Module
Diseases of the blood system and the endocrine system in children.
Tests (Текстові тестові завдання)
In acute myelocytic leukemia all of the following correct EXCEPT:
A. Bone marrow examination is essential diagnosis
B. Philadelphia positive chromosome
C. More common in adult
D. It is worse prognosis than chronic myeloid leukemia
E. Persons with Down’s syndrome have higher risk of AML development
ANSWER: B.
The philadelphia chromosome observed in 90 % of patients with:
A. Chronic myeloid leukemia
B. Acute lymphoid leukemia
C. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D. Acute myeloid leukaemia
E. Chronic lymphoid leukaemia
ANSWER: A.
What is name of the first stage of leukaemia treatment?
A. Maintenance of remission
B. Consolidation of remission
C. Induction of remission
D. Subclinical CNS leukemia prophylaxis
E. Prophylaxis of relapse
ANSWER: C.
What is name of the second stage of leukaemia treatment?
A. Maintenance of remission
B. Subclinical CNS leukemia prophylaxis
C. Induction of remission
D. Consolidation of remission
E. Prophylaxis of relapse
ANSWER: D.
What is name of the third stage of leukaemia treatment?
A. Maintenance of remission
B. Consolidation of remission
C. Induction of remission
D. Subclinical CNS leukemia prophylaxis
E. Prophylaxis of relapse
ANSWER: A.
What is normal lymphoblast concentration in bone marrow?
A. Not more than 1 %
B. Not more than 5 %
C. Not more than 25 %
D. Not more than 35 %
E. Not more than 50 %
ANSWER: B.
What test is definitive for leukemia diagnostic?
A. Lymph node biopsy
B. CT-scan
C. Complete blood count
D. Bone marrow smear
E. Coagulogram
ANSWER: D.
The atrophyc glossitis is the typical symptom of the:
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Acute leukemia
C. B12-deficiency anemia
D. Iron-deficiency anemia
E. ITP
ANSWER: C.
The highest hemoglobin level normally is present in:
A. Newborns
B. Six months old infants
C. Adolescence
D. Young adult male
E. Pregnant woman
ANSWER: A.
All the following can be associated with sickle cell anemia EXCEPT:
A. Vaso-occlusive crisis
B. Infection
C. Bleeding disease
D. Splenic sequestration
E. Acute chest syndrome
ANSWER: C.
Choose the essential links of a hemostasis:
A. Vascular integrity
B. Qualitative and quantative characteristics of platelets
C. Presence of coagulation factors in blood
D. All is incorrect
E. All is correct
ANSWER: E.
What is the synonym of the Schonlein-Henoch purpura?
A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Von Willebrand disease
C. Hemorrhagic vasculitis
D. Fanconi pancytopenia
E. Allergic dermatitis
ANSWER: C.
What is NOT the synonym of the hemorrhagic vasculitis?
A. Von Willebrand disease
B. Schonlein-Henoch purpura
C. Allergic angiitis
D. Anaphylactoid purpura
E. Henoch-Schonlein disease
ANSWER: A.
All the following disorders are associated with prolonged bleeding time EXEPT:
A. Hemophilia A
B. von Willebrand’s disease
C. Aspirin-induced thrombocytopathia
D. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
E. ITP
ANSWER: A.
Choose the correct statement concerning ITP in children:
A. 60 to 80 % of children who present with acute ITP will have spontaneous resolution of their ITP within 6 mo
B. Less than 1 % will develop intracranial hemorrhage
C. About 10 to 20 % of children who present with acute ITP go on to develop chronic ITP
D. The presence of abnormal finding such as hepatosplenomegaly or remarkable lymphadenopathy suggests another
diagnosis
E. All is correct
ANSWER: E.
What maximal level of thrombocytes is suggestive for ITP?
A. Less than 250,000/mm3
B. Less than 180,000/mm3
C. Less than 150,000/mm3
D. Less than 100,000/mm3
E. Less than 50,000/mm3
ANSWER: C.
What laboratory findings are typical for acute ITP?
A. Anemia and thrombocytopenia
B. Isolated thrombocytopenia
C. Thrombocytopenia and leukocytosis
D. Thrombocytopenia and leucopenia
E. Presence of blasts
ANSWER: B.
What bone marrow examination results are typical for acute ITP?
A. Normal granulocytic and erythrocytic series with increased number of megakaryocytes
B. Decreased granulocytic, erythrocytic and megakaryocytic series
C. Increased granulocytic, erythrocytic and megakaryocytic series
D. Decreased granulocytic and erythrocytic series with increased number of megakaryocytes
E. Increased granulocytic and erythrocytic series with decreased number of megakaryocytes
ANSWER: A.
What rush characteristics are typical for ITP?
A. Polymorphous
B. Polychromatic
C. Asymmetric
D. Petechiae and purpura
E. All is correct
ANSWER: E.
Which rush characteristic is NOT typical for ITP?
A. Polymorphous
B. Polychromatic
C. Symmetric
D. Petechial
E. Purpuric
ANSWER: C.
What is normal bleeding time by Duke?
A. 30-60 sec
B. 1-2 min
C. 2-5 min
D. 5-10 min
E. 10-15 min
ANSWER: C.
What is normal clotting time by Lee-White?
A. 30-60 sec
B. 1-2 min
C. 2-5 min
D. 5-10 min
E. 10-15 min
ANSWER: D.
What medicines are the most effective in ITP treatment?
A. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) and prednisone
B. Antibiotics and non-steroid anti-inflammatory
C. Slow acting antirheumatoid drugs (SAARDS) and cytostatics
D. Whole blood transfusion
E. Bone marrow transplantation
ANSWER: A.
What is usual prednisolone dose for ITP treatment?
A. 0,1-0,2 mg/ kg/day
B. 1-2 mg/ kg/day
C. 3-4 mg/ kg/day
D. 10 mg/ kg/weekly
E. 30 mg/ kg/day
ANSWER: B.
What does NOT include supportive care in acute ITP?
A. Restriction of physical activities
B. Avoidance of aspirin
C. Avoidance of intramuscular injections
D. Daily massages
E. Hypoallergic diet
ANSWER: D.
Choose the optimal age for splenectomy in ITP (in case of need):
A. Till 1 year
B. 1-2 years
C. 3-4 years
D. 4-5 years
E. After 6 years
ANSWER: E.
Intracranial hemorrhage in ITP is the most common when platelets count is:
A. More 50,000/mm3
B. Below 50,000/mm3
C. More 20,000/mm3
D. Below 20,000/mm3
E. Below 100,000/mm3
ANSWER: D.
The classic triad of the Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome includes:
A. Thrombocytopenia, mental retardation and immunodeficiency
B. Thrombocytosis, mental retardation and immunodeficiency
C. Thrombocytopenia, eczema and immunodeficiency
D. Thrombocytosis, eczema and immunodeficiency
E. Thrombocytopenia, eczema and seizures
ANSWER: C.
What is the etiology of the Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome:
A. X-linked recessive
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Autosomal dominant
D. Infectious
E. Autoimmune
ANSWER: A.
What is the synonym of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?
A. Von Willebrand's disease
B. Werlhof’s disease
C. Schonlein-Henoch purpura
D. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
E. All is incorrect
ANSWER: B.
What symptom is the most indicative for platelets problems?
A. Delayed bleeding from old wounds
B. Hemorrhage into joint space
C. Bleeding from multiple sites
D. Presence of petechiae on skin and mucosal surfaces
E. Gastrointestinal bleeding
ANSWER: D.
The reason of hemophilia A is:
A. Factor VII deficiency
B. Factor VIII deficiency
C. Factor IX deficiency
D. Factor XI deficiency
E. Vitamin K deficiency
ANSWER: B.
The reason of hemophilia B is:
A. Factor VII deficiency
B. Factor VIII deficiency
C. Factor IX deficiency
D. Factor XI deficiency
E. Vitamin XII deficiency
ANSWER: C.
The reason of hemophilia C is:
A. Factor VII deficiency
B. Factor VIII deficiency
C. Factor IX deficiency
D. Factor XI deficiency
E. Vitamin XII deficiency
ANSWER: D.
Which organ involvement is typical for Schoenlein-Henoch purpura?
A. Kidneys
B. Gastro-intestinal tract
C. Musculosceletal system
D. Scrotum
E. All is correct
ANSWER: E.
Scrotal involvement with epididimidis, orchitis, testicular torsion and scrotal bleeding are typical for the:
A. von Willebrand’s disease
B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Hemophilia A
D. Hemorrhagic vasculitis
E. ITP
ANSWER: D.
Renal involvement which ranges in severity from microscopic hematuria to nephritic syndrome is typical for the:
A. Schoenlein-Henoch purpura
B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Hemophilia A
D. von Willebrand’s disease
E. Werlhof’s disease
ANSWER: A.
Joint involvement with periarticular swelling of the knees, ankles, wrists and elbows is typical for the:
A. Schonlein-Henoch purpura
B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Hemophilia A
D. von Willebrand’s disease
E. Werlhof’s disease
ANSWER: A.
What is the main etiologic medicine in thyroid storm?
A. Insulin
B. Methimazole
C. Propranolol
D. Propylthiouracil
E. Prednisone
ANSWER: D.
What is the alternative (second) etiologic medicine in thyroid storm?
A. Insulin
B. Methimazole
C. Propranolol
D. Propylthiouracil
E. Prednisone
ANSWER: B.
What is the medicine for minimizing of tachycardia and hypertension in thyroid storm?
A. Dopamin
B. Methimazole
C. Propranolol
D. Propylthiouracil
E. Prednisone
ANSWER: C.
What symptom is NOT typical for Grave’s disease?
A. Nervousness
B. Moist skin
C. Bradycardia
D. Tremor
E. Exophthalmia
ANSWER: C.
What symptom is NOT typical for Grave’s disease?
A. Mental retardation
B. Moist skin
C. Tachycardia
D. Tremor
E. Exophthalmia
ANSWER: A.
What symptom is typical for Grave’s disease?
A. Jaundice
B. Moist skin
C. Bradycardia
D. Mental retardation
E. Obesity
ANSWER: B.
What symptom is typical for Grave’s disease?
A. Obesity
B. Dry skin
C. Bradycardia
D. Mental retardation
E. Tremor
ANSWER: E.
Name the target organ of somatotropic hormone?
A. Bone
B. Mammary gland
C. Testis
D. Stomach
E. Thyroid gland
ANSWER: A.
Glucocorticoids are produced by:
A. Cortex of adrenal glands
B. Zona glomerulosa of adrenal glands
C. Zona reticularis of adrenal glands
D. Zona fasciculata and reticularis of adrenal glands
E. Medulla of adrenal glands
ANSWER: A.
What glands are the regulators of all endocrine system?
A. Hypothalamus and hypophysis
B. Hypophysis and epiphysis
C. Hypothalamus and epiphysis
D. Hypothalamus, hypophysis and epiphysis
E. Hypothalamus
ANSWER: A.
What are the clinical features of Addison’s disease?
A. Pale color of skin, fatigue, sexual development retardation, obesity
B. Dry skin, thirst, polyuria, weight loss
C. Moist skin, ophthalmic symptoms, tachycardia
D. Dry skin, edemas, mental development retardation, bradycardia
E. Dark color of skin, fatigue, weight loss, hypotension
ANSWER: E.
What is another name of Addison’s disease?
A. Chronic adrenal insufficiency
B. Congenital hypothyroidism
C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
D. Acquired hyperthyroidism
E. Hyperadrenocorticism
ANSWER: A.
What is another name of Cushing syndrome?
A. Chronic adrenal insufficiency
B. Congenital hyperaldosteronism
C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
D. Acquired hyperthyroidism
E. Hyperadrenocorticism
ANSWER: E.
What are the clinical features of Cushing syndrome?
A. Purple striae on skin, fatigue, hirsutism, obesity
B. Dry skin, thirst, polyuria, weight loss
C. Moist skin, ophthalmic symptoms, tachycardia
D. Dry skin, edemas, mental development retardation, bradycardia
E. Dark color of skin, fatigue, weight loss, hypotension
ANSWER: A.
What is laboratory method of Cushing syndrome diagnostic?
A. Serum calcium estimation
B. Estimation of 17-ketosteroids level in urine
C. Iodine excretion test
D. Glucose tolerance test (GTT)
E. 24-hour urine test for free cortisol
ANSWER: E.
What is laboratory method of Addison’s disease diagnostic?
A. Estimation of electrolytes and cortisol level in plasma
B. Estimation of 17-ketosteroids level in urine
C. The measurement of 17-hydroxyprogesterone in serum
D. Glucose tolerance test (GTT)
E. Dexamethasone suppression test
ANSWER: A.
What are the clinical features of hypothyroidism?
A. Pale color of skin, fatigue, sexual development retardation, obesity
B. Dry skin, thirst, polyuria, weight loss
C. Moist skin, ophthalmic symptoms, tachycardia
D. Dry skin, edemas, mental development retardation, bradycardia
E. Dark color of skin, fatigue, weight loss, hypotension
ANSWER: D.
What is another name of Grave’s disease?
A. Chronic adrenal insufficiency
B. Congenital hypothyroidism
C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
D. Acquired hyperthyroidism
E. Hyperadrenocorticism
ANSWER: D.
What is another name of mixedema?
A. Chronic adrenal insufficiency
B. Acquired hypothyroidism
C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
D. Congenital hypothyroidism
E. Hyperadrenocorticism
ANSWER: B.
What examination is the most helpful to prove the diagnosis of congenital hypothyroidism?
A. Ultrasound of thyroid gland
B. Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C. Serum iodine
D. MRI of thyroid gland
E. Excretion of iodine with urine
ANSWER: B.
What examination is the most helpful to prove the diagnosis of endemic goiter?
A. Ultrasound of thyroid gland
B. Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C. Serum iodine
D. MRI of thyroid gland
E. Excretion of cortisol with urine
ANSWER: C.
What are the clinical features of Grave’s disease?
A. Pale color of skin, fatigue, sexual development retardation, obesity
B. Dry skin, thirst, polyuria, weight loss
C. Moist skin, ophthalmic symptoms, tachycardia
D. Dry skin, edemas, mental development retardation, bradycardia
E. Dark color of skin, fatigue, weight loss, hypotension
ANSWER: C.
Choose the correct statement about hormones in Grave’s disease?
A. Increase T3 and T4, increase TSH
B. Increase T3 and T4, decrease TSH
C. Increase T3 and T4, normal TSH
D. Decrease T3 and T4, increase TSH
E. Normal T3 and T4, decrease TSH
ANSWER: B.
Choose the correct statement about hormones in congenital hypothyroidism?
A. Increase T3 and T4, increase TSH
B. Increase T3 and T4, decrease TSH
C. Increase T3 and T4, normal TSH
D. Decrease T3 and T4, increase TSH
E. Normal T3 and T4, decrease TSH
ANSWER: D.
What is another name of Hashimoto disease?
A. Autoimmune thyroiditis
B. Acquired hypothyroidism
C. Endemic goiter
D. Congenital hypothyroidism
E. Acquired hyperthyroidism
ANSWER: A.
What is another name of cretinism?
A. Chronic adrenal insufficiency
B. Acquired hypothyroidism
C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
D. Congenital hypothyroidism
E. Hyperadrenocorticism
ANSWER: D.
What symptom is NOT typical for Cushing syndrome?
A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Moon-like face
C. Hirsutism
D. Striae on skin
E. Acne vulgaris
ANSWER: A.
What is typical symptom of mixedema?
A. Polyuria
B. Hirsutism
C. Tachycardia
D. Cold skin
E. Loss of weight
ANSWER: D.
What symptom is NOT typical for mixedema?
A. Mental retardation
B. Hirsutism
C. Bradycardia
D. Cold skin
E. Obesity
ANSWER: B.
What complication can occur after treatment with glucocorticoids?
A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Conn’s syndrome
C. Cushing syndrome
D. Graves’ disease
E. Addison’s disease
ANSWER: C.
What is the typical symptom of hypoparathyroidism?
A. Dry skin
B. Mental retardation
C. Obesity
D. Seizures
E. Exophthalmia
ANSWER: D.
What is the typical symptom of hyperparathyroidism?
A. Mental retardation
B. Osteoporosis
C. Obesity
D. Seizures
E. Exophthalmia
ANSWER: B.
What is the most frequent endocrine pathology in children?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Addison’s disease
C. Goiter
D. Grave’s disease
E. Dwarfism
ANSWER: C.
What is term which describes frequent urinations?
A. Pollakiuria
B. Nicturia
C. Polyuria
D. Oliguria
E. Hypoisostenuria
ANSWER: A.
What is typical for diabetes insipidus?
A. Glucosuria
B. Proteinuria
C. Oliguria
D. Hypoisostenuria
E. Ketonuria
ANSWER: D.
What can be the reason of diabetes mellitus?
A. Excessive intake of sweets
B. Stress
C. Heredity
D. Pancreatitis
E. All is correct
ANSWER: E.
What can be the reason of diabetes insipidus?
A. Excessive intake of sweets
B. Tumor of hypophysis
C. Tumor of adrenal gland
D. Pancreatitis
E. All is correct
ANSWER: B.
What is the most informative laboratory index about diabetes mellitus control?
A. Glucose in blood
B. Glucose in urine
C. Cholesterol in blood
D. Glucosylated hemoglobin
E. Protein in urine
ANSWER: D.
What food should be limited for the first time in patients with diabetes mellitus?
A. Meat
B. Seafood
C. Milk
D. Vegetables
E. Fruits
ANSWER: E.
What is not typical for diabetes mellitus?
A. Pollakiuria
B. Nicturia
C. Polyuria
D. Oliguria
E. Glucosuria
ANSWER: D.
What is term which describes increased amount of urine?
A. Pollakiuria
B. Nicturia
C. Polyuria
D. Oliguria
E. Anuria
ANSWER: C.
What symptom is NOT typical for diabetes mellitus type 2?
A. Polyuria
B. Weakness
C. Polydipsia
D. Dry skin
E. Loss of weight
ANSWER: E.
What is the best laboratory method to prove diabetes mellitus diagnosis if blood glucose level is controversial?
A. Estimation of insulin level in plasma
B. Estimation of glucose level in urine
C. Insulin tolerance test
D. Glucose tolerance test (GTT)
E. Estimation of glucose level in blood several times
ANSWER: D.
What is screening laboratory method of diabetes mellitus diagnostic?
A. Estimation of insulin level in plasma
B. Estimation of glucose level in urine
C. Insulin tolerance test
D. Glucose tolerance test (GTT)
E. Estimation of glucose level in blood
ANSWER: E.
What is the place of insulin synthesis in pancreas?
A. Follicular cells
B. Lutein cells
C. Interstitial cells of Leydig
D. The islets of Langerhans
E. Medullar substance
ANSWER: D.
What should be an initial intravenous bolus dose of regular insulin in diabetic coma?
A. 0.01 U/kg body weight
B. 0.1 U/kg body weight
C. 1 U/kg body weight
D. 1, 5 U/kg body weight
E. Insulin should not be injected intravenously
ANSWER: B.
To estimate severity of the DM doctor should be informed about:
A. Presence of comas on anamnesis
B. Presence of acute complications
C. Current patient’s treatment
D. Presence of chronic complications
E. All is correct
ANSWER: E.
What local treatment contraindicated for the patient with hemophilic joint?
A. Dry heat
B. Cold compress
C. Electrophoresis of aminocaproic acid
D. Puncture blood aspiration
E. Intra-articular hydrocortizone injection
ANSWER: B.
The thrombocytopenia with small platelets size is a particularly important diagnostic clue of the:
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. von Willebrand’s disease
C. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
E. Thrombocytopenic purpura
ANSWER: D.
Hematiric syndrome is the most typical for the:
A. Schoenlein-Henoch purpura
B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Hemophilia A
D. von Willebrand’s disease
E. Werlhof’s disease
ANSWER: A.
What is normal time of plasma recalcification?
A. 20-40 sec
B. 60-120 sec
C. 160-180 sec
D. 200-250 sec
E. 250-300 sec
ANSWER: B.
Choose the thrombocytopathia with thrombocytopenia:
A. Glanzmann’s thromboasthenia
B. Gray platelet syndrome
C. Thrombopathic
D. Dence body deficiency
E. Bernard Soulier syndrome
ANSWER: E.
An infant or young child with ITP, which was undergone splenectomy, has an increase risk of:
A. Thrombocytosis
B. Polycytemia
C. Leukemia
D. Severe bacterial infection
E. Hemolytic anemia
ANSWER: D.
What should be minimal persistence of acute ITP to define it as a chronic ITP?
A. More than 1 month
B. More than 3 - 6 months
C. More than 6 - 12 months
D. More than 18 - 24 months
E. More than 36 months
ANSWER: C.
The 2-years old boy has positive Trousseau and Hvostek symptoms, sometimes seizures, poor hair and nails growth. What
is possible diagnosis?
A. Addison’s disease
B. Hypoparathyroidism
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Grave’s disease
E. Cushing syndrome
ANSWER: B.
All of the following are features of congenital hypothyroidism, EXCEPT:
A. Lethargy
B. Prolonged jaundice
C. Persistent diarrhea
D. Hoarse cry
E. Feeding difficulties
ANSWER: C.
All of the following are features of Addison's disease, EXCEPT:
A. Weakness
B. Anorexia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypertension
E. Hyperpigmentation of the skin
ANSWER: D.
All the following tests are necessary in the diagnostic of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma EXCEPT:
A. Laparotomy with splenectomy
B. Bone biopsy
C. Thoracic scanner
D. Abdominopelvic scanner
E. CBC
ANSWER: A.
What is NOT indication for bone marrow evaluation in ITP?
A. Nasal bleedings
B. If steroid therapy is to be used
C. Other cell lines (besides of platelets) are involved
D. Weight loss
E. Splenomegaly
ANSWER: A.
What is the main source of iron?
A. Vegetables
B. Fruits
C. Milk
D. Meat
E. Bread
ANSWER: D.
What is the most important sign of hemolytic anemia:
A. Hypochromic anemia.
B. Neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Anemia, reticulocytosis
E. Hyperchromic anemia.
ANSWER: D.
What is the most important sign of B12-deficiency anemia:
A. Hyperchromic anemia.
B. Hypochromic anemia.
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Anemia, reticulocytosis
E. Anemia, lymphopenia, monocytopenia.
ANSWER: A.