature human milk is about
A. 5-5.5 g/l
B. 6-6.5 g/l
C. 7-7.5 g/l
D. 8-8.5 g/l
E. 9-9.5 g/l
9. First feeding of a newborn baby should be done:
A. During 5 min after the birth
B. During 15-30 min after birth
C. During 2 hr after birth
D. During 12 hr after birth
E. During 24 hr after birth
10. What frequency of feedings is recommended for a baby of the first month of age?
A. 5 times a day
B. 6 times a day
C. 7 times a day
D. 8 times a day
E. Baby should be fed whenever a baby is hungry
11. Which of mentioned methods can be used for calculation of daily food amount in a case of 5-day old baby?
A. Method of calories
B. Finkelshteyn method
C. Volume method
D. All of the above mentioned
E. None of the above mentioned
12. Which of the below mentioned methods can be used for calculation of daily food amount in case of 3 mo old baby?
A. Finkelshteyn method
B. Volume method
A. Zaytseva method
D. All of the above mentioned
E. None of the above mentioned
13. Daily food amount of 3 mo old baby consist of___ part of his body weight:
A. 1/5
B. 1/6
C. 1/7
D. 1/8
E. 1/9
14. Daily food amount of 5 mo old baby consist of___ part of his body weight:
A. 1/5
B. 1/6
C. 1/7
D. 1/8
E. 1/9
15. Which formula is correct for calculation of daily food amount for a baby under 10 days of age?
A. 2 % × birth weight (g) × day of life
B. 3% × birth weight (g) × day of life
C. 4 % × birth weight (g) × day of life
D. 5 % × birth weight (g) × day of life
E. 6 % × birth weight (g) × day of life
16. Which formula is correct for calculation of daily food amount for a baby under 10 days of age with body weight at birth
3,400g?
A. 50 × day of life
B. 60 × day of life
C. 70 × day of life
D. 80 × day of life
E. 90 × day of life
17. How big is the daily requirement of calories for a breastfed baby under 3 mo of age?
A. 120-125 kcal/kg
B. 115-120 kcal/kg
C. 110-115 kcal/kg
D. 105-110 kcal/kg
E. 100-105 kcal/kg
18. How big is the daily requirement of proteins for a breastfed baby under 6 mo of age?
A. 1.0-1.5 g/kg
B. 1.5-2.0 g/kg
C. 2.0-2.5 g/kg
D. 2.5-3.0 g/kg
E. 3.0-3.5 g/kg
19. How big is the daily requirement of proteins for a breastfed baby over 6 mo of age?
A. 1.0-1.5 g/kg
B. 1.5-2.0 g/kg
C. 2.0-2.5 g/kg
D. 2.5-3.0 g/kg
E. 3.0-3.5 g/kg
20. How big is the daily requirement of fats for a breastfed baby under 6 mo of age?
A. 4.0-4.5 g/kg
B. 5.0-5.5 g/kg
C. 6.0-6.5 g/kg
D. 7.0-7.5 g/kg
E. 8.0-8.5 g/kg
21. How big is the daily requirement of fats for a breastfed baby over 6 mo of age?
A. 4.0-4.5 g/kg
B. 5.0-5.5 g/kg
C. 6.0-6.5 g/kg
D. 7.0-7.5 g/kg
E. 8.0-8.5 g/kg
22. How big is the daily requirement of carbohydrates for a breastfed baby of the first year of age?
A. 12-14 g/kg
B. 13-15 g/kg
C. 14-16 g/kg
D. 15-17 g/kg
E. 16-18 g/kg
23. The recommended age of introduction of complementary foods for a breastfed baby is:
A. 4 mo
B. 5 mo
C. 6 mo
D. 7 mo
E. 8 mo
24. Complementary foods should be introduced at the age:
A. 10-17 weeks
B. 17-20 weeks
C. 17-26 weeks
D. 20-26 weeks
E. 26-32 weeks
25. By what age should cereal be introduced into the diet of breastfed baby?
A. 3.0-3.5 mo
B. 4.0-4.5 mo
C. 5.0-5.5 mo
D. 6.0-6.5 mo
E. 7.0-7.5 mo
26. By what age should vegetables be introduced into the diet of breastfed baby?
A. 3.0-3.5 mo
B. 4.0-4.5 mo
C. 5.0-5.5 mo
D. 6.0-6.5 mo
E. 7.0-7.5 mo
27. By what age should meat puree be introduced into the diet of breastfed baby?
A. 3.0-3.5 mo
B. 4.0-4.5 mo
C. 5.0-5.5 mo
D. 6.5-7.0 mo
E. 7.5-8.5 mo
28. By what age should yogurt be introduced into the diet of breastfed baby?
A. 4.0-5.0 mo
B. 5.0-6.0 mo
C. 6.0-7.0 mo
D. 7.0-8.0 mo
E. 8.0-9.0 mo
29. By what age should egg yolk be introduced into the diet of breastfed baby?
A. 3.0-3.5 mo
B. 4.0-4.5 mo
C. 5.0-5.5 mo
D. 6.0-6.5 mo
E. 7.0-7.5 mo
30. At what age can frit juices be introduced into the diet of a breastfed baby?
A. 3 mo
B. 4 mo
C. 5 mo
D. 6 mo
E. 7 mo
31. In artificial feeding baby of the first 6 mo of life does not receive maternal milk at all or it makes _____ and less of daily
amount of food:
A. 1/4
B. 1/5
C. 1/6
D. 1/7
E. 1/8
32. Indications for artificial feeding include all of mentioned below except:
A. Acute viral infection of a baby
B. Mother’s agalactia
C. Death of mother
D. Mother’s HIV infection
E. Mother’s active tuberculosis
33. In which situation formula feeding should be recommended?
A. Baby was born preterm
B. Baby had an episode of allergic skin rush
C. Baby is too weak to suck the mother’s breast
D. Baby has galactosemia
E. All of the above mentioned
34. First-stage formulas are characterized by:
A. They are whey dominant
B. Content of protein does not exceed 1.2-1.4 g/l
C. They are suitable for babies from birth till 6 mo
D. They are easier to digest
E. All of the above mentioned
35. Follow-on formulas are characterized by:
A. They are whey dominant
B. They have higher content of protein (1.5-1.8 g/l)
C. They are suitable for babies from birth
D. They do not contain enough vitamins
E. All of the above mentioned
36. Which of these formulas can be recommended for a healthy 3-mo old baby?
A. Hipp PRE
B. Nutrilon 1
C. Alfare
D. NAN 2
E. All of the above mentioned
37. Which of these formulas can be recommended for a healthy 7-mo old baby?
A. NAN 2
B. Hipp 2
C. Nutrilon 2
D. Nestogen 2
E. All of the above mentioned
38. Which of these formulas can be recommended for a 5-mo old baby manifesting food allergy?
A. Hipp PRE
B. Nestogen1
C. NAN 1 HA
D. NAN 2 HA
E. All of the above mentioned
39. Which of these formulas can be recommended for a baby born preterm with low body weight?
A. Hipp PRE
B. Nutrilon 1
C. Alfare
D. NAN 2
E. All of the above mentioned
40. What frequency of feedings is recommended for a 3-mo old formula-fed baby?
A. 5 times a day
B. 6 times a day
C. 7 times a day
D. 8 times a day
E. Baby should be feed whenever a baby is hungry
41. How big is the daily requirement of proteins for a baby under 6 mo of age receiving the first-stage formula?
A. 1.0-1.5 g/kg
B. 1.5-2.0 g/kg
C. 2.0-2.5 g/kg
D. 2.5-3.0 g/kg
E. 3.0-3.5 g/kg
42. How big is the daily requirement of proteins for a baby under the 6 mo of age receiving non-adapted formula?
A. 1.0-1.5 g/kg
B. 2.5-3.0 g/kg
C. 3.0-3.5 g/kg
D. 3.5-4.0 g/kg
E. 5.0-5.5 g/kg
43. The recommended age of introduction of complementary foods for a baby fed by a first-stage formula is:
A. 4 mo
B. 5 mo
C. 6 mo
D. 7 mo
E. 8 mo
44. Weaning for artificially fed babies receiving a first-stage formula should be started at:
A. 10-17 weeks
B. 17-20 weeks
C. 17-26 weeks
D. 20-26 weeks
E. 26-32 weeks
45. Healthy baby can be fed exclusively by a first-stage formula till:
A. 3 mo
B. 4 mo
C. 5 mo
D. 6 mo
E. 7 mo
46. Mixed feeding is such a type of feeding when baby of first months of age additionally to breast milk is given:
A. Fruit juice
B. Milk cereal
C. Artificial milk formula
D. Vegetable puree
E. Water
47. What of the mentioned below is an indication for mixed feeding:
A. Acute viral infection of a baby
B. Agalactia in mother
C. Mother’s hypogalactia
D. Mother’s HIV infection
E. Mother’s active tuberculosis
48. Hypogalactia should be suspected if:
A. Baby cries after a small period of time after feeding
B. Baby has weight gain less than 500 g in the first month
C. Baby wets less than 6 times a day
D. Baby has dry skin and mucous membranes
E. All of the above mentioned
49. What of the below mentioned can be recommended as additional feeding for a hungry baby of first months of age?
A. Milk cereal
B. Whole milk
C. First-stage formula
D. Follow-on formula
E. All of the above mentioned
50. Which of mentioned formulas can be recommended as additional feeding for a healthy 2-mo old baby?
A. Hipp PRE
B. NAN 1
C. Alfare
D. Nutrilon 2
E. All of the above
51. How big is the daily requirement of proteins for a 4-mo mixed-fed baby receiving the first-stage formula?
A. 4.0-4.5 g/kg
B. 3.5-4.0 g/kg
C. 3.0-3.5 g/kg
D. 2.5-3.0 g/kg
E. 2.0-2.5 g/kg
52. How big is the daily requirement of fats for a mixed-fed baby under the 6 mo of age receiving first-stage formula?
A. 7.0-7.5 g/kg
B. 6.5-7.0 g/kg
C. 6.0-6.5 g/kg
D. 5.5-6.0 g/kg
E. 5.0-5.5 g/kg
53. The best age of introduction of complementary foods for a mixed-fed baby receiving the first-stage formula is:
A. 3 mo
B. 4 mo
C. 5 mo
D. 6 mo
E. 7 mo
54. In case of mother’s hypogalactia artificial formula can be given to a baby:
A. After each breastfeeding
B. After every other breastfeeding
C. After the first feeding in the morning and the last in the evening
D. After each breastfeeding except the first and the last one
E. It does not matter when